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117 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What is the importance of genomic medicine

Understanding:



- Genome structure



- Genome biology



- Disease biology



Advancing science in medicine



Improving effectiveness of healthcare

Name the overall parts of the human genome

Nuclear genome



Mitochondrial genome

What are the main features of the human nuclear genome?

- 3.2 x 10^9 base pairs


- ~21,000 protein coding genes


- 46 chromosomes


-Inherited from both parents

What are the main features of the human mitochondrial genome?

- 16.6 x 10^3 base pairs


- 13 protein coding genes


- 1 circular DNA molecule


- Maternally inherited

At which stage of mitosis are all 46 chromosomes most clearly seen?

Metaphase



(IPMAT + Cytokinesis)

What are Karyotype?

The number and visual appearance of chromosomes in the cell nuclei of an organism or species.



To arrange and classify chromosome complement of an an organism based on number, size, shape and other chromosomal characteristics.

What staining is most commonly used to view chromosome Karyotypes?


Giemsa dye

How are chromosomes prepared for viewing under the microscope?

Cells are arrested during cell division using a colchicine solution (prevents microtuble polymerization so spindles can be arrested).

How are chromosomes stained for viewing under the microscope?

Chromosomes treated with trypsin (denatures proteins)



and stained with Giemsa dye

Name the technique most commonly used in cytogenetics to produce a visible Karyotype by staining condensed chromosomes

G-banding / Giemsa banding

At which stage of the cell cycle are chromosomes easily viewed in their Karyotypes?

Metaphase of mitosis

What's key to preparing cells for chromosomal viewing under the microscope?

Disruption of spindle fibres and arresting the cell in a state of metaphase

Name the 6 parts of a chromosome (as view with Giemsa staining)

Name the 6 parts of a chromosome (as view with Giemsa staining)

G-light band
G-dark band
Telomere
Centromere
p (short arn)
q(long arm)

G-light band


G-dark band


Telomere


Centromere


p (short arn)


q(long arm)


Characteristics of a G-light band

Gene-rich



G-C base pairs rich



Early replicating

Characteristics of a G-dark band

Gene poor



A-T base pairs rich



Late replicating

Role of the Telomere

Protective DNA and protein "cap"



Repetitive DNA

Role of the Centromere

Keeps sister chromatids together



Attaches sister chromatids to microtubules



Repetitive DNA

Number of chromosomes in a human nucleus

46 (23 pairs), one of each pair is inherited from a parent

How many autosome chromosome pairs?

22

How many sex chromosome?


Which is for which gender?

1 (pair n23)



XX - female


XY - male

Haploid number

23


(Haploid = cells containing only one complete set of chromosomese e.g. gametes).

Diploid number

46


(Diploid = cells that have two sets of chromosomes, paternal+maternal e.g. somatic cells)

What is Aneuploidy?

Denotes an abnormal number of chromosomes

What makes up a chromosome?

DNA


Histone


Other proteins

Gene vs. disease:



Give 4 genes which cause disease, and their chromosome pair number.


LCT: Lactose deficiency (2)


HTT: Huntigdon disease (4)


HEXA: Tay-Sachs disease (15)


BTK: X-linked primary immune deficiency (X)

How are genes organised along each chromosome?

In a linear order

Describe the term "Coding Sequence"

Section of DNA that encode proteins

Describe the term "Non-Coding Sequence"

Intergenic regions and introns;includes control elements and functional RNAs e.g. microRNA and long non-coding RNAs

Describe the term "Exon"

regions of genes that encode protein sequences

Describe the term "Introns"

non-coding regions between exons in genes

Describe the term "Control elements"

sequences that regulate transcription i.e. promoters and enhancers

Describe the term "Pseudogene"

non-functional copy of a gene; arises from gene duplication then deleterious mutation in one copy.

Describe the term "repetitive Sequences"

tandem repeats of closely related DNA sequences

What percentage of DNA are Conding Sequences?

1.6%

What percentage of DNA are Repetitive sequences?

~ 40%

Name the 3 steps of the process that starts with DNA and ends with the synthesis of a protein.

Transcription (DNA to Pre-mRNA)


Splicing (Pre-mRNA to RNA)


Translation (mRNA to Protein)

Where are control elements of transcription contained?

In the Non-coding sequences

Explain the action of the control elements


(Enhancer - chromatin Looping - Promoter - Splicing signals)

Transcription factors bind to promoter site (starting at TATA box);



Section of transcription factor binds to the enhancers (upstream from promoters), this increases rate of transcription;



This action loops the chromatin section between the enhancer and promoter;



Splicing signals indicate where splicing occurs


How many protein-coding genes are there?

19,942

How many Long non-coding RNA genes are there?

14,470

How many small non-coding RNA genes are there?

9,519

How many Pseudogenes are there?

14,363

Define the term: Disomy

Two copies of a chromosome

What gene is "LCT" and on which chromosome is it found?

Lactoce deficiency



Chromosome 2

What gene is "HTT" and on which chromosome is it found?

Huntingdon disease



Chromosome 4

What gene is "HEXA" and on which chromosome is it found?

Tay-Sachs disease



Chromosome 15

What gene is "BTK" and on which chromosome is it found?

BTK



X-linked primary immune deficiency

Define the terms used to denote normal variation in chromosome number and structure

HAPLOID (23 Chromosome n.)



DIPLOID (46 Chromosome n.)



DISOMY (two copies of a chromosome)

Define the terms used to denote Aneuploidy/abnormal variation in chromosome number and structure

POLYPLOIDY (gain of +1 haploid chromosome ses) e.g. Triploid, Tetraploid



MONOSOMY - one copy of a chromosome



TRISOMY - three copies of a chromosome



TETRASOMY - four copies of a chromosome

Define the term Polyploidy

gain of one or more haploid chromosome sets

Define the term Tri/Tetraploid

three/four haploid sets

Define the term Mono/Tri/Tetrasomy

one/three/four copies of a chromosome

What are the 4 abnormalities observed in Chromosome structure?

Deletion



Duplication



Inversion



Translocation

Define the term chromosomal Translocation

Joining part of one chromosome to a second chromosome.

State the benefit of reciprocal chromosomal translocation

Part of the second chromosome joins the first chromosome, no net loss or gain of material

State the name given to the action of two chromosomes joining at their centromere


Robertsonian Translocation

State the benefit of a Karyotype

Helping identify chromosome abnormalities that are evident in either structure or number of chromosomes.

State the two types of chromosomal translocation

Reciprocal translocation



Robertsonian translocation

How can you observe tranlocations in brain tumour?

Through fluorescent dyeing of the chromosome;


each homologous pair should be of the same fluorescent colour unless translocation has occured.

Name 3 most common autosomal numerical abnormalities in liveborn babies

Down syndrome



Edwards syndrome



Patau syndrome

Name two common sex chromosome numerical abnormalities in liveborn babies

Turner syndrome



Klinefelter syndrome

Name the most common all chromosome numerical abnormality in liveborn babies

Triploidy (69 chromosomes)

What aneuploidy is observed in Down Syndroms' sufferers?

Trisomy 21 (the 21st chromosome has three copies)

Give the characteristics of Down Syndrome sufferers

Affects 1 in 700 live births



>60% spontaneously aborted



20% stillborn



Distinct facial apprearance



Marked muscle hopotonia (decr. tone) as baby



may have 1 palmar crease



Learning difficulty (IQ <50)



Congenitall heart malformations (40%)

What percentage of Down syndrom patients are still born?

20%

What percentage of Down syndrom patients are spontaneously aborted?

>60%

What's the ratio of live births that result in Down Syndrome babies?

1 in 700

What is the usual IQ of Down Syndrome sufferers?

<50

What percentage of Down Syndrome sufferers have congenital heart malformations?

40%

State the thre known chromosomal patterns of Down Syndrom

Trisomy 21



Extra copy of c21 because of Robertsonian translocation



Mosaicism with normal and trisomy 21

Define the term "Mosaicism"

property or state of being composed of cells of two genetically different types (within the same organism)

State the advantage conferred by mosaicism with normal and trisomy 21 in Down Syndrome patients

Much milder features due to the presence of the normal cells.

When does mosaicism with normal and trisomy 21 occur in Down Syndrome patients?

postzygotically

What percentage of Down syndrom patients have trisomy 21?

95%

What percentage of Down syndrom patients have an extra copy of chromosome 21 because of Robertsonian translocation?

4%

What percentage of Down syndrome patients have mosaicism with normal and trisomy 21 cell lineages?

1%

What is the association between Trisomies and maternal age?

Possitive correlation


in Down Syndrome sufferers

Give 2 possible explanation for the association of trisomies and increased maternal age in Down Syndrome sufferers

- Eggs help at crossing-over stage (meiosis) for approx. 6 months getstation



- "wear and tear" in the cell division machinery, with increasing maternal age

State the characteristics of Edwards Syndrome

Trisomy 18 (three n.18 chromosomes)



affects 1 in 3000 births



Multiple malfomations (esp. heart and kidneys)



Clenched hands with overlapping fingers


What ratio of live birth is attributed to Edwards Syndrome?

1 in 3000

State the characteristics of Patau syndrome

Trisomy 13 (three n.13 chromosomes)



Affects 1 in 5000 births



Multiple malformations



Affects midline structures, esp. incomplete lobation of brain; cleft lip; congenital heart disease

What particular signs are present in Patau Syndrome sufferers?

Lobation of brain;



Cleft lip;



Congenital heart disease

What ratio of births are affected y Patau Syndrome?

1 in 5000

What disease occurs as a result of Trisomy 18?

Edwards Syndrome

What disease occurs as a result of Trisomy 13?

Patau Syndrome

What disease occurs as a result of Trisomy 21?

Down Syndrome

State the Characteristics of Klinefelter Syndrome

47, XXY (normaly there are 46 chromosomes and the last pair is either XX or XY)



Affects 1 in 1000 males



Infertility (atrophic testes do not produce sperm)



Poorly developed 2nd sexual characteristics in some (lack of testosterone)



Tall




What is meant by the term atrophic?

Wasting away of a normally developed organ or tissue due to degeneration of cells.

State the characteristics of Turner SYndrome

45, X (normally there are 46 chromosomes with the last pair being either XX or XY)



affects 1 in 5000 females



99% are lost spontaneously in pregnancy



Short stature



Primary amenorrhoea (ovariers involute before birth)

Define the term primary amenorrhoea


In which chromosomal condition can it be observed?

Absence of menstrual period even at puberty, due to absence of the uterus or ovaries, a genetic disorder or hormonal imbalance.



Turner syndrome

Which sex chromosomal disease results in 99% of spontaneous abortions?

Turner syndrome

What is the prevalance of Klinefelter Syndrome?

1 in 1000 males

What is the prevalance of Turner Syndrome?

1 in 5000 females

What sex chromosomal disease arises from a 47, XXY aploidy?

Klinefelter Syndrome

What sex chromosomal disease arises from a 45, X aploidy?

Turner Syndrome

What is meant by the term congenital?

Describes a condition that is recognised at birth or is believed to have been present since birth



(c.malformations include all disorders present at birth, genetic or environmental)

What is meant by the term coarctation?

congenital narrowing of a short segment of the aorta

State the 4 main umbrella types of prenatal diagnosis for chromosoma; abnormalities.

Amniocentesis



Chorionic villus sampling



Non-invasive techniques



Pre-impantation genetic diagnosis & screening

Describe Amniocentesis

Withdrawing fluid sample surrounding a foetus in the uterus by pearcing amneotic sac through the abdominal wall



Genetic testing of cells from amniotic fluid



Ultrasound guidance -- trans-abdominal sampling



15-18 weeks into pregancy


Describe Chorionic villus sampling

Genetic testing of tissue from the placenta (chorionic villi - villi that links to chorion to give maximum SA.V ratio)



Ultrasound guidance -- trans-abdominal, trans-cervical sampling



12-14 weeks

Describe the non-invasive techniques of prenatal diagnosis

For Down syndrome



Ultrasound imaging of nuchal translucency



performed 11-14 weeks into pregancy

What is the Chorion?

Embryonic membrane that totaly surrounds the embryo from the time of implantation

Define the term: Nuchal Translucency scanning (NT scanning)

Ultrasound screening test,


measures maximum thickness of the translucency between skin and soft tissue overlyig the cervical region of the spine of the foetus.



Incr. NT associated with increased risk of chromosomal abnormality and variety of structural abnormalities

What is involved in Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis & screening?

Embryos created through IVF (invitro fertilisation)



Genes check against genetic conditions

Give the Characteristics of the X-chromosome

1100 genes



X-inactivation (Lyonization) in early female embryonic development



So proteins synthesised from X-chromosme are same amount in male and female



Pseudoautosomal region of X-chromosome not inactivated - contain genes present in Y-chromosome, involved in delopment



Describe the purpose of X-inactivation

Ensuring each female somatic cell only has one functional chromosome, as in mate somatic cells



So same number of proteins synthesised from both.

Why are pseudoautosomal regions of the X-chromosome not inactivated in female?

Contain genes also present in Y-chromosome



Genes important in development



Would confer a selective disadvantage

What is the name given to a inactivated X-chromosome?

Barr Body

Define Barr Body

Inactive X-chromosome in female somatic cell, rendered inactive through Lyonization (discovered by Mary Lyon, english geneticist)

Describe the process of X-inactivation

Xist expressed;



Leads to chromatin changes and spacial reorganisation of the chromosome;



leads to transcriptional inactivation;



N.B: X-inactivation only reversed in germ cells

What is Xist?

Long non-coding RNA encoded in the X-Inactivation Centre (XIC) on the X-chromosome

What is XIC?

X-Inactivation Centre located on the X-chromosome

State the characteristics of a Y-Chromosome

Variable size, few genes, many repeat sequences;



Encodes "Sex Determining Region of the Y-chromosome" - SRY gene



SRY encodes a protein member of HMG group of transcription factors)



SRY = responsible for male sex determination



Other genes on Y-chromosome also important for male sex determination

What encodes the SRY?

Y-Chromosome

State the role of the SRY

encodes a protein that is a member of the HMG group of transcription factors



is responsible for male sex determination

What are HMG?

High-Mobitily-Group = chromosomal proteins involved in regulation of DNA-dependent processes i.e. transcrition, replication, recombination, DNA repair

What does SRY stand for?

Sex Determining Region of the Y-chromosome