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418 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what percent of total blood flow to the body per minute goes to the brain?
15%
neural stem cells in an adult mammalian brains are found in the _____________.
subventricular and subgranular
_______ innervates muscles and glands.
motor neurons
in the cerebrum, the _______ matter is generally superficial and the ________ matter is deep.
grey, white
the midbrain forms from the.........
metencephalon
cerbrospinal fluid is found
within the central canal and within the ventricles
neural crest cells differentiate into
peripheral nervous system ganglia
the function of _________ neurons is to link the sensory stimuli with the appropirate motor responses.
association
which of the following is the correct list of the lobes of the cerebrum?
frontal, parietal, temporal, insula, occiptal
which area of the brain contains neural stem cells that are apparently important in learning and memory?
subgranular zone of the hippocampus
neural stem cells from the sumbentricular zoneare important in the renewel of ________ neurons.
olfactory
_______ is an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of a particular damaging amyloid beta peptide that is implicated in inherited forms of early onset alzheimers disease
y- secretase
which of the following is not a characteristic of alzheimers disease?
most cases are inherited
damage to the temporal lobe of the cerebrum would limit?
hearing
what type of neurons are found in the precentral gyrus?
upper motor neurons
what condition may be partly caused by impairment of mirror neuron function?
autism spectrum disorder
which imaging technique uses magnetic fields produced by postsympathetic electric currents to produce an image?
MEG
a record of the electrical currents of the cerebral cortex is an
electroencephalogram
during _______ sleep, dreams that can be recalled are most likely to occur.
REM
which type of sleep pattern may aid the consolidation of memory?
nonREM
which of the following neurotransmitters is not associated with cerebral nuclei function?
acetylcholine
aphasias are most often associated with damage to _______ and _______ areas..
broca's and wernicke's
permanent aphasias often occur when
wernickes area is damaged
what structure connects wernickes area to brocas area?
arcuate fasciculus
The hypothalamus and the limibic system are involved in
all of the choices are correct
the _______ lobe is involved in converting short term memory to long term memory.
medial temporal
MRI images are living amnesiac patients show a shrunken...
hippocampus
which area of the brain has shown to be involved in complez problem solving?
prefrontal cortex
what ion is involved in stimulateing genetic transcription needed for learning and memory?
Ca2
which of the following neurotransmitters is not associated with cerebral nuclei function?
acetylcholine
which of the following neurotransmitters is not associated with cerebral nuclei function?
acetylcholine
the _____ is involved in the improvement of memory when the memory has an emotional content.
amygdala
aphasias are most often associated with damage to _______ and _______ areas..
broca's and wernicke's
aphasias are most often associated with damage to _______ and _______ areas..
broca's and wernicke's
permanent aphasias often occur when
wernickes area is damaged
permanent aphasias often occur when
wernickes area is damaged
what structure connects wernickes area to brocas area?
arcuate fasciculus
what structure connects wernickes area to brocas area?
arcuate fasciculus
The hypothalamus and the limibic system are involved in
all of the choices are correct
The hypothalamus and the limibic system are involved in
all of the choices are correct
the _______ lobe is involved in converting short term memory to long term memory.
medial temporal
the _______ lobe is involved in converting short term memory to long term memory.
medial temporal
MRI images are living amnesiac patients show a shrunken...
hippocampus
MRI images are living amnesiac patients show a shrunken...
hippocampus
which of the following neurotransmitters is not associated with cerebral nuclei function?
acetylcholine
which area of the brain has shown to be involved in complez problem solving?
prefrontal cortex
which area of the brain has shown to be involved in complez problem solving?
prefrontal cortex
aphasias are most often associated with damage to _______ and _______ areas..
broca's and wernicke's
what ion is involved in stimulateing genetic transcription needed for learning and memory?
Ca2
what ion is involved in stimulateing genetic transcription needed for learning and memory?
Ca2
permanent aphasias often occur when
wernickes area is damaged
the _____ is involved in the improvement of memory when the memory has an emotional content.
amygdala
what structure connects wernickes area to brocas area?
arcuate fasciculus
the _____ is involved in the improvement of memory when the memory has an emotional content.
amygdala
The hypothalamus and the limibic system are involved in
all of the choices are correct
the _______ lobe is involved in converting short term memory to long term memory.
medial temporal
MRI images are living amnesiac patients show a shrunken...
hippocampus
which area of the brain has shown to be involved in complez problem solving?
prefrontal cortex
what ion is involved in stimulateing genetic transcription needed for learning and memory?
Ca2
the _____ is involved in the improvement of memory when the memory has an emotional content.
amygdala
damage to the _____ prefrontal area will cause a lack of motivation and sexual desire and deficient cognitive funtions.
lateral
except for the sense of ______ all sensory information is relayed through the thalamus
smell
interpretation of auditory inpus would be most affected by....
ablation to the medial geniculate nuclei of the thalamus
based on experimental evidence, the ______ hypothalamus acts as the bodys thermostat.
preoptic-anterior
visual reflexes would be impaired by damage to the
superior colliculi
what part of the mesolimbic system found in the midbrain is involved with behavioral reward?
ventral tegmental area
which of the following is not required to coordinate movement?
pons
what type of cerebellar cells provide communication to other brain areas?
purkinje cells
what condition is caused by a sudden failur of the RAS?
narcolepsy
neurons of the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus release ____ that promotes sleep.
GABA
the extrapyramidal tracts
origionate in the brainstem
a cranial nerve with only sensory fibers is the
vestibulocholear nerve
which cranial nerve is vital for the funtioning of the visceral organs?
vagus
which cranial nerve is not involved with eye movements?
optic
there are _____ pairs of cranial nerves and ____ pairs of spinal nerves.
12, 31
which of the following spinal nerve groups is incorrect?
cervical- 7
Nerves that serve the arm come from the _____ plexus.
brachial
which of the following statements is true?
sensory receptors transduce different forms of physical energy to nerve impulse
which of the following is a special sense?
vision
which type of receptor responds to physical deformation of its cell membrane?
mechanoreptors
which of the following is not a cutaneous receptor?
muscle spindle
cutaneous receptors respond to stimuli that are outside the body and are therefore also...
exteroceptors
______ receptors undergo slow adaption.
tonic
having the ability to ignore constant phasic stiumli is called
sensory adaption
the law of specific nerve energies can be used to explain
paradoxical cold
the least amount of energy that produces adequate stimulation of a receptor is the
law of specific nerve energies
as the magnitured of a generator potential increases the ______ of action potentials in the sensory neuron increases.
frequency
the potential produced by sensory receptors is called a
both generator and receptor potentials are correct
nociceptors may be either myelinated or unmyelinated and function to carry pain sensations to the spinal cord using _______ and ________ as neurotransmitters
substance P, glutamate
the capsaicin receptro serves as both an ion channel and a receptor for the module in chili peppers that causes sensations of
heat and pain
the _________ is a membrane ion channel on sensory neurons that responds to cold in the 8 degree to 28 degree range by producing a depolarization
cold or menthol receptor
acut itch is produced by _______ binding to its receptors
histamine
transmission of thermal sensations to the sensory cortex would be impaired by damage to the
lateral spinothalamic tract
where do the tracts carrying impulses of proprioception and pressure cross?
in the medulla oblongata
where do the fibers of the spinothalamic tract cross:
in the spinal cord at the level the axons eneter the cord
________ is the perception of pain in a somatic location that is caused by damage to an internal organ and not by the activity somatic nociceptors.
referred pain
how many neurons conduct sensory impulses from the periphery to the postcentral gyrus?
three
impulses of pain are also transmitted to the _____ which is part of the limibic system.
cingulate gyrus
sensations are sharpened via
later inhibition
the ________ phenomenon refers to amputees reporting sensations in limbs that are no longer there
phantom limb
chemoreceptors that respond to chemical changes in the external environment are called
exteroceptors
damage to cranial nerve ______ would limit the ability to taste sweet substances
VII
which of the following cranial nerves conveys gustatory information?
both the facial and glossopharyngreal are correct
gusducin
is related to transducin of the eye
which taste modality involves membrain receptors that are coupled to g proteins?
umami
specialized cells on the tongue that distinguish salty, sour, sweet, meaty, or bitter flavors are called
taste cells
where on the cerebral cortex is taste information sent?
prefrontal cortez, postcentral gyrus, and insula
which of the following are not types of tongue papillae?
glossoform papillae
where is the primary gustatory cortex?
insula
what extracellular ion is necessary for release of neurotransmitter for salty and sour tastes?
Ca2
what causes the release of neurotransmitters from sweet and umami tastes?
closing of K channels
what causes the release of neurotransmitter when bitter taste has stimulated a taste cell?
release of Ca2 from endoplasmic reticulum
Information obtained via __________ is transmitted directly to the limbic system.
olfaction
olfactory receptor proteins are especially located on the membrane of their nonmotile cilia and are coupled to
g proteins
which of the following is true of olfaction?
humans can distinguish up to 10000 different odors
which of the special senses is most closely linked with the limbic system?
olfaction
olfactory receptors are coupled to
g proteins
what is the rold of sustentacular cells in the olf actory epithelium?
to oxidize volatile hydrphobic odorant molecules to make them less soluble
the structures that function in equilibrium are knon as the
vestibular apparatus
which of the following is not part of the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear?
cochlea
what characteristic does the endolymph of the membranous labyrinth have that is unusual?
it has a higher than normal concentration of K+
when sterocilia are bent toward the kinocilium, the cell membrane will be
both depolarized and relaeaseing increased amounts of neurotransmitter are correct
the cupula is part of the
semicircular canals
which of the following structures are important to the maintenance of balance and equilibrium?
all the choices are correct
the softest sound which could be heard would have an intensity of
zero decibels
the hertz is a measure of
frequency
which of the following is not an auditory ossicle?
otolith
which of the following is true of the auditory tube?
both it is usually collapsed and it opens due to the action of the tensor tympani muscle
vibrations in the stapes directly induce vibrations in the
oval window
the scala vesibuli of the cochlea is filled with
perilymph
the structure for hearing is the
both the spiral organ and the organ of corti
the bending of the sterocilia of the organ of corti opens membrane channels that are permeable to mainly______ which causes depolarization
K+
which of the following is not part of the organ of corti?
vestibular membrane
what structure connects the scala vestibuli with the scala typmpani?
hlecotrema
what is the medium found in the cochlear canal?
endolymph
which of the following is not true of outer hair cells of the organ of corti?
relay sound information by way of the vestibulocochlear nerve
what neurotransmitter is released by the inner hair cells once they have depolarized?
glutamate
what role do outer hair cells play in the transmission of sound?
they amplify softer sound and sharpen pitch perception
which of the following is the correct neural pathway for hearing?
vestibulocohlear nerve, medulla oblongata, inferior colliculus, thalamus, temporal lobe
age related hearing impairment is known as
presbycusis
destroying the ciliary body would prevent the _______ from receiving nutrients.
lens and cornea
sypathetic stimulation is responsible for pupil _______ in_____ light.
dialation, dim
long term blockage of the canal of schlemm can induce
glaucoma
pupil diameter would be increased by
contraction of the radial muscles
the outermost layer of the eyball is the
sclera
what is found in the anterior cavity of the eyball?
aqueous humor
what is found in the posterior cavity of the eyeball?
vitreous humor
what structure holds the lens in place?
suspensory ligament
what area of the retina has no photoreceptors?
optic disc
the bending of light as it passes through different media is called
refractions
the aggregation of cystallin proteins in the lens produces
cataracts
light is refracted the most by the
cornea
when an object is more than 20 feet from the eyes
all choices are correct
myopia generally occurs when the
eyeball is too long
loss of accommodation with age is
presbyopia
what condition occurs when the eyeball is too short and the focal point appears behind the eyeball?
hyperopia
_____ occurs when there is significant asymmetry of the cornea and or lens
astigmatism
an individual with astigmatism would have their vision corrected by
cylindrical lens
what new procedure is used by many people to correct refractive problems?
LASIK
_______ in the retina connect photoreceptors and ganglion cells.
bipolar cells
the optic nerve is formed from fibers of
ganglion cells
within the eye, electrical impulses pass from
photoreceptors to bipolar cells to ganglion cells
the tip region of the photoreceptor cells are removed by cells of the retinal pigment epithelium by
phagocytosis
which of the following is not true of the funtions of the pigment epithelium of the retina?
creating the dark current of the photoreceptors
dominant retinis pigmentosa is characterized by
degeneration of photoreceptors
what color of light is best absorbed by rods?
blue-green
which cells have the ability to reisomerize the all trans retinal back to the 11-cis form?
visual cycle of retinal
retinaldehyde is derived from
vitamin a
inhibiting phosphdieterase would casue the photoreceptor to undergo
hyperpolarization
in the absence of light, there is movement of Na in the photoreceptors causing a depolarization this is called the
dark current
what causes cGMP to convert to GMP and close Na channels in a photoreceptor?
light
what type of Gproteins are associated with the visual cycle?
transducins
defferent layers of the _________ analyze input from cones differently such that one layer can add input from Land M cones to obtain information about light intensity, while another could subtract such input to obtain red green color
lateral geniculate nucleus
which of the following is not a type of cone?
yellow
which type of cone responds to short wavelengths of 420nm?
blue cones
the most common form of color blindness is deuteranopia, which is congential absence of the ____ gene.
M
a common visual impairment in older people that is caused by damage to the central fovea is
macular degeneration
eye movements are regulated by information sent to the
superior colliculus
which type of eye movements are high velocity?
saccadic
vision would be impaired by
damage to the superior colliculus
axons from the nasal portions of both eyes will decussate the
optic chiasma
what type of eye movement helps you to follow a moving object?
smooth pursuit
ganglion cells are stimulated optimally by
light striking a spot on the retina
some ganglion cells of the retina contain _____ that is sensitive to luminance and helps the hypothalamus regulate circadian rhythms
melanopsin
the _______ system is involved in the pupillary resoponse
tectal
the optic radiations project fibers from the lateral geniculate nuclei to area
17 of the occipital lobe
which of the following is not a type of cortical visual neuron?
compound
the more movable bony attachment is the
insertion
muscles which move a limb away the midline of the body are termed
abductor muscles
a muscle that constricts an opening is a/an
sphincter
the prime mover of any skeletal movement is called the
agonist
each fascicle of a muscle is surrounded by the
perimysium
skeletal muscle cells are multinucleated. this is called a
syncytium
the light band of a skeletal muscle is known as
I band
duchennes muscular dystrophy
is an X linked recessive trait
the specialized region of the sarcolemma at the neuromuscular junction is called the
motor end plate
motor unit recruitment allows for ______ contraction strength.
increased
somatic motor neuron with all the muscle fibers it innervates is a
motor unit
subunits of skeletal muscle cells that are composed of sarcomeres are called
myofibrils
somatic motor neurons release the neurotransmitter _________ at the neuromuscular junction.
acetylcholine
what structure is composed of protein filaments and is located in the center of the thick filaments?
M line
what structure runs the length of the sarcomere and contributes to the elastic recoil in muscle?
titin
what muscle structural and functional unit runs from z disc to z disc?
sarcomere
the thick filament is also called the
A band
what protein primarily makes up the thick filament?
myosin
what protein primarily makes up the think filament?
ACTIN
what is the lighter area in the center of the A band called?
H zone
myosin contains binding sites for __________ and __________.
atp, actin
what activates the myosin head to begin cross bridging?
splitting of ATP into ADP and Pi
during skeletal muscle contraction, adjacent ________ are pulled closer together as the ______ between them shorten
Abands, I bands
_____ is characterized by continued attachment of myosin heads to actin filaments due to a lack of ATP
rigor mortis
during skeletal muscle contraction,
thing fillaments slide across think filaments
which of the following molecules is not part of the thin filament?
titin
which molecule blocks the myosin head from binding to actin in a relazed muscle?
tropomyosin
which of the following does not occur during the cross bridge cycle?
energized myosin heads bind troponin
the _______ complex contains three proteins designated as the I, T, and C types
troponin
the movement of the troponin- tropomyosin complex requires
Ca+
the actin filament is a polymer formed from 300 to 400 globular subunits called
G actin
the Ca required for skeletal muscle contraction
is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
the pumps that actively transport calcium back into the _____ are called Ca ATPase pumps.
sarcoplasmic reticulum
what a muscle is stimulated to contract, calcium relase channels in the SR will release Ca by
passive diffusion
what structures carry the action potentials into the interior of the muscle to cause muscle contraction?
T tubules
the process by which action potentials cause muscle contraction is
both excitation- contraction coupling and the electromechanical relase mechanism
which of the following is not true of the relaxation of muscle fiber?
the action potential must continue
what is the rold of the ATP in muscle contraction and relaxation?
all of the choices are correct
the inability of muscle cells to relax due to high frequency stimulation is termed
tetanus
a force velocity curve shows the _____ relationship between the force opposing muscle contraction and the velocity of muscle shortening
inverse
which of the following statements about muscles is FALSE?
during isometric contraction muscles do not generate tension
a muscle contraction against a resistance that is greater than the force and causes muscle lengthening is an
eccentric contraction
a shortening of the muscle that occurs when the tension is greater than the load is a
chorea
an individual suffering damage to the basal nuclei resulting in a lack of desire to use a limb would be suffering from
akinesia
shaking of limbs at rest that disappears during voluntary movement due to damage to the basal nuclei is called
resting tumor
cardiac action potentials usually origionate in _______ cells.
pacemaker
which of the following statements regarding cardiac muscle is true?
intercalated discs contain gap junctions
_____ filaments are attached to dense bodies in smooth muscle cells.
actin
in smooth muscle cells, _________ functions in a manner analogous to troponin
calmodulin
smooth muscle cells
may contain gap junctions
calcium that is needed to activate cross bridging in smooth muscle mainly comes from
extracellular fluid
what condition of smooth muscle allows it to maintain contraction for long periods of time?
latch state
which of the following is NOT true of single unit smooth muscle?
all cells receive autonomic stimulation
what are the swellings on autonomic nerves that release neurotransmitter to smooth muscle called?
varicosities
Which of the following is NOT a transportation function of the circulatory system?
carrying leukocytes
The circulatory system provides regulation through
hormones
How does the circulatory system provide protection for the body?
all choices are correct
Dark red colored blood would be found in
veins
How much blood does the average-sized adult have?
5 liters
A normal hematocrit for women would be
40%
The major plasma protein is
albumin
Decreased liver protein synthesis would cause the amount of ______________ and ______________ in the blood to be decreased.
albumin, fibinogen
Blood globulins include which of the following types?
all answers are correct
Which blood globulin is an antibody that helps fight infection?
gamma globulin
A normal red blood cell count is in the range of __________ /mm3.
4.23-5.8 million
Having no nucleus, a biconcave shape, and the function of gas transport would describe a
red blood cell
Which part of the red blood cell can bind to oxygen?
heme part of hemoglobin
Iron is transported in the blood by the protein
transferrin
What is the main component of an erythrocyte?
hemoglobin
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of white blood cells?
makes up the major formed element
The most common type of anemia is
iron deficiency andemia
The most abundant leukocytes in the blood are the
neurophils
Which of the following is NOT a granular leukocyte?
monocyte
________ development would be inhibited if the actions of granulocyte colony stimulating factor were blocked.
neutrophils
Granular leukocytes are derived from
myeloblasts
The process of blood cell formation is
hematopoiesis
What is the major hemotopoietic organ in the fetus?
liver
What hormone stimulates the process of erythropoiesis?
erythropoietin
What organ secretes erythropoietin?
kidneys
What is the stimulus for the release of erythropoietin?
all choices are correct
What substances are needed to produce red blood cells?
all of the choices are correct
What protein regulates iron homeostasis?
hepcidin
How does hepcidin function in iron homeostasis?
promotes cellular storage of iron by removing ferroportin from enterocytes
When the wrong blood type is given to a patient, the antibodies in the patient's blood react with the antigens on the surface of the transfused blood causing a reaction called
agglutination
What type of antigens are present in Type O blood?
neither A or B
Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when
the mother has Rh- and the baby had Rh+
Mary has type AB blood. Which type of antibodies are present in her plasma?
neither anti A nor anti B
The prostaglandin, thromboxane A2, stimulates
platelet aggregation
Prostacyclin, PGI2, prevents
platelet aggregation
Which of the following does NOT inhibit platelet aggregation?
von willebrands factor
Which of the following stimulates the formation of the platelet plug?
all the choices aid in platelet plug formation
Damage to tissues stimulates the activation of the ______________ blood clotting pathway.
extrinsic
What ion is necessary for the clotting process?
Ca
What is the role of serotonin in blood clotting?
causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels to slow loss of blood
Hemophilia is
an X linked trait
Aspirin inhibits blood clotting by directly preventing
platelet plug formation
The final protein that forms a blood clot is
fibrin
Both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways activate factors that
convert prothrombin to thrombin
What is the enzyme that converts soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin?
thrombin
Kallikrein is responsible for
clot dissolution
Endogenously applied ______________ or tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) can induce blood clot dissolution.
streptokinase
Vitamin K is needed for
proper clotting factor funtion
Which anticoagulant and its action is NOT correctly matched?
coumadin- inhibits tissue thromboplastin
The pathway of blood form the heart to the lungs and back to the heart is the
pulmonary circulation
What valve keeps blood from flowing back into the right atrium from the right ventricle?
tricuspid valve
What structures keep the AV valves from everting under high ventricular pressure?
papillary muscles and chordae tendineae
The amount of blood ejected by the ventricles per beat is termed the
stroke volume
Heart murmurs may be caused by _______, a condition in which valves are thickened and calcified.
stenosis
In the fetus, blood can flow from the right atrium to the left atrium through the
foramen ovale
Valves are said to be _______ when they do not close properly and blood leaks through them.
incompetent
Systole refers to the ______ of the heart.
contraction
Cardiac ________ channels are called hyperpolarization cyclic nucleotide (HCN) channels because they open in response to hyperpolarization.
pacemaker
The myocardium acts as a single, functioning unit called a/an
funtional syncytium
What part of the heart's conduction system acts as the primary pacemaker?
SA node
The action potential of cardiac pacemaker cells is caused by
inward diffusion of Ca
The action potential of nonpacemaker cells is due to the
inward diffusion of Na
The _________________ conducts impulses from the AV node to branches which lead to the Purkinje fibers.
AV bundle
____________ binds and inactivates the sodium-potassium ATPase pumps of myocardial cell leading to increased intracellular calcium concentrations and stronger myocardial contractions.
digitalis
The ______________ are the last part of the electrical conducting system of the heart.
purkinje fibers
When Ca2+ release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the heart are opened by an increase in Ca2+ in the cytoplasm, this is referred to as
calcium-stimulated calcium release
Myocardial cells exhibit a plateau phase instead of quickly repolarizing. This is due to
inward diffusion of calcium through slow Ca channels
The production and conduction of action potentials in the heart produces a recordable tracing of the electrical activity of the heart called a(n)
ECG
Medications that are used to treat arrhythmias may use which of the following mechanisms?
all are correct
The P wave of an ECG represents
atrial depolarization
Bipolar limb lead three uses the
left arm and left leg
The S-T segment of an ECG represents
the plateau phase of the myocardial action potential
Failure of the SA node to depolarize would result in an ECG
lacking a P wave
Which of the following is NOT one of the three coats that comprise the walls of arteries and veins?
tunica superficia
Which vessels are most important for controlling resistance to blood flow?
arterioles
All blood vessels are lined with
endothelial cells
Fenestrated capillaries are found in the
endocrine glands
Which capillaries have wide intercellular pores that serve as a basement membrane over the capillary endothelium for increased filtration?
fenstrated
Within the blood vessels, valves are found in the
veins
Based on differences in their endothelial lining, capillaries can be classified as all of the following EXCEPT
true
Which of the following is NOT true concerning blood vessels?
smooth muscle surrounds capillaries
Varicose veins can be caused by
all the choices are correct
Most of the circulating blood can be found in
veins
The first anatomical change associated with atherosclerosis is the appearance of
fatty streaks
Diets promoting cardiovascular health contain no more than ______________ of total calories as fat.
30%
Ischemic heart disease causes ______________ on the ECG.
S-T depression
The structure of a __________ includes a core of nonpolar triglycerides and cholesterol esters coated by proteins, phospholipids, and some free cholesterol.
lipoprotein
Which of the following is true of atherosclerosis?
all choices are correct
Oxidation of low-density lipoproteins causes
monocyte conversion
The possibility of an individual developing ischemic heart disease
is decreased by increasing exercise
Statins
inhibit HMG coenzyme A reductase
The rate-limiting step of cholesterol synthesis is catalyzed by
HMG Coenxyme A reductase
_________ AV node block occurs when no atrial waves can pass through the AV node.
third degree
_________ AV node block occurs when the rate of impulse conduction through the AV node exceeds 0.20 second.
first degree
A(n) ________________ is a device that is implanted into a pectoral subcutaneous pocket that delivers shocks to the heart when ventricular fibrillation is detected.
implantable converter defibrillator
0.12 to 0.20 second is the duration of the _________ in a normal heart.
P R interval
In a complete AV node block,
all are correct
Ventricular fibrillation
often occurs due to circus rythms
A continual recycling of electrical waves through the myocardium is called
circus rhythm
Which of the following is NOT a cause of circus rhythm?
shortened myocardial cells
The __________ drains lymph into the left subclavian vein.
thoracic duct
The lymphatic system can help cancer _________ since cancer cells may enter, circulate, and later exit porous lymphatic capillaries.
metastasize
Functions of the lymphatic system include all of the following EXCEPT
transport of absorbed peptides
Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic organ?
lymph nodes
What is the resting cardiac rate for an adult?
70 beats per minute
Cardiac output is equal to
stroke volume x cardiac rate
Norepinephrine is released from __________ nerves, causing heart rate to ______.
sympathetic, increase
Norepinephrine and epinephrine open ____ channels inducing a faster diastolic depolarization.
HCN
What type of receptors do norepinephrine and epinephrine bind to in the heart?
b andrergic
What keeps the HCN channels open?
cAMP
Acetylcholine binds to _______ receptors of the heart and causes the opening of ___ channels.
muscarinic, K
The effect of acetylcholine binding to its receptors in the heart is a heart rate
decrease
Sympathetic stimulation of the heart will
all are correct
The cardiac control center of the _______ coordinates the autonomic innervation of the heart.
medula oblongata
The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole is known as the
EDV
The ejection fraction is
normally about 60% at rest
Stroke volume is affected by all of the following EXCEPT
emotional stress
According to the Frank-Starling Law of the heart, as contraction strength increases the stroke volume
increases
Stroke volume is directly proportional to
both preload and contractibility
Stroke volume is inversely proportional to
total peripheral resistance
In response to increased ventricular filling
myocardial cells stretch
Muscle length has a more pronounced effect on contraction strength in cardiac muscle than in skeletal muscle. This is because cardiac muscle has a greater sensitivity to
calcium
Venous return is increased by all of the following EXCEPT
exhalation
Since veins can distend more with pressure, they are called _____ vessels.
capacitance
The ability to distend with pressure increases is called
compliance
The ______________ is equal to the hydrostatic pressure of the blood in the capillaries minus the hydrostatic pressure of tissue interstitial fluid outside the capillaries.
net filtration pressure
Edema would be induced by all of the following EXCEPT
hyperthyroidism
Elephantiasis is caused by
obstruction of lymphatic drainage
The opposing forces that affect fluid movements across a capillary are known as
starling forces
What is the main force that causes fluids to enter the venous end of a capillary?
colloid osmotic pressure in the capillary
How much filtrate do the kidneys produce per day?
180L
How much kidney filtrate is reabsorbed back into the vascular system?
98-99%
An increase in blood volume in the left atrium will ______ ADH secretion.
inhibit
Vasopressin induces renal water
reabsorption
__________ is a steroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex which stimulates kidney salt reabsorption in the kidneys.
aldosterone
Angiotensin I is formed from the plasma protein ____ by the action of the enzyme ____.
angiotensiogen, renin
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like captopril block the formation of angiotensin II, thus reducing
vasoconstriction
The heart produced hormone, atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), functions antagonistically to
aldosterone
At rest, blood flow is greatest in the
GI tract and liver
Increased blood flow resistance is caused by
increased blood vessel length
____________ inhibits norepinephrine reuptake thereby it induces vasoconstriction.
cocaine
Sympathetic stimulation of cholinergic fibers in the arterioles of skeletal muscle will produce
vasodialation
Blood flow would be increased by
histamines
Nitric oxide (NO) causes
vasodialation
Nitroglycerine causes vasodilation of blood vessels due to its effects on levels of
nitric oxide
Endothelin causes
vasoconstriction
Vascular smooth muscle can directly respond to changes in pressure. This type of control is called
myogenic
Vasodilation is induced by all of the following EXCEPT
decreased tissue metabolism
Reactive hyperemia is
increased blood flow after removal of constriction due to accumulated metabolic products
Active hyperemia is
increased blood flow due to increased metabolism
What allows cardiac muscle to have sufficient oxygen during systole?
all are correct
A(n) ___________ is a cylindrical support used to keep an artery open.
stent
Which type of muscle has the greatest capillary density?
cardiac
During maximal exercise, the skeletal muscles can receive as much as ____ of the total blood flow.
85%
At rest, both cardiac and skeletal muscle arterioles have a high peripheral resistance due to
a andrenergic sympathetic stimulation
Control of blood flow to skeletal muscles during exercise is mainly under _______ control.
intrinsic metabolic
During exercise all of the following occur EXCEPT
increased oncotic pressure
Cardiovascular changes resulting from moderate exercise include
increased blood flow to the skin
During exercise, all of the following occur EXCEPT
increased vasoconstriction of coronary arteries
During moderate exercise cerebral blood flow
increases slightly
When active areas of the brain receive excessive blood flow over their aerobic requirements, this is called
hyperemia
In response to increased internal temperature blood flow to the skin will
increase
When the arteriovenous anastomoses are stimulated by sympathetic nerve fibers, the superficial capillary loops are
engorged with blood
Sweat glands can also secrete _____ that stimulates vasodilation of skin arterioles to help reduce body temperature.
bradykinin
Which blood vessels have the highest cross-sectional area?
capillaries
Which blood vessels have the lowest pressure?
veins
A condition in which there is a fall in blood pressure upon standing that is not compensated for by the baroreceptor reflex is called
postural hypotension
Expanded blood volume stimulates stretch receptors in the atria of the heart causing increased secretion of
atrial natriuretic peptide
Which of the following is NOT a result of stimulation of atrial stretch receptors?
decreased water excretion
The last Korotkoff sound occurs when the blood pressure is equal to
diastolic pressure
The sounds heard during the first phase of blood-pressure measurement are
snapping sounds
The sounds heard during the last phase of blood-pressure measurement are
silence
Blood pressure is measured with a
sphygmomanometer
There is no mixing of blood layers or sounds from vessels during ____ flow.
laminar
As age increases, the maximum cardiac rate will
decrease
Essential hypertension
is the type of hypertension that most patients have
Hypertension may cause
all the choices are correct