Human Physiology: Lectures 15-17

Front 1

_____ are the largest group of tissues in the body.

Back 1

Muscles

Front 2

T/F: Blood is the largest group if tissue in the body.

Back 2

False; muscles

Front 3

T/F: 40% of the body by weight is skeletal muscle.

Back 3

True

Front 4

T/F: 40% of the body by weight is smooth muscle.

Back 4

False; SKELETAL

Front 5

T/F: 40% of the body by weight is cardiac muscle.

Back 5

False; skeletal muscle

Front 6

T/F: Skeletal muscle is 10% of the body by weight.

Back 6

False; skeletal muscle is 40% of the body by weight. Smooth and cardiac muscle are 10% of the body by weight.

Front 7

Which muscle is 10% of the body by weight? 40%?

Back 7

Smooth and cardiac; skeletal

Front 8

Skeletal muscle is usually attached to the ___ and used for ___

Back 8

attached to skeleton; used for movement of bones

Front 9

T/F: Skeletal muscles are primarily involuntary and cannot be conciously controlled.

Back 9

False; they are VOLUNTARY

Front 10

The diaphragm, tongue, and muscles that move eyes are examples of skeletal/smooth/cardiac muscle.

Back 10

SKELETAL

Front 11

T/F: The diaphragm, tongue, and muscles that move eyes are examples of smooth muscle.

Back 11

False; they are skeletal muscle

Front 12

T/F: Skeletal muscle is composed of bundles of muscle fibers.

Back 12

True

Front 13

T/F: Skeletal muscle is composed of single muscle fibers.

Back 13

False; BUNDLES of muscle fibers

Front 14

A muscle fiber consists of ___.

Back 14

Individual muscle cell

Front 15

T/F: A muscle fiber is bundles of muscle cells.

Back 15

False; individual muscle cells!

Front 16

Skeletal muscle is composed of ____, which consists of___.

Back 16

Composed of bundles of muscle fibers, which are individual muscle cells

Front 17

Muscle fibers are large/small.

Back 17

LARGE

Front 18

Muscle fibers are ____ um in diameter

Back 18

10-100 um.

Front 19

T/F:Muscle fibers are 100-1000 um in diameter.

Back 19

FALSE; 10-100 um.

Front 20

The cell in a muscle fiber is long/short and extends _____.

Back 20

Cell is very LONG; extends entire length of the muscle.

Front 21

Each cell in a muscle fiber is formed by____ during ______.

Back 21

Fusion of many smaller cells during EMBRYONIC development.

Front 22

T/F: Each cell in a muscle fiber is formed by the fusion of many smaller cells during embryonic development.

Back 22

True

Front 23

T/F: Each cell in a muscle fiber is formed by the fusion of many smaller cells during childhood.

Back 23

False; during embryonic development

Front 24

T/F: Muscle fiber is multinucleated.

Back 24

True

Front 25

T/F: Muscle fiber has a single nucleus.

Back 25

False; multinucleated

Front 26

T/F: Each muscle fiber cell is innervated by a single motor neuron, usually near the middle of the muscle fiber.

Back 26

True

Front 27

T/F: Each muscle fiber cell is innervated by multiple motor neurons, usually near the middle of the muscle fiber.

Back 27

False; SINGLE motor neuron

Front 28

T/F: Each muscle fiber cell is innervated by a single motor neuron, usually near the end of the muscle fiber.

Back 28

False; motor neuron is at the MIDDLE of the fiber

Front 29

Each muscle fiber is innervated by a ___ motor neuron, usually located where?

Back 29

Single motor neuron; located @ middle of muscle fiber

Front 30

Each muscle fiber contains one/many myofibrils.

Back 30

MANY myofibrils

Front 31

What are myofibrils? Where are they located?

Back 31

Specialized contractile units WITHIN muscle cells.

Front 32

Myofibrils make up ___ of the muscle fiber by volume.

Back 32

80%

Front 33

T/F: Myofibrils make up 80% of the muscle fiber by weight.

Back 33

False; 80% of muscle fiber by VOLUME

Front 34

T/F: Myofibrils are located on the membrane of the muscle fiber.

Back 34

FALSE; located WITHIN the muscle fiber

Front 35

Myofibrils are composed of ____

Back 35

Microfilaments (actin and myosin)

Front 36

Why do skeletal muscles appear striated?

Back 36

Myofibrils have alternating dark and light bands. The dark bands are the myosin filament and the overlap of myosin and actin filament. The light bands are actin filaments and Z line.

Front 37

T/F: Smooth muscle appears striated because microfibrils have alternating dark and light bands.

Back 37

False; skeletal muscle appears striated

Front 38

In the myofibril, dark bands consist of what? light bands consist of what?

Back 38

Dark band: Myosin filament; overlap of actin and myosin filament.
Light band: Actin filament and Z line

Front 39

The Z line is the attachment site for actin/myosin.

Back 39

ACTIN

Front 40

T/F: Z line is attachment site for myosin.

Back 40

False; ACTIN!

Front 41

T/F: Z lines are made up of globular proteins.

Back 41

False; filmentuous proteins

Front 42

T/F: Z lines are made of filementous proteins.

Back 42

True

Front 43

T/F: Z lines appear continuous with Z lines of other myofibrils. They line up filaments of the entire muscle fiber, which is why it appears striated.

Back 43

True

Front 44

T/F: Z lines are not continuous with Z lines of other myofibrils. They are jagged but they line up filaments of the entire muscle fiber, which is why it appears striated.

Back 44

False; they are continuous with Z lines of other myofibrils.

Front 45

The ___ is the functional unit of the myofibril.

Back 45

Sarcomere

Front 46

T/F: The Z line is the functional unit of the myofibril.

Back 46

False; sarcomere

Front 47

T/F: The sarcomere is the functional unit of the thick filament.

Back 47

False; functional unit of the MYOFIBRIL!

Front 48

The sarcomere consists of what?

Back 48

Portion of myofibril between two Z lines

Front 49

What two major molecular structures are within the sarcomere?

Back 49

Thick filament (myosin) and thin filament (action, troponin, tropomyosin)

Front 50

T/F: The thick filament of the sarcomere contains several thousand myosin molecules.

Back 50

False; several HUNDRED myosin molecules

Front 51

T/F: The thin filament of the sarcomere contains several hundred myosin molecules.

Back 51

False; this is the THICK filament

Front 52

The thick filament of the sarcomere contains several hundred myosin molecules, which contain __ subunits. Each is shaped like a golf club with a head that acts as what?

Back 52

Myosin molecule: 2 subunits. Golfclub head acts as a crossbridge between actin and myosin

Front 53

The two subunits of the myosin molecule act as what?

Back 53

Cross bridge between actin and myosin

Front 54

The head of the myosin molecule has __ active sites. What are they?

Back 54

2 active sites; actin binding site and myosin ATPase site (for binding and cleaving ATP)

Front 55

T/F: The myosin molecule has two active sites in its tail region.

Back 55

False; active sites are in the head region

Front 56

T/F: The myosin molecule contains two active sites, the actin binding site and the myosin ATPase site.

Back 56

True

Front 57

The thin filament of the sarcomere consists of what three molecules?

Back 57

Actin, troponin, tropomyposin

Front 58

T/F: The actin helix of the thin filament is composed of actin molecules, which are globular proteins.

Back 58

True

Front 59

T/F: The actin helix of the thick filament is composed of actin molecules, which are globular proteins.

Back 59

False; actin helix is in the THICK filament

Front 60

T/F: The actin helix of the thin filament is composed of actin molecules, which are thread-like proteins.

Back 60

False; they are GLOBULAR proteins

Front 61

T/F: The actin molecule has a binding site for the myosin head.

Back 61

True

Front 62

T/F: The actin molecule has a binding site for ATP.

Back 62

False; binding site for MYOSIN head

Front 63

T/F: Tropomyosin is found in the thin filament. It consists of thread-like proteins that lie end to end.

Back 63

True

Front 64

T/F: Tropomyosin is found in the thick filament. It consists of thread-like proteins that lie end to end.

Back 64

False; THIN

Front 65

T/F: Troponin is found in the thin filament. It consists of thread-like proteins that lie end to end.

Back 65

False; this is tropomyosin

Front 66

T/F: Tropomyosin is found in the thin filament. It consists of glomular proteins that lie end to end.

Back 66

FAlse; thread-like proteins

Front 67

T/F: Tropomyosin wraps around the actin helix, and acts as a regulatory protein for muscle contraction. They cover binding sites on actin.

Back 67

True

Front 68

T/F: Troponin wraps around the actin helix, and acts as a regulatory protein for muscle contraction. They cover binding sites on actin.

Back 68

False; tropomyosin

Front 69

Covers binding sites on actin.

Back 69

Tropomyosin

Front 70

T/F: Both troponin and tropomyosin are regulatory proteins for muscle contraction.

Back 70

True

Front 71

In a relaxed muscle, intracellular Ca++ is low/high.

Back 71

LOW

Front 72

T/F: In a relaxed muscle, intracellular Ca++ is low.

Back 72

True

Front 73

T/F: When intracellular Ca++ is high, the troponin-tropomyosin complex covers binding sites on the actin helix.

Back 73

False; this occurs when intracellular ca++ is LOW.

Front 74

What mechanism prevents crossbridging between actin and myosin filaments?

Back 74

When intracellular Ca++ is low, troponin-tropomyosin complex covers binding sites on actin helix.

Front 75

What happens to intracellular calcium during muscle contraction?

Back 75

Increase in intracellular Ca++

Front 76

During muscle contraction, what binds to the increased levels of intracellular Ca++? What does this stimulate?

Back 76

Troponin-C; stimulates troponin-tropomyosin complex to undergo a conformational change that uncovers binding sites on the actin helix

Front 77

T/F: After intracellular Ca++ levels increase, actin attaches to binding sites on the myosin molecule.

Back 77

FALSE; HEADS OF MYOSIN attaches to binding sites on ACTIN molecule.

Front 78

T/F: After intracellular Ca++ levels increase, myosin attaches to binding sites on the actin molecule.

Back 78

True. This triggers a conformational change in myosin that causes head to tilt (power stroke). This moves actin filament along myosin filament, thus shortening the sarcomere.

Front 79

T/F: After myosin heads attach to the actin molecule, this triggers a conformational change in myosin, which causes the "power stroke."

Back 79

True

Front 80

T/F: After myosin heads attach to the actin molecule, this triggers a conformational change in actin, which causes the "power stroke."

Back 80

False; this triggers a conformational change in MYOSIN

Front 81

T/F: After the power stroke (tilting), the actin filament moves along the myosin filament, which shortens the sarcomere.

Back 81

True

Front 82

T/F: After the power stroke (tilting), the myosin filament moves along the actin filament, which shortens the sarcomere.

Back 82

False; ACTIN moves along MYOSIN

Front 83

T/F: After the power stroke (tilting), the actin filament moves along the myosin filament, which elongates the sarcomere.

Back 83

False; this SHORTENS the sarcomere

Front 84

T/F: In addition to shortening the sarcomere (by moving actin filament along myosin filament), tilting also releases ADP from myosin head.

Back 84

True

Front 85

T/F: In addition to shortening the sarcomere (by moving actin filament along myosin filament), tilting also releases ATP from myosin head.

Back 85

False; tilting releases ADP From myosin head!

Front 86

T/F: In addition to shortening the sarcomere (by moving actin filament along myosin filament), tilting also releases ADP from actin.

Back 86

False; tilting relases ADP From MYOSIN HEAD!

Front 87

After tilting occurs, where can ATP now attach? What does this cause?

Back 87

To the myosin head; ATP binding causes myosin to detach from the binding site on actin helix.

Front 88

T/F: ATP binding causes myosin to detatch from the actin helix.

Back 88

True

Front 89

T/F: ATP binding causes actin to detatch from the myosin head.

Back 89

False; MYOSIN detatches from actin leix.

Front 90

What cleaves ATP into ADP after it attaches to the myosin head?

Back 90

ATPase region of the myosin

Front 91

T/F: After ATP is cleaved into ADP by the ATPase region of myosin, the head returns to its original nontilted conformation. this puts energy into the system that can be used in the next powerstroke.

Back 91

True

Front 92

T/F: After ADP is cleaved into ATP by the ATPase region of myosin, the head returns to its original nontilted conformation. this puts energy into the system that can be used in the next powerstroke.

Back 92

False; ATP is cleaved into ADP!

Front 93

T/F: After ATP is cleaved into ADP by the ATPase region of myosin, the head tilts. this puts energy into the system that can be used in the next powerstroke.

Back 93

False; it turns into the NONTILTED conformation!

Front 94

T/F: After ATP is cleaved into ADP by the ATPase region of myosin, the head returns to its original nontilted conformation. this takes energy away from the system.

Back 94

False; it puts energy INTO the system!

Front 95

T/F: If Ca++ is present, then the cycle of muscle contraction can occur repeatedly.

Back 95

True

Front 96

T/F: If Na+ is present, then the cycle of muscle contraction can occur repeatedly.

Back 96

False; only if Ca++ is present.

Front 97

Rigor mortis is the stifness of muscles that occurs _____ hours after death.

Back 97

3 to 12 hours

Front 98

T/F: Rigor mortis occurs 24-48 hours after death.

Back 98

FAlse; 3-12 hours

Front 99

T/F: After death, Ca++ leaks into ICF and stimulates contraction.

Back 99

True

Front 100

T/F: After death, Ca++ leaks into ECF and stimulates contraction.

Back 100

False; leaks into ICF!

Front 101

After death, Ca++ leaks into _____ and stimulates ____.

Back 101

leaks into ICF; stimulates CONTRACTION.

Front 102

After death, why do muscles remain stiff?

Back 102

Calcium leaks into ICF and stimulates contraction. Existing ATP is utilized, but no new ATP is generated, and pool of ATP is exhausted due to the lack of ATP. so myosin heads cannot detatch from actin.

Front 103

The motor neuron innervates each skeletal fiber via a ______.

Back 103

neuromuscular junction.

Front 104

T/F: The motor neuron innervates each skeletal fiber via a synaptic cleft.

Back 104

False; via a neurmuscular junction.

Front 105

Neuromuscular junctions are compoesd of what two basic components?

Back 105

Axon terminal of motor neuron; motor end plate of muscle

Front 106

The axon terminal of motor neuron and motor end plate of muscle form what?

Back 106

Neuromuscular junctions

Front 107

T/F: As an action potential travels down a motor neuron, this results in a Ca++ influx in the axon terminal, and AcH is released.

Back 107

True

Front 108

T/F: As an action potential travels down a motor neuron, this results in a Ca++ influx in the motor end plate of the muscle, and AcH is released.

Back 108

False; Ca++ influx occurs in the AXON TERMINAL

Front 109

T/F: As an action potential travels down a motor neuron, this results in a Ca++ influx in the axon terminal, and ephinephrine is released.

Back 109

False; AcH is released!

Front 110

T/F: After AcH is released, it attaches to niotinic receptors on motor end plate, which opens ligand-gated ion channels.

Back 110

True

Front 111

T/F: After AcH is released, it travels along the synaptic cleft and attaches to to adrenurgic receptors on motor end plate, which opens ligand-gated ion channels.

Back 111

False; it attaches to NICITONIC receptors on motor end plate

Front 112

T/F: After AcH is released, it attaches to niotinic receptors on axon terminal, which opens ligand-gated ion channels.

Back 112

False; attaches to nicitonic receptors on MOTOR END PLATE

Front 113

T/F: After AcH is released, it attaches to niotinic receptors on motor end plate, which opens voltage-gated ion channels.

Back 113

False; opens LIGAND GATED ION CHANNELS!

Front 114

T/F: After AcH attaches to nicitonic receptors on MEP, this opens ligand-gated ion channels. This allows for the flux of large amounts of Na+ and smaller amounts of K+ through the membrane.

Back 114

True

Front 115

T/F: After AcH attaches to nicitonic receptors on MEP, this opens ligand-gated ion channels. This allows for the flux of large amounts of K+ and smaller amounts of Na+ through the membrane.

Back 115

False; large amounts of Na+ and smaller amounts of K+ flow thru membrane..generates END PLATE POTENTIAL

Front 116

T/F: The influx of large amounts of Na+ and smaller amounts of K+ generates an end plate potential, which is a graded potential

Back 116

True

Front 117

T/F: The influx of large amounts of Na+ and smaller amounts of K+ generates an end plate potential, which is an action potential.

Back 117

False; EPP is a GRADED POTENTIAL

Front 118

T/F: The end plate potential is much larger than an EPSP in a neuron.

Back 118

True

Front 119

T/F: The end plate potential is much smaller than an EPSP in a neuron.

Back 119

False; much larger than an EPSP in a neuron

Front 120

The end plate potential increases voltage by what?

Back 120

+50 to +75 mV

Front 121

T/F: Action potentials occur in motor end plate regions.

Back 121

False; they don't.

Front 122

T/F: The stimulatory effect of aCH on generting end plate potentials is terminated by aceytlcholinesterase.

Back 122

True

Front 123

T/F: The stimulatory effect of aCH on generting end plate potentials is enhanced by aceytlcholinesterase.

Back 123

False; this terminates aCH activity!

Front 124

T/F: No action potentials occur in motor end plate regions.

Back 124

True

Front 125

T/F: No action potentials occur in motor end plate regions, but they initiate action potentials in adjacent areas of the cell membrane by opening up voltage-gated ion channels in adjacent areas.

Back 125

True

Front 126

T/F: No action potentials occur in motor end plate regions, but they initiate action potentials in adjacent areas of the cell membrane by opening up ligand-gated ion channels in adjacent areas.

Back 126

True

Front 127

T/F: No action potentials occur in motor end plate regions, but they initiate action potentials in far away areas of the cell membrane by opening up voltage-gated ion channels.

Back 127

False; occurs in ADJACENT areas of hte cell membrane

Front 128

T/F: The botulinum toxin, produced by the bacteria Costridium botulinum, blocks the release of aCh.

Back 128

True

Front 129

T/F: The botulinum toxin, produced by the bacteria Costridium botulinum, enhances the release of aCh.

Back 129

False; BLOCKS aCH release

Front 130

Botulism refers to what?

Back 130

Food poisoning caused by Clostridium botulinum

Front 131

T/F: Botulsism refers to muscle paralysis and respiratory failure resulting from botulinum toxin.

Back 131

False; botulism refers to FOOD POISIONING

Front 132

Which substance is considered a biowarfare agent?

Back 132

Botulinum toxin

Front 133

Was used unsuccessfully by the cult Aum Shinriko on three occasions in Japan in the 1900's/

Back 133

Botulinum toxin

Front 134

T/F: Curare was used unsuccessfully by the cult Aum Shinriko on three occasions in Japan in the 1900's/

Back 134

False; this is the botulinum toxin

Front 135

Iraq told the UN it had produced ____ liters of botulium toxiin prior to the 1991 Gulf War, which theoretically was enough to kill the earth's population three times.

Back 135

19,000 Liters

Front 136

T/F: Less than 1 millionth of a gram of botulinum toxin can be lethal.

Back 136

True

Front 137

T/F: Less than 1 thousandth of a gram of botulinum toxin can be lethal.

Back 137

False; less than one MILLIONTH

Front 138

T/F: Botulinum toxin paralyzes muscles, including the diaphragm, and can result in cardiac arrest.

Back 138

False; can result in RESPRIATORY failure

Front 139

T/F: Botulinum toxin is caused by a virus.

Back 139

False; bacteria

Front 140

T/F: Botulinum toxin was the first biological toxin to be liscenced for therapeutic use for hyperexcitable muscles and for deep wrinkles.

Back 140

True

Front 141

T/F: Botulinum toxin was the first biological toxin to be liscenced for therapeutic use for paralyzed muscles and for deep wrinkles.

Back 141

False; for hyperexcitable muscles

Front 142

Used for voice disorders, excessive sweating, and to prevent migraines.

Back 142

Botulinum toxin

Front 143

T/F: Black widow spider venom greatly increases AcH release.

Back 143

True

Front 144

T/F: Black widow spider venom blocks AcH release.

Back 144

False; it enhances aCH release

Front 145

Causes the explosive release of AcH

Back 145

Black widow spider venom

Front 146

T/F: Black widow spider venom causes excessive and prolonged stimulation of muscles, resulting in muscle spasms followed by muscle fatigue.

Back 146

True

Front 147

T/F: Botulinm toxin causes excessive and prolonged stimulation of muscles, resulting in muscle spasms followed by muscle fatigue.

Back 147

False; this is black widow spider venom

Front 148

T/F: Black widow spider venom causes excessive and prolonged stimulation of muscles, resulting in non-stop muscle spasms.

Back 148

False; muscle spasms are followed by muscle fatigue

Front 149

T/F: Deaths from black widow spider bites are common.

Back 149

False; deaths are rare

Front 150

T/F: Curare and a-bungarotoxin block the nicitonic repceptor.

Back 150

True

Front 151

List the mechanism of the following toxins: Botulinum, Black widow spider venom, Curare, and a-bungarotoxin

Back 151

Botulium: blocks AcH release, BWSV: explosive AcH release, Curare and a-bungarotoxin: blocks nicitonic receptor

Front 152

T/F: Curare and a-bungarotoxin prevent AcH release.

Back 152

False; they block the nicitonic receptor.

Front 153

T/F: Curare is a plant extract, and was used on poison arrows in S. America.

Back 153

True

Front 154

T/F: Curare is obtained from frog skin, and was used on poison arrows in S. America.

Back 154

False; it is a plant extract

Front 155

T/F: A-bungarotoxin is a plant extract.

Back 155

False; curare is a plant extract

Front 156

T/F: A-Bungarotoxin is found in the venom of certain posionous snakes.

Back 156

True

Front 157

T/F: Curare is found in the venom of certain posionous snakes.

Back 157

FAlse; curare is a plant exract. A bungarotixn is found in the venom of snakes.

Front 158

How does snake venom block activity in the neuromuscular junction?

Back 158

Block nicitonic receptor; block aCH release

Front 159

T/F: Snake venom blocks NMJ activity by blocking nicitonic receptors, causing explosive release of AcH, or blocking AcH release

Back 159

False; it only blocks nicitonic repceotrs or blocks AcH release

Front 160

T/F: The AP is produced adjacent to the motor end plate and is conducted along the surface of the muscle fiber, but since muscle fibers have a large diameter, it has little or no effect deep into the fiber.

Back 160

True

Front 161

T/F: The AP is produced by the motor end plate and is conducted along the surface of the muscle fiber, but since muscle fibers have a large diameter, it has little or no effect deep into the fiber.

Back 161

False; AP is produced ADJACENT to motor end plate.

Front 162

T/F: Muscle fibers have a diameter of up to 100 um.

Back 162

True

Front 163

T/F: Muscle fibers have a diameter of up to 1000 um.

Back 163

False; 100 um

Front 164

Which structure conducts the action potential deep into the muscle?

Back 164

T tubules, which are an extension of the cell membrane and run perpendicular to the surface

Front 165

T/F: T tubules are an extension of the cell membrane and run parallel to the surface.

Back 165

False; they run perpendicular to the surface! The conduct APs deep into msucel fiber

Front 166

________ carries the AP which stimulates the SR.

Back 166

T tubules

Front 167

The SR is an elaborate meshwork of ___ that surround ___.

Back 167

Elaborate meshwork of tubules that surround MYOFIBRILS

Front 168

T/F: The SR is specialized for intracellular storage of Ca++.

Back 168

True

Front 169

T/F: The T tubules are specialized for intracellular storage of Ca++.

Back 169

False; this is the SR

Front 170

T/F: The SR is an elaborate meshwork of tubules sorrunded by myofibrils.

Back 170

False; they SURROUND myofibrils

Front 171

T/F: Ca++ pumps on SR membrane pump in Ca++ only when intracellular Ca++ levels are high.

Back 171

False; they continuously pump it in

Front 172

T/F: Ca++ pumps on T-tubules continuoulsy pump in Ca++

Back 172

False; they are on the SR membrane

Front 173

Ratio of Ca++ in SR vs in cytosol when muscle is at rest

Back 173

10,000: 1

Front 174

T/F: The ratio of Ca++ in SR vs in cytosol when muscle is at rest is 1 to 10,000.

Back 174

False; the ratio is 10,000 (in SR) to 1 (in cytosol)

Front 175

T/F: The ratio of Ca++ in SR vs in cytosol when muscle is contracting is 10000 to 1.

Back 175

False; this is when muscle is at rest

Front 176

The AP in T-Tubules causes a relase of Ca++ from ______ of SR, which initiates muscle contraction by binding to____.

Back 176

lateral sacts; Troponin C.

Front 177

T/F: The AP in T-Tubules causes a relase of Ca++ from lateral sacs of SR, which initiates muscle contraction by binding to Troponin I.

Back 177

False; it binds to troponin C.

Front 178

What happens to Ca++ when the muscle is at rest?

Back 178

It is actively pumped back into the SR, so Ca++ in ICF is low and there is no binding of myosin to actin

Front 179

T/F: When the muscle is at rest, Ca++ in ICF is high, and it is pumped actively back to SR. No binding of myosin to actin

Back 179

False; Ca++ in ICF is LOW!

Front 180

T/F: When the muscle is at rest, Ca++ in ICF is low, and it is pumped passively back to SR. No binding of myosin to actin

Back 180

False; pumped ACTIVELY

Front 181

T/F: When the muscle is at rest, Ca++ in ICF is low, and it is actively pumped out of the SR. No binding of myosin to actin

Back 181

False; Ca++ is pumped actively BACK INTO SR.

Front 182

T/F: When the muscle is at rest, Ca++ in ICF is low, and it is pumped actively back to SR. Myosin binds to actin.

Back 182

False; there is no binding of myosin to actin

Front 183

Where is smooth muscle found?

Back 183

Walls of many viscera (GI tract, blood, vessles, ureters, uterus)

Front 184

T/F: Smooth muscle forms the ciliary and iris muscles of the eye, pilorector muscles of the skin, etc.

Back 184

True

Front 185

T/F: Smooth muscle is found in the membranes of many viscera.

Back 185

False; found in WALLS of many viscera

Front 186

T/F: Smooth muscle is composed of large muscle fibers in comparison to skeletal muscle.

Back 186

False; SMALL

Front 187

What is the diameter and length of smooth muscle fibers?

Back 187

2 to 5 um in diameter; 20 to 500 um in length

Front 188

T/F: Unlike skeletal muscle, which is multinucleated, smooth muscle has a single nucleus.

Back 188

True

Front 189

T/F: In both skeletal and smooth muscle, actin and myosin are organized into myofibrils.

Back 189

False; NO MYOFIBRILS in smooth muscle

Front 190

T/F: Since there are no myofibrils in smooth muscle, there are no striations.

Back 190

True

Front 191

T/F: Since there are no myofibrils in smooth muscle, there are many striations.

Back 191

False; there are NO striations

Front 192

T/F: In skeletal muscle, actin is attached to proteins called dense bodies.

Back 192

False; this occurs in SMOOTH muscle

Front 193

T/F: In skeletal muscle, actin is attached to the Z line. In smooth muscle, actin is attached to dense bodies.

Back 193

True

Front 194

In which muscle type is actin attached to tropomyosin, but not troponin?

Back 194

Smooth muscle

Front 195

T/F: In smooth muscle, actin is attached to troponin, but not tropomyosin.

Back 195

False; actin is attahed to tropomyosin but NOT tropnin

Front 196

T/F: Smooth muscle has no T-tubules and a poorly developed SR.

Back 196

True

Front 197

T/F: Smooth muscle has no SR and a poorly developed T-tubules.

Back 197

False; no T-tubules and poorly developed SR.

Front 198

T/F: Smooth muscle is specialized for slow, prolonged contractions, rather than fast powerful contractions of skeletal muscle.

Back 198

True

Front 199

T/F: Smooth muscle is specialized for slow, powerful contractions, rather than fast powerful contractions of skeletal muscle.

Back 199

False; slow PROLONGED contractions

Front 200

T/F: In smooth muscle contraction, an action potential running along the smooth muscle cell membrane causes an increase in intracellular Ca++/

Back 200

True

Front 201

T/F: In smooth muscle contraction, an action potential running along the axon terminal of motor neuron causes an increase in intracellular Ca++.

Back 201

False; AP runs along smooth muscle cell membrane!

Front 202

T/F: In smooth muscle contraction, an action potential running along the smooth muscle cell membrane causes an decrease in intracellular Ca++.

Back 202

False; increase in Ca++

Front 203

T/F: In smooth muscle tissue, most Ca++ enters the ICF from the ECF, but some enters from the SR.

Back 203

True

Front 204

T/F: In smooth muscle tissue, most Ca++ enters the ICF from the SR, but some enters from the ECF.

Back 204

False; most enters from ECF, but some enters from the SR.

Front 205

T/F: In skeletal muscle tissue, most Ca++ enters the ICF from the ECF, but some enters from the SR.

Back 205

False; this occurs in smooth muscle tissue

Front 206

T/F: In smooth muscle tissue, after Ca++ enters the cell, it binds to the intracellular Ca++ receptor, the calmodulin receptor.

Back 206

True

Front 207

T/F: In skeletal muscle tissue, after Ca++ enters the cell, it binds to the intracellular Ca++ receptor, the calmodulin receptor.

Back 207

False; this occurs in SMOOTH MUSCLE tissue

Front 208

T/F: In smooth muscle tissue, after Ca++ enters the cell, it binds to the intracellular Ca++ receptor, the nicitonic receptor.

Back 208

False; calmodulin receptor.

Front 209

The Ca++/calmodulin complex activates ______ enzyme, which activates ____.

Back 209

myosin kinase enzyme; which activates myosin

Front 210

T/F: The Ca++/calmodulin complex activates the myosin kinase enzyme, which then activates myosin.

Back 210

True

Front 211

T/F: The Ca++/calmodulin complex activates the myosin kinase enzyme, which then activates actin.

Back 211

False; it then activates MYOSIN

Front 212

T/F: In smooth muscle, once myosin is activated, it binds to actin, which causes a powerstroke.

Back 212

True

Front 213

T/F: In smooth muscle, once actin is activated, it binds to myosin, which causes a powerstroke.

Back 213

False; once MYOSIN is activated, it binds to ACTIN.

Front 214

T/F: Unlike in skeletal muscle, repeated smooth muscle contractions will not occur even if Ca++ is present.

Back 214

False; repeated cycles do occur if Ca++ is present

Front 215

T/F: Skeletal muscle contraction uses more energy than smooth muscle contraction.

Back 215

True

Front 216

T/F: Skeletal muscle contraction uses less energy than smooth muscle contraction.

Back 216

False; it uses more energy.

Front 217

Which muscle type is slow and economical in its contraction?

Back 217

smooth muscle contraction

Front 218

Describe the electrical syncytium of some smooth muscle contraction.

Back 218

Cell membranes of adjacent cells, connected by GAP junctions, allow for ion flow between cells. The depol. of once cell triggers depol. in adjacent cells.

Front 219

T/F: Some skeletal muscle forms an electrical syncytium.

Back 219

FAlse; occurs in some smooth muscle contraction

Front 220

T/F: Some smooth muscle contraction form an electrical syncitium, in which cell membranes of adjacent cells are connected via a gap junction, which allow the flow of ions. Depolarization of one cell initiates depol. in adjacent cells.

Back 220

True

Front 221

T/F: Some smooth muscle contraction form an electrical syncitium, in which cell membranes of adjacent cells are connected via a desmosome, which allow the flow of ions. Depolarization of one cell initiates depol. in adjacent cells.

Back 221

False; GAP JUNCTION

Front 222

Examples of autorhythmic tissue.

Back 222

Smooth muscle in GI tract, cardiac tissue

Front 223

T/F: Only cardiac tissue is autorhythmic.

Back 223

FAlse; some smooth muscle tisuse in GI tract is autorhythmic

Front 224

T/F: Verapamil is a Ca++ channnel blocker and blocks Ca++ influx into smooth muscle cells, which results in vasodilation of blood vessels.

Back 224

True

Front 225

T/F: Verapamil is a Ca++ channnel blocker and blocks Ca++ influx into cardiac muscle cells, which results in vasodilation of blood vessels.

Back 225

False; smooth muscle cells

Front 226

T/F: Verapamil is a Ca++ channnel stimulator and enhances Ca++ influx into smooth muscle cells, which results in vasodilation of blood vessels.

Back 226

False; it is a Ca++ channel blocker, and blocks Ca++ influx into smooth muscle cells

Front 227

T/F: Verapamil is a Ca++ channnel blocker and blocks Ca++ influx into cardiac muscle cells, which results in vasoconstriction of blood vessels.

Back 227

False; vasodilation of blood vessels

Front 228

T/F: Verapamil decreases smooth muscle contraction in BV's, which causes vasodilation.

Back 228

True

Front 229

T/F: Verapamil increases smooth muscle contraction in BV's, which causes vasodilation.

Back 229

False; DECREASES

Front 230

T/F: Verapamil decreases smooth muscle contraction in BV's, which causes vasoconstriction.

Back 230

False; vasodilation

Front 231

T/F: Verapamil is used to lower BP and to increased blood flow through coronary arteries, which reduces angina.

Back 231

True

Front 232

T/F: Verapamil is used to lower BP and to decrease blood flow through coronary arteries, which reduces angina.

Back 232

False; INCREASE blood flow through coronary arteries

Front 233

T/F: Verapamil is used to lower BP and to increase blood flow through pulmonary arteries, which reduces angina.

Back 233

False; increases blood flow from CORONARY arteries, which reduces angina

Front 234

T/F: Cardiac muscle is striated, contains myofibrils, and has a well-developed SR and T-tubules.

Back 234

True

Front 235

T/F: In cardiac muscle, Ca++ binds to troponin C.

Back 235

True

Front 236

T/F: In smooth muscle, Ca++ binds to troponin C.

Back 236

False; smooth muscle lacks troponin. This instead occurs in skeletal and cardiac muscle

Front 237

T/F: In both cardiac and smooth muscle, cells are connected via gap junctions and form an electrical syncitium.

Back 237

True

Front 238

T/F: Cardiac muscle is capable of prodcuing APs at an endogenous rate.

Back 238

True

Front 239

T/F: Intercalated discs connect cardiac cells.

Back 239

True

Front 240

T/F: Gap junctions connect cardiac cells.

Back 240

False; intercalated discs conenct them. These contain gap junctions and desmosomes.

Front 241

T/F: Intercalated dicss are specialized gap junctions that separate muscle cells.

Back 241

True

Front 242

T/F: Desmosomes are specialized cell membranes that separate muscle cells.

Back 242

False; these are intercalated discs

Front 243

Specialized cell membranes that separate muscle cells.

Back 243

Intercalated discs

Front 244

Mechanical conncetions that attach cardiac cells to one another.

Back 244

Desmosomes

Front 245

T/F: Desmosomes are the mechanical connections that attach cardiac cells to one another.

Back 245

True

Front 246

T/F: Gap junctions are the mechanical connections that attach cardiac cells to one another.

Back 246

False; desmosomes

Front 247

T/F: Cardiac action potentials are long in duration (250 msec) and display a plateau.

Back 247

True

Front 248

T/F: Skeletal muscle action potentials are long in duration (250 msec) and display a plateau.

Back 248

False; occurs in cardiac muscle

Front 249

T/F: Cardiac action potentials are long in duration (25 msec) and display a plateau.

Back 249

False; 250 msec

Front 250

T/F: Cardiac action potentials are shortin duration (250 msec) and display a plateau.

Back 250

False; they are LONG in duration

Front 251

How long are cardiac muscle AP's? What is unique about them?

Back 251

250 msec; display a plateau

Front 252

Describe the initial phase of the cardiac muscle AP.

Back 252

Depolarization (rising) phase same as normal AP. Na channels open, causing massive influx of Na. Na channels open and close rapidly.

Front 253

Describe the plateau phase of the cardiac muscle AP.

Back 253

Increased Ca++ permeability due to slow opening of Ca++ channels. This causes a steady influx of Ca++ that maintains a positive ICF during plateau. K and Na permeability remains low during this time.

Front 254

Describe the falling/repolarization phase of cardiac AP.

Back 254

Ca++ channels close. K chanells open.

Front 255

T/F: During the initial phase of the cardiac AP, Na+ rushes in in a massive influx, becasue Na+ channels open and close quickly.

Back 255

True

Front 256

T/F: During the initial phase of the cardiac AP, Na+ rushes in in a massive influx, becasue Na+ channels open and close slowly.

Back 256

False; they open and cloes QUICKLY

Front 257

T/F: During the initial phase of the cardiac AP, Ca++ rushes in in a massive influx, becasue Na+ channels open and close quickly.

Back 257

False; Na+ rushes in in the INITIAL Phase

Front 258

T/F: During the plateau phase of the cardiac AP, there is an increased Ca++ permeability due to slow opening of Ca++ channels (which open/close slowly). This maintains a (+) potential int he ICF during the plateau phase.

Back 258

True

Front 259

T/F: During the plateau phase of the cardiac AP, there is an decreased Ca++ permeability due to slow opening of Ca++ channels (which open/close slowly). This maintains a (+) potential int he ICF during the plateau phase.

Back 259

False; INCREASED Ca++ permeability

Front 260

T/F: During the plateau phase of the cardiac AP, there is an increased Ca++ permeability due to rapid opening of Ca++ channels (which open/close quickly). This maintains a (+) potential int he ICF during the plateau phase.

Back 260

False; Ca++ channels open/close SLOWLY.

Front 261

T/F: During the plateau phase of the cardiac AP, there is an increased Ca++ permeability due to slow opening of Ca++ channels (which open/close slowly). This maintains a (+) potential int he ECF during the plateau phase.

Back 261

False; (+) potential mainained in ICF!

Front 262

T/F: During the plateu phase of the cardiac AP, Na and K permeability remains low.

Back 262

True

Front 263

T/F: During the plateu phase of the cardiac AP, Na and K permeability remains high

Back 263

False; LOW permeability during plateau phase

Front 264

T/F: During the repolarization phase of the cardiac AP, Ca+ channels close and K+ channels open.

Back 264

True

Front 265

T/F: During the repolarization phase of the cardiac AP, K+ channels close and Ca+ channels open.

Back 265

False; Ca++ channels close and K+ channels open

Front 266

T/F: During the repolarization phase of the cardiac AP, Na+ channels close and K+ channels open.

Back 266

False; Ca++ channels close and K+ channels open

Front 267

Why does the cardiac muscle have a prolonged AP? List four reasons.

Back 267

1) Prolonged muscle contraction (300 msec)
2) Prolonged refractory period
These two factors facilitate strong contraction followed by relaxation, which 3) prevents rapid restimulation of the heart muscle which ensures 4) efficient pumping of blood and filling of the heart

Front 268

The prolonged AP of the cardiac muscle prolongs what?

Back 268

Refractory period, cardiac muscle contraction (300 msec)

Front 269

T/F: Diastole is the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle, when the heart is relaxed and filling with blood.

Back 269

True

Front 270

T/F: Systole is the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle, when the heart is relaxed and filling with blood.

Back 270

False; this is diastole. Systole is the contraction phase when the heart empties its blood

Front 271

T/F: Diastolic blood pressure refers to blood pressure in the arteries.

Back 271

True

Front 272

T/F: Diastolic blood pressure refers to blood pressure in the left ventricle.

Back 272

False; blood pressure in the ARTERIES

Front 273

Blood pressure is maintained by what?

Back 273

Elasticity of the major arteries.

Front 274

T/F: The elasticity of the major blood vessels maintains BP.

Back 274

False; elasticity of major ARTERIES maintains BP.

Front 275

T/F: Normal diastolic pressure is around 80 mmHg.

Back 275

True

Front 276

T/F: Normal diastolic pressure is around 120 mmHg.

Back 276

False; 80 mmHg

Front 277

T/F: Systole is the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle. Systolic bp is normally reaches a maximum of 120 mmHg.

Back 277

True

Front 278

T/F: Systole is the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle. Systolic bp is normally around 80 mmHg.

Back 278

False; normal systolic BP is 120 mmHg.

Front 279

T/F: Normal systolic pressure is around 120 mmHg.

Back 279

False; it normally reaches a MAXIMUM of 120 mmHg.

Front 280

List the two types of electrically responsive tissue in the heart.

Back 280

Contractile tissue (does not initiate their own APs), authrhythmic tissue (responsible for initiation and conductance of AP's).

Front 281

T/F: The heart's contractile tissue is autorhythmic, it can generate its own Action potentials without neural innervation.

Back 281

False; contractile tissue in the heart CANNOT initiate its own APs.

Front 282

T/F: In autorhythmic tissue, membranes spontaneously depolarize because Na+ channels leak.

Back 282

True

Front 283

T/F: In autorhythmic tissue, membranes spontaneously depolarize because Ca++ channels leak.

Back 283

False; caused by leak of Na+ channels

Front 284

T/F: In autorhythmic tissue, membranes undergo controlled depolarization because Na+ channels leak.

Back 284

False; depolarization is SPONTANEOUS

Front 285

T/F: Autorhytmic tissue is localized in only the right atria of the heart.

Back 285

False; extensive network all over heart

Front 286

List the depolarizations/min of the following: SA node, AV node, AV bundl, Purkinje fibers.

Back 286

SA node: 70-80/min, AV node: 40-60/min; AV bundle: 15-40/min; Purkinje: 15-40/min

Front 287

T/F: The SA node is an elliptical strip of tissue located in the upper wall of the right atrium.

Back 287

True

Front 288

T/F: The SA node is an elliptical strip of tissue located in the lower wall of the right atrium.

Back 288

False; upper wall of right atrium

Front 289

T/F: The SA node is an elliptical strip of tissue located in the upper wall of the left atrium.

Back 289

False; right atrium

Front 290

T/F: AV node is responsible for pacemaker activity since it has the fastest rate of depolarization; at 70-80/min.

Back 290

False; this is the SA node

Front 291

T/F: The SA node is continuous with contractile tissue of R.atrium.

Back 291

True

Front 292

T/F: The SA node is not continuous with contractile tissue of R.atrium.

Back 292

False; it is continuous

Front 293

T/F: Because the SA node is continuous with contractile tissue in r. atrium, the right atrium depolarizes immediately after the SA node.

Back 293

True

Front 294

T/F: Because the SA node is continuous with contractile tissue in r. atrium, the right atrium depolarizes immediately before the SA node.

Back 294

False; immediately AFTER

Front 295

T/F: Because the SA node is continuous with contractile tissue in r. atrium, the right atrium depolarizes at the same time as the SA node.

Back 295

False; depolarizes immediately AFTER Sa node

Front 296

T/F: Depolariziation is rapidly conducted to l. atrium by the interatrial pathway, so both atria contract simultaneously.

Back 296

True

Front 297

T/F: Depolariziation is rapidly conducted to r. atrium by the interatrial pathway, so both atria contract simultaneously.

Back 297

False; spread to l. atrium through the interatrial pathway

Front 298

T/F: Depolariziation is rapidly conducted to l. atrium by the interatrial pathway, so both the l. atria contracts immediately after the r.atria

Back 298

False; both atria contract simultaneously

Front 299

T/F: After depolarization occurs in both atria simultaneously, it does not spread immediately to the ventricles.

Back 299

True

Front 300

T/F: After depolarization occurs in both atria simultaneously, it spreads immediately to the ventricles.

Back 300

False; it does not spread immediately. Nonconductive connective tissue between atria and ventricles blocks AP transfer from atria to ventricles.

Front 301

T/F: Conductive connective tissue between atria and ventricles blocks the spread of the AP from atria to ventricles.

Back 301

False; it is nonconductive

Front 302

_____ tissue located _____blocks the direct spread of AP from atria to ventricles.

Back 302

Nonconductive connective tissue; located between atria and ventricles

Front 303

T/F: The interatrial pathway blocks the direct spread of AP from atria to ventricles.

Back 303

False; nonconductive CT does this

Front 304

Why is the AV nodal delay advantageous?

Back 304

Allows efficient filling of ventricles

Front 305

The AV node is located _____ and connects with ____.

Back 305

base of right atrium; connects with AV bundle

Front 306

T/F: The AV node is located at the base of the right atrium and connects with the Purkinje fibers.

Back 306

False; connects with AV bundle

Front 307

T/F: The AV node slows the conductions of the AP into ventricles by 0.1 seconds.

Back 307

True

Front 308

T/F: The AV node slows the conductions of the AP into atria by 0.1 seconds.

Back 308

False; slows conductance into VENTRICLES

Front 309

What causes AV nodal delay?

Back 309

Decreased gap junctions; small diameter fibers in portion of AV node tissue

Front 310

T/F: AV node delay is caused by increased gap junctions and fibers with small diameter in a portion of the AV node tissue.

Back 310

False; DECREASED gap junctions.

Front 311

The AV bundle originates _____. It extends into ____ and has ___ Branches. It conveys depolarization ______ to the ____.

Back 311

originates in AV NODE. extends down and through INTERVENTRICULAR SEPTUM and has TWO main branhces. It conveys depolarization to the BOTTOM of the ventricles and to the PURKINJE FIBERS.

Front 312

T/F: The AV bundle originates in the AV node. It extends down and through the interventricular septum and has two main branches. It conveys depolarization down to the bottom of the ventricles to the P. fibers.

Back 312

True

Front 313

T/F: The AV bundle originates in the AV node. It extends down and through the interventricular septum and has two main branches. It conveys depolarization up to the top of the ventricles to the P. fibers.

Back 313

False; conveys depolarization down to the BOTTOM of ventricles to the P. fibers

Front 314

The Purkinje fibers extend throughout ____.

Back 314

ventricular myocardium (muscular portion of heart wall)

Front 315

T/F: The Purkinje fibers extend throughout the atrial myocardium (muscular portion of heart wall).

Back 315

False; VENTRCULAR myocardium

Front 316

T/F: The Purkinje fibers extend throughout the ventricular pericardium (muscular portion of heart wall).

Back 316

False; ventricular

Front 317

T/F: The purkinje fibers are fast conductiong and rapidly spread depolarization from AV bundle to ventricular myocardium.

Back 317

True

Front 318

T/F: The purkinje fibers are slow conductiong and slowly spread depolarization from AV bundle to ventricular myocardium.

Back 318

False; fast conducting

Front 319

T/F: The purkinje fibers are fast conductiong and rapidly spread depolarization from AV node to ventricular myocardium.

Back 319

False; rapidly spread depolarization from AV BUNDLE to vent. myocardium

Front 320

Ventricular contraction occurs from the bottom up/top to bottom.

Back 320

Bottom up

Front 321

T/F: Ventricular contraction is an efficient way to pump blood into the heart.

Back 321

False; it pumps blood OUT of the heart

Front 322

T/F: Depolarization spreads to the aorta after the ventricles depolarize.

Back 322

False; depol. does NOT spread due to the prolonged refractory period in cardiac muscle

Front 323

Basal heart rate is determined by ____.

Back 323

SA node

Front 324

T/F: Basal heart rate is determined by the SA node, but the autonomic NS can increase/decrease heart rate.

Back 324

True

Front 325

T/F: Basal heart rate is determined by the AV node, but the peripheral nervous system can increase/decrease heart rate.

Back 325

False; basal heart rate=SA node. AUTONOMIC NS=increase/decrease heart rate

Front 326

Parasympathetic stimulation stimulates the heart via the ___ nerve, which is the _____th cranial nerver.

Back 326

Vagus nerve, 10th

Front 327

T/F: Parasympathetic stimulation stimultes heart via the vagus nerve, teh 10th cranial nerve.

Back 327

True

Front 328

T/F: Sympathetic stimulation stimultes heart via the vagus nerve, teh 10th cranial nerve.

Back 328

False; this is PARASYMPATHETIC

Front 329

T/F: In Parasympathetic stimulation, AcH is released, and it opens K+ channels in heart tissue, which results in hyperpolarization.

Back 329

True

Front 330

T/F: In Sympathetic stimulation, AcH is released, and it opens K+ channels in heart tissue, which results in hyperpolarization.

Back 330

False; occurs in Paraysympatethic

Front 331

T/F: In Parasympathetic stimulation, AcH is released, and it opens Na+ channels in heart tissue, which results in hyperpolarization.

Back 331

False; opens K+ channels

Front 332

T/F: In Parasympathetic stimulation, AcH is released, and it opens K+ channels in heart tissue, which results in depolarization.

Back 332

False; opening of K+ channels results in HYPERPOLARIZATION.

Front 333

Parasympathetnic stimulation opens/closes Na/K/Ca+ channels, which causes hyper/re/depolarization.

Back 333

OPENS K+ channels, hyperpolarization

Front 334

T/F: Hyperpolarization (as a result of K+ channels opening) causes decreased excitability of SA node, which decreases heart rate, and decreased speed of AV node.

Back 334

True

Front 335

T/F: Hyperpolarization (as a result of K+ channels opening) causes decreased excitability of AV node, which decreases heart rate, and decreased speed of SA node.

Back 335

False; decreased SA node excitability; decreased conduction speed of SA node.

Front 336

T/F: Hyperpolarization (as a result of K+ channels opening) causes increased excitability of SA node, which decreases heart rate, and decreased speed of AV node.

Back 336

False; DECREASED excitability of SA node

Front 337

During sym. stimulation of the heart, ____ is released from sympathetic neurons, or ___ is released from adrenal gland.

Back 337

Norephinephrine: sym. neurons; ephineprile: adrenal gland

Front 338

T/F: During sym. stimulation of the heart, noreph. is released from sym. neurons or eph. is released fromt he adrenal gland.

Back 338

True

Front 339

T/F: During sym. stimulation of the heart, noreph. is released from adrenal or eph. is released from sym. neoruns.

Back 339

false; norep-sym neurons; eph-adrenal gland

Front 340

T/F: Sym. stimulation opens Na and Ca channels.

Back 340

True

Front 341

T/F: Sym. stimulation opens Ca channels only.

Back 341

False; opens both Na and Ca channels

Front 342

T/F: Sym. stimulation opens K+ channels.

Back 342

False; this occurs in parasymp stimulation.

Front 343

Sym stimulation causes increased excitability of ____, which __ heart rate and ___ conduction speed of depolarization, and ___ contraction strength.

Back 343

Inc. excitability of SA and AV nodes; increases heart rate and conduction speed and contraction strength of heart

Front 344

ECG reading is an indirect/direct reading of electrical activity of the heart.

Back 344

INDIRECT

Front 345

Atrial depolarization.

Back 345

P wave

Front 346

Ventricular deplarization (and atrial depolarization)

Back 346

QRS complex

Front 347

Ventricular repolarization

Back 347

T wave

Front 348

T/F: The sinus rhythm is the normal rhythm of the heart produced by the SA node and is 70-80 beats/min

Back 348

True

Front 349

T/F: The sinus rhythm is an abnormal rhythm of the heart produced by the SA node and is 100-150 beats/min

Back 349

False; NORMAL rhythym of 70-80 beats/min

Front 350

Fast heart rate; ECG is normal but fast. Caused by sympathetic stimulation, inc. body temperature, or toxic metabolic conditions.

Back 350

Tachycardia

Front 351

T/F: Tachycardia is caused by parasympathetic stimuatlion.

Back 351

False; sympathetic

Front 352

Slow heart rate; caused by para. stimulation. Can result from decreased body temp, athletic conditioning, or diving.

Back 352

Bradycardia

Front 353

T/F: Tachcardia can be caused by diving.

Back 353

False; bradycardia is caused by diving in MAMMALS.

Front 354

T/F: The heart rate can drop to just a few beats/min (bradycardia) when a person is near death from hypothermia (60-70 F/15-21C)

Back 354

True

Front 355

T/F: The mammalian diving reflex is a sympathetic reflex.

Back 355

False; parasympaethic reflex

Front 356

Describe a PVC.

Back 356

An ectopic focus (abnormal location) of the ventricle depolarizes before the SA node.

Front 357

T/F: Ischemic areas of the heart correspond to a lack of blood flow.

Back 357

True

Front 358

T/F:T/F: Ischemic areas of the heart correspond to an excess of blood flow.

Back 358

False; LACK of blood flow!

Front 359

What can initiate ventricular fibrillation?

Back 359

PVC

Front 360

The most life threatening of all arrhythmias

Back 360

Ventricular Fibrilation

Front 361

Describe ventricular fibrillation.

Back 361

Depolarization propogates around ventricles in an uncoordinated fashion; this movement is slow, so it prevents coordinated refractory peroiod for entre ventricle. No relaxation, coordinated contraction, or pumping of blood.

Front 362

T/F: During ventricullar fibrillation, depolarization propogates around ventricles in an uncoordinated fashion in a slow movement. This prevents a coordinated refractory period by the entire ventricle.

Back 362

True

Front 363

T/F: During ventricullar fibrillation, depolarization propogates around ventricles in an uncoordinated fashion in a very fast movement. This prevents a coordinated refractory period by the entire ventricle.

Back 363

False; SLOW movement

Front 364

T/F: During ventricullar fibrillation, depolarization propogates around ventricles in an uncoordinated fashion in a slow movement. This prevents a coordinated refractory period by the region of ectopic focus.

Back 364

False; prevents coordinated refractory period in ENTIRE ventricle

Front 365

T/F: During ventricullar fibrillation, there is no relaxation phase, no coordinated contraction, and little/no pumping of blood.

Back 365

True

Front 366

T/F: During atrial fibrillation, there is no relaxation phase, no coordinated contraction, and little/no pumping of blood.

Back 366

False; this occurs during VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION

Front 367

T/F: During ventricullar fibrillation, there is a relaxation phase, but no coordinated contraction, and little/no pumping of blood.

Back 367

False; no relaxation

Front 368

A person with ventricular fibrilliation is unconcious within __ seconds, bc the brain needs a constant supply of blood with oxygen.

Back 368

5 seconds

Front 369

Electroshock defibrillation delivers a ___ volt shock over ____ seconds, and is delivered through ___.

Back 369

Several thousand volt shock over a few milliseconds; heart paddles

Front 370

T/F: Electroshock defibrillation delivers a several hundred volt shock over a few milliseconds

Back 370

False; several THOUNSAND volt shock

Front 371

How does electroshock defibrillation affect the heart?

Back 371

Entire heart is synchronously depolarized; it then becomes refractory and can then regain normal heart beat if SA node is first region to depoarlize

Front 372

T/F: During electroshock defibrilliation, the entire heart is synchronously depolarized, and it then becomes refractory. Normal sinus rhythm can then bre restored if SA node is first region to be depolarized.

Back 372

True

Front 373

T/F: During electroshock defibrilliation, the SA node is synchronously depolarized, and it then becomes refractory. Normal sinus rhythm can then be restored.

Back 373

False; entire heart is synchronously depolarized

Front 374

T/F: Electroshock defibrillation can work even on weak hearts.

Back 374

False; only if heart is not too weak

Front 375

Explain what happens after 1 minute of fibrillation.

Back 375

Heart is too weak due to lack of blood flow, which causes lack of ATP, so heart cannot maintain its membrane potentials.

Front 376

T/F: After 1 minute of fibrillation, the heart is weak due to lack of ATP, which causes lack of blood flow, so the heart cannot maintain its membrane potentials.

Back 376

False; heart is weak due to lack of BLOOD FLOW, which causes LACK OF ATP!

Front 377

Why is CPR requried prior to electroshock?

Back 377

Restores oxygenated blood flow; which allows heart cells to produce ATP and re-establish membrane potentials.

Front 378

CPR is required prior to electroshock because it restores oxygenated blood flow, which allows heart cells to do what 2 things?

Back 378

Heart cells can produce ATP, which allows them to now re-establish membrane potentials

Front 379

Heart valves prevent the ___ flow of blood, which facilitiates the one-way fow of blood.

Back 379

Backflow

Front 380

T/F: The triscuspid and bicuspid valve are AV valves.

Back 380

True

Front 381

T/F: The triscuspid and bicuspid valve are semilunar.

Back 381

False; they are AV valves.

Front 382

T/F: The tricuspid valve is between the right atria/right ventrcle.

Back 382

True

Front 383

T/F: The bicuspid valve is between the right atria/right ventrcle.

Back 383

False; bicuspid (left atria/vent) tricuspid (right atria/vent)

Front 384

Which valve is also known as the mitral valve?

Back 384

Bicuspid valve

Front 385

T/F: The semilunar vavles are between the ventricles and aorta or pulmonary artetry

Back 385

.True

Front 386

T/F: The semilunar vavles are between the atria and aorta or pulmonary artetry

Back 386

False; between VENTRICLES and aorta or pul. artery

Front 387

When are the AV valves open and SL valves closed?

Back 387

After ventricular contraction; before atrial contraction (Period between T wave and next P wave)

Front 388

T/F: After ventricular cont and before atrial cont (between T wave and next P wave), the AV valve is open and the SL valve is closed.

Back 388

True

Front 389

T/F: After ventricular cont and before atrial cont (between T wave and next P wave), the AV valve is closed and the SL valve is open.

Back 389

False; AV open; SL closed

Front 390

T/F: After atrial cont and before vent cont (between T wave and next P wave), the AV valve is open and the SL valve is closed.

Back 390

False; After VENT, Before ATRIAL

Front 391

At what point in the cardiac cycle is the ventricle mostly filled with blood from the atria?

Back 391

After ventricular contraction and before atrial contraction (between T wave and next P wave); AV valve is open and SL valve is closed

Front 392

T/F: After ventricular contraction and before atrial contraction (between end of T wave and before next P wave), the ventricles are passively filled with blood from atria; and get 75% filled.

Back 392

True

Front 393

T/F: After ventricular contraction and before atrial contraction (between end of T wave and before next P wave), the ventricles are actively filled with blood from atria; and get 75% filled.

Back 393

False; passive filling

Front 394

T/F: After ventricular contraction and before atrial contraction (between end of T wave and before next P wave), the ventricles are actively filled with blood from atria; and get 25% filled.

Back 394

False; 75% filled

Front 395

Atrial depolarization, followed by atrial contraction will pump blood into ventricles, the remaining __% of the total.

Back 395

25%

Front 396

T/F: Atrial depolarization (P wave) followed by ventricular depolarization will pump blood into ventricles, the remaining 25% of the total.

Back 396

False; at. depolarization, followed by ATRIAL CONTRACTION

Front 397

T/F: Atrial repolarization (QRS complex) followed by atrial contraction will pump blood into ventricles, the remaining 25% of the total.

Back 397

False; atrial depolarization (P wave) folllowed by atrial contraction

Front 398

What closes the AV valve?

Back 398

Depolarization of ventriccles (QRS complex), followed by Ventricle contraction

Front 399

T/F: Ventricular depolarization and contraction (QRS complex) closes the AV valve by increasing pressure in the ventricles.

Back 399

True

Front 400

T/F: Ventricular depolarization and contraction (QRS complex) opens the AV valve by decreasing pressure in ventricles.

Back 400

False; it CLOSES the AV valve by INCREASING pressure in ventricles.

Front 401

The AV valve closes when ______depolarize and contract which ____ their pressure.

Back 401

Ventricles depolarize and contract; increases their pressure

Front 402

Describe the initial isovolumetric phase of ventricular contraction.

Back 402

pressure in ventricles increases, but there is no flow of blood from ventricles

Front 403

As pressure in the ventricles increases, it becomes ___ than pressure in the ___ and ____.

Back 403

GREATER than pressure in the aorta and pulmonary artery, which is around 80 mmHg

Front 404

T/F: As pressure in the ventricle increases, it becomes greater than pressure in aorta and PA (greater than diiastoloic pressure of 80 mm Hg)

Back 404

True

Front 405

T/F: As pressure in the ventricle increases, it becomes greater than pressure in aorta and PA (greater than systolic pressure of 80 mm Hg)

Back 405

False; DIASTOLIC pressure

Front 406

T/F: As pressure in the ventricle increases, it becomes greater than pressure in aorta and PA (greater than diiastoloic pressure of 120 mm Hg)

Back 406

false; 80 mm Hg

Front 407

T/F: During the ejection phase of ventricular contraction, SL vavles open and blood is pumped out of ventricles.

Back 407

True

Front 408

T/F: During the ejection phase of ventricular contraction, AV valves open and blood is pumped out of ventricles.

Back 408

False; SL valves open

Front 409

T/F: During the ejection phase of ventricular contraction, SL valves close and blood is pumped out of ventricles.

Back 409

False; SL valves open!

Front 410

After the ventricle ejects blood, what happens to the pressure in the aorta?

Back 410

It increases to maximum SYSTOLIC pressure

Front 411

T/F: After the ventricle ejects blood, the pressure in the aorta increases to max. systolic pressure.

Back 411

True

Front 412

T/F: After the ventricle ejects blood, the pressure in the pulmonary artery increases to max. systolic pressure.

Back 412

False; pressure in AORTA

Front 413

T/F: After the ventricle ejects blood, the pressure in the aorta increases to diastolic pressure.

Back 413

False; increases to max. SYSTOLIC pressure

Front 414

T/F: After the aorta has increased to maximum systolic pressure, the ventricles repolarize (T wave) and relax.

Back 414

True

Front 415

T/F: After the aorta has increased to maximum systolic pressure, the ventricles repolarize (P wave) and relax.

Back 415

False; T wave

Front 416

T/F: After the aorta has increased to maximum systolic pressure, the ventricles depolarize (P wave) and relax. As the pressure in the ventricles decreases below the pressure in the aorta and pulmonary artery, the SL valves close

Back 416

False; REPOLARIZE

Front 417

T/F: After the aorta has increased to maximum systolic pressure, the ventricles repolarize (P wave) and relax. As the pressure in the ventricles decreases below the pressure in the atria, the SL valves close

Back 417

False; SL vavles close when vent. decreases in pressure below aorta and PA.

Front 418

T/F: After the aorta has increased to maximum systolic pressure, the ventricles repolarize (P wave) and relax. As the pressure in the ventricles decreases below the pressure in the aorta and pulmonary artery, the SL valves open.

Back 418

False; SL valves CLOSE

Front 419

When do SL valves close?

Back 419

When ventricle decreses in pressure of aorta and PA (T wave); corresponds to ventricular repolarization

Front 420

When do AV valves open?

Back 420

Pressure in ventricles becomes lower than that of relaxed atria, so AV valves open and ventricle fills with blood.

Front 421

T/F: AV valves open when pressure in the atria is less than the pressure in the ventricles.

Back 421

False; they open when pressure in the ventricles is less than pressure in the atria

Front 422

T/F: Heart sounds correspond to the opening of heart valves.

Back 422

False; CLOSING of heart valves

Front 423

T/F: The 1st heart sound (lub) is the closing of the AV valve, which occurs at the start of systole as the ventricles begin to contract and AV valves close to prevent backflow

Back 423

True

Front 424

T/F: The 2nd heart sound (lub) is the closing of the AV valve, which occurs at the start of systole as the ventricles begin to contract and AV valves close to prevent backflow

Back 424

False; this is the 1st heart sound

Front 425

T/F: The 1st heart sound (lub) is the closing of the SL valve, which occurs at the start of systole as the ventricles begin to contract and AV valves close to prevent backflow

Back 425

False; closing of AV valve

Front 426

T/F: The 1st heart sound (lub) is the closing of the AV valve, which occurs at the start of diastole as the ventricles begin to contract and AV valves close to prevent backflow

Back 426

False; start of SYSTOLE

Front 427

T/F: The 1st heart sound (lub) is the closing of the AV valve, which occurs at the start of systole as the atria begin to contract and AV valves close to prevent backflow

Back 427

False; VENTRICLES begin to contract

Front 428

T/F: The 1st heart sound (lub) is the closing of the AV valve, which occurs at the end of systole as the ventricles begin to contract and AV valves close to prevent backflow

Back 428

False; START of systole

Front 429

T/F: The 1st heart sound (dub) is the closing of the AV valve, which occurs at the start of systole as the ventricles begin to contract and AV valves close to prevent backflow

Back 429

False; LUB

Front 430

T/F: The 2nd heart sound (dub) is the closing of the SL valves. This occurs at the start of diastole when the ventricles begin to relax and SL vavles close to prevent backflow of blood.

Back 430

True

Front 431

T/F: The 1st heart sound (dub) is the closing of the SL valves. This occurs at the start of diastole when the ventricles begin to relax and SL vavles close to prevent backflow of blood.

Back 431

False; this is the 2nd heart sound

Front 432

T/F: The 2nd heart sound (dub) is the closing of the AV valves. This occurs at the start of diastole when the ventricles begin to relax and SL vavles close to prevent backflow of blood.

Back 432

FAlse; SL valves CLOSE!

Front 433

T/F: The 2nd heart sound (dub) is the closing of the SL valves. This occurs at the start of systole when the ventricles begin to relax and SL vavles close to prevent backflow of blood.

Back 433

False; start of diastole

Front 434

T/F: The 2nd heart sound (dub) is the closing of the SL valves. This occurs at the start of diastole when the atria begin to relax and SL vavles close to prevent backflow of blood.

Back 434

FAlse; ventricles begin to relax

Front 435

T/F: The 2nd heart sound (dub) is the closing of the SL valves. This occurs at the end of diastole when the ventricles begin to relax and SL vavles close to prevent backflow of blood.

Back 435

False; start of diastole

Front 436

T/F: 1st heart sounds coincides with latter part of QRS complex.

Back 436

True

Front 437

T/F: 1st heart sounds coincides with initial part of QRS complex.

Back 437

FAlse; LATTER part of QRS Complex

Front 438

T/F: 2nd heart sounds coincides with latter part of QRS complex.

Back 438

False; 1st heart sound

Front 439

T/F: 2nd heart sound corresponds with latter part of T wave.

Back 439

True

Front 440

T/F: 2nd heart sound corresponds with latter part of P wave.

Back 440

false; latter part of T wave

Front 441

T/F: 2nd heart sound corresponds with initial part of T wave.

Back 441

False; latter part of T wave

Front 442

T/F: A stenotic valve is a heart valves that does not completely open; it creates a turbulent flow of blood through the valve that produces a "whistling" sound.

Back 442

True

Front 443

T/F: An insufficient valve is a heart valves that does not completely open; it creates a turbulent flow of blood through the valve that produces a "whistling" sound.

Back 443

False; this is a stenotic valve

Front 444

T/F: A stenotic valve is a heart valves that does not completely close; it creates a turbulent flow of blood through the valve that produces a "whistling" sound.

Back 444

False; stenotic valve does not completely CLOSE

Front 445

T/F: A stenotic valve is a heart valves that does not completely open; it creates a turbulent flow of blood through the valve that produces a "swishy" sound.

Back 445

False; produces a WHISTLING sound

Front 446

T/F: An insufficient valve does not completely shut. Blood flows backward through closed valve (regurgitation) and this produces a "swishy" sound.

Back 446

True

Front 447

T/F: A stenotic valve does not completely shut. Blood flows backward through closed valve (regurgitation) and this produces a "swishy" sound.

Back 447

False; this is an INSUFFICIENT valve

Front 448

T/F: An insufficient valve does not completely open. Blood flows backward through closed valve (regurgitation) and this produces a "swishy" sound.

Back 448

False; insufficient valve does not completely SHUT

Front 449

T/F: An insufficient valve does not completely shut. Blood flows backward through closed valve (regurgitation) and this produces a "whistling" sound.

Back 449

False; insufficient valve produces a SWISHY sound.

Front 450

The ___ and ___ of a heart murmur indicate if it is caused by the AV or SL valves.

Back 450

Timing and sound

Front 451

T/F: A heart murmur is an abnormal heart rhythm.

Back 451

False; heart murmur is an abnormal heart SOUND

Front 452

T/F: The lub-whistle-dub is due to a stenotic semilunar valve.

Back 452

True

Front 453

T/F: The lub-whistle-dub is due to a stenotic AV valve.

Back 453

False; stenotic Semilunar valve

Front 454

T/F: Lub-dub-whistle is due to a stenotic AV vavle.

Back 454

True

Front 455

T/F: Lub-dub-whistle is due to a stenotic SLvavle.

Back 455

False; stenotic AV valve

Front 456

T/F: Lub-dub-swish is due to an insufficient SL valve.

Back 456

True

Front 457

T/F: Lub-dub-swish is due to an insufficient AV valve.

Back 457

False; insufficient SL vavle

Front 458

T/F: Lub-swish-dub is due to an insufficient AV valve.

Back 458

True

Front 459

T/F: Lub-swish-dub is due to an insufficient SL valve.

Back 459

False; insufficient semilunar valve

Front 460

Arteriosclerosis is responsible for __% of deaths in Europe, US, and Japan.

Back 460

50%

Front 461

Major cause of heart attacks and strokes.

Back 461

Arteriosclerosis

Front 462

Arteriosclerosis is believed to be triggerd by an inflammatory response in the ______ due to which three factors?

Back 462

Artery wall; free radicals, oxidized cholesterol, or high blood pressure

Front 463

T/F: During arteriosclerosis, the inflamation in the arterial wall causes the accumulation of cholesterol in aterial walls.

Back 463

True

Front 464

T/F: During arteriosclerosis, the inflamation in the arterial wall causes the accumulation of proteins in aterial walls.

Back 464

False; accumulation of CHOLESTEROL

Front 465

T/F: During arteriosclerosis, the inflamation in the venous wall causes the accumulation of cholesterol in venous walls.

Back 465

False; ARTERIAL wall

Front 466

During arteriosclerosis, cholesterol rich lipid initially accumulates where? What does it form?

Back 466

initially accumulates under endothelium (inner layer of arteries); forms a lipid-rich core

Front 467

T/F: During arteriosclerosis, cholesterol rich lipid initially acumulates above endothelium (inner layer of arteries).

Back 467

false; UNDER endothelium!

Front 468

_____ surround the lipid-rich core produced in arteriosclerosis, and they generate _____.

Back 468

Smooth muscle cells; benign tumor cells

Front 469

T/F: In arteriosclerosis, smooth muscle cells surround the lipid-rich core produced under the endothelium of arteries. They begin to divide and enlarge, which forms malignant tumor cells.

Back 469

False; BENIGN tumor cells

Front 470

In arteriosclerosis, what forms the plaques that bulge into the lumen of the artery and block blood flow?

Back 470

Cholesterol rich lipid core; smooth muscle benign tumor cells

Front 471

T/F: In arteriosclerosis, both the lipid core and smooth muscle benign tumor cells form the plaques that bulge into the lumen of the artery and block blood flow.

Back 471

True

Front 472

T/F: In arteriosclerosis, only the smooth muscle benign tumor cells form the plaques that bulge into the lumen of the artery and block blood flow.

Back 472

False; lipid core AND smooth muscle tumor cells form the plaque!

Front 473

T/F: In arteriosclerosis, the plaque formed by smooth muscle and the lipid core bulges into the mesothelium of the artery.

Back 473

False; bulge into LUMEN of artery

Front 474

When is arteriosclerosis most serious?

Back 474

When it affects arteries of heart and brain

Front 475

T/F: Arteriosclerosis is most serious when it affects arteries of the lungs and spinal cord.

Back 475

False; heart and brain

Front 476

T/F: Arteriosclerosis can cause angina pectoris and heart attacks.

Back 476

True

Front 477

T/F: PVC's can cause angina pectoris and heart attacks.

Back 477

False; this is caused by ateriosclerosis

Front 478

T/F: Angina pectoris results in chest pains due to reduced blood flow in coronary artery. Pain is usually felt in the upper sternum.

Back 478

True

Front 479

T/F: A heart attack results in chest pains due to reduced blood flow in coronary artery. Pain is usually felt in the upper sternum.

Back 479

False; this is ANGINA PECTORIS

Front 480

T/F: Angina pectoris results in chest pains due to reduced blood flow in pulmonary artery. Pain is usually felt in the upper sternum.

Back 480

False; reduced blood flow to CORONARY artery

Front 481

T/F: Angina pectoris results in chest pains due to reduced blood flow in coronary artery. Pain is usually felt in the lower sternum.

Back 481

False; UPPER STERNUM

Front 482

TWo drugs that can treat angina pectoris.

Back 482

Nitroglycerin; verapamil (vasodilation of coronary arteries)

Front 483

T/F: Nitroglycerin and verapamil stimulate vasocnistriction of coronary arteries.

Back 483

False; stimulate VASODILATION

Front 484

T/F: Nitroglycerin produces nitric oxide in smooth muscle in the artery wall resulting in vasodilation.

Back 484

True

Front 485

T/F: Nitroglycerin produces nitric oxide in cardiac muscle in the artery wall resulting in vasodilation.

Back 485

False; produces NO in SMOOTH MUSCLE

Front 486

T/F: Nitroglycerin produces nitrous oxide in smooth muscle in the artery wall resulting in vasodilation.

Back 486

False; it produces NITRIC OXIDE in smooth muscle cells in artery wall.

Front 487

T/F: Nitroglycerin produces nitric oxide in smooth muscle in the atrial wall resulting in vasodilation.

Back 487

False; ARTERY wall

Front 488

Most common cause of death in the US; also known as acute myocardial infarction.

Back 488

Heart Attack

Front 489

Due to lack of blood flow in a portion of the heart; caused by blockage of coronary arteries due to blood clot.

Back 489

Heart Atttack

Front 490

T/F: A heart attack is due to lack of blood flow in a portion of the heart; caused by blockage of coronary arteries due to blood clot.

Back 490

True

Front 491

T/F: Angina pectoris is due to lack of blood flow in a portion of the heart; caused by blockage of coronary arteries due to blood clot.

Back 491

False; this is a heart attack. Angina pectoris is produced by chest pains due to reduced blood flow in the coronary arteries

Front 492

Heart attack is caused by lack of blood flow to a portion of the heart; caused by __________ of _______ due to ____.

Back 492

caused by BLOCKAGE of CORONARY ARTERIES due to BLOOD CLOT

Front 493

In a heart attack, blockage of cor. arteries is caused by a ____ that was initiated by ____.

Back 493

caused by CLOT; initiated by Arteriosclerosic plaque

Front 494

In a heart attack, the blockage of coronary arteries is due to what?

Back 494

Due to A BLOOD clot caused by arterisclerosic plaque.

Front 495

___ of plaque can initiate a blood clot that blocks a coronary vessel. Clot can also break off, travel some distance, and block a coronary vessel.

Back 495

Roughness

Front 496

Roughness of plaque can intiate a _______ that blocks _____.

Back 496

initiate blood clot; blocks coronary vessel.

Front 497

Blockage is referred to ?

Back 497

Thromnboembolsim

Front 498

Stationary clot is ____. Clot that has broke off and is free floating ___.

Back 498

Thrombus; embolis

Front 499

T/F: An embolus is a clot that has broken off and is free floating.

Back 499

True

Front 500

Lack of blood flow to the heart can damage ____, which can lead to what?

Back 500

damages myocardium; leads to fibrilliation or cardiac arrest

Front 501

Lack of spontaneous rhythms in the heart (no heart beat)

Back 501

Cardiac arrest

Front 502

T/F: Fibrillation is the lack of spontaneous rhythms in the heart (no heart beat).

Back 502

False; this is CARDIAC ARREST. Fibrillation is the unsynchronized contraction of heart muscle.

Front 503

When arteriosclerosis produces a thromboembolism in the brain, what can this cause?

Back 503

A stroke (lack of blood flow to a part of the brain)

Front 504

Recovery from heart attack depends on what?

Back 504

Extent of damage, which depeonds on location and extent of blockage

Front 505

T/F: In acute coronary bypass surgery, a blood vessel (vein or artery from patient) is grafted from the aorta to area which has reduced blood flow.

Back 505

True

Front 506

T/F: In coronary angioplasty, a blood vessel (vein or artery from patient) is grafted from the aorta to area which has reduced blood flow.

Back 506

False; occurs in Aoric Coronary bypass surgery

Front 507

T/F: In aortic coronary bypass surgery, a blood vessel (vein or artery from patient) is grafted from the atria to area which has reduced blood flow.

Back 507

False; blood vessel grafted from AORTA

Front 508

T/F: In aortic coronary bypass surgery, a blood vessel (artery from patient) is grafted from the aorta to area which has reduced blood flow.

Back 508

False; blood vessel is vein OR artery from patient

Front 509

How does Aortic Coronary Bypass surgery work?

Back 509

Blood flow bypasses blocked area

Front 510

T/F: In coronary angioplasty, blood flow bypasses the blocked area.

Back 510

False; this occurs in AC bypass surgery.

Front 511

T/F: In AC surgery, blood flow bypasses the blocked area.

Back 511

True

Front 512

In coronary angioplasty, a ___ is inserted in blocked coronary. A ___ is inflated to stretch artery and erode the plaque.

Back 512

Catheter is inserted; small ballooon stretches artery and erodes plaque.

Front 513

T/F: In coronary angioplasty, a catheter is insereted into blocked coronary. A small balloon is inserted to stretch artery and erode plaque.

Back 513

True

Front 514

T/F: In aortic coronary bypass surgery, a catheter is insereted into blocked coronary. A small balloon is inserted to stretch artery and erode plaque.

Back 514

False; this occurs in coronary angioplasty

Front 515

T/F: In coronary angioplasty, a catheter is insereted into blocked coronary. A small balloon is inserted to compress artery and erode plaque.

Back 515

False; baloon STRETCHES artery

Front 516

What structures prevent collapse of artery after coronary angioplasty?

Back 516

Stents

Front 517

T/F: Stents are used to prevent collapse of the artery after coronary angioplasty.

Back 517

True

Front 518

T/F: Catheters are used to prevent collapse of the artery after coronary angioplasty.

Back 518

False; stents

Front 519

Angioplasty and stents have been used in carotid arteries to prevent ___.

Back 519

Strokes

Front 520

Angioplasty and stents have been used in ______ to prevent strokes.

Back 520

Carotid arteries

Front 521

T/F: ACBypass surgery and stents have been used in carotid arteries to prevent strokes.

Back 521

False; Coronary ANGIOPLASTY and stents are used to prevent storkes in carotid arteries!

Front 522

T/F: Angioplasty and stents have been used in coronary arteries to prevent strokes.

Back 522

False; used in CAROTID arteries!

Front 523

What is cardiac output?

Back 523

Volume of blood pumped by each ventricle/min

Front 524

T/F: Cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle per second.

Back 524

False; per MINUTE!

Front 525

T/F: Cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped by both ventricles per minute.

Back 525

False; EACH ventricle/second!

Front 526

CO is dependent on what 2 factrors?

Back 526

Heart rate and stroke volume

Front 527

T/F: CO is the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle each time it contracts.

Back 527

False; this is STROKE VOLUME!

Front 528

Normal heart rate and stroke volume.

Back 528

72 beats/min. 70 mL each beat

Front 529

Normal CO at rest?

Back 529

5 liters/min

Front 530

T/F: Stroke volume is variable and increases with heart rate to a maximum of about 80% increase.

Back 530

False; 50% increase max

Front 531

What two factors increase Stroke Volume?

Back 531

1) Increased contraction strength (increases amount of blood ejected from ventricles) 2) Increased filling of ventricles (more blood returned to heart with increasing heart rate; increased filling will stretch muscles closer to optimal length)

Front 532

What allows more blood to return to teh heart?

Back 532

Increasing heart rate

Front 533

T/F: Increased filling of ventricles will stretch muscles closer to optimal length, which increases contraction strength, allowing more blood to be ejected.

Back 533

True

Front 534

T/F: Increased filling of atria will stretch muscles closer to optimal length, which increases contraction strength, allowing more blood to be ejected.

Back 534

False; increased filling of VENTRICLES

Front 535

T/F: Increased filling of ventricles will stretch muscles closer to optimal length, which decreases contraction strength, allowing more blood to be ejected.

Back 535

False; INCREASES contraction strength

Front 536

Formula for max. heart rate.

Back 536

220 minus age

Front 537

T/F: During exercise, there can be up to a 4- 5 fold increase in CO.

Back 537

True

Front 538

T/F: During exercise, there can be up to a 4- 5 fold increase in stroke volume.

Back 538

False; stroke volume increases 50% max during exercise.

Front 539

T/F: During exercise, there can be up to a 10 fold increase in CO.

Back 539

False; 4-5 fold increase

Front 540

Maximum CO during exercise.

Back 540

20 to 25 Liters/min

Front 541

T/F: There can be up to a 10-15 liters/min in cardiac output.

Back 541

True

Front 542

What is cardiac reserve?

Back 542

Difference between resting CO and maximum CO.

Front 543

T/F: Cardiac reserve is the difference between the stroke volume at rest and max SV.

Back 543

False; CO

Front 544

Endurance ___ stroke volume and __ heart rate.

Back 544

Increases stroke volume; lowers heart rate

Front 545

In general, heart rate and CO relative to body size increases/decreases in smaller animals.

Back 545

INCREASES

Front 546

T/F: Small animals have a greater surface area to volume ratio, so they lose more heat and need more total energy.

Back 546

True

Front 547

T/F: Large animals have a greater surface area to volume ratio, so they lose more heat and need more total energy.

Back 547

False; this is true for SMALL animals!

Front 548

T/F: Small animals have a smaller surface area to volume ratio, so they lose more heat and need more total energy.

Back 548

false; GREATER SA to V ratio!

Front 549

T/F: Small animals have a greater surface area to volume ratio, so they lose less heat and need less total energy.

Back 549

False; lose MORE heat; need MORE total energy!

Front 550

Heart rate and CO for a rat; human;

Back 550

350 beats/min; CO 200 ml/min/kg
70; 85 mL/min/kg

Front 551

What is cardiac reserve?

Back 551

Difference between resting CO and maximum CO.

Front 552

T/F: Cardiac reserve is the difference between the stroke volume at rest and max SV.

Back 552

False; CO

Front 553

Endurance ___ stroke volume and __ heart rate.

Back 553

Increases stroke volume; lowers heart rate

Front 554

In general, heart rate and CO relative to body size increases/decreases in smaller animals.

Back 554

INCREASES

Front 555

T/F: Small animals have a greater surface area to volume ratio, so they lose more heat and need more total energy.

Back 555

True

Front 556

T/F: Large animals have a greater surface area to volume ratio, so they lose more heat and need more total energy.

Back 556

False; this is true for SMALL animals!

Front 557

T/F: Small animals have a smaller surface area to volume ratio, so they lose more heat and need more total energy.

Back 557

false; GREATER SA to V ratio!

Front 558

T/F: Small animals have a greater surface area to volume ratio, so they lose less heat and need less total energy.

Back 558

False; lose MORE heat; need MORE total energy!

Front 559

Heart rate and CO for a rat; human;

Back 559

350 beats/min; CO 200 ml/min/kg
70; 85 mL/min/kg

Front 560

Know numbers of HR, SV, and CO for athelete and non-athelete at rest and during exercise.

Back 560

See packet