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102 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
One of the MOST critical components of an effective safety program is:
A. Employee penalties
B. Quality of Safety Equipment
C. Training
D. Management's concern and attitude toward safety.
D. Management's concern and attitude toward safety.
FLSA restricts minors (age 16 and 17) from what activities?
A. Number of hours worked in a week
B. Farming
C. Driving and hazardous occupations
D. Overnight travel for business
C. Driving and hazardous occupations
What is the MOST common way of recruiting lower level production workers?
A. Hire from within
B. Posting on E-mail
C. Walk-ins
D. Employment Agency
C. Walk-ins
What is a major problem with personality and skill inventories?
A. Inventories can be falsified to present an image that the company is looking for.
B. The OFCCP considers them illegal
C. Employees can easily sue
D. It is very difficult to find a personality and skill inventory that is reliable.
A. Inventories can be falsified to present an image that the company is looking for.
What is the MOST important component of an accurate polygraph test reading?
A. Willingness of participant
B. Skill of examiner to interpret results
C. Quality of equipment
D. Length and thoroughness of the test
B. Skill of examiner to interpret results
What type of job would typically use a work sample test?
A. Management
B. Human Resources
C. Production Worker
D. Accounting
C. Production Worker
Typically organizations budget how much for training (% of payroll dollars):
A. 1 to 3%
B. 4 to 6%
C. 7 to 10%
D. More than 10%
A. 1 to 3%
What is a major disadvantage of using the narrative essay form of Performance
Appraisal?
A. Difficult to make assessment across employee groups
B. Managers may differ significantly in ratings and quality of writing styles
C. It is very time consuming
D. Employees find it hard to relate to
B. Managers may differ significantly in ratings and quality of writing styles
What is a MAJOR disadvantage of using e-mail to recruit for technical talent?
A. Cost
B. Potential employees do not have e-mail accounts
C. It takes longer than other methods
D. Often you can be overwhelmed by ''junk. resumes"
D. Often you can be overwhelmed by ''junk resumes"
What is typically the most expensive method of recruiting?
A. Retained Search Fees
B. Contingency Search Fees
C. Employee Referral Bonuses
D. "Temp" to "Perm" employee conversion
A. Retained Search Fees
What is the doctrine of constructive receipt?
A. The individual who receives a benefit of more than $50 must pay taxes
B. The individual who receives a benefit on ALL monies must pay taxes
C. The individual does not pay taxes until the benefit is fully vested
D. The individual does not pay taxes until they retire.
A. The individual who receives a benefit of more than $50 must pay taxes
What must an employer do to maintain a "qualified" plan status?
A. Not favor Highly Compensated Executives
B. List all benefits received on an employee's W-2 form
C. Not favor men over women
D. Not favor younger workers over older workers.
A. Not favor Highly Compensated Executives
An employee's mother slips and falls on a wet, icy production floor and breaks her
elbow. The family is now demanding payment for doctor bills. The company has a
"no visitor" policy for the production floor. What should the HR manager do?
A. Tell the employee to have their mother file a worker's compensation claim.
B. Tell the employee that the company is not liable and she will have to pay the bills
herself.
C. Suggest that the employee have their mother file a claim under the employee's
health insurance.
D. Check with the company's general liability policy to see if it covers accidents on the premises.
D. Check with the company's general liability policy to see if it covers accidents on the premises.
What is a MAJOR disadvantage of using Anniversary Based Performance
Appraisals?
A. Timeliness of Reviews
B. Unequal treatment between managers.
C. Supervisors do not like this system
D. More lawsuits.
A. Timeliness of Reviews
According to the Polygraph Protection Act, when may a firm legally use polygraph
testing on applicants?
A. Police and Fire Departments
B. Firms providing security services or manufacturing controlled substances
C. Government Agencies
D. Military
B. Firms providing security services or manufacturing controlled substances
Which of the following benefits is an employer legally NOT required to provide?
A. Unemployment Benefits
B. Holiday Pay
C. Worker's Compensation
D. Social Security Disability
B. Holiday Pay
What is a major new trend in collective bargaining?
A. Arbitration if the contract is not settled in 30 days
B. Mediation
C. Concessionary Bargaining
D. Interest Based Bargaining
D. Interest Based Bargaining
What is a main characteristic of effective Adult Learning Styles?
A. Lecture on theories
B. Role Plays
C. Immediate practice and application back to the work place.
D. Case studies
C. Immediate practice and application back to the work place.
In the event of a national emergency, who has the authority to ask the Attorney
General to issue an injunction under the Taft Hartley Act?
A. The President of the US
B. A jury
C. The NLRB
D. The OFCCP
A. The President of the US
A small, family run civil engineering firm has just been acquired by an aggressive,
multinational, very large firm. What is the best way to communicate the news to the
employees of the family business?
A. Employee letter sent to the home address
B. Bulletin Board
C. Company wide meeting
D. E-mail
C. Company wide meeting
Compensating an employee for working a less-desirable shift by adjusting the employee's base pay is an example of:
A. Differentials
B. Bonuses
C. Incentives
D. Assistance programs
A. Differentials
What statement is true about OSHA LOG 300?
A. It is posted during any one month of the year
B. It is posted with only the first names of the employee who were injured during
the year.
C. It needs to be posted year around on the Safety Bulletin Board
D. It is to be posted during February of each year.
D. It is to be posted during February of each year.
Which of the following plans is not covered by ERISA?
A. Dental Plan
B. Retirement Plan
C. Long Term Disability
D. Legal Plan providing only referrals.
D. Legal Plan providing only referrals.
How long before an election can management make speeches to an employee group
during a unionizing campaign?
A. 2 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
C. 24 hours
The group of employees that almost always has their own separate bargaining unit
is:
A. lead technicians
B. security guards
C. administrative workers
D. sales workers
B. security guards
What is the main disadvantage of the public sector "Sunshine Law"?
A. Negotiations are open to the public
B. Only union officers can have access to confidential information
C. All employees who have access to confidential information cannot be in the
union.
D. All confidential employees have to have their own bargaining unit.
A. Negotiations are open to the public
What is one of the biggest contributors as to, on average, how many formal grievances will be filed during a given year?
A. How well liked the company president is.
B. The economic stability of the company
C. If legal handles grievances and not the HR Department
D. The attitude of the union steward.
D. The attitude of the union steward.
When union members are encouraged to seek employment with target companies
that are not union, this is defined as:
A. featherbedding
B. salting
C. yellow dog
D. union shop
B. salting
An employee in the software design department was fired for refusing to use licensed software copied illegally by her supervisor. What type of wrongful discharge suit, if any, could she file?
A. Public policy violation
B. Breach of good faith
C. Breach ofimplied contract
D. Employment at will violation
A. Public policy violation
Which single document meets all the requirements of the Immigration and
Naturalization Service's Form I-9?
A. A state-issued drivers license
B. A security card
C. A birth certificate
D. A United States passport
D. A United States passport
What is the first response by the EEOC after a charge of discrimination has been filed?
A. Conduct an investigation
B. Issue a right to sue letter
C. Attempt conciliation
D. Attempt a no fault predetermination settlement
D. Attempt a no fault predetermination settlement
An organization hired 50 management trainees and the selection rate for nonminorities
was 25%. If30 minorities apply, how many minorities should be hired to
avoid an adverse impact claim?
A.3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
B. 6
Skill inventories are primarily used for:
A. Job analysis documentation
B. Human resource planning
C. Setting performance standards
D. Performance appraisals.
B. Human resource planning
The first step in setting up a new HRIS is to:
A. Develop the data base
B. Determine the information needs
C. Establish a security and control system
D. Select between and mainframe applications
B. Determine the information needs
In a matrix organizational structure
A. Employees have three or more supervisors
B. Two organizational structures exist at the same time
C. Productivity is enhanced because of strict functional accountability
D. Line authority is strengthened.
B. Two organizational structures exist at the same time
In planning for training and development, we must first determine:
A. The available training programs
B. Training needs
C. The available funds for training programs
D. The number of individuals to be trained
B. Training needs
Which type of psychological test measures a person's overall ability to learn?
A. Aptitude
B. Interest
C. Personal
D. Specific abilities
A. Aptitude
With limited exceptions, what is generally stated about the slope of a learning curve?
A. It is generally unpredictable
B. It rises faster during early stages of learning and more slowly as training continues
C. It rises slowly at the start of training and more rapidly as training continues
D. It rises at the same rate throughout training.
B. It rises faster during early stages of learning and more slowly as training continues
A expatriate's expenses for home travel are deductible for U.S. tax purposes if the trip is made to:
A. The U.S.
B. The principal residence in the U.S.
C. Anywhere outside of the country of assignment
D. The location of the last employment in the U.S.
B. The principal residence in the U.S
At the beginning of a given year, a Shipping Department has four people, each paid $1,000 per month. In that year, each of these employees receives a pay raise of $100 per month. The raises are given January 1, March 1, July 1 and November 1,
respectively. The salary increases the payroll cost for the year by:
A. 6.25%
B. 7%
C. 9%
D. 10%
A. 6.25%
A two-tiered wage system could be expected to be most effective in:
A. Reducing payroll costs
B. Increasing individual motivation
C. Relating pay to group performance
D. Increasing feelings of external equity
A. Reducing payroll costs
Which of the following may legally be stated in an organization's employee policy?
A. Increase pay for remaining non-union
B. Plant closure if unionized
C. Organizational opposition to unions
D. Endorsement of a specific union
C. Organizational opposition to unions
During a unionization drive, which of the following may a supervisor legally do?
A. Visit the homes of employees for the purposes of urging them to reject the union
B. Inform the employees that he/she believes the international union may attempt to control the local membership
C. Make speeches to massed assemblies of employees on company time within a 24 hour period oftime before the election
D. Speak to employees one-on-one in the office of the management official and urge them to vote against the union.
B. Inform the employees that he/she believes the international union may attempt to control the local membership
When a union is attempting to organize within a company, which of the following is
a permissible management statement?
A. "If you join the union, we may have to cut your wages"
B. "If the union organizes here, we may have to shut down."
C. If a union organizes here, you are going to have to foot the bill by paying union
dues"
D. "If the union gets turned down, we may all get a raise."
C. If a union organizes here, you are going to have to foot the bill by paying union
dues"
Employers under the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens standard must:
A. Provide free hepatitis B vaccinations to all employees
B. Establish a written exposure control plan
C. Communicate an employee's bloodborne infection status to co-workers upon
request
D. Conduct regular blood tests on all employees.
B. Establish a written exposure control plan
Which of the following describes the major reason for design of pay range widths?
A. The pay range width usually increases as the pay levels decrease
B. The width is determined by the average width in your salary surveys.
C. The width is determined by averaging the first and third quartile of your salary survey averages.
D. The width is usually an administrative decision made by each individual organization
D. The width is usually an administrative decision made by each individual organization
Which of the following is an employee group that a step system compensation
system would be MOST appropriate for?
A. Sales Representatives
B. Entry level production employees
C. New college graduates
D. Temporary employees
B. Entry level production employees
What is the MAJOR difference between a "Phantom Stock" Plan and other types of
other Stock Option plans?
A. The stock does not represent any true stock ownership in the company.
B. The stock plan is not a qualified plan.
C. When the executive leaves, they cannot take the stock with them.
D. The executive must make a cash investment up front, but does not own the stock
until it is vested.
A. The stock does not represent any true stock ownership in the company.
What remedy may OSHA use for repeated, willful safety violations?
A. Disbar the company from future government contracts.
B. Issue the employees involved a "right to sue" letter.
C. Fine the company up to $1 million for each violation
D. Seek Civil and/or Criminal charges against a company's management
A. Disbar the company from future government contracts.
A Clerical Temporary Agency gives all its applicants a computer test including word processing and spreadsheets. Both tests represent the type of work the temporary
would generally do on the job. This test is an example of:
A. Construct Validity
B. Differential Validity
C. Content Validity
D. Predictive Validity
C. Content Validity
The current minimum for a sales position is $2,000 per month, the midpoint is $3,000 per month and the maximum is $4,000 per month. The current monthly pay for this individual is $3,300. This position receives a non-recoverable draw of $500 per month and was awarded a Holiday Bonus of $6,000. What is the compa-ratio?
A. .90
B. .95
C. 1.10
D. 1.20
C. 1.10
An AAP must include
( ) A. a strategy to retain a percentage of older workers.
( ) B. the name and qualifications of the EEO coordinator.
( ) C. descriptions of the reasonable accommodations for disabled employees.
( ) D. an analysis of current employees in protected groups by department.
( ) D. an analysis of current employees in protected groups by department.

The correct answer is D. An AAP includes a workforce analysis that provides data on the proportion of current employees in protected groups, an availability analysis that provides information on the number of protected group members available in the relevant labor force, and a utilization analysis that compares the number of women and minority employees to their availability. Typically, an AAP also includes goals and timetables, a description of supportive programs in place, and auditing procedures.
Which type of organizational structure creates a dual chain of command?
( ) A. Line and staff
( ) B. Functional
( ) C. Divisional
( ) D. Matrix
( ) D. Matrix

The correct answer is D. Matrix organizations create a dual chain of command, where an employee reports to two managers, rather than one, with neither manager assuming a superior role.
For performance appraisals and evaluations to be effective catalysts for improvement,
they should
( ) A. use critical incidents as a rating method.
( ) B. focus on group, rather than individual, performance.
( ) C. be ongoing activities and not stand-alone encounters.
( ) D. suggest innovative steps that will lead to improvement.
( ) C. be ongoing activities and not stand-alone encounters.

The correct answer is C. Performance appraisals should be ongoing activities. The type of rating scale or appraisal method (group vs. individual) is not the issue. What is most important is giving employees regular, ongoing feedback tied to performance, focusing on what the employee is doing well and where the employee needs to improve. Innovative outcomes are not the responsibility of the appraiser.
Bargaining that resolves more than one issue and focuses on creative solutions and
mutual benefits is known as
( ) A. distributive.
( ) B. circumvention.
( ) C. integrative.
( ) D. surface.
( ) C. integrative.

The correct answer is C. Integrative bargaining takes place when there is more than one issue to be resolved and the potential exists to make trade offs that will reconcile the parties' interests and result in mutual benefit. Distributive bargaining takes place when the parties are in conflict over an issue and the outcome represents a loss for one party and a gain for another. Circumvention is unlawful and occurs when an employer discusses bargaining proposals with its employees that have not been disclosed to the union. Surface bargaining involves merely going through the motions of bargaining, with no real intention of reaching a formal agreement.
Which of the following is a violation of the immigration Reform and Control Act?
( ) A. An affirmative action plan is not established.
( ) B. A foreign-looking American citizen is asked to complete Form 1-9 after being hired.
( ) C. An applicant from another country is asked if he has a legal right to be employed in the U.S.
( ) D. An Asian national with a passport without a right-to-work authorization is hired for a systems analyst position.
( ) D. An Asian national with a passport without a right-to-work authorization is hired for a systems analyst position.

The correct answer is D. To be eligible to work in the U.S., applicants must have documents that verify their identities and confirm their right to work in the U.S. This applicant is able to verify only identity. A is incorrect because an affirmative action plan is not a requirement of the act. B is not a violation of the act since the employee is asked to complete Form 1-9 after being hired. C does not violate the act because the question being asked is legal.
A company has a systematic performance appraisal process using a graphic scale
rating and management documentation of employee performance throughout the year. One manager, however, determines ratings on how each employee compares to the
department's star performer. This type of appraisal error is known as
( ) A. halo effect.
( ) B. bias.
( ) C. strictness.
( ) D. contrast.
( ) D. contrast.

The correct answer is D. Instead of using objective performance standards, an employee's rating is based on how the employee compares to another.
Which of the following is NOT a provision ofthe ADA?
( ) A. Buildings financed with public funds must be accessible to the disabled.
( ) B. Employers are required to accommodate disabilities that do not cause undue hardship.
( ) C. Preemployment medical examinations may be required before a job offer is made.
( ) D. With accommodation, employees must be able to perform the essential functions of the job.
( ) C. Preemployment medical examinations may be required before a job offer is made.

The correct answer is C. Preemployment medical exams are prohibited until after an employment offer has been extended. The offer may be conditional upon passing the examination.
Under the LMRA, which of the following practices is illegal?
( ) A. Allowing the union to represent nonunion workers in the bargaining unit
( ) B. Establishing company-sponsored labor organizations
( ) C. Contributing to a charity in lieu of union dues
( ) D. Allowing employers to file union unfair labor practice charges
( ) B. Establishing company-sponsored labor organizations

The correct answer is B. The LMRA, or Taft-Hartley Act, outlawed company sponsored labor organizations (also known as sweetheart contracts). In 1980, the act was amended to allow employees with religious objections to contribute to a charity in lieu of union dues. The act also allows employers to file ULP charges against unions and recognizes the right of the union to represent all employees in a bargaining unit, whether or not they are union members.
An employer has established an EAP relationship with a social service agency, with the employer paying costs up to a preestablished limit. Which of the following programs would MOST likely be included?
( ) A. Alcohol and drug abuse counseling
( ) B. Health risk appraisal
( ) C. Smoking cessation programs
( ) D. Nutrition education
( ) A. Alcohol and drug abuse counseling

The correct answer is A. Alcohol and drug abuse counseling would most likely be included. EAPs typically focus on personal, family, financial, and work problems.
A company in the maturity phase of the organizational life cycle might do which of
the following to improve workforce productivity?
( ) A. Increase outsourcing.
( ) B. Differentiate products.
( ) C. Emphasize training.
( ) D. Increase recruitment and selection.
( ) C. Emphasize training.

The correct answer is C. In the maturity phase, an organization is probably introducing additional products or services. Training is necessary to maintain the skills of the workforce and increase productivity.
To avoid a charge of defamation, which of the following is the MOST appropriate action an employer should take?
( ) A. Deal with all employees in good faith.
( ) B. Submit voluntary affirmative action plans to the EEOC.
( ) C. Check driving records and verify employment before hiring.
( ) D. Take care that all written or spoken statements about employees are truthful.
( ) D. Take care that all written or spoken statements about employees are truthful.

The correct answer is D. Defamation is injuring someone's reputation in the community by making a false, malicious statement. It may be written (libel) or verbal (slander). To prove defamation, an employee must show that the report is false and that the employer acted maliciously.
Which common-law concept protects an employee from being fired for reporting a criminal activity committed by an employer?
( ) A. Implied contract
( ) B. Public policy
( ) C. Constructive discharge
( ) D. Implied covenant of fair dealing
( ) B. Public policy

The correct answer is B. Public policy, an exception to the employment-at-will concept, states that employees generally cannot be fired for disclosing illegal, immoral, or illegitimate practices under the control of their employers to organizations who can take corrective action. The other concepts do not deal with the situation described above. Implied contracts hinge on written or verbal statements implying that an employee's employment will be continued. Constructive discharge occurs when an employer makes conditions so intolerable that an employee must resign. Implied covenant of fair dealing comes into play in situations where an employer treats an employee unreasonably and arbitrarily, for example, firing a sales employee who is due to collect a big commission.
In developing a security program, an HR manager must assess potential risks and costs related to loss and protection. In carrying out this assessment, which of the
following factors should be analyzed FIRST?
( ) A. Severity of impact of the loss to the organization.
( ) B. Cost of the loss, including a permanent or temporary substitute.
( ) C. Degree of probability that the loss will occur.
( ) D. Availability and cost of insurance to cover the loss.
( ) C. Degree of probability that the loss will occur.

The correct answer is C. The first thing a manager would do is determine the degree of probability that the loss would occur. With this information, the manager could next determine the impact and cost of the loss and the probable insurance coverage.
The MOST appropriate method for training senior management to handle critical
decision making is
( ) A. lecture.
( ) B. self-study.
( ) C. case study.
( ) D. on-the-job training.
( ) C. case study.

The correct answer is C. Senior-level managers need high-level training that focuses on critical skills such as decision making or problem solving. These skills cannot be taught through lecture, self-study, or on-the-job training. Case studies work best because they allow managers to participate in real-life experiences with compressed time frames that allow for careful analysis of behavior and results.
An HR professional has been assigned to communicate specific policies and procedures to line managers on how to deal with employee grievances. Which of the following HR
roles does this task represent?
( ) A. Advisory
( ) B. Evaluation
( ) C. Control
( ) D. Service
( ) A. Advisory

The correct answer is A. In an advisory role, HR trains line managers in the management of human resources. HR managers do not step in and complete the HR tasks themselves; instead, they are in a teaching or advisory role. B and C are incorrect because these roles focus on review and evaluation of supervisory and employee performance. D is not correct because, in a service role, HR directly handles tasks that provide service to the organization, its employees, and the public.
Which three factors define the relevant labor market?
( ) A. Technology, population density, education
( ) B. Occupation, location, industry
( ) C. Union status, inflation, compensation strategy
( ) D. Product demand, political climate, interest rates
( ) B. Occupation, location, industry

The correct answer is B. For pay purposes, there are three factors that define the relevant labor market: occupation (jobs that demand similar knowledge, skills, and abilities), geography (distance people are willing to commute), and industry (competition with employers who have similar products).
In which career development program does a seasoned employee serve as a role
model and advisor to a new employee?
( ) A. Mentoring
( ) B. Cross-training
( ) C. Vestibule training
( ) D. Apprentice training
( ) A. Mentoring

The correct answer is A. Mentoring is a one-to-one interaction between an experienced person and a less-experienced person and involves role modeling, advising, networking, and sharing contacts. Cross-training trains employees in the practices of other positions or departments. Vestibule and apprentice training are both combinations of on- and off-the-job training.
For which of the following groups does the short test that determines exempt or nonexempt status contain no criteria related to salary?
( ) A. Executives
( ) B. Professionals
( ) C. Administrative employees
( ) D. Outside salespeople
( ) D. Outside salespeople

The correct answer is D. For executives, administrative employees, and professionals, there is a $455/week salary requirement.
A mature company is expanding into overseas markets. A few U.S. managers and
personnel will be transferred, but most new employees will be hired. The strategic plan involves focusing marketing efforts on brand strategy and packaging rather than advertising. Which of the following factors will be HR's MOST pressing challenge in supporting this corporate strategy?
( ) A. Judgmental forecasts
( ) B. Workforce supply and demand forecasts
( ) C. Succession planning
( ) D. Turnover analysis
( ) B. Workforce supply and demand forecasts

The correct answer is B. The most pressing challenge HR faces is the need to assess workforce supply and demand. HR must consider the big picture, mirroring the business planning process by considering both short- and long-term staffing needs
An organization needs to determine ways to use staff capabilities more fully and decide whether jobs need to be redesigned. Which of the following actions should HR
take?
( ) A. Meet with line managers to examine skills and time utilization.
( ) B. Project future movement ofemployees through statistical analysis.
( ) C. Provide cross-training to develop employee skills in different areas.
( ) D. Recommend the use of leased employees or an outsourcing vendor.
( ) A. Meet with line managers to examine skills and time utilization.

The correct answer is A. Before decisions are made regarding adding staff or cross training, HR must meet with line managers to examine skills and time utilization. This will give HR the information it needs to capitalize on the competencies of its staff.
Which of the following base-pay systems links pay to the number of skills a worker can perform?
( ) A. Time-based
( ) B. Productivity-based
( ) C. Person-based
( ) D. Performance-based
( ) C. Person-based

The correct answer is C. Person-based systems pay for knowledge, skills, and competencies. Number of skills and level of competency and knowledge are evaluated. Time-based systems focus on the individual and reward longevity in the job; productivity-based systems focus on individual output. With performance-based systems (also referred to as merit pay), an individual's performance determines the
amount or timing of pay increases.
A union-free high-tech manufacturing company is interested in gaining ongoing information about its employees' views of organizational effectiveness. If possible, they want to benchmark their employees' attitudes against those of employees in similar organizations. The MOST effective way for the company to gather information for these purposes would be
( ) A. skip-level interviews.
( ) B. departmental communications meetings.
( ) C. an employee representative system.
( ) D. surveys.
( ) D. surveys

The correct answer is D. Surveys ask employees to provide opinions on a variety of topics. This option is best because it is possible to use the norms from other organizations to benchmark the results. It also satisfies the organization's need for ongoing feedback, which over time will lead to continuous process improvement.
Which of the following situations violates the ERISA standards for pension funds?
( ) A. Employees are required to have a minimum of 15 months of service before they can participate in their employer's defined benefit plan.
( ) B. Employees are allowed to transfer their accrued pension funds to another employer's plan.
( ) C. An employer's plan excludes employees under age 21, regardless of how long they have worked for the organization.
( ) D. Employees become fully vested after five years of service.
( ) A. Employees are required to have a minimum of 15 months of service before they can participate in their employer's defined benefit plan.

The correct answer is A. Employees must be allowed to participate if they have at least one year of service and are at least 21 years old. Vesting plans may vary, but a minimal standard is that employees must be 100% vested after five years. While ERISA does not mandate the portability of pension funds, it is not a violation of standards to make provisions for portability.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be included in a new-hire orientation program?
( ) A. Product knowledge training, skill gap analysis, process work flow
( ) B. Company history, policies and procedures, employee introductions
( ) C. Product knowledge training, communication skills, interpersonal skills
( ) D. Skills of listening, questioning, explaining, creative problem solving
( ) B. Company history, policies and procedures, employee introductions

The correct answer is B. The objective of orientation is to introduce trainees to the organization and make them feel they belong. It usually includes information on the company's history, structure, and culture and provides an opportunity for employees to become acquainted with the organization's policies and procedures and their co-workers. Skill-development training is usually not a part of orientation.
Under OSHA, employees do NOT have the right to
( ) A. request OSHA inspections if violations exist in the workplace.
( ) B. accompany the OSHA compliance officer on an inspection.
( ) C. apply to OSHA for temporary variance from a standard.
( ) D. receive training and information on workplace health and safety hazards.
( ) C. apply to OSHA for temporary variance from a standard.

The correct answer is C. Employees do not have the right to apply for relief from any of the OSHA standards. However, the other options fall within their rights. They may request an inspection and accompany the compliance officer on an inspection. They also have the right to be informed of workplace hazards and to receive training related to health .and safety standards.
Under the Norris-LaGuardia Act, the power of employers in dealing with union activities was limited by
( ) A. restricting the use of injunctions against nonviolent union activities.
( ) B. defining the refusal to bargain with a representative ofthe employees as an unfair labor practice.
( ) C. prohibiting employers from assigning employees to less desirable work because of union activities.
( ) D. prohibiting preferential treatment to employees who do not support the union.
( ) A. restricting the use of injunctions against nonviolent union activities.

The correct answer is A. The two primary provisions ofthe act were that it restricted the use of injunctions against activities such as strikes, picketing, and boycotts and it prohibited the use of yellow-dog contracts that forced employees to agree not to join unions as a condition of employment. B, C, and D describe unfair labor practices that are prohibited by the NLRA.
Due to low wages and poor working conditions, union organizers have gathered enough support to have the NLRB order a supervised secret ballot election. Which of
the following will the NLRB consider in determining the appropriate bargaining unit?
( ) A. Whether another union has shown an interest in representing the unit
( ) B. The total number of employees included in the proposed unit
( ) C. Whether 50% or more of the employees in the proposed unit have signed authorization cards
( ) D. Similarity of skills, hours, and wages of employees in the proposed unit
( ) D. Similarity of skills, hours, and wages of employees in the proposed unit

The correct answer is D. The primary consideration is whether the employees have sufficient common interests so as not to create substantial conflicts in bargaining. The fact that another union may be interested in representing the unit is not an issue, nor is the number of employees in the bargaining unit. Since a union represents both union and nonunion employees in the bargaining unit, the number of people signing authorization cards or belonging to the union is not an issue.
A national corporation has completed its first phase of diversity awareness training.
HR has been asked to evaluate the training to identify any barriers to diversity
initiatives and determine future training and support. Which research methodology
would yield the best results?
( ) A. Using statistical measures ofassociation
( ) B. Running true experiments with experimental and control groups
( ) C. Gathering qualitative and quantitative information from training participants
( ) D. Interviewing training participants to discuss their reactions to the training
( ) C. Gathering qualitative and quantitative information from training participants

The correct answer is C. A combination of qualitative data (subjective opinions and reactions) and quantitative data (objective facts and ratings) will yield the best results. For example, a standardized questionnaire combined with interviews or focus groups provides a more complete picture than either of the two methodologies alone. A and B would not yield the best results because they focus only on quantitative data, giving an incomplete picture ofthe training. D errs on the side of presenting only quantitative data, again not presenting a complete picture.
A manager assigns tasks to an employee that are beyond the scope ofthe employee's job.
When the employee complains, the manager increases the workload and sets unrealistic
deadlines. Out of frustration, the employee finally resigns, even though he has an
employment contract. This situation is an example of
( ) A. coerced termination.
( ) B. constructive discharge.
( ) C. retaliatory discharge.
( ) D. voluntary termination.
( ) B. constructive discharge.

The correct answer is B. Constructive discharge occurs when an employer makes working conditions so intolerable that an employee is forced into an involuntary resignation.
Which level oftraining evaluation provides data related to sales increases or cost savings?
( ) A. Reaction
( ) B. Learning
( ) C. Behavior
( ) D. Results
( ) D. Results

The correct answer is D. The most difficult and most valuable evaluation occurs at the results level. The difficulty is in determining what role training played in producing the results. The reaction level focuses on the satisfaction oftrainees; the learning level focuses on trainees' abilities to learn facts, ideas, and concepts; and the behavior level focuses on observable changes in job behaviors.
Green-circle rates result when a worker is paid
( ) A. more than the maximum for the pay range.
( ) B. a low salary plus a bonus.
( ) C. slightly more than a new employee with no experience.
( ) D. less than the minimum for the pay range.
( ) D. less than the minimum for the pay range.

The correct answer is D. Green-circle rates are those in which the pay rate is below the range minimum. Typically, the workers are given pay raises to get them into the range. Red-circle rates are those in which the pay rate is above the range maximum. Typically, the salary is frozen until the salary range is adjusted. Pay compression occurs when there is very little difference in pay between employees regardless of experience levels.
According to Herzberg's motivation-hygiene theory, which of the following is a
motivation factor?
( ) A. Job security
( ) B. Personal growth
( ) C. Relations with coworkers
( ) D. Physical working conditions
( ) B. Personal growth

The correct answer is B. Herzberg believes that employees have two categories of needs. Hygiene needs are those that make up the environment in which employees work. These must be acceptable before the motivation needs become operative. Motivation needs include opportunities for recognition, achievement, and personal growth.
The NLRB will bar a petition for an election when
( ) A. an unfair labor practice charge affecting the proposed bargaining unit is pending.
( ) B. the proposed bargaining unit covers multiple employers.
( ) C. the union starts organizing efforts again immediately after losing a
previous election.
( ) D. a valid election has been conducted in the same unit within the previous
24 months.
( ) A. an unfair labor practice charge affecting the proposed bargaining unit is pending.

The correct answer is A. The NLRB will bar a petition for an election when a ULP is pending. B is incorrect because a multiple employer situation does not create a bar to the election process. C is incorrect because a union may start organizing activities immediately after an unsuccessful attempt. D is incorrect because of the time frame stated; if a valid election has been conducted within the previous 12 months, the NLRB will bar a petition for an election.
Which of the following would be considered nontaxable indirect compensation?
( ) A. Employer-paid group-term life insurance over $50,000
( ) B. Personal use ofa company car
( ) C. Employee discounts on employer goods or services
( ) D. Severance pay
( ) C. Employee discounts on employer goods or services

The correct answer is C. Employee discounts are considered indirect compensation and are not taxable. Employer-paid group-term life insurance over $50,000 and personal use of a company car are considered indirect taxable compensation. Severance pay is considered direct compensation and is taxable.
Which ofthe following statements about work that is in the public domain is true?
( ) A. The work can be copied and distributed without payment or permission.
( ) B. Trainers can make only one copy of the work for their use.
( ) C. Only not-for-profit agencies may use works in the public domain.
( ) D. There is no charge for using the work, but the author's permission is
needed.
( ) A. The work can be copied and distributed without payment or permission.

The correct answer is A. Work that has fallen into the public domain can be used without permission from or payment to the author. It may not have been copyrighted, its original copyright may have expired, or it may have been produced by U.S. government employees as part of their official duties.
According to the FLSA, which of the following would be considered time worked for purposes ofovertime?
( ) A. A nonexempt employee spends ten minutes at the end of the day cleaning up the work area.
( ) B. A nonexempt employee is given a meal break of 45 minutes when working additional hours in the evening.
( ) C. An exempt employee spends an hour traveling to and from the airport for a one-day trip.
( ) D. A nonexempt employee travels from home to a customer site after hours in response to an emergency call.
( ) D. A nonexempt employee travels from home to a customer site after hours in response to an emergency call.

The correct answer is D. A nonexempt employee called back to work is paid for the time spent getting to the job and handling the emergency. B is incorrect because meal breaks generally do not count as actual hours worked. C is incorrect because exempt employees are not compensated for travel time.
Environmental scanning should be used to
( ) A. identify appropriate group performance incentive strategies.
( ) B. evaluate internal and external conditions affecting job satisfaction and union membership.
( ) C. identify local, national, and global competitive pressures that could influence the organization's strategy.
( ) D. obtain an overall view of the advantages and disadvantages of developing workforce training internally.
( ) C. identify local, national, and global competitive pressures that could influence the organization's strategy.

The correct answer is C. Environmental scanning is a process that systematically surveys, identifies, and interprets relevant events and conditions. Its focus is external and strategic.
Which of the following statements about broadbanding is NOT true?
( ) A. It provides more autonomy to line managers in making salary and
promotion decisions.
( ) B. It encourages willingness to transfer among departments.
( ) C. It supports the reduction of reporting levels.
( ) D. It increases opportunities for promotion.
( ) D. It increases opportunities for promotion.

The correct answer is D. Broadbanding generally collapses the career ladders in an organization, resulting in fewer promotions. However, it encourages employee mobility and gives line managers a greater say in salary and promotion decisions.Because it reduces the number of job grades, it can support an organization's decision to reduce the number of reporting levels.
Disparate treatment occurs when
( ) A. only women applicants are required to take a personality test before being
offered a position.
( ) B. a policy perpetuates a discriminatory hiring practice.
( ) C. all applicants take a test that only white males perform well on.
( ) D. all workers must meet the same standards, but the consequences are
different.
( ) A. only women applicants are required to take a personality test before being offered a position.

The correct answer is A. Disparate treatment occurs when protected groups are intentionally treated differently from other groups. In this case, only women are asked to take the personality test. The other options describe disparate impact, a form of discrimination in which an employer uses employment practices that appear neutral but may actually discriminate against a protected group, such as asking applicants to take a test that only white males perform well on. Disparate impact also occurs if all workers are asked to meet the same standards but the consequences of not meeting them are different for protected groups.
Which ofthe following employees is NOT eligible to vote in a union election?
( ) A. An employee on leave of absence
( ) B. An employee on temporary layoff
( ) C. An employee on sick leave
( ) D. An employee on the payroll before and after the election
( ) A. An employee on leave of absence

The correct answer is A. An employee who is on a leave of absence is not eligible to vote because of a presumed lack of continued interest in the unit. However, employees on a temporary layoff or sick leave are eligible. Employees who are on the payroll during the pay periods immediately before and after the date of the election are also eligible.
Employers should obtain which ofthe following before extending a contingent offer of employment?
( ) A. A polygraph test
( ) B. Medical records and a physical examination
( ) C. Written authorization from the candidate to check work references
( ) D. Verbal permission from the candidate to check work references
( ) C. Written authorization from the candidate to check work references

The correct answer is C. Because so many firms have been sued by applicants who discovered that they had been given poor recommendations, many organizations refuse to supply information without a signed statement from the former employee. Preemployment polygraph tests cannot be required under most circumstances, and physical exams cannot be required until after a job offer has been made.
A privately owned consulting firm with a staff of 65 provides health-care benefits to its employees. What requirements does COBRA impose related to continuation of
health-care coverage?
( ) A. Former employees can continue group medical insurance coverage for up to 24 months if termination is involuntary but for reasons other than gross misconduct.
( ) B. Spouses and dependent children can continue coverage for 36 months in the case of divorce.
( ) C. Former employees can continue coverage for 12 months in cases of voluntary termination ofemployment.
( ) D. Coverage must be discontinued when a former employee becomes eligible for medical insurance from a new employer.
( ) B. Spouses and dependent children can continue coverage for 36 months in the case of divorce.

The correct answer is B. Since the firm has 20 or more employees, it must provide for continuation of health-care benefits. COBRA does not distinguish between voluntary and involuntary termination. Former employees can continue coverage for 18 months. If an employee becomes disabled, the employee may continue coverage for 29 months; a divorced spouse and children can continue coverage for 36 months. Employees may continue COBRA coverage until the time period expires, even if they qualify for insurance with a new employer.
An organization develops a health and safety management program in an effort to reduce the increasing number of on-the-job accidents. What is the MOST important thing the company can do to help this program succeed?
( ) A. Create a culture that values safety.
( ) B. Ensure that all employees are tested annually on safety rules.
( ) C. Make employees' health and safety records part of their annual performance appraisals.
( ) D. Establish a safety committee made up of supervisors from different
departments.
( ) A. Create a culture that values safety.

The correct answer is A. Establishing a culture that values safety is the best answer because then safety becomes everyone's job and employees know that they are expected to contribute to a safe work environment. Testing employees and making safety a part of the annual performance appraisal are one-time efforts that may be perceived as negative. A safety committee generally involves workers from different levels and departments, not just supervisors.
A candidate's ability to complete an actual job task is best tested through a(n)
( ) A. predictive index.
( ) B. work sample test.
( ) C. aptitude test.
( ) D. achievement test.
( ) B. work sample test.

The correct answer is B. A work sample test requires candidates to complete an actual work task in a controlled setting. The other tests measure a person's general capacity to learn or ability to relate to others. The work sample test is the only test that relates closely to what the person will be doing on the job.
Which of the following is considered a threat ofreprisal on the part of an employer
during a union organizing campaign?
( ) A. The company promises to remedy grievances as the election nears.
( ) B. The company states in a meeting that unionization will lead to a strike and loss of jobs.
( ) C. The company states that recent collective bargaining agreements have sometimes resulted in a reduction in benefits.
( ) D. The company questions employees regarding knowledge of union activities.
( ) B. The company states in a meeting that unionization will lead to a strike and loss of jobs.

The correct answer is B. A threat ofreprisal is any threat, overt or subtle, intended to
keep employees from joining the union. This statement leads employees to believe
that management will instigate a strike by refusing to bargain with the union. A contains an impliedpromise that improvements will be made, and it is also illegal. C is a factual statement, is not intended to coerce employees, and is not illegal. D is an
example ofillegal interrogation.
An employee files an EEOC complaint. The company is mailed a copy of the complaint, along with a Waiver of Service of Process fonn. If the company does NOT
sign the fonn,
( ) A. they are admitting to the alleged discrimination.
( ) B. they have 20 days to respond to the complaint.
( ) C. they are held in contempt ofcourt.
( ) D. the employee pays to have the complaint personally served.
( ) B. they have 20 days to respond to the complaint.

The correct answer is B. Ifthe waiver is not signed, the company has 20 days to
respond; ifthe waiver is signed, they have 60 days to respond. In addition, the complaint will be personally served and the employer will incur those costs.
Which of the following statements about the Privacy Act of 1974 is true?
( ) A. It establishes the concept of just cause.
( ) B. It gives federal employees access to their personnel files.
( ) C. It establishes the concept of due process.
( ) D. It lists all federal laws pertaining to record keeping.
( ) B. It gives federal employees access to their personnel files.

The correct answer is B. The act gives federal-sector employees the right to know the
type of information collected on them, review their files, have incorrect information removed, and restrict distribution of information.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of a headquarters-based approach to international compensation?
( ) A. Employees' purchasing power is equalized.
( ) B. Employees must negotiate with the company to get the best deal.
( ) C. The employer incurs higher costs than under some other plans.
( ) D. Employers find it difficult to recruit candidates for international assignment.
( ) C. The employer incurs higher costs than under some other plans.

The correct answer is C. The headquarters-based approach to compensation is simple
for expatriates to understand and simple for the company to administer. However, it usually costs more than other compensation approaches since it pays all expatriates
the same, regardless of their country of origin.
Group-term life insurance is usually provided by a company in the amount of $50,000 or less because
( ) A. minimum group-term life insurance of $50,000 is required by ERISA.
( ) B. insurance that is over $50,000 is taxed as imputed income.
( ) C. employees value life insurance less than take-home pay.
( ) D. it reduces the administrative burden to offer only one type of policy.
( ) B. insurance that is over $50,000 is taxed as imputed income.

The correct answer is B. When a group-tenn policy is greater than $50,000, the amount over $50,000 is taxed as imputed income. hnputed income is the amount that a company pays on behalf of an employee. The employee does not receive the benefit in real dollars but pays taxes on it. The company would need to determine the
monthly cost of the excess insurance, and this amount would be taxed and would
appear as income on the employee's W-2 statement.
Which of the following statements about medical flexible spending accounts is NOT true?
( ) A. Employees may use pretax dollars to pay for unreimbursed medical or
dental expenses.
( ) B. Any amount set aside but not spent at the end ofthe year is forfeited.
( ) C. Claims may not be filed until there is enough money withheld to cover them.
( ) D. Employees can select the benefits they want.
( ) C. Claims may not be filed until there is enough money withheld to cover them.

The correct answer is C. Claims may be filed and paid as soon as they are incurred. The other statements correctly describe medical flexible spending accounts.
Left off at number 51
final Exam answers ocr