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1971 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
what are the two major components of blood and what are these sometimes called?
|
cells
plasma called formed elements |
|
|
list the structural organization of skeletal muscle from smallest component to largest
|
myofilament
myofibril myofibre fasicle muscle |
|
|
what are the four major components of plasma?
|
water
electrolytes / ions organic substances / nutrients plasma proteins |
|
|
what is the primary function of the musculoskeletal system?
|
posture
purposeful movement |
|
|
how much of blood plasma is water?
|
90%
|
|
|
which structural component of muscle is an organ?
|
the muscle itself
|
|
|
what role do ions play in blood plasma?
|
maintain cell and enzyme functions
maintain osmotic pressure and pH |
|
|
what are the two types of CNS responses?
|
reflexive and voluntary
|
|
|
name some plasma proteins
|
albumin
globulins fibrinogen |
|
|
which structural component of muscle is the tissue level?
|
fasicle
|
|
|
what are the three major functions of blood?
|
distribution
regulation protection |
|
|
list the structural components of the musculoskeletal system
|
bones
joints |
|
|
what general things are transported by blood?
|
nutrients and oxygen
metabolic waste hormones |
|
|
which structural component of muscle is the muscle cell?
|
myofibre
|
|
|
which part of the brain regulates body temperature?
|
hypothalamus
|
|
|
Define anatomy
|
the study of the structures of the body and relationships between systems
|
|
|
what role does water play in thermoregulation?
|
it is a major component of blood which then acts as a resevoir in the skin
|
|
|
which structural component of muscle is a macromolecule?
|
myofilament
|
|
|
how is heat release from the skin mediated?
|
vasodilation and radiation
|
|
|
what are the functional components of the musculoskeletal system?
|
nerves
skeletal muscle CT proper structures |
|
|
what are the two protective functions of blood?
|
blood clotting
immunity |
|
|
which structural component of muscle is an organelle?
|
myofibril
|
|
|
which type of blood cells are the most abundant in the body?
|
red blood cells
|
|
|
what are the two categories of sensory receptors?
|
general and special
|
|
|
what is the average life span of a red blood cell?
|
120 days
|
|
|
what class of connective tissue is the endomysium?
|
areolar
|
|
|
what are the unique characteristics of red blood cells?
|
ability to transport oxygen
ability to change shape |
|
|
list the five mechanical functions of bone
|
provide body shape
provide framework anchor organs and tissue protect internal organs levers for movement |
|
|
describe the nucleus of a red blood cell
|
it doesn't have one
they are anucleate |
|
|
what class of connective tissue is the epimysium?
|
dense irregular
|
|
|
what does a red blood cell depend on aerobic respiration?
|
because it has no mitochondria
|
|
|
Define physiology
|
the study of the function of the body
|
|
|
what protein is found in red blood cells that is unique to their function?
|
hemoglobin - an oxygen binding protein
|
|
|
what is syncytium?
|
an all or nothing reaction
|
|
|
which acid-base buffer is responsible for the majority of the blood's buffering capacity?
|
hemoglobin
|
|
|
list the two physiological/metabolic functions of bone
|
store fat and minerals
hematopoiesis |
|
|
name the three forms of haemoglobin
|
oxyhemoglobin
deoxyhemoglobin carbaminohemoglobin |
|
|
what is sarcoplasm?
|
cytoplasm of a muscle cell
|
|
|
which form of hemoglobin is not bound to oxygen?
|
deoxyhemoglobin
|
|
|
what types of sensory input do special sensory receptors handle?
|
taste, vision, smell, hearing etc. They are specialized, unique receptors
|
|
|
which form of hemoglobin is bound to oxygen?
|
oxyhemoglobin
|
|
|
what is the sarcolemma?
|
membrane of the myofibre
lipid bilayer |
|
|
which form of hemoglobin is bound to carbondioxide?
|
carbaminohemoglobin
|
|
|
what are the three mechanical functions of muscle?
|
locomotion
posture joint stability |
|
|
how many oxygen molecules bind to an Hb molecule?
|
4
|
|
|
what is the special feature of skeletal muscle myofibres?
|
striations
|
|
|
when is hemoglobin considered saturated?
|
when all four binding sites are full
|
|
|
Define pathology
|
the study of disease processes
the study of altered states of health |
|
|
list factors affecting the binding of oxygen to Hb
|
pressure of oxygen in lungs
temperature (harder in higher temps) pH (decrease pH = decreased binding) |
|
|
what are myofilaments?
|
threads of fibrous proteins
|
|
|
what is hematopoeisis?
|
process in which blood cells are produced
|
|
|
what is the metabolic/physiological function of muscle?
|
generation of heat
|
|
|
where are all types blood cells produced?
|
red bone marrow
|
|
|
what is the thick myofilament?
|
myosin
|
|
|
where would you find blood sinusoids and what are they for?
|
in bone, in contact with bone marrow
allows movement of cells out of the bone marrow and into circulation |
|
|
What are the location classifications of receptors?
|
exteroceptors
interoceptors (visceroceptors proprioceptors |
|
|
which three formed elements arise from hematocytoblasts?
|
erythrocyte
leukocytes thrombocytes |
|
|
what is the thin myofilament?
|
actin
|
|
|
what do erythrocytes do?
|
oxygenation and distribution
|
|
|
what are the two major properties of bone?
|
tensile strength
flexibility |
|
|
what do thrombocytes do?
|
blood clotting
|
|
|
what is described as bundles of myofilaments composed of actin and myosin?
|
myofibrils
|
|
|
what is erythropoiesis?
|
process describing production of red blood cells in the red bone marrow
|
|
|
define homeostasis
|
the process of maintaining a stable internal environment
dynamic equilibrium |
|
|
which population has extensive bone marrow?
|
children
|
|
|
what are the box like segments along the length of the myofibril?
|
sarcomeres
|
|
|
why does bone marrow decline in adulthood?
|
the medulary cavity fills with yellow marrow (fat)
|
|
|
what are the two types of bone?
|
dense
cancellous |
|
|
how long does it take to produce mature erythrocytes?
|
5 - 7 days
|
|
|
what is the contractile unit of skeletal muscle?
|
sarcomere
|
|
|
during which stage of erythropoiesis is the nucleus of the cell ejected and why?
|
normoblast
to make room for hemoglobin |
|
|
By location, which receptors are sensitive to stimuli outside the body?
|
exteroceptors
|
|
|
during which stage of erythropoiesis does the cell enter the blood stream and what else happens to the cell?
|
reticulocyte
ribosomes and rough ER dissolve |
|
|
what causes the striation of skeletal muscle?
|
the alignment of actin and myosin within the sarcomere
|
|
|
list factors leading to hypoxia that would stimulate erythropoiesis
|
loss of RBCs
diminished oxygen supply increased demand for oxygen |
|
|
what type of bone is tight knit, provides strength and forms the outer part of the bone?
|
compact bone
|
|
|
which hormone regulates erythropoiesis and where is it secreted?
|
erythropoietin
the kidneys |
|
|
what forms the boundary between adjacent sarcomeres?
|
Z disc
|
|
|
what supresses the release of erythropoietin?
|
increased oxygen carrying capacity of blood
|
|
|
What are cells?
|
the basic unit of life
|
|
|
what substances are required to make RBCs?
|
nutrients (proteins, lipids, CHO)
iron ions B12, folic acid |
|
|
which striation is made up of both actin and myosin?
|
A band
|
|
|
how do red blood cells replicate/divide?
|
they don't, they are anucleate and do not produce new mRNA
|
|
|
what type of bone has open spaces and is there to lighten the weight of bones and provides room for marrow?
|
cancellous
|
|
|
where does the life of a red blood cell end?
|
the spleen
|
|
|
which striation is made up of only actin?
|
I band
|
|
|
what happens to red blood cells in the spleen?
|
they are degraded by macrophages
heme splits from globulin globulin is digested and reused |
|
|
where are exteroceptors found?
|
near the sufface of the body
|
|
|
what is ferritin?
|
a protein that is found in the liver and spleen that binds to free iron ions
|
|
|
which striation is made up only myosin?
|
H band
|
|
|
when heme binds with ferritin what does it become?
|
transferrin
|
|
|
what type of bone marrow is responsible for red blood cell formation?
|
red
|
|
|
what is bilirubin and what can it cause?
|
degraded heme
it can accumulate under the skin and cause jaundice |
|
|
when is the H band visible?
|
in relaxed muscle
|
|
|
what is anemia?
|
abnormally low oxygen carrying capacity
|
|
|
What are the four tissue types?
|
epithelial
connective nerve muscle |
|
|
which type of anemia is from a nutritional iron deficiency?
|
microcytic
|
|
|
what muscle cell structure stores calcium?
|
sarcoplasmic reticulum
|
|
|
what do red blood cells look like in someone with microcytic anemia?
|
small in number
small in size |
|
|
what type of bone marrow contains fat deposits?
|
yellow
|
|
|
what causes pernicious anemia?
|
vitamin B12 deficiency
|
|
|
what are terminal cisternae?
|
sarcoplasmic tubules that form perpendicular channels over the A-I junction
|
|
|
what do red blood cells look like in pernicious anemia?
|
large cells that do not proliferate
|
|
|
what receptors sense touch, pain, temperature?
|
exteroreceptors
|
|
|
what type of anemia is a result of internal or external bleeding?
|
hemorrhagic
|
|
|
T Tubules are an extension of what?
|
the sarcolemma
|
|
|
if red blood cells are rupturing what type of anemia is this?
|
haemolytic
|
|
|
where would you find yellow bone marrow?
|
in the medullary cavity of long bones
|
|
|
what is aplastic anemia?
|
no RBC production due to bone marrow dysfunction
|
|
|
what do the T Tubules allow?
|
rapid transmission of signals to all parts of the myofibrils
ample supply of glucose and oxygen |
|
|
which type of anemia is characterized by abnormal hemoglobin due to defective molecules and presents with an abnormal cell shape?
|
sickle cell anemia
|
|
|
What are the eight functional characteristics?
|
boundaries
digestion metabolism excretion responsiveness movement growth reproduction |
|
|
what are some general manifestations of tissue hypoxia?
|
angina
night cramps weakness/fatigue dyspnea tachycardia / palpations |
|
|
what type of proteins are actin and myosin?
|
fibrous
contractile |
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of chronic hypoxia?
|
dyspnea
fatigue cyanosis |
|
|
what are osteons?
|
elongated cylinders that form around central canals
|
|
|
what is polycytemia?
|
abnormally high red blood cell count
it is a compensatory mechanism found in chronic hypoxia |
|
|
what happens to the distance between Z discs during contraction?
|
it is reduced
|
|
|
what type of feedback loop is hemostasis?
|
positive
|
|
|
which receptors are sensitive to internal body stimuli?
|
interoceptors / visceroceptors
|
|
|
what is fibrinogen and where is it produced?
|
plasma protein formed in the liver
it is the inactive blood clotting factor |
|
|
what happens to the length of actin and myosin filaments during contraction?
|
nothing, they remain the same length
|
|
|
what is the active form of the blood clotting protein?
|
fibrin
|
|
|
what are the two types of bone canals?
|
Haversian
Volkmans |
|
|
what converts fibrinogen to fibrin?
|
an enzyme called thrombin
|
|
|
which striations are visible in relaxed muscle?
|
I bands
A bands H zone |
|
|
list the three phases of hemostasis
|
vascular spasm
platlet plug formation coagulation |
|
|
What are the six survival needs?
|
Water
oxygen nutrients appropriate body temperature appropriate atmospheric pressure and touch. |
|
|
a cut to the skin triggers which blood clotting pathway?
|
extrinsic
|
|
|
when a muscle is completed contracted which striations disappear?
|
I band
H Zone |
|
|
the extrinsic clotting pathway triggers cells to release what?
|
thromboplastin / tissue factor
|
|
|
which bone canals run vertical of longitudinally?
|
Haversian
|
|
|
damage to blood vessels themselves triggers which clotting pathway?
|
intrinsic
|
|
|
what does connectin do?
|
anchors myosin to Z discs
|
|
|
the intrinsic clotting pathway triggers cells to release what?
|
PF3 (phospholipid)
|
|
|
what types of things to visceroceptors monitor?
|
chemical composition
stretching of tissue internal activities |
|
|
what actually triggers the release of PF3?
|
exposed collagen fibres impale thrombocytes
|
|
|
what is a myofilament made up of?
|
about 200 myosin (protein molecules in parallel bundles)
|
|
|
what is activated when the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways meet?
|
Factor X
|
|
|
which bone canals run transverse?
|
Volkman
|
|
|
what is the role of Factor X in blood clotting?
|
it is a prothrobin activator which will eventually lead to converting fibrinogen to fibrin
|
|
|
describe a myosin molecule
|
two intertwined polypeptide chains
|
|
|
what is fibriolysis?
|
mechanism for removing unnecessary clots
|
|
|
What is matter?
|
anything that has mass and takes up space
|
|
|
what is heparin?
|
a naturally occurring anticoagulant
|
|
|
what are the two parts of the myosin molecule?
|
axis - a rod like tail
two globular heads |
|
|
what is a thrombus?
|
clot attached to the wall of a blood vessel
|
|
|
what is the purpose of the bone canal system?
|
passageway for nerve fibres and blood vessels
supplies all bone cells and connects them to the outside world |
|
|
what is an embolus?
|
a thrombus that has broken free of the BV wall
|
|
|
what is the diameter of myosin?
|
16 nm
|
|
|
what is thrombocytopenia?
|
abnormally low numbers of circulating thrombocytes
|
|
|
which receptors monitor the position of the body in space?
|
proprioceptors
|
|
|
what conditions predispose someone to thromboembolytic disorders?
|
arteriosclerosis
severe burns (loss of plasma proteins) inflammation (release of coagulating facors) |
|
|
what is the diameter of actin?
|
8 nm
|
|
|
what is the effect of liver function on hemostasis?
|
liver synthesizes plasma factors, so dysfunction can lead to severe bleeding
|
|
|
how much of bone is organic?
|
35%
|
|
|
why is joint pain a symptom of hemophilia?
|
blood enters the joint cavity and is corrosive
|
|
|
what are monomers?
|
units of G-actin linked together
|
|
|
what is the connection between vitamin K deficiency and clotting?
|
vitamin K is needed for synthesis of clotting factors
|
|
|
What is energy?
|
the ability to do work
|
|
|
are white blood cells part of the first, second or third line of defence?
|
second and third
|
|
|
what is a polymer?
|
linear linkage of G-Actin monomers
|
|
|
list the lymphoid organs
|
thymus
lymph nodes tonsils spleen |
|
|
what are the organic components of bone?
|
cells
osteoid material |
|
|
what is the role of the thymus in immunity?
|
site of T lymphocyte maturation
|
|
|
what is a polymer also know as?
|
F-actin
|
|
|
what are the roles of the spleen?
|
blood cleansing (removes old RBS)
stores iron and thrombocytes immune surveillance |
|
|
what types/locations of changes are proprioceptors responding to?
|
changes in the musculoskeletal system (joints)
|
|
|
what are the two types of lympoid tissues?
|
Peyers patches
MALT |
|
|
what type of molecule is F-actin?
|
a fibrous protein
|
|
|
what are Peyer's patches and where would you find them?
|
the abdomen / intestines
aggregates of lymph nodes |
|
|
how much of bone is inorganic?
|
65%
|
|
|
which cells of the immune system confer specificity?
|
lymphocytes
|
|
|
what is a myofilament?
|
helix formed from two intertwined actin strands
|
|
|
describe the structure of lymph nodes
|
core = reticular tissue
contain macrophages and lymphocytes encapsulated / dense fibrous capsule |
|
|
What are atoms?
|
the smallest particle of matter
the smallest particle of an elemental substance. |
|
|
what structural feature of lymph nodes helps to ensure that fluid spends a lot of time there?
|
more afferent vessels than efferent
|
|
|
what binds to myosin during contraction?
|
active sites of G actin
|
|
|
what is a self-antigen?
|
substances that elicit a response in others but not in the host
|
|
|
what is the inorganic component of bone?
|
calcium phosphate
|
|
|
where are lymphocytes produced?
|
in red bone marrow
|
|
|
what does tropomyosin do?
|
prevents the linkage btween actin and myosin
|
|
|
what is immunocompetency?
|
the ability to initiate an immune response and follow it through to completion
|
|
|
what types of receptors are monitoring the degree of stretch?
|
proprioceptors
|
|
|
which blood type is the universal donor?
|
O
|
|
|
what is the conformation of tropomyosin?
|
two long protein chains coiled about F Actin
|
|
|
which blood type can receive blood from all other types?
|
AB
|
|
|
how much of the body's calcium is found in bone?
|
99%
|
|
|
what percentage of circulating WBCs are lymphocytes?
|
20-30%
|
|
|
what links actin and myosin and initiates molecular events leading to contraction?
|
troponin
|
|
|
what are the two types of lymphocytes?
|
B-lymphocytes
T-lymphocytes |
|
|
what are atoms made up of?
|
electrons, protons and neutrons.
|
|
|
where do B-lymphocytes mature?
|
in bone marrow
|
|
|
what kind of protein is troponin?
|
globular
|
|
|
where do T-lymphocytes mature?
|
in the thymus gland
|
|
|
how much of the body's phosphate is found in bone?
|
80%
|
|
|
B-lymphocytes make up how much of the lymphocyte population?
|
20-20%
|
|
|
what does TnT do?
|
binds troponin complex to tropomyosin
inhibition / prevents actin-myosin link |
|
|
T-lymphocytes make up how much of the lymphocyte population?
|
60-70%
|
|
|
what are the five types of receptors classified by the type of stimulus?
|
mechanoreceptors
thermoreceptors chemoreceptors photoreceptors nociceptors |
|
|
which type of lymphocyte is responsible for humoral/antibody immunity?
|
B-lymphocytes
|
|
|
what does TnI do?
|
binds the troponin complex to actin filament
|
|
|
which type of immungoglobulin makes up the greatest population of circulating antibodies?
|
IgG
|
|
|
what other three inorganic substances are found in high amounts in bone?
|
sodium
magnesium carbon |
|
|
which immungoglobulin is responsible for determining blood type?
|
IgM
|
|
|
what does TnC do?
|
binds Calcium
|
|
|
which immungoglobulin is active in immediate and delayed hypersensitivity reactions?
|
IgE
|
|
|
What are ions?
|
charged particles
|
|
|
what do IgEs bind to?
|
basophils and mast cells
|
|
|
what three things are the key to contraction?
|
neural stimulation
energy / ATP Ca ion binding |
|
|
how long does it take for the primary immune response to peak?
|
about 10 days
|
|
|
what do osteoblasts do?
|
produce and secrete the ECM or osteoid material
|
|
|
how long does it take for the secondary immune response to mobilize?
|
about 2-3 days
|
|
|
where is energy / ATP derived from?
|
cellular respiration
|
|
|
what is the purpose of the T-Lymphocytes?
|
if an Ag slips into a cell, the B-lympohcytes are useless, the T-Lymphocytes will respond to Ag present in the cell
|
|
|
what do mechanoreceptors sense?
|
change in pressure, touch, stretch, vibration
|
|
|
what are APCs and what do they do?
|
Antigen presenting cells
they make antigens more visible to the lymphocytes |
|
|
what is myoglobin?
|
oxygen binding protein
|
|
|
what are the three populations of T-Lymphocytes?
|
cytotoxic
T-Helper T-Suppressors |
|
|
what are osteocytes?
|
mature bone cells that maintain the bone matrix
|
|
|
what do cytotoxic T-Lymphocytes do?
|
kill cells
bind to surface antigens release lymphokines destroy the target cell membrane |
|
|
what are the three basic characteristics of nerve cells?
|
amitotic
extreme longevity high metabolic rate |
|
|
what do T-Helper T-Lymphocytes do?
|
enhance the cell-mediated cytotoxicity
|
|
|
What is a cation?
|
particle with a net positive charge
|
|
|
what do T-Suppressor T-Lymphocytes do?
|
limit the immune response
|
|
|
which motor neuron feature picks up signals passed on from other neurons?
|
dendrites
|
|
|
what is acquired immunity?
|
state in which the body can defend itself against a given antigen
|
|
|
what do osteoclasts do?
|
dissolve and phagocytize the bony matrix
|
|
|
what are the two types of acquired immunity?
|
natural
artificial |
|
|
which motor neuron feature is the gathering station for income signals?
|
axon hillock
|
|
|
natural and artificial acquired immunity are further divided into which two categories?
|
active
passive |
|
|
which receptors sense temperature changes?
|
thermoreceptors
|
|
|
why is leukocytosis considered a normal imbalance?
|
because the proliferation of white blood cells is the normal response in order to fight disease
|
|
|
which part of the motor neuron is the point of signal initiation?
|
axon hillock
|
|
|
give two examples of abnormal leukocytosis
|
leukemia
infectious mononucleosis |
|
|
what does osteoid material contain?
|
ground substance
specialized Type 1 collagen fibres |
|
|
what leads to leukemia?
|
a single clone cell whose cells do not differentiate
|
|
|
which part of the motor neuron is the conducting region?
|
axon
|
|
|
what is the result of leukemia?
|
suppression or impaired bone marrow function
leads to severe anemia |
|
|
What is an anion?
|
particle with a net negative charge
|
|
|
which syndrome is a result of T-Helper cells being targeted and causing a destruction of the immune system?
|
HIV / AIDS
|
|
|
what is the axonal terminal?
|
the secretory region of the motor neuron
|
|
|
what determines the permeability of blood vessels?
|
structural adaptations to the endothelial lining
|
|
|
when does osteogenesis begin?
|
around week 6
|
|
|
where does lymph fluid eventually end up
|
the vena cave and back to the heart
|
|
|
where do the axonal terminal signals go?
|
to the next neuron
or to the myofibre |
|
|
are there valves leading to the atria of the heart?
|
no
|
|
|
what types of changes do chemoreceptors sense?
|
changes in chemical composition, presence of disolved substances
|
|
|
what does the superior vena cava drain?
|
structures superior to the diaphragm
|
|
|
what is another name for the axonal terminal?
|
pre-synaptic membrane
|
|
|
what does the inferior vena cave drain?
|
structures inferior to the diaphragm
|
|
|
what is ossification?
|
formation of bone substance
|
|
|
what does the coronary sinus drain?
|
coronary supply
|
|
|
what is the area called between the axonal terminal and myofibre?
|
synapse
|
|
|
heart valves are an extension of what structure?
|
endothelium of the heart wall
|
|
|
What is an elemental molecule
|
molecule made up of many of the same type of atom
|
|
|
which valves would you find between atria and ventricles?
|
atrioventricular valves
|
|
|
what is the area of the myofibre called that receives the signal from the neuron?
|
post synaptic membrane
or motor end plate |
|
|
which atrioventricular valve is found on the right side of the heart?
|
tricuspid
|
|
|
what is described as cycles of resorption and formation?
|
bone remodeling
|
|
|
which atrioventricular valve is found on the left side of the heart?
|
mitral / bicuspid
|
|
|
what travels across the synapse?
|
neurotransmitters
|
|
|
where would you find semilunar valves?
|
between ventricles and the arteries that leave the heart
|
|
|
what types of receptors sense changes in the intensity of light?
|
photoreceptors
|
|
|
which valve would you find between the left ventricle and the aorta?
|
aortic semilunar
|
|
|
how do the neurotransmitters enter the synapse?
|
synaptic vesicles carry them to the axonal terminal where they enter the synapse via exocytosis
|
|
|
which valve would you find between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery?
|
pulmonary semilunar
|
|
|
what are the two types of bone formation?
|
structural
internal |
|
|
describe cardiac myofibres
|
short
fat branched 1 - 2 nuclei |
|
|
what happens when the NTs reach the motor end plate?
|
they attach to receptors and initiate a signal
|
|
|
what joins adjacent myofibres?
|
intercalated discs with desmosomes
|
|
|
what is a compound molecule
|
molecule made up of 2 or more different elements
|
|
|
what do gap junctions in the myofibres allow?
|
easy communication with cells and passage of ions
|
|
|
what is the name of the reception site on the myofibre?
|
motor end plate
|
|
|
where is action potential in heart initiated?
|
at the sinoatrial node
|
|
|
what type of bone formation happens with children?
|
structural
|
|
|
where does cardiac action potential go after the sinoatrial node?
|
to the AV nodes and then through the heart to cardiac muscle cells
|
|
|
what kind of channel is electrically stimulated?
|
voltage gated
|
|
|
what is the resting membrane potential of cardiac muscle cells?
|
-90 mV
|
|
|
what do nociceptors sense?
|
pain, stimuli from injury
|
|
|
what is threshold in cardiac muscle cells?
|
+30 mV
|
|
|
what kind of channel is chemically stimulated?
|
chemically gated
|
|
|
how does cardiac muscle get its influx of calcium for contraction?
|
it is released from sarcoplasmic reticulum as well as from outside the cell via calcium channels
|
|
|
what type of bone cell is responsible for resorption?
|
osteoclasts
|
|
|
which stage of action potential is unique to cardiac muscle?
|
plateau
|
|
|
what channel is stimulated by pressure?
|
mechanically gated
|
|
|
describe the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential
|
large calcium influx and decreased potassium permeability lead to a retardation of repolarization
|
|
|
What is a chemical bond?
|
the forces of attraction holding together combining atoms
an energy relationship between the electrons |
|
|
what is the refractory period of cardiac muscle?
|
250 msec
|
|
|
describe the relationship of charges between the inside and outside of the cell?
|
inside is more negative than outside
|
|
|
what does the long refractory period in heart muscle allow?
|
allows blood to pool in the chambers
|
|
|
what type of bone cell is activated for bone formation?
|
osteoblasts
|
|
|
what is the tunica externa made of?
|
collagen
|
|
|
what is the first step in initiating a signal or action potential?
|
depolarization
|
|
|
what is the tunica media made of?
|
smooth muscle
elastin |
|
|
what are the two classifications of receptors by structure complexity?
|
encapsulated nerve endings and unencapsulated nerve endings
|
|
|
what is the function of the tunica media?
|
regulate blood flow
|
|
|
what does acetecholine open?
|
gated sodium channels
|
|
|
what is the tunica intima made of?
|
squamus endothelial cells
|
|
|
how much bone mass is recycled weekly?
|
5 - 7%
|
|
|
what is the function of the tunica intima?
|
decrease friction of moving blood
|
|
|
what happens to the polarity of the membrane when the sodium gate is opened?
|
the inside of the cell is no longer more negative due to a change in ion distribution
|
|
|
what is an aneurysm?
|
dilation of a blood vessel (arteries) due to stretching of vessel walls
|
|
|
What are the four categories of body systems?
|
maintain homeostasis
support, protection and movement control and regulation continuity |
|
|
what are the four types of aneurysms?
|
berry
fusiform saccular dissecting |
|
|
once depolarization begins to occur, what happens?
|
the depolarization spreads in all directions and this wave opens even more sodium gates
|
|
|
where would you find a berry aneurysm?
|
in the circle of willis
|
|
|
where does remodeling of bone occur?
|
the Haversian canals of compact bone
endosteal surfaces of cancellous bone |
|
|
where would you find a fusiform aneurysm?
|
ascending and transverse thoracic aorta
abdominal aorta |
|
|
the stage characterized by the spread of depolarization in all directions is called?
|
Propagation of an Action Potential
|
|
|
which aneurysm involves the entire circumference of the vessel and develops gradually?
|
fusiform
|
|
|
what is the location classification of cutaneous receptors?
|
exteroceptors
|
|
|
which aneurysm involves only part of the circumference of the vessel and is found in aortic vessels?
|
saccular
|
|
|
as the depolarization wave moves along the sarcolemma, which gates close in its wake?
|
the sodium channels
|
|
|
describe a dissecting aneurysm
|
blood seeps between layers of the blood vessels causing dilation and rupture
|
|
|
what do osteoclasts secrete and for what purpose?
|
Hydrogen ions to dissolve calcium salts
produce and secrete proteolytic enzymes to degrade collagen fibres |
|
|
where would you find a dissecting aneurysm?
|
ascending aorta
aortic arch proximal descending aorta |
|
|
as the depolarization wave moves along the sarcolemma, which gates open in its wake?
|
potassium channels
|
|
|
what are the leading causes of aneurysm?
|
arteriosclerosis
hypertension |
|
|
Which body systems help to maintain homeostasis (4)?
|
circulatory
respiratory digestive urinary |
|
|
what is the target population for aneurysm?
|
people with congenital defects
people over 50 |
|
|
what restores the cell back to the initial polarized state?
|
the ATPase pump / sodium-potassium pump
|
|
|
which extrinsic mechanisms control heart rate?
|
brain stem / medulla oblongata
vagus nerve sympathetic nervous system (T1 - T4) |
|
|
describe the steps of bone formation
|
osteoblasts migrate to the site
cells proliferate and differentiate collagen fibres are synthesized and secreted |
|
|
list the five autonomic nervous system centers in the medulla oblongata
|
cardiovascular
respiratory coughing swallowing vomiting |
|
|
during which period will the myofibre not respond to stimulation?
|
the refractory period
|
|
|
the vagus nerve passes through which structure on the way to innervate the heart?
|
jugular foramen
|
|
|
what types of receptors (by stimuli) are cutaneous receptors?
|
mechanoreceptors
thermoreceptors nociceptors |
|
|
what happens with parasympathetic fibres of the vagus nerve fail?
|
sympathetic nerves are unopposed and rate of vital organs are accelerated and digestion is inhibited
|
|
|
what is happening during the refractory period?
|
the resting membrane potential is being restored
|
|
|
myocardial cells make up what population of cells in the heart?
|
99%
|
|
|
during childhood what is the relationship between bone formation and resorption?
|
formation is greater than resorption
|
|
|
which cells make up 1% of the cells in the heart?
|
autorhythmic cells / pacemaker cells
|
|
|
what is described as electrical events at the pre and post synaptic membranes?
|
excitation
|
|
|
what is the resting membrane potential of autorhythmic cells?
|
-70 mV
|
|
|
Which body systems give support, protection and movement (3)?
|
Skeletal
muscular integumentary |
|
|
describe the intrinsic mechanism pathway of innervation in the heart
|
SA node (right atrium)
atrioventricular node atriventricular bundle / Bundle of His right and left bundle branches Purkinje fibres (ventricular wall) |
|
|
what is coupling?
|
release of calcium ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum
|
|
|
what happens during diastole?
|
atrium or ventricle fills
|
|
|
what is the net effect if bone formation is greater than resorption?
|
increase in bone mass
|
|
|
what happens during systole?
|
atrium or ventricle contracts
|
|
|
what does coupling link?
|
it links the electrical events (excitation) to the mechanical event (contraction)
|
|
|
what does the top number of a blood pressure reading correspond to?
|
systole / systolic pressure
cardiac contraction |
|
|
what are the two unecapsulated cutaneous nerve endings?
|
Merkel discs and root hair plexus
|
|
|
what does the bottom number of a blood pressure reading correspond to?
|
diastole / diastolic pressure
cardiac relaxation |
|
|
what is described as the sliding of myofilaments in the sarcomere or the shortening of sarcomeres?
|
contraction
|
|
|
what is happening when you hear the sounds of the heart?
|
valves are closing
|
|
|
at what period in life does bone formation equal resorption?
|
adults between the ages of 20-35
|
|
|
which sound of the heart is louder and what does it correspond to?
|
lub
AV valves contract when ventricles contract |
|
|
what is 'joining' during the coupling phase?
|
calcium ions to TnC (troponin C)
|
|
|
which sound of the heart is not as loud and what does it correspond to?
|
dub
semilunar valve close as pressure in arteries goes up and blood leaves the heart |
|
|
which body systems control and regulate the body (2)?
|
Nervous system
endocrine system |
|
|
what is autorhythmicity?
|
the ability to initiate depolarization without outside stimulation
|
|
|
what does calcium released from the SR bind with?
|
troponin
|
|
|
what allows transmission of electrical signals to other cells in the heart?
|
gap junctions
|
|
|
at what age does bone resorption become greater than formation?
|
after 35
|
|
|
what is cardiac arrhythmia?
|
disturbances to intrinsic conduction of the heart
irregular, uncoordinated |
|
|
what two events occur at the neural end during excitation?
|
AP reaches axon terminal
ACh is released and diffuses across the synapse following the concentration gradient |
|
|
what does arrhythmia interfere with?
|
orderly pumping of blood
affects circulation |
|
|
where would you find Merkel discs?
|
in the spinosum layer of the epidermis
|
|
|
what is bradycardia?
|
slow heart rate
|
|
|
how do the sodium channels close to terminate the signal at the sarcolemma?
|
enzymes degrade the ACh
|
|
|
what is the effect of tachycardia?
|
decreased blood filling the heart during diastole and decrease is blood pumped during systole
|
|
|
which gender loses bone mass steadily to the end of line?
|
men
|
|
|
what is fibrillation?
|
rapid, irregular contractions of the myocardium
ineffective pumping |
|
|
what causes the uncovering of the myosin binding sites on actin?
|
Ca ions bind to TnC on troponin causing a conformational change which causes it to shift in space and uncover the binding site.
|
|
|
what is the effect of defibrillation on the heart?
|
it depolarizes the heart in an attempt to restore the rhythm initiated in the SA node
|
|
|
Which body systems offer continuity (1)?
|
reproductive
|
|
|
as an example, if the SA node takes over for a defective AV node, what type of dysfunction is this called?
|
ectopic pacemaking
|
|
|
During the excitation phase, what is happening at the motor end plate?
|
ACh binds to receptors at end plate
AP moves along the sarcolemma and into T Tubules signal releases Calcium from SR |
|
|
conduction dysfunction, or heart block is caused by what?
|
damage to nerve fibres in the heart
scar tissue replacing nerve fibres |
|
|
what lifestyle decisions can modify bone loss?
|
quit smoking
moderate or little alcohol consumption exercise calcium rich diet |
|
|
what are some causes of valve dysfunction?
|
congenital
ischemia inflammation and fibrosis |
|
|
the closing of the Na channels is essential for what three outcomes?
|
repolarization
restoration of RMP termination of muscular contraction |
|
|
what is stenosis?
|
narrowing of the lumen
|
|
|
what are the three types of encapsulated cutaneous nerve endings?
|
Meissner's corpuscles
Pacinian corpuscles Ruffini corpuscles |
|
|
what is the structural result of stenosis?
|
stiff valves that don't open and close properly
|
|
|
what event couples excitation to contraction?
|
binding of calcium to TnC
|
|
|
if a valve is stiff and doesn't close properly and blood flows backwards, what type of dysfunction is this?
|
incompetent or regurgitant valves
|
|
|
what role does calcium play in the body? (6)
|
muscle contraction
cardiac function build bones and teeth blood clotting neural function glandular secretion / exocytosis |
|
|
which valves are most likely to suffer from dysfunction?
|
aortic
mitral |
|
|
where would you find TnC?
|
on troponin
|
|
|
what is aortic valve stenosis
|
narrowing of the opening between the left ventricle and the aorta
|
|
|
What is a molecule?
|
the combination of two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds
|
|
|
what is the result of aortic valve stenosis?
|
left ventricle becomes enlarged
SV is reduced BP is reduced and results in poor tissue perfusion |
|
|
what is the normal calcium concentration in a cell?
|
low
|
|
|
what are some common causes of aortic valve stenosis?
|
rheumatic fever
congenital defects |
|
|
what three factors affect Ca concentration?
|
too little Ca in diet
too much excreted by the kidneys hormonal imbalance |
|
|
what is the result of aortic valve regurgitation?
|
left ventricle hypertrophy
BP is difficult to maintain |
|
|
what is 'cross bridge formation'?
|
actin and myosin binding
|
|
|
what is orthopnea and what pathology is it associated with?
|
difficulty breathing when laying down
found with aortic valve regurgitation, mitral valve dysfunction |
|
|
what detects light pressure, discriminative touch, and low frequency vibrations?
|
Meissner's corpuscles
|
|
|
what happens to blood flow with mitral valve defects?
|
increased pressure in the left atrium leads to pulmonary congestion
|
|
|
what is the result of cross bridge formation?
|
muscle contraction
|
|
|
what is patent ductus arteriosis?
|
congenital heart defect
shunt connecting left pulmonary arty and descending aorta fails to close |
|
|
what is the role of phosphate in the body?
|
maintain acid - base balance of the blood
combines with Ca to form Ca3(PO4)2 |
|
|
what is coarctation of the aorta?
|
compression and narrowing of the aorta
congenital |
|
|
what ionic change in the myofibre results in the myosin binding site being masked?
|
calcium is removed from the sarcoplasm
|
|
|
what tetralogy of fallot?
|
all four congenital conditions at once:
|
|
|
What are the characteristics of a solution?
|
homogeneous
usually transparent |
|
|
how much blood flows through skeletal muscle at rest?
|
1200 millilitres / min
|
|
|
what are the four stages of the contraction cycle?
|
energizing
engagement power stroke disengagement |
|
|
how much blood flows through skeletal muscle during exercise?
|
12,500 millilitres / min
|
|
|
how many grams of Ca is found n the body?
|
1,200-1,400
|
|
|
does the blood flow to the brain change?
|
no, it remains pretty much constant
|
|
|
what is the main event of the energizing stage of the contraction cycle?
|
engagement - the binding of myosin heads to binding sites on actin
|
|
|
what does blood pressure measure?
|
force exerted by blood on the walls of the blood vessel
|
|
|
where would you find Meissner's corpuscles?
|
in the superficial dermis (the pappilary layer)
|
|
|
what is peripheral resistance?
|
opposition to blood flow
|
|
|
what is the position of the myosin heads during engagement?
|
cocked
|
|
|
what two things can increase peripheral resistance?
|
stenosis / BV narrowing
rough endothelium in BV |
|
|
what happens when Ca plasma levels decrease?
|
bone is resorbed
|
|
|
if PR is constant an increase in blood pressure leads to...
|
increased blood flow
|
|
|
what causes the myosin head to be cocked in the energizing stage?
|
the hydrolysis of ATP
|
|
|
if blood pressure is constant, an increase in peripheral resistance leads to....
|
decreased blood flow
|
|
|
What are the characteristics of a colloid?
|
heterogeneous
usually milky or translucent in appearance |
|
|
what three factors affect blood flow?
|
vessel diameter
length of vascular bed viscosity |
|
|
what substance breaks down ATP in the energizing phase?
|
ATPase
|
|
|
what is blood velocity?
|
distance that blood flows in a given period of time
|
|
|
what happens when Ca blood plasma levels increase?
|
bone formation
|
|
|
where is blood velocity the most reduced and what function does it serve?
|
in the capillary beds
allows adequate time for perfussion |
|
|
when ATP binds to the myosin head, what is the position of the head?
|
it is 'drooped'
|
|
|
local changes in blood flow are mediated by what two intrinsic factors?
|
metabolic
myogenic |
|
|
what do pacinian corpuscles sense?
|
deep pressure and stretch
|
|
|
describe metabolic blood flow mediation?
|
vasodilation is cued due to decrease in nutrients or due to chemical factors such as lactic acid, histamine etc
|
|
|
what is the main event of the engagement portion of the contraction cycle?
|
cross bridge formation - myosin head binds to exposed actin binding site
|
|
|
describe myogenic blood flow mediation
|
activated when blood flow to tissue is inadequate - affects pre-capillary sphincters
also affects smooth muscles of BV in response to stretch |
|
|
bone formation and resorption depends on what two things?
|
Calcium / phosphate plasma ion concentrations
hormone levels |
|
|
what are two examples of long term changes for blood flow regulation?
|
angiogenesis
enlargement of existing blood vessels |
|
|
what is the main event of the power stroke phase of the contraction cycle?
|
the ratcheting of the myosin head
|
|
|
blood flow is VARIABLE to which areas of the body?
|
skeletal muscle
skin the heart the lungs |
|
|
What are the characteristics of a suspension?
|
heterogeneous
appearance has large pieces in it that settle when left alone |
|
|
blood flow is stable to which areas of the body?
|
the brain
|
|
|
the distance between the Z discs shortens in which muscle contraction phase?
|
the power stroke
|
|
|
how much blood flows to the brain?
|
~750 ml per minute
|
|
|
what internal factors regulate bone remodeling?
|
calcium/phosphate plasma levels
Vitamin D parathyroid hormone calcitonin |
|
|
where would you find the vasomotor center?
|
medulla oblongata
|
|
|
what is the main event of the disengagement phase of the muscle contraction cycle?
|
cross bridge detachment
|
|
|
what is stroke volume?
|
amount of blood ejected from the heart during one beat
|
|
|
what sense deep continuous pressure?
|
Ruffini corpuscles
|
|
|
what is cardiac output?
|
amount of blood ejected from the heart during one minute
|
|
|
what is required for disengagement?
|
ATP must bind to the myosin head
|
|
|
how would you find someone's pulse pressure?
|
subtract diastolic pressure from systolic pressure number
|
|
|
what role does Vitamin D play is bone formation?
|
essential to the absorption of Ca from the digestive tract
|
|
|
in which ways is blood pressure maintained in the short term?
|
baroreceptor reflexes
chemoreceptor reflexes hypothalamic activities |
|
|
what is attached to the myosin head during engagement?
|
ADP and Pi
|
|
|
what mediates baroreceptor reflexes?
|
stretch receptors in aortic arch and carotid sinuses
|
|
|
what is the difference between compounds and mixtures?
|
A mixture is not chemically bonded and can be separated by physical means.
|
|
|
immediate changes in blood pressure due to activity, postural changes and emotional changes are mediated by what?
|
baroreceptor reflexes
|
|
|
what is attached to the myosin heads during disengagement?
|
ATP
|
|
|
what do chemoreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses respond to?
|
changes in blood pH and other substances
|
|
|
what are the sources of Vitamin D?
|
exposure of a precursor in the skin to sunlight
dietary |
|
|
what body structures handle long term regulation of blood pressure?
|
kidneys
endocrine / hormones |
|
|
what happens to the ATP during the energizing phase of contraction?
|
it is hydrolysed
|
|
|
describe the role kidneys play in blood pressure regulation
|
fluid control
electrolyte balance |
|
|
what type of receptors (classified by stimuli) are the encapsulated cutaneous receptors?
|
mechanoreceptors
|
|
|
what is the definition of hypertension?
|
two or more consecutive readings of higher than 140/90
|
|
|
is engagement and disengagement a single event?
|
no
|
|
|
what are the categories of hypertension?
|
primary / essential
secondary |
|
|
what are the two forms of inactive Vitamin D?
|
D3 - skin
D2 - intestine |
|
|
which category of hypertension is the most common?
|
primary / essential
|
|
|
what determines the number of contraction cycles and the tension generated?
|
the load and force required to move it
|
|
|
what is the cause of primary hypertension?
|
idiopathic
|
|
|
How does an ion become charged?
|
by either gaining or losing electrons.
|
|
|
what is the cause of secondary hypertension?
|
hypertension due to the presence of another condition directly related to blood pressure (ie Kidney disease)
|
|
|
muscle relaxes when the levels of calcium are......
|
low
|
|
|
list some risk factors for hypertension?
|
family history
age high salt intake obesity excessive alcohol stress |
|
|
where is Vitamin D changed from inactive to active Vitamin D?
|
in the liver and kidney
|
|
|
how is primary hypertension diagnosed?
|
usually by accident during an exam
client is asymptomatic |
|
|
muscle contracts when the level of calcium is......
|
high
|
|
|
what are signs and symptoms of secondary hypertension?
|
nosebleeds
headaches edema nausea visual disturbances |
|
|
which of the cutaneous receptors is a slow adapter?
|
Ruffinian corpuscles
|
|
|
what types of changes to the heart accompany hypertension?
|
left ventricle hypertrophy
acceleration of arteriosclerosis |
|
|
what induces rigor mortis?
|
changes in membrane permeability
ATP production ceases intracellular calcium levels are high cross bridge detachment is not possible |
|
|
what is pulmonary hypertension?
|
elevated pressure in the pulmonary arteries
|
|
|
what two hormones are involved in calcium metabolism?
|
parathyroid hormone
calcitonin |
|
|
what are some causes of pulmonary hypertension?
|
increase in left atrial pressure (backup)
increased pulmonary blood flow (congestion) increased pulmonary vascular resistence |
|
|
what do tonic muscles do?
|
they are postural muscles
|
|
|
pulmonary hypertension is often a result of what kind of primary condition?
|
advanced respiratory disorders
|
|
|
How does a cation become charged?
|
by losing electrons
|
|
|
what is cor pulmonale?
|
heart failure due to primary lung disease and pulmonary hypertension
right ventricle hypertrophy as heart struggles to pump against increased pulmonary pressure |
|
|
which type of skeletal muscle primarily a one joint muscle and acts to move body parts?
|
phasic / dynamic
|
|
|
what is orthostatic hypotension?
|
abnormal decrease in BP when going from laying down to standing
|
|
|
where does parathyroid hormone come from?
|
the parathyroid gland
|
|
|
what are common causes of vasodilation?
|
loss of vasomotor tone (neurogenic)
vasodilators in blood (anaphylaxis, septicemia) |
|
|
which of the two types of skeletal muscles are more sensitive to stimulation?
|
postural
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of neurogenic distributive shock?
|
decreased heart rate
skin is warm and dry |
|
|
which of the cutaneous receptors is a fast adapter?
|
pacinian corpuscles
|
|
|
what the signs and symptoms of anaphylactic distributive shock?
|
abdominal cramps
apprehension burning sensation uticaria pruritis dyspnea |
|
|
which skeletal muscle type responds to injury by becoming tight or hypertonic?
|
postural
|
|
|
what is the cause of septic distributive shock?
|
bacterial infection
bacterial toxins cause severe vasodilation |
|
|
where does calcitonin come from?
|
the thyroid
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of septic distributive shock?
|
fever
warm,flushed skin |
|
|
which type of skeletal muscle reacts to injury by becoming weak and atrophied?
|
phasic
|
|
|
what are the three types of circulatory shock?
|
hypovolemic
distributive obstructive |
|
|
How does an anion become charged?
|
by gaining electrons
|
|
|
what is hypovolemic shock?
|
shock due to large scale loss of blood
|
|
|
what is muscle tone?
|
a partial state of contraction
|
|
|
what types of compensatory mechanisms are activated by hypovolemic shock?
|
increased HR and CO
increased respiratory rate kidney blood pressure mechanisms |
|
|
what hormone stimulates absorption on Ca from the intestine?
|
parathyroid hormone
|
|
|
what is the function of muscle tone?
|
stabilize joints
maintain posture |
|
|
what makes touch sensations difficult to describe?
|
density of receptors
nerve endings responding to more than one type of stimulus |
|
|
what is posture?
|
the relative position of the body at any given moment
|
|
|
what hormone stimulates reabsorption of Ca from the kidneys?
|
parathyroid hormone
|
|
|
posture depends on what two things?
|
state of the joint
muscle tone |
|
|
What are the three types of chemical bonds?
|
Ionic
covalent hydrogen bonds |
|
|
what is described as a sudden involuntary muscle contraction?
|
muscle spasm
|
|
|
what hormone stimulates osteoclast activity?
|
parathyroid hormone
|
|
|
what are the two types of muscle spasm?
|
tonic
clonic |
|
|
the epidermis and the central nervous system are closely linked and both arose from which germ layer?
|
ectoderm
|
|
|
what types of muscles are subject to spasm?
|
smooth
skeletal |
|
|
which hormone stimulates activity all aimed at increasing blood Ca levels?
|
parathyroid hormone
|
|
|
what five things can lead to muscle spasms?
|
dehydration
hypoxia low glucose levels electrolyte depletion pH changes |
|
|
How is an ionic bond formed?
|
one of the atoms gives up its electrons to the other. Both atoms end up with a charge, one negative, and the other positive. The actual bond occurs because the two new ions now have opposite charges, which attract them to one another.
|
|
|
what is the lay term for a muscle spasm?
|
muscle cramp
|
|
|
which hormone works to decrease calcium plasma levels?
|
calcitonin
|
|
|
ischemia can lead to a muscle cramp why?
|
lack of oxygen and nutrients
non-removal of metabolic waste |
|
|
sensory information traveling from a receptor to the CNS is travelling along which pathway?
|
afferent
|
|
|
what happens to a muscle that is continually held in a shortened position?
|
adaptive shortening
|
|
|
is parathyroid hormone or calcitonin more important?
|
PTH
|
|
|
what is stretch weakness?
|
slight elongation of muscle fibres within normal range of stretching
|
|
|
how is a covalent bond formed?
|
It is formed when two or more neutral atoms share electrons.
|
|
|
how is a stretch weakness corrected?
|
strengthen the muscle(s)
do not stretch of move through full ROM |
|
|
what structure is stimulated with blood calcium levels decrease?
|
parathyroid hormone
|
|
|
what is a motor unit?
|
functional nerve-muscle unit
|
|
|
information traveling from the central nervous system to a gland or a muscle is traveling along which pathway?
|
efferent
|
|
|
what makes up a motor unit?
|
a motor neuron and all the myofibres it supplies
|
|
|
what two things happen when blood Ca levels increase?
|
PTH secretion is inhibited
thyroid is stimulated to release calcitonin |
|
|
the size and the number of motor neurons stimulated determines what?
|
the force of contraction
|
|
|
What is a polar covalent bond?
|
a molecule with with one slightly positive end and one slightly negative end.
|
|
|
what type of muscles have low ratio of muscle fibres to motor unit?
|
muscles responsible for fine motor control
|
|
|
Inflammation of the bone marrow cavity, caused by a variety of bacteria describes which condition?
|
Acute Pyrogenic Osteomyelitis
|
|
|
what types of muscles have a high ratio of muscle fibres to motor neurons?
|
large, weight-bearing muscles
|
|
|
what is stimulus?
|
change in the environment that elicits a response
|
|
|
what alterations are made to muscles during remodeling?
|
diameter
length vascular supply fibre type |
|
|
what are the causes of Acute Pyrogenic Osteomyelitis?
|
open wounds / fractures
complications from surgery spontaneous (hematogenic) |
|
|
what increases in hypertrophy?
|
myofibrils
|
|
|
How is a hydrogen bond formed?
|
molecules with polar covalent bonds are attracted to one another.
|
|
|
what is the window of opportunity to restore function to a denervated muscle?
|
3 months
|
|
|
which bones are susceptible to Acute Pyrogenic Osteomyelitis?
|
all bones, especially long bones
|
|
|
what replaces muscle lost due to denervation?
|
fibrous and fatty tissue
|
|
|
what is a variable?
|
factor that changes in response to stimuli in environment
|
|
|
what is described as the response of a muscle to a single brief threshold stimulus?
|
muscle twitch
|
|
|
describe the pathogenesis of Acute Pyrogenic Osteomyelitis
|
- infection in the bone where nutrient artery channels end and blow flow is slow
- bone rigidity doesn't allow swelling - pus at site seeps under the periosteum and forms an abcess - obstruction of blood flow to the bone - leads to osteonecrosis |
|
|
describe the latent period of the contraction cycle
|
from initiation of AP to the beginning of contraction
|
|
|
What are the two subdivisions of Pure Substances?
|
Elements and compounds
|
|
|
what period runs from the onset of muscle shortening to peak of tension
|
contractin period
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of Acute Pyrogenic Osteomyelitis?
|
pain
suppuration muscle rigidity decreased ROM fever leukocytosis septicemia |
|
|
describe the relaxation period
|
calcium re-enters the SR
muscle returns to initial length |
|
|
what is a receptor?
|
a sensor responding to the change
|
|
|
relaxation of muscle is due to what two things?
|
disengagement
recoil of elastic non contractile elements (connectin) |
|
|
what is the treatment for Acute Pyrogenic Osteomyelitis?
|
antibiotics
aspiration of abscess or surgery immobilization of area rest and pain control |
|
|
what can be described as the ability of a muscle to provide just enough force?
|
graded muscle response
|
|
|
what are the three subdivisions of mixtures?
|
Colloids
suspensions solutions |
|
|
what two things change to produce a graded muscle response?
|
rate of stimulation
number of motor units recruited |
|
|
any bone inflammation lasting longer than 6 to 8 weeks is called what?
|
chronic osteomyelitis
|
|
|
as relaxation time gets shorter and the muscle doesn't have time to disengage, what happens?
|
maximal contraction
tenany |
|
|
what determines the set point for a variable or determines the response to stimuli?
|
the control center
|
|
|
what is incomplete tetanus?
|
muscles relaxes somewhat, but not to full extent
|
|
|
what causes chronic osteomyelitis?
|
delayed treatment of acute osteomyelitis
|
|
|
what is complete tetany?
|
muscle relaxation is no longer visible on the myogram
|
|
|
What are the two types of compounds?
|
Organic and inorganic.
|
|
|
what is the result force of contraction when few motor units are stimulated?
|
weak
|
|
|
what is the pathogenesis of chronic osteomyelitis?
|
- extensive sequestrum
- new bone adjacent to sequestrum - may be subclinical for years |
|
|
what is the force of contraction when many motor units are recruited?
|
strong
|
|
|
what effects the necessary change to stimuli?
|
the effector
|
|
|
why do muscles require a lot of energy
|
ATP powers the contraction as well as the Ca/P pump required for restoration of the electrochemical gradient
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of chronic osteomyelitis?
|
pain and loss of function
|
|
|
what are the four pathways available for muscles to get energy?
|
ATP stored in muscle
phosphagen system anaerobic glycolosis aerobic respiration |
|
|
What is the difference between organic and inorganic compounds?
|
Organic compounds contain the element carbon
|
|
|
which muscle energy pathway is the fastest?
|
phophagen
|
|
|
what is the treatment for chronic osteomyelitis?
|
- antibiotics
- surgery to remove foreign bodies and sequestrae - bone irrigation - immobilization |
|
|
what couples with ADP to create ATP in the phosphagen system?
|
creatine phosphate
|
|
|
which type of reflex activates skeletal muscle?
|
somatic reflex
|
|
|
how many ATP molecules does creatine phosphate yield?
|
one
|
|
|
an infective bone condition of insidious onset that extends to the joint spaces describes what?
|
tuberculous osteomyelitis
|
|
|
which muscle energy pathway utilizes no oxygen?
|
anaerobic glycolosis
|
|
|
what is anti-codon?
|
a group of three nucleotides on tRNA that matches a codon on the mRNA. The codon / anti-codon relationship is how the tRNA knows which codon on the mRNA to attach to.
|
|
|
what is the by-product or waste product of anaerobic glycolosis?
|
lactic acid
|
|
|
where is tuberculous osteomyelitis often found?
|
in developing countries where tuberculous is still wide spread
|
|
|
what is the main energy source is anaerobic glycolosis?
|
glucose
|
|
|
what is activated by a visceral reflex?
|
smooth muscle
cardiac muscle glands |
|
|
how many ATP molecules result from one glucose molecule?
|
two
|
|
|
what is the cause of tuberculous osteomyelitis?
|
mycobacterium tuberculosis which spreads from the lungs
|
|
|
which muscle energy pathway is the slowest?
|
aerobic respiration
|
|
|
Describe the key steps in translation?
|
mRNA exits the nucleus
The tRNA piggybacks an amino acid to the mRNA strand the tRNA transfers the amino acid to a polypeoptide chain. |
|
|
what three things are being catabolised during aerobic respiration?
|
pyruvic acid
fatty acids amino acids |
|
|
describe the pathogenesis of tuberculous osteomyelitis
|
bone destruction
abscess formation |
|
|
during aerobic respiration how many ATP molecules are produced from one glucose molecule?
|
36
|
|
|
what are the three types of spinal reflexes?
|
stretch reflex
tendon reflex withdrawal reflex |
|
|
where would you find the cristea?
|
the inner lining for the mitochondria
|
|
|
what structures does tuberculous osteomyelitis affect?
|
long bones of the extremities
vertebrae hips knees |
|
|
what would you find dissolved in the matix of the mitochondria and embedded in the cristae?
|
enzymes that create energy producing reactions within the mitochondria
|
|
|
what is the beginning and the end of the RNA sequencing called?
|
The start codon and the (3) stop codons.
|
|
|
what are the by-products of aerobic respiration?
|
Carbon dioxide
water |
|
|
what is Potts disease?
|
tuberculous osteomyelitis in the vertebrae
|
|
|
which two muscle energy pathways are knows as the ATP buffer system?
|
Free ATP
ATP-CP coupling |
|
|
what type of reflex happens when muscle is overstretched? what is the effect?
|
a stretch reflex
the muscle contracts to prevent strain |
|
|
why is an ATP buffer system necessary?
|
because ATP is required for integral cellular functions and a supply must always be at the ready
|
|
|
tuberculosis of the spine can result in what?
|
severe kyphosis and scoliosis
|
|
|
approximately how much energy time can you get from the phosphagen system?
|
15 - 20 seconds
|
|
|
If RNA were actual 'language', which component would be the 'letters' and which components would be 'words'?
|
The single nucleotide is a like a 'letter' and the codon (three nucleotides) would be the 'word'.
|
|
|
when with Creatine Phosphate stores be refilled?
|
when the muscle cells create more ATP than they need
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of tuberculous osteomyelitis?
|
pain
immobility muscle atrophy mild fever swollen joints leukocytosis |
|
|
what is lactic acid converted to?
|
pyruvic acid
|
|
|
what is the stimulus and effect components of the tendon reflex
|
stimulus - strenuous muscle contraction
effect - muscle relaxation |
|
|
Where is lactic acid converted to pyruvic acid?
|
in the liver
|
|
|
what is the treatment for tuberculous osteomyelitis?
|
drug therapy
|
|
|
what happens to lactic acid after it is converted into pyruvic acid?
|
it returned to the blood and recycled
|
|
|
If DNA were actual 'language', which component would be the 'letters' and which components would be 'words'?
|
The single nucleotide is a like a 'letter' and the triplets (three nucleotides) would be the 'word'.
|
|
|
in the presence of oxygen, what does pyruvic acid feed?
|
aerobic respiration
|
|
|
metabolic bone disorders are caused by what four imbalances?
|
- plasma mineral levels (Ca and PO)
- hormones regulating Ca concentration - bone growth factors - interference with mineralization or resorption |
|
|
what is the universal fuel for the Kreb's cycle?
|
acetyl-CoA
|
|
|
what happens in the withdrawal reflex?
|
removal of a body part from a source of danger
|
|
|
what are the four stages of aerobic respiration?
|
-oxidation of glucose to pyruvic acid
-formation of acetyl-CoA from pyruvic acid or other fuel source -cycling of acetyl-CoA in Kreb's cycle -oxidative phosphorylation along electron transport chain |
|
|
a systemic metabolic bone disorder characterized by decreased bone mass and density describes what?
|
osteoporosis
|
|
|
where does the oxidation of glucose to pyruvic acid during aerobic respiration?
|
in the cytoplasm via anaerobic glycolosis
|
|
|
What are the five properties of water?
|
High heat capacity
high heat of vapourization polarity chemical reactivity cushioning. |
|
|
what does acetyl-CoA form from PA?
|
in the cytoplasm
|
|
|
describe the pathogenesis of osteoporosis
|
- bone resorption is greater than bone formation
- compact bone becomes thin - cancellous bone plates are resorbed - bone fractures |
|
|
where is acetyl-CoA cycled in the Krebb's cycle?
|
mitochondria
|
|
|
what bridges the distance between the skin and the CNS?
|
peripheral nerves
|
|
|
How many carbon atoms in acetyl-CoA?
|
two
|
|
|
what are the causes of osteoporosis?
|
normal aging
endocrine disorders nutritional deficiencies malignancies |
|
|
how many carbon atoms in pyruvic acid?
|
three
|
|
|
What property of water makes it the universal solvent?
|
Polarity
|
|
|
what is beta-oxidation?
|
the breakdown of glucose, amino acids and fatty acids to form acetyl-CoA
|
|
|
what factors causing osteoporosis can we control?
|
alcohol consumption
caffeine consumption smoking nutritional exercise weight immobilization |
|
|
what does acetyl-CoA link up with to begin reactions?
|
oxaloacetic acid
|
|
|
what are the four classes of connective tissue?
|
CT proper
cartilage bone blood |
|
|
what is electron transport?
|
a mechanism for capturing energy in one form and releasing it as ATP
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of osteoporosis?
|
brittle fragile bones
pain stress fractures |
|
|
how much activity time results from the phosphagen system?
|
10-15 seconds
|
|
|
what is an electrolyte?
|
a substance that conducts a current in a solution
|
|
|
how much activity time results from anaerobic glycolysis?
|
30-40 seconds
|
|
|
what is the treatment for osteoporosis?
|
maintain present bone mass and attempt to build more
remedial exercise for posture and balance vitamin D and Ca supplements |
|
|
in a state of hypoxia, which system will the muscle revert to?
|
anaerobic glycolysis
|
|
|
what are the common properties of connective tissue? (3)
|
mesodermic origin
degrees of vascularity (extremely varied) Extracellular matrix |
|
|
define muscle fatigue
|
state in which muscle is unable to contract due to relative deficit of ATP
|
|
|
what are the three common fractures seen with osteoporosis?
|
vertebral compression
Colle's fracture hip |
|
|
what happens to lactic acid that pools in muscle?
|
it is converted to pyruvic acid in the liver
|
|
|
what are salts?
|
inorgainic compounds that contain cations other than hydrogen (H+) and anions other than hydroxyl (OH-)
|
|
|
after lactic acid is converted to pyruvic acid, what happens?
|
the pyruvic acid is used to fuel the Krebb's cycle
|
|
|
what three factors affect bone quality?
|
integrity of the collagen matrix
strength of the crystalline structure ability to repair micro-fractures |
|
|
what resources are depleted during anaerobic metabolism?
|
CP
stored ATP glycogen stored oxygen in myoglobin |
|
|
all skeletal muscles are innervated by what?
|
myotomes
|
|
|
what is oxygen debt?
|
a measure of the amount of oxygen required to return the cell back to it's original state
|
|
|
what are some causes of bone fractures?
|
direct trauma
indirect trauma muscular contraction fatigue / stress pathologic |
|
|
what causes ischemic pain is muscles?
|
the muscle contracts, bulges and compresses blood vessels. Blood supply is therefore restricted.
|
|
|
what happens to salts in water?
|
They dissociate into cations and anions. The water overcomes the forces of attraction.
|
|
|
what is velocity?
|
a measure of the distance covered in a period of time
|
|
|
what are the four ways that fractures can be classified?
|
position of bone ends
completeness of the break orientation of the break relative to long axis of the bone whether bone penetrates the skin |
|
|
the greater the load, the slower...
|
the contraction and duration
|
|
|
what is a dermatone?
|
a region of skin innervated by a single spinal nerve
|
|
|
what two factors influence velocity and duration?
|
load
muscle fiber type |
|
|
what type of fracture has bone ends that retain their normal position?
|
non-displaced
|
|
|
what are oxidative fibers also called?
|
slow twitch
|
|
|
what are acids?
|
substances that release H+ ions when disolved in water
|
|
|
what is the mitochondria count in slow twitch muscles?
|
many
|
|
|
describe a displaced fracture
|
the bone ends are out of normal alignment
|
|
|
what is the contraction rate of oxidative muscle fibers?
|
slow
|
|
|
why are dermatones and myotomes clinically relevant?
|
allow therapist to determine sensory or motor defectsrelate deficits to lesions in specific S/C segments
|
|
|
what is the blood supply of slow-oxidative fibers?
|
rich
|
|
|
what type of fracture happens when the bone is broken through?
|
complete
|
|
|
which muscle fibers do not generate much power, respire aerobically, derive energy from fats and are fatigue resistant?
|
slow-oxidative
|
|
|
what is a substance that releases hydroxl in water and takes up hydrogen?
|
a base
|
|
|
how are fast oxidative fibers like slow oxidative fibers?
|
they are oxygen dependent
|
|
|
describe an incomplete fracture
|
the bone has not broken through
|
|
|
how are fast oxidative fibers like fast-glycolytic fibers?
|
they contract quickly
|
|
|
What are buffers?
|
buffers help the body to resist large swings in pH by releasing or binding to H+ as required.
|
|
|
which muscle fibers have large reserves of glycogen?
|
fast-glycolytic
|
|
|
what type of fracture breaks parallel to the long axis of the bone?
|
linear
|
|
|
which muscle fibres produce short term, rapid, intense movement?
|
fast-glycolytic
|
|
|
which dermatonal innervations are related to the head, neck, shoulders and arms?
|
cervical
|
|
|
does a motor unit contain different muscle fiber types (fast twitch etc)?
|
no, one motor unit is made up of the same muscle fibers
|
|
|
describe a transverse fracture
|
the break is perpendicular to the bone's long axis
|
|
|
where would you (generally) find smooth muscle?
|
in walls of hollow organs
|
|
|
why is it important that the pH of the body not change greatly?
|
because necessary chemical reactions can only occur at certain pH levels.
|
|
|
how many nuceli do smooth muscles have?
|
one
|
|
|
what type of fracture penetrates the surface of the skin?
|
compound / open
|
|
|
what is the shape of smooth muscle?
|
small
fusiform |
|
|
which dermatonal innervations are related to the back part of the arm, forearm, thorax back and abdomen?
|
thoracic
|
|
|
what is caveoli?
|
small invaginations of the sarcolemma adjacent to SR in smooth muscle
|
|
|
describe a closed / simple fracture?
|
the bone does not penetrate the skin
|
|
|
is smooth muscle striated?
|
no
|
|
|
What are the four main elements found in organic compounds?
|
Carbon
Hydrogen Oxygen Nitrogen (C, H, O, N) |
|
|
what two things does skeletal muscle have that smooth muscle does not?
|
myofibrils
t-tubules |
|
|
what type of fracture has bone fragments in three or more pieces?
|
comminuted
|
|
|
describe the SR of smooth muscle
|
less developed
direct contact with sarcolemma |
|
|
which dermatonal innervations are related to hips and lower limbs?
|
lumbar
|
|
|
In smooth muscle some of the Calcium comes from the SR, where does the rest of it come from?
|
the interstitial fluid
|
|
|
what type of fracture is common in those with brittle bones?
|
comminuted
|
|
|
what is a distinct feature of axon terminals of the neurons that innervate smooth muscle?
|
varicosities
|
|
|
The body is composed of four classes of organic compounds. Name them.
|
Carbohydrate
protein lipids nucleic acid |
|
|
what is a varicosity?
|
a swelling or vesicle that stores and releases neurotransmitters
|
|
|
describe a spiral break
|
ragged
occurs with applied twisting forces |
|
|
which regulatory protein is found in smooth muscle?
|
tropomyposin
|
|
|
which dermatonal innervations are related to the groin, posterior thigh, lateral leg and foot?
|
sacral
|
|
|
which regulatory protein is not found in smooth muscle?
|
troponin
|
|
|
what type of break occurs when broken bone portion is pressed inward?
|
depressed
|
|
|
what is the calcium binding site in smooth muscle?
|
calmodulin
|
|
|
what does the extracellular matrix do?
|
acts as cell glue to help hold cells together
|
|
|
what are the two types of smooth muscle?
|
multi-unit
single-unit |
|
|
describe a compression fracture
|
bone is crushed
|
|
|
what nervous system branch innervates multi-unit smooth muscle cells?
|
autonomic
|
|
|
how many essential amino acids are required in our diet?
|
20
|
|
|
which smooth muscle type's contractions are regulated mostly by neurons?
|
multi-unit
|
|
|
what type of fracture is common in porous bones (osteoporosis) in extreme trauma?
|
compression
|
|
|
describe the linkage of multi-unit smooth muscle cells?
|
contact junctions
similar to gap junctions |
|
|
what substances are found in extracellular fluid and how are they organized?
|
proteins and sugars organized into mesh
|
|
|
what type of muscle does single-unit smooth muscle most resemble?
|
cardiac
|
|
|
describe an epiphyseal fracture
|
epiphysis separates from the diaphysis along the epiphyseal plate
|
|
|
where might you find multi-unit smooth muscle cells?
|
internal eye
piloerector muscle large lung airways large arteries |
|
|
what does a radical group do?
|
it provides each amino acid with its specific character.
|
|
|
what type of cells have a mass of cells that contract together in functional syncytium?
|
single unit smooth muscle
|
|
|
what type of fracture has bone that is broken incompletely?
|
greenstick
|
|
|
where might you find single-unit smooth muscle?
|
wall of the GI tract
blood vessels uterus |
|
|
the versatility of ECM depends on what?
|
types of cells
amount of fibres crystalline composition |
|
|
what regulates contraction of single unit smooth muscle?
|
neural
hormonal stretch reflex |
|
|
who is most likely to suffer a greenstick fracture?
|
children
|
|
|
what allows for speedier propagation of AP in single unit smooth muscle cells?
|
gap junctions
|
|
|
what is the bond between two amino acids called and what kind of bond is it?
|
it is a peptide bond and it is a covalent bond.
|
|
|
in smooth muscle actin myofilaments are bundled and held together by what?
|
special proteins called dense bodies
|
|
|
what type of fall causes a Colle's fracture?
|
fall on an outstretched arm
arm is pronated, wrist extended |
|
|
dense bodies are similar to which skeletal muscle component?
|
the Z disc
|
|
|
the mesoderm differentiates into what?
|
mesenchyme
|
|
|
what is the function of dense bodies in smooth muscle?
|
anchor actin to sarcolemma
hold adjacent cells together |
|
|
what type fracture is a Colle's fracture?
|
comminuted
|
|
|
which is more abundant in smooth muscle, actin or myosin?
|
actin
|
|
|
What are the two kinds of proteins?
|
structural and functional (also called fibrous and globular)
|
|
|
where would find the heads on the myosin myofilament of smooth muscle?
|
along the entire length
|
|
|
what type of fracture can cause a dinner fork deformity?
|
Colle's Fracture
|
|
|
which type of smooth muscle have pace-maker cells?
|
single unit
|
|
|
The mesoderm differentiates into the mesenchyme which then differentiates into what four things?
|
fibroblast / fibrocyte
chondroblast / chondrocyte osteoblast / osteocyte hemacytoblast / hemacytocyte |
|
|
what does a pace maker cell do?
|
It regulates the pace of contraction
|
|
|
what are the associated fractures of Colle's fractures?
|
distal ulna
avulsion of ulnar styloid process proximal humerus |
|
|
what are the two arrangements of smooth muscle sheets?
|
longitudinal
circular |
|
|
what are fats composed of?
|
glycerol, fatty acids, sterols.
|
|
|
which smooth muscle arrangement runs parallel to the long axis of the organ?
|
longitudinal
|
|
|
what are some possible complications of fractures?
|
malunion
edema vasoconstriction muscle atrophy capsular tightness carpal tunnel syndrome |
|
|
describe the circular arrangement of sheets of smooth muscle
|
arranged around the circumference of the organ
|
|
|
connective tissue has two components, name them.
|
cellular components
Extracellular matrix |
|
|
which smooth muscle contraction shortens the tube?
|
longitudinal
|
|
|
what are the four stages in fracture healing?
|
hematoma
soft callus hard callus bone remodelling |
|
|
which smooth muscle contraction constricts the tube?
|
circular
|
|
|
which part/composition of fat is responsible for carrying lipids in the blood?
|
fatty acids
|
|
|
in what three ways does smooth muscle contraction resemble skeletal contraction?
|
calcium is the coupling ion
sliding filament mechanism ATP is the source of energy |
|
|
what types of cells are involved during the hematoma stage of fracture healing?
|
fibroblasts
endothelial |
|
|
where would you find the calcium binding site in smooth muscle?
|
on the myosin
|
|
|
the cellular components of connective tissue are made of what?
|
-cytes (mature)
-blasts (stem cells) white blood cells |
|
|
what is the regulatory protein in smooth muscle and where is it found?
|
calmodulin
at the base of myosin heads |
|
|
what types of cells are involved during the soft callus stage of fracture healing?
|
endothelial
phagocytes fibroblasts chondroblasts |
|
|
how is the myosin head in smooth energized?
|
1. myosin kinase transfers Pi from ATP to regulatory chain of myosin
2. myosin head binds to actin |
|
|
what are the properties of fat?
|
immiscible
hydrophobic high energy source |
|
|
what is activated when calcium binds to calmodulin in smooth muscle?
|
myosin kinase (an enzyme)
|
|
|
what types of cells are involved during the hard callus stage of fracture healing?
|
osteocytes
osteoblasts |
|
|
what is the speed of contraction in smooth muscle?
|
slow compared to skeletal
but it is sustained |
|
|
the extra cellular matrix is composed of what two substances?
|
ground substance
fibres |
|
|
how much energy is required to sustain smooth muscle contraction?
|
little
about 1/300 of that for skeletal |
|
|
what types of cells are involved during the bone remodeling stage of fracture healing?
|
osteocytes
osteoblasts osteoclasts |
|
|
what does norepinephrine inhibit?
|
contraction of smooth muscles in the GI tract
|
|
|
Name the three types of fat
|
neutral fats (subcutaneous fat)
phospholipids steroids |
|
|
what does norepinephrine excite?
|
blood vessels
causes vasocontstriction |
|
|
during which stage of fracture healing would you see granulation tissue?
|
soft callus
|
|
|
what initiate at least half the smooth muscle contractions?
|
hormones
|
|
|
the substances in ground substance are what?
|
protein derivatives
proteoglycans glycoproteins |
|
|
hypoxia, excess co2, lactic acid, low calcium concentration and an increased body temperature are factors that will result in what?
|
relaxation / vasodilation
|
|
|
what is the timeline of the hematoma stage of fracture healing?
|
48-82 hours
|
|
|
what body cavity contains the heart?
|
mediastinum
pericardial |
|
|
what are the two types of carbohydrates?
|
simple sugars
complex |
|
|
what does the right side of the heart do?
|
pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs
|
|
|
what is the timeline of the soft callus stage of fracture healing?
|
3 - 4 weeks
|
|
|
what type of circulation is the right side of the heart responsible for?
|
pulmonary circulation
|
|
|
the fibres in ECM are what types?
|
collagen
elastin reticular |
|
|
which side of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the whole body?
|
the left
|
|
|
what is the timeline of the hard callus stage of fracture healing?
|
4 - 9 weeks
|
|
|
which side of the heart is responsible for systemic circulation?
|
the left
|
|
|
name the characteristics of simple carbohydrates
|
soluable in water
hydrophilic short term energy source. |
|
|
each side of the heart has two chambers, what are they called?
|
atrium
ventricle |
|
|
what is the timeline of the bone remodeling stage of fracture healing?
|
10-12 weeks
|
|
|
describe the atrium of the heart
|
small upper chamber
receives blood |
|
|
what is the conformation of ground substance?
|
amorphous / no structure
|
|
|
describe the ventricle of the heart
|
lower chamber
pumps blood out |
|
|
what are four early complications of fractures?
|
disruption of skeletal continuity
soft tissue injury compartment syndrome fat emboli |
|
|
what is the name for the outer layer of connective tissue covering the heart?
|
fibrous pericardium
|
|
|
name the characteristics of complex carbohydrates
|
insoluable
hydrophobic provide energy storage. |
|
|
what are the functions of the fibrous pericardium?
|
protection
anchors heart to surroundings prevents overfilling |
|
|
what causes compartment syndrome in a fractured area?
|
swelling / edema
|
|
|
what is the name for the inner layer of the connective tissue around the heart?
|
serous pericardium
|
|
|
what does the consistency of ground structure depend on?
|
the types of molecules
|
|
|
what lines the inside surface of the fibrous pericardium?
|
parietal serous pericardium
|
|
|
what is an embolus?
|
mass of undisolved matter in the circulatory system
|
|
|
what is the epicardium?
|
a serous visceral membrane covering the outside of the myocardium
|
|
|
what are nucleic acids and give two examples.
|
coded sequences of information
They form the hereditary basis of life, regulate cell metabolism and control the cell structure. DNA and RNA are examples |
|
|
what is the function of the epicardium?
|
lubrication (via serous fluid)
reduce friction prevents membranes and organs from sticking to each other |
|
|
what types of fractured bones are susceptible to an embolus?
|
long bones
|
|
|
where would you find the endocardium?
|
inside the chambers of the heart
|
|
|
what are the three components of ground substances?
|
interstitial fluid
cell adhesion proteins proteoglycans |
|
|
what forms the valves within the heart?
|
the endocardium
|
|
|
are three types of impaired healing of fractures?
|
delayed union
malunion non-union |
|
|
what types of cells are short, fat, branched and not uniform in size?
|
cardiac
|
|
|
Define conformation
|
the 3D arrangement of components in space
|
|
|
are cardiac muscle cells striated?
|
yes
|
|
|
how is malunion corrected?
|
surgery
|
|
|
what are the arrangements of cardiac muscle cells?
|
spiral
circular |
|
|
what do proteoglycans do?
|
trap water which determines the thickness of the ground substance
|
|
|
how many nuclei do cardiac muscle cells have?
|
one or two
|
|
|
what is the clinical meaning of disease?
|
pathological condition presenting with two specific groups of clinical signs and symptoms setting it apart from other conditions
|
|
|
what connect cardiac cells to one another?
|
gap junctions
|
|
|
What principal is defined as "Structure determines function"?
|
The principal of complementarity
|
|
|
what anchors the heart in the mediastinum?
|
dense CT fibres forming a 'skeleton'
|
|
|
what type of infection is acute pyogenic osteomyelitis?
|
bacterial
|
|
|
does cardiac muscle have myofibrils?
|
yes
|
|
|
what is the function of ground substance?
|
it's a molecular sieve and traps foreign bacteria.
Therefore it helps to prevent the spread of infection |
|
|
does cardiac muscle have z discs?
|
yes
|
|
|
what is pyogenic osteomyelitis?
|
inflammation of the bone marrow cavity
|
|
|
describe the T tubules in cardiac muscle
|
fewer and wider
|
|
|
Protein is made up of what kinds of chemical bonds?
|
Chemical covalent bonds called peptide bonds
|
|
|
are all cardiac muscle cells innervated?
|
no
|
|
|
what types of bacteria can cause pyogenic osteomyelitis?
|
staphylococcus aureus
E Coli |
|
|
how do action potentials reach uninnervated cardiac muscle cells?
|
via gap junctions
pace maker cells are self excitatory |
|
|
describe the viscosity of ground substance
|
large dense molecules = viscis gel
smaller molecules = more fluid gel |
|
|
what structure of the heart helps limit the spread of action potentials to specific pathways?
|
unexcitable connective tissue
|
|
|
what causes pyogenic osteomyelitis?
|
contamination of the bone
open wounds surgery complications hematogenic (spontaneous) |
|
|
which muscle type is entirely dependent on aerobic respiration for energy needs?
|
cardiac
|
|
|
what are the two types of proteins?
|
Fibrous and globular, sometimes called structural and functional.
|
|
|
where do the calcium ions come from to trigger contraction in cardiac muscle?
|
the sarcoplasmic reticulum
the interstitial fluid |
|
|
what types of bones are more susceptible to pyogenic osteomyelitis?
|
long bones
|
|
|
why does cardiac muscle require two sources of calcium?
|
increased concentration is required for the stronger force of contraction required to pump blood
|
|
|
what types of things can cause damage to the ground substance? (4)
|
trauma, stress, fatigue, malnutrition
|
|
|
at which level does the all or nothing principal apply to skeletal muscle?
|
at the cellular level
|
|
|
what is the pathogenesis of pyogenic osteomyelitis?
|
infection
bone rigidity prevents swelling puss seeps under periostium obstructed blood flow to bone osteonecrosis |
|
|
at which level does the all or nothing principal apply to cardiac muscle?
|
at the organ level
|
|
|
Describe the physical appearance of fibrous protein.
|
long, linear filaments
|
|
|
what other type of muscle besides cardiac follows the all or nothing contraction principle at the organ level?
|
single unit smooth muscle
|
|
|
what is the treatment of pyogenic osteomyelitis?
|
antibiotics
rest / immobilization aspiration |
|
|
what prevents tetanic contraction of heart muscle?
|
a long refractory period
|
|
|
where would you find the fibres of the ECM?
|
embedded in the ground substance
|
|
|
what are the two types of tumours?
|
benign
malignant |
|
|
any bacterial bone inflammation exceeding 6 - 8 weeks is called what?
|
Chronic osteomyelitis
|
|
|
what two things do all tumours have in commom?
|
uncontrolled cell proliferation
increase in tissue mass (swelling) |
|
|
What is the polarity of structural proteins?
|
non-polar
|
|
|
what does the suffix -oma mean?
|
a benign tumor
|
|
|
what is sequestrum?
|
dead bone
|
|
|
what does -carcinoma indicate?
|
malignant
|
|
|
what makes up the fibres of the ECM?
|
collagen
elastin reticulin |
|
|
what does -sarcoma indicate?
|
malignant and in mesenchymal tissue
|
|
|
what is the pathogenesis of Chronic osteomyelitis?
|
extensive sequestrum
new bone adjacent to sequestrum |
|
|
poorly differentiated, highly malignant cells are a result of mutation when?
|
early
|
|
|
what happens to structural proteins in water?
|
They are insoluable and hydrophobic
|
|
|
what is the result if a mutation occurs later on?
|
the cells are more differentiated and less malignant
|
|
|
what is the treatment for chronic osteomyelitis?
|
antibiotics
surgery bone irrigation immobilization |
|
|
what is neoplasia?
|
the process of new growth
|
|
|
which of the fibres in the ECM are the most abundant?
|
collagen
|
|
|
what is a neoplasm?
|
a mass of undifferentiated cells
|
|
|
what disease is described as an infective bone condition of insidious onset that extends to the joint spaces?
|
tuberculous osteomyelitis
|
|
|
neoplasms are a result of what?
|
uncontrolled cell proliferation
response to inappropriate stimuli |
|
|
what is the function of fibrous protein? (2)
|
forms the structure of a cell and other bodily structures (ligaments, tendons, muscle etc)
lends tensile strength |
|
|
what happens in neoplasia when the stimuli is removed?
|
nothing, the new growth just continues
|
|
|
what is the cause of tuberculous osteomyelitis?
|
infection by mycobacterium tuberculosis from lungs
|
|
|
what is the cardinal feature of neoplasm formation?
|
angiogenisis
|
|
|
which ECM component makes up tendons and ligaments?
|
collagen
|
|
|
neoplasms occur in which two basic cell / tissue types?
|
parenchyma
stroma |
|
|
tuberculous osteomyelitis of the vertebrae is called what?
|
Pott's disease
|
|
|
describe a benign tumour
|
cells resemble normal cells
growth rate is slow encapsulated - inability to metastasize doesn't usually cause death |
|
|
what is denaturation?
|
a change that causes a loss of function.
|
|
|
describe a malignant tumour
|
cells are undifferentiated (dysplasia)
growth rate is variable metastasizes fatal unless growth can be controlled |
|
|
tuberculous osteomyelitis affects which bones?
|
long bones (extremities)
hips knees |
|
|
do benign tumours cause tissue damage?
|
only if they block blood flow and cause ischemia
|
|
|
which ECM component lends high tensile strength?
|
collagen
|
|
|
how do malignant cells damage tissue?
|
hypoxia - depriving cells of blood supply
can secrete harmful substances |
|
|
what is the pathogenesis of tuberculous osteomyelitis?
|
bone destruction
abscess formation |
|
|
what are the systemic symptoms of malignancies?
|
anaemia, weight loss, weakness
|
|
|
Describe the reactivity of fibrous proteins
|
inert / non reactive
|
|
|
what are the properties of malignant cells?
|
loss of contact inhabition
impaired intercellular communication loss of adhesion proteins production of degradative enzymes |
|
|
what is the possible result of tuberculous osteomyelitis of the spine?
|
severe kyphosis and scoliosis
|
|
|
what are the three ways that cancer spreads?
|
direct invasion into neighbouring tissue via degradative enzymes
seeding of cells in body cavities metastasis or development of secondary tumour at another side |
|
|
where would you find elastin?
|
areas requiring greatest elasticity.
lungs , blood vessel walls, skin |
|
|
what are the four types of neoplastic skin disorders?
|
nevus
basal cell carcinoma squamous cell carcinoma malignant melanoma |
|
|
what are the local signs and symptoms of tuberculous osteomyelitis?
|
pain
immobility muscle atrophy |
|
|
which neoplastic skin disorder is the most common?
|
basal cell carcinoma
|
|
|
describe the physical appearance of globular protein
|
spherical
|
|
|
which neoplastic skin disorder has shiny dome like nodules on the neck and head with a slow rate of growth?
|
basal cell carcinoma
|
|
|
what are the systemic signs and symptoms of tuberculous osteomyelitis?
|
mild fever
swollen joints leukocytosis |
|
|
what is the treatment for basal cell carcinoma?
|
excision
|
|
|
which fibres are fine collagenous fibres?
|
reticulin
|
|
|
what is the location of squamous cell carcinoma?
|
outer epidermis
|
|
|
what is the treatment of tuberculous osteomyelitis?
|
drug therapy
|
|
|
describe the lesions associated with malignant melanoma
|
spreading brown/red patches
tend to ulcerate and bleed |
|
|
What is the polarity of globular proteins and what happens to them in water?
|
they are polar and hydrophilic (with a hydrophobic core).
|
|
|
what is the growth rate of malignant melanoma?
|
rapid
|
|
|
imbalances of what four things can result in metabolic bone disorders?
|
plasma mineral levels
Ca regulating hormones bone growth factors interference with mineralization or resorption |
|
|
where does malignant melanoma metastasize?
|
lymph nodes
blood vessels |
|
|
where do you find reticulin?
|
at the junction of connective tissue
|
|
|
what is the prognosis of malignant melanoma?
|
poor
high death rate |
|
|
what kind of imbalance causes osteoporosis?
|
imbalance of formation and resorption
|
|
|
what are the treatments for malignant melanoma?
|
surgery
chemotherapy radiation |
|
|
Globular proteins are described as labile, what does that mean?
|
They are reactive and unstable.
|
|
|
what type of bone disease is osteoporosis?
|
metabolic
|
|
|
collagen is the chief fiber of what five body structures?
|
ligament
tendon cartilage blood vessels organ capsules |
|
|
what is the pathogenesis of osteoporosis?
|
bone resorption is greater than formation
compact bone becomes thin cancellous bone plates are resorbed |
|
|
What are the four levels of structural organization of proteins?
|
Primary
seconday tertiary quarternary. |
|
|
what are the four possible causes of osteoporosis?
|
normal aging
idiopathic in juveniles endocrine disorders nutritional deficiencies malignancies |
|
|
what is the suffix meaning immature?
|
-blast
|
|
|
what risk factors for osteoporosis can be controlled?
|
alcohol consumption
smoking caffeine nutrition exercise |
|
|
Which structural level do ALL proteins reach?
|
secondary
|
|
|
what is the treatment for osteoporosis?
|
maintain present bone mass through diet and supplements (Ca and Vitamin D)
|
|
|
what is the suffix meaning mature?
|
-cyte
|
|
|
what are three common fractures with osteoporosis?
|
vertebral compression
Colle's fracture Hip |
|
|
the tertiary and quarternary levels are reserved for which type of protein?
|
globular
|
|
|
what bone disorders are characterized by deficient mineralization of the bone matrix?
|
Rickets and Osteomalacia
|
|
|
what does collagen provide (4)?
|
shape
tensile strength resiliency structural integrity |
|
|
what causes the bone loss in Rickets and Osteomalacia?
|
Vitamin D deficiency
lack of dietary Calcium |
|
|
Describe the appearance of proteins that reach the secondary level of organization.
|
the polar hydrogen bonds with in the polypeptide chain result in either an alpha helix or a beta folding sheet.
|
|
|
what is hypocalcemia?
|
decrease in serum levels of Calcium
|
|
|
what level does the the protein collagen reach?
|
quarternary
|
|
|
what causes hypocalcemia?
|
vitamin D deficiency
|
|
|
How does a quarternary protein structure form.
|
2 or more tertiary proteins arrange in a regular order.
|
|
|
list the five roles of parathyroid hormone
|
- activation of vitamin D in the kidney
- enhance intestinal absorption of Ca - resorption of calcium from bone - decrease renal excretion of Ca - increase excretion of PO |
|
|
describe the arrangement of collagen fibers (5)
|
random criss cross
parallel bundles blocks/sheets alternating layers loose webs |
|
|
increased parathyroid hormone does what to the excretion of Ca?
|
it decreases the excretion of Ca
|
|
|
What is an enzyme?
|
a biological catylst that speeds up a reaction
|
|
|
a decrease in the excretion of Ca is accompanied by what?
|
an increased loss of PO
|
|
|
what type of bond holds collagen strands together?
|
hydrogen bonds
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of Rickets and Osteomalacia?
|
rheumatic pains in limbs, spine, thorax and pelvis
anemia progressive weakness and fatigue skeletal deformities |
|
|
What is the area of the enzyme called that binds to a substrate?
|
the active site
|
|
|
what is the treatment for Rickets and Osteomalacia?
|
Vitamin D therapy
dietary calcium balanced diet |
|
|
what is the endomysium?
|
thin membrane that surrounds individual muscle cells
|
|
|
what are the risk factors for Rickets and Osteomalacia?
|
nutritional deficiencies
northern climates |
|
|
what happens to enzymes during homestatic imbalance?
|
denaturation which leads to loss of metabolic function and eventually to pathology
|
|
|
what population is affected by Rickets?
|
children
|
|
|
what surrounds the bundles of cells or the fascicles?
|
perimysium
|
|
|
what population is affected by osteomalacia?
|
adults
|
|
|
Which of the two proteins is more likely to suffer denaturation?
|
globular, because it is highly reactive and labile.
|
|
|
what is the pathogenesis of Rickets?
|
inadequate calcification of epiphyseal cartilage leads to abnormal bone growth
|
|
|
what is the epimysium?
|
the membrane surrounding the entire muscle belly
|
|
|
Rickets leads to what tibial deformity?
|
bow legs
|
|
|
list four factors that affect enzymatic activity
|
pH, temperature, hydration, ion concentration
|
|
|
how does Rickets affect the spine?
|
hyperlordosis
hyperkyphosis scoliosis |
|
|
what is secreted by the pituitary gland?
|
growth hormone
|
|
|
what is pigeon breast and what disease is it associated with?
|
anterior protrusion of the sternum
Rickets |
|
|
what are the four stages of the mitotic phase of mitosis?
|
Prophase
metaphase anaphase telophase. |
|
|
restless, slight night fever, head sweating, poorly formed teeth and an enlarged spleen and or liver could point to which disease?
|
Rickets
|
|
|
what does growth hormone stimulate?
|
development of connective tissue
|
|
|
what is the pathogenesis of osteomalacia?
|
bone resorption is greater than formation
|
|
|
What is the final product of mitosis?
|
The mother cell replicates and forms 2 daughter cells
|
|
|
what is the treatment of osteomalacia?
|
depends on the underlying cause
|
|
|
how does growth hormone stimulate the development of connective tissue?
|
it stimulates fibroblasts to produce ground
substance/collagen |
|
|
what mechanism is affected by Rickets?
|
osteogenesis
|
|
|
Which stage of Interphase is the longest?
|
G1
|
|
|
what mechanism is affected by osteomalacia?
|
bone remodeling
|
|
|
in adults, when does growth hormone increase?
|
when needed for muscle building or tissue repair
|
|
|
describe Paget's disease
|
excessive bone destruction and repair
high ratio of cancellous to compact bone bones are thickened, brittle, weak |
|
|
What happens during the synthetic phase of the interphase?
|
DNA replicates
|
|
|
what is the cause of Paget's disease?
|
unknown
|
|
|
an excess of growth hormone can cause what to happen?
|
increased fibrosis and scar tissue
|
|
|
what are the bones most affected by Paget's disease?
|
femur
humerus tibia pelvis spine skull |
|
|
Name the three stages in the Interphase part of the cycle.
|
G1, S, G2 (Growth 1, synthetic and growth 2)
|
|
|
what is the pathogenesis of Pagets disease
|
abnormal osteoclast proliferation
rapid resorption destroyed bone replaced by fibrous tissue |
|
|
what is produced by the adrenal glands?
|
cortisone
|
|
|
what are complications of Paget's disease?
|
paralysis
cardiovascular disease |
|
|
somatic cells have 2 distinct life cycles phases, what are they?
|
interphase and mitotic phase
Interphase is a kind of a resting phase, and the mitotic phase is where the reproduction occurs. |
|
|
how is Paget's disease diagnosed?
|
x-ray
bone scan |
|
|
where are the adrenal glands located?
|
the kidneys
|
|
|
what is the treatment for Paget's disease
|
pain medication
NSAIDs |
|
|
what types of cells are produced by mitosis?
|
somatic/body cells
|
|
|
what are the two types of ossification?
|
intra-membranous
endochondral |
|
|
how does cortisone affect connective tissue growth?
|
inhibits fibroblast activity
reduces the number and size of fibroblasts |
|
|
what are the three stages of intra-membranous ossification?
|
formation of:
bone matrix woven bone and periosteum compact bone plates |
|
|
What types of cells are produced by meiosis?
|
Sex cells
|
|
|
what type of ossification results in flat bones?
|
intra-membranous
|
|
|
cortisone production can be decreased by decreasing what?
|
stress
|
|
|
what are the five stages of endochondral ossification?
|
formation of:
bone collar bone cavity periosteal bud and spongy bone medullary cavity ossified bone / epiphysis |
|
|
what are the two types of cellular reproduction?
|
mitosis and meiosis
|
|
|
what is the final product of endochondral ossification?
|
long bones
|
|
|
what are the three types of loose connective tissue?
|
areolar
adipose reticular |
|
|
what is the initial supporting structure for intra-membranous ossification?
|
fibrous connective tissue
|
|
|
What happens to the 2/3 of the the energy released during cellular respiration that isn't used to make ATP?
|
It is released in the form of heat
|
|
|
what is the initial supporting structure for endochondral ossification?
|
hyaline cartilage
|
|
|
what are the three types of dense connective tissue?
|
regular
irregular elastic |
|
|
describe longitudinal bone growth
|
bone grows at the epiphyseal plate
elongates bone |
|
|
how much of the energy released during cellular respiration is used to produce ATP?
|
about 1/3
|
|
|
what type of bone growth has bone growing under the periosteum and thickening the bone?
|
appositional
|
|
|
what is the main function of areolar connective tissue?
|
supports and binds
|
|
|
what is metatarsus abductus?
|
toeing-in
|
|
|
What are the three stages of cellular respiration?
|
glycolysis
kreb's cycle oxidative phosphorylation |
|
|
what causes metatarsus abductus?
|
torsion on the lower limb
adduction in-utero |
|
|
which type of connective tissue stores fat? Is it loose or dense?
|
adipose ; loose
|
|
|
is toeing-out congential?
|
no, it is acquired
|
|
|
cellular respiration results in the creation of what energy source?
|
ATP
|
|
|
what is the cause of toeing-out?
|
external femoral rotation
exacerbated by tibial torsion |
|
|
what does reticular connective tissue do? Loose or dense?
|
it acts as a mesh or a seive ; loose
|
|
|
what can be a contributing factor to toeing-out?
|
sleeping on the stomach
|
|
|
is biosynthesis a type of anabolism or catabolism?
|
anabolism
|
|
|
what is the treatment for toeing-out?
|
it usually self corrects when children learn to walk
|
|
|
what subclass and type of CT are tendons and ligament?
|
dense, regular
|
|
|
what is genu varum?
|
bow legs
|
|
|
The making of chemical bonds is also called this.
|
anabolism
|
|
|
what is described as outward bowing of the knees when medial malleoli touching?
|
genu varum
|
|
|
what subclass and type of CT are fibrous joint capsules?
|
dense, irregular
|
|
|
what causes genu varum?
|
mild Rickets
tibial torsion |
|
|
The breaking of chemical bonds is also called what?
|
catabolism
|
|
|
what may be a side effect of genu varum?
|
the awkward gait predisposes to sprains and fractures
|
|
|
if a dense-regular CT structure also contains elastin, what subclass and type of CT is it?
|
dense, elastic
|
|
|
what is genu valgum?
|
knock knees
|
|
|
Does chemical bond breaking require energy or release energy?
|
releases energy
|
|
|
when the knees are brought together but the medial malleoli don't touch, what does that indicate?
|
genu valgum
|
|
|
what does massage do to promote homeostasis in regards to connective tissue?
|
it breaks H bands to promote gel state of ground substance
|
|
|
what is the cause of genu valgum?
|
usually lax collateral ligaments
|
|
|
Does chemical bond formation require energy or release energy?
|
requires energy
|
|
|
what is pes planus?
|
flat feet
|
|
|
what is functional tissue called?
|
parenchyma
|
|
|
what is described by the head of the talus pointed medially/downward and the heel everted?
|
pes planus
|
|
|
what is metabolism?
|
The sum of chemical activity in the body.
|
|
|
what are the two types of pes planus?
|
supple
rigid |
|
|
what is stroma?
|
supporting or structural connective tissue
|
|
|
what happens to the arch of the foot with supple pes planus?
|
it disappears on weight bearing
|
|
|
which part of the cell carries the information that determines the cell's structure and function?
|
Chromosomes
|
|
|
describe rigid pes planus
|
arch is not apparent in any position
|
|
|
what is the definition of 'injury'?
|
any damage to tissues/cells that affects structural and/or functional integrity.
|
|
|
when is pes planus considered normal?
|
in infancy
|
|
|
which part of the cell is the control center?
|
The nucleus
|
|
|
describe Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
|
osteonecrosis of proximal femoral epiphsis
|
|
|
the extent of an injury depends on what four factors?
|
the intensity of the stimuli
duration of exposure type of injurious agent type of cell making up the tissue |
|
|
what causes Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?
|
malnutrition
trauma infection |
|
|
which part of the cell is responsible for protein synthesis?
|
ribosomes
|
|
|
what are signs and symptoms of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?
|
pain in the groin area
limited abduction and internal rotation flexion contracture |
|
|
the healing of damaged tissue depends on what three things?
|
overall nutritional status
age blood supply to the tissue |
|
|
Legg-Calve-Perthes disease is normally seen in which population?
|
boys aged 3-12
|
|
|
which part of the cell act as dividing walls creating cisternae to act as production centers?
|
endoplasmic reticulum.
|
|
|
what are the stages of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?
|
synovial inflammation
necrosis of bone tissue gradual revascularization formation and replacement of immature bone and remodelling |
|
|
what are the three types of cells categorized by regenerative capacity?
|
labile
stable permanent |
|
|
what is the treatment of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?
|
rest
casting bracing surgery |
|
|
which part of the cell act as the assembly plant, producing membrane units and secretory vesicles?
|
golgi apparatus
|
|
|
abnormal endochondral ossification leading to a partial or complete avulsion of the tibial tuberosity indicates what?
|
Osgood-Schlatter Disease
|
|
|
what type of regenerative cell divides throughout their lifetime and are highly regenerative?
|
labile
|
|
|
what causes Osgood-Schlatter Disease?
|
trauma prior to fusion
sudden or RSI on patellar tendon |
|
|
which part of the cell digests foreign substances and degrades worn out tissues?
|
lysosomes
|
|
|
when would someone suffering from Osgood-Schlatter Disease feel pain?
|
eccentric quadriceps contraction
|
|
|
what type of regenerative cells stop dividing when growth ceases but remain capable of regeneration?
|
stable
|
|
|
someone suffering from Osgood-Schlatter Disease would be lacking flexibility where?
|
in the hamstrings
|
|
|
Which part of the cell is the main energy producer, or the power house of the cell?
|
the mitochondria
|
|
|
who suffers most from Osgood-Schlatter Disease?
|
active males 10-16
|
|
|
what type of regenerative cell do not replicate and are non-regenerative?
|
permanent
|
|
|
describe Scheuerman's disease
|
inflammation of the spine during childhood
|
|
|
What are the two non membranous organelles?
|
chromosomes and ribosomes
|
|
|
what part of the spine is affected with Scheuerman's disease?
|
IVDs
joint capsule coverings |
|
|
what is cellular adaptation
|
response to environmental stress
a coping mechanism that allows cells to function under adverse conditions |
|
|
what is the cause of Scheuerman's disease?
|
idiopathic
|
|
|
three types of molecules make up cellular organelles, what are they?
|
lipids, proteins and nucleid acids
|
|
|
what are signs and symptoms of Scheuerman's disease?
|
pain in dorsal spine
limited spine extension often asymptomatic |
|
|
what are four ways that cells can adapt?
|
change in size
change in number change in shape apoptosis |
|
|
what is the treatment for Scheuerman's disease?
|
bracing
surgery |
|
|
What are the three basic life functions performed by the cell?
|
metabolism
transport reproduction |
|
|
what deformity is seen with Scheuerman's disease?
|
excessive kyphosis
|
|
|
what are the two types of cell death?
|
apoptosis
necrosis |
|
|
define scoliosis
|
any lateral deviation and curvature of the spine
|
|
|
What are the three major components of the human cell?
|
nucleus
cytoplasm membranes |
|
|
what degree of lateral spinal curvature is considered mild?
|
20-29
|
|
|
what type of cell death is a controlled cell destuction that is mediated by lysosomes?
|
apoptosis
|
|
|
what degree of lateral spinal curvature is considered moderate?
|
30-45
|
|
|
Describe the process of transcription
|
DNA uncoils and unzips, enzymes read the triplets on the DNA and creates a matching sequence of RNA codons. When the sequencing of the RNA is finished the RNA is cut away from the DNA template and the mRNA strand and the tRNA molecules exit the nucleus into the cytoplasm
|
|
|
what degree of lateral spinal curvature is considered severe?
|
greater than 45
|
|
|
what is the function of apoptosis?
|
to remove old, dysfunctional cells
|
|
|
what are the two classifications of scoliosis?
|
functional/postural
structural |
|
|
what is a codon?
|
it is the three nucleotides in RNA - sugar, Nitrogen and phosphate
|
|
|
what type of scoliosis has a curvature that corrects on bending?
|
postural/functional
|
|
|
which type of cell death is a result of cell injury and part of a pathological process?
|
necrosis
|
|
|
what causes structural scoliosis?
|
actual structural change in the bone
|
|
|
Name the complementary base pairs for RNA.
|
A (adesine) pairs only with U (uracil)
G (guanine) pairs only with C (cytosine) |
|
|
when someone with structural scoliosis bends over, what happens to the curvature?
|
it is accentuated
|
|
|
what happens with reversible cell injury?
|
the cell adapts to the changes and continues to function
|
|
|
how many cases of scoliosis present with a fixed deformity?
|
75-80%
|
|
|
What are the steps in DNA replication?
|
uncoiling, unzipping, binding, formation.
|
|
|
what type of curve is most common with structural scoliosis?
|
right thoracic
|
|
|
what are five external causes of cell injury?
|
physical injury
radiation chemical biological nutritional imbalances |
|
|
what are two possible factors involved in structural scoliosis?
|
congenital
neuromuscular |
|
|
Which of the three nucleotide components form the 'rung' of the ladder in DNA?
|
Nitrogen.
|
|
|
what types of complications could lead to structural scoliosis?
|
neuropathies (eg Polio, CP)
myopathies (ALS, MD) |
|
|
what are two internal mechanisms of cell injury?
|
free radicals
hypoxia |
|
|
how many cases of functional scoliosis are correctable?
|
20-25%
|
|
|
what is the conformation of DNA?
|
it resembles a twisted ladder - a double helix
|
|
|
describe a right thoracic scoliosis curve
|
convexity towards right
apex between T2-T11 |
|
|
when are free radicals formed?
|
during metabolic reactions
|
|
|
describe cervical scoliosis
|
apex between C1-C6
|
|
|
where in the cell is genetic information carried?
|
The nucleus
|
|
|
what is cervical scoliosis also called?
|
torticollis
|
|
|
what exactly are free radicals?
|
unpaired electrons
|
|
|
describe cervicothoracis scoliosis
|
apex at C7 or T1
|
|
|
what structure inside the nucleus contains the genetic information?
|
DNA
|
|
|
describe thoracolumbar scoliosis
|
apex at T12 or L1
|
|
|
what is hypoxia?
|
reduced oxygen supply to tissues
|
|
|
describe lumbar scoliosis
|
apex between L2-L4
|
|
|
What is mitosis?
|
The production of new somatic (body) cells
|
|
|
describe lumbosacral scoliosis
|
apex at L5 or S1
|
|
|
hypoxia disrupts what cellular process?
|
ATP production
|
|
|
uneven shoulder height and iliac crest can suggest what?
|
scoliosis
|
|
|
which type of RNA is responsible for bringing the aminio acids to the RNA strand?
|
tRNA
|
|
|
asymmetry of rib cage and a prominent scapula can suggest?
|
scoliosis
|
|
|
Injury interferes with cell functions in what four ways?
|
membrane permeability
energy production protein synthesis cell replication |
|
|
what percentage of the population is affected by scoliosis?
|
2-3%
|
|
|
what is a triplet?
|
groups of three N bases on DNA that contain the coded information needed to synthesize proteins
|
|
|
Scoliosis affects which population the most?
|
adolescents
|
|
|
what is the result of interference with the permeability of the membrane?
|
cell swelling leads to the inability of the neurons to maintain resting membrane potential
|
|
|
are males or females more likely to suffer from scoliosis?
|
females
8x more likely |
|
|
Which four important processes ensure that hereditary information is passed from one generation of cells to the next?
|
cell reproduction, DNA replication, transcription and translation.
|
|
|
which type of scoliosis can respond well to remedial exercise?
|
functional
|
|
|
what are the two types of ATP production interference?
|
direct
indirect |
|
|
what is a primary bone tumor?
|
bone is the original site of neoplasia
|
|
|
What happens during transcription?
|
DNA duplicates its genetic code onto a strand of mRNA to be carried outside of the nucleus of the cell.
|
|
|
how many bone cancers are primary?
|
about 1% of bone cancers
|
|
|
Chemical interference which interferes with mitochondrial function is what kind of cell interference?
|
direct energy production interference
|
|
|
where do primary bone cancers arise from?
|
osseous tissue
cartilage bone marrow |
|
|
Which of the three nucleotide components form the 'rung' of the ladder in DNA?
|
Nitrogen.
|
|
|
what is a secondary bone tumour?
|
bone neoplasia arising from metastatic disease / another cancer
|
|
|
Interference due to mitochondrial swelling is what kind of cell interference?
|
indirect energy production interference
|
|
|
what are the major symptoms of malignant bone cancers?
|
pain - worse at night
unexplained swelling hard tender lump impaired musculoskeletal function |
|
|
what is meiosis?
|
The production of new sex cells
|
|
|
benign and malignant tumours may result is paresthsia or anesthesia. Why?
|
the mass presses on a nerve
|
|
|
which cellular organelle is affected in protein synthesis interference?
|
ribosomes
|
|
|
what is osteoma?
|
small, compact bony tumour
benign |
|
|
What are triplets made up of?
|
three nucleotides which are a sugar, an N base and a phosphate.
|
|
|
what is condroma?
|
benign cartilaginous tumour
|
|
|
what are two possible outcomes of cell replication interference?
|
overproduction
defective protein synthesis |
|
|
which type of benign bone tumour is aggressive and can be metastatic?
|
giant cell tumour / osteoclastoma
|
|
|
What happens during transcription?
|
DNA duplicates its genetic code onto a strand of mRNA to be carried outside of the nucleus of the cell.
|
|
|
why is osteoclastoma considered benign?
|
because it has a defined border
|
|
|
which structure is the body's first line of defence?
|
epithelial membranes
skin and mucosae |
|
|
osteoma generally affects which bones?
|
long
flat |
|
|
What is the end result of translation?
|
protein
|
|
|
what is the most common site of chondroma?
|
hands
feet |
|
|
which structures are the body's second line of defense?
|
dermis and subcutaneous
|
|
|
what is multiple myeloma?
|
cancer of plasma cells of bone
|
|
|
What are the three major components of the human cell?
|
nucleus, cytoplasm and membranes
|
|
|
what is affected with multiple myeloma?
|
lymphocyte derivative of bone marrow
|
|
|
what is the body's third line of defense?
|
the immune system
the fight enters the bloodstream |
|
|
what type of cancer has rapid abnormal plasma cell multiplication in bone marrow?
|
multiple myeloma
|
|
|
There are two types of feedback, what are they?
|
negative feedback and positive feeback.
|
|
|
what cancer is characterized by bone erosion, weak bones and hypercalcemia?
|
multiple myeloma
|
|
|
which lines of defence are non-specific?
|
first (epithelial) and second (dermis)
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of multiple myeloma?
|
anaemia
swollen joints recurrent infections renal, cardiac, respiratory dysfunction |
|
|
What are the four characteristics / components to control mechanisms?
|
a variable, a receptor, a control center and an effector
|
|
|
what is the risk population for multiple myeloma?
|
men over 40
|
|
|
which lines of defense are specific?
|
the third (immune system)
|
|
|
what is the treatment for multiple myeloma?
|
bone marrow transplant (young)
palliative care (older) |
|
|
what is anti-codon?
|
a group of three nucleotides on tRNA that matches a codon on the mRNA. The codon / anti-codon relationship is how the tRNA knows which codon on the mRNA to attach to.
|
|
|
what type of cancer is a mesenchymal cell tumour that spreads to the periosteum and connective tissues surrounding bone?
|
osteogenic sarcoma
|
|
|
a non-specific response is also called this...
|
innate response
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of osteogenic sarcoma?
|
sudden bone pain
swelling stretched and shiny skin lung metastases |
|
|
Describe the key steps in translation?
|
mRNA exits the nucleus. The tRNA piggybacks an amino acid to the mRNA strand and transfers the amino acid to a polypeoptide chain.
|
|
|
what is the target population for osteogenic sarcoma?
|
children and adolescents during growth
|
|
|
a specific response is also called this...
|
adaptive response
|
|
|
what is the prognosis for osteogenic sarcoma?
|
poor
|
|
|
what is the beginning and the end of the RNA sequencing called?
|
The start codon and the (3) stop codons.
|
|
|
what is the treatment for osteogenic sarcoma?
|
excision
radiation chemotherapy transplant |
|
|
name three non-specific responses that occur at the cell and/or tissue level
|
blood clotting (hemostasis)
inflammation phagocytosis |
|
|
what are the most common sites of secondary bone tumours?
|
spine
pelvis |
|
|
If RNA were actual 'language', which component would be the 'letters' and which components would be 'words'?
|
The single nucleotide is a like a 'letter' and the codon (three nucleotides) would be the 'word'.
|
|
|
what is the target population for secondary bone tumours?
|
highest in those over 40
|
|
|
name two specific responses that occur at the systemic level
|
antimicrobial proteins
fever |
|
|
what three things affect joint stability?
|
articular surfaces
muscle tone (muscles crossing the joint) number and position of ligaments |
|
|
If DNA were actual 'language', which component would be the 'letters' and which components would be 'words'?
|
The single nucleotide is a like a 'letter' and the triplets (three nucleotides) would be the 'word'.
|
|
|
what comprises an anatomical joint?
|
articular structures
periosteum synovial membrane |
|
|
what is the foremost response to injury (i.e. which response happens in all cases)?
|
inflammation
|
|
|
what makes up a physiological joint?
|
articular structures
movement structures (nerve, muscle, tendons) |
|
|
what is the genetic code?
|
it's a language that takes DNA information, turns it into the language of RNA and then into the language of amino acids / proteins
|
|
|
are ligaments enough to stabilize a joint?
|
no
|
|
|
what is the purpose of inflammation?
|
it's a protective mechanism. It isolates, localizes and neutralizes invaders. Also inhibits movement
|
|
|
what is the major stabilizing factor of a joint?
|
the muscle/tendons crossing the joint
|
|
|
what is a triplet?
|
groups of three N bases on DNA that contain the coded information needed to synthesize proteins
|
|
|
what are the three categories of joint pathologies?
|
trauma
inflammatory degenerative |
|
|
what is the purpose of blood clotting?
|
prevents excessive blood loss
prevents outside things from entering the blood stream. |
|
|
what are three examples of traumatic joint pathologies?
|
sprain
dislocation sublaxation |
|
|
which type of RNA is responsible for bringing the aminio acids to the RNA strand?
|
tRNA
|
|
|
what are four examples of inflammatory joint pathologies?
|
tendonitis
bursitis synovitis adhesive capsulitis |
|
|
which (atomic) element is required for blood clotting?
|
calcium
|
|
|
what are three examples of arthritic disorders?
|
rheumatoid arthritis
systemic lupus infective arthritis |
|
|
what does tRNA do?
|
it binds the amino acid and sets them in their correct place in the peptide chain.
|
|
|
what classification of joint pathology is osteoarthritis?
|
degenerative
|
|
|
what controls blood clotting?
|
enzymes
|
|
|
when does collagen formation begin in the soft tissue repair timeline?
|
within 4-5 days
|
|
|
What does mRNA do?
|
it carries the information from the DNA regarding the sequencing of amino acids in the protein to be created
|
|
|
In the soft tissue repair timeline, when is tensile strength restored?
|
in 4-5 weeks
|
|
|
what is the name of the soluable inactive form of the blood clotting protein?
|
fibrinogen
|
|
|
what is the pathogenesis/result of a dislocation?
|
stretch of ligaments or joint capsule
|
|
|
What is the end result of translation?
|
protein
|
|
|
what is hypermobility?
|
excess ROM
|
|
|
what is fibrin?
|
a fibrous protein involved in the clotting of blood
|
|
|
describe someone with Marfan's syndrome
|
unsteady gait
elongated skeleton stooped shoulders spider fingers pes planus |
|
|
What is the conformation of RNA?
|
single stranded
|
|
|
what structures are affected by marfan's syndrome?
|
connective tissue
bones and joints muscles cardiovascular |
|
|
what are free phagocytes?
|
circulating white blood cells. They live in blood and are on the constant look out for inflammatory responses
|
|
|
what is Ehler-Danlos syndrome?
|
pathology of elastic connective tissue
|
|
|
What are the steps in DNA replication?
|
uncoiling, unzipping, binding, formation.
|
|
|
what are the symptoms of Ehler-Danlos syndrome?
|
hypermobile joints
fragile skin |
|
|
what are fixed phagocytes?
|
phagocytes reside in specific organs
|
|
|
what tendon is effected with golfer's elbow?
|
medial epicondyle
|
|
|
Name the complementary bases for DNA
|
A (adenine) pairs only with T (thymine)G (guanine) pairs only with C (cytosine)
|
|
|
what tendon is affected with tennis elbow?
|
lateral epicondyle
|
|
|
what is immunity?
|
the ability of the body to defend itself against harmful organisms and substances
|
|
|
what is the target population for tendinitis?
|
anyone doing repetitive motions
|
|
|
What role does protein play in membrane function?
|
they allow for membrane specificity which gives the cell its individual character.
|
|
|
what is the pathogenesis of tendinitis?
|
insidious onset
inflammation adhesions tendon degeneration |
|
|
foreign substances that elicit an immune response
|
antigens
|
|
|
what can cause bursitis?
|
stress/friction
sitting, kneeling etc for a long time sepsis |
|
|
What does membrane specificity mean?
|
It meas that the cell decides which substances will enter the cell and and which will bind to the membrane
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of bursitis?
|
pain exacerbated by movement
decreased ROM |
|
|
what are antibodies?
|
special proteins that are produced in response to the presence of antigens
|
|
|
what is the treatment for bursitis?
|
anti inflammatory drugs
needle aspiration |
|
|
What are two other words that mean the same thing as membrane specificity?
|
semi-permeable and selective.
|
|
|
what is synovitis?
|
inflammation of synovial membrane
|
|
|
antigens and antibodies form what?
|
a large protein aggregate that is able to be removed by phagocytosis
|
|
|
what can cause synovitis?
|
direct trauma
overuse foreign bodies damaged cartilage |
|
|
What are the two type of proteins involved in membrane specificity?
|
integral proteins and peripheral proteins
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of synovitis?
|
pain
swelling decreased ROM |
|
|
what is a macrophage?
|
a free phagocyte that has left the blood and become enlarged
|
|
|
what is adhesive capsulitis?
|
a condition characterized by adhesions in the articular capsule that prevent normal joint play and restrict movement
|
|
|
which type of protein is embedded in the lipid bylayer?
|
the integral proteins.
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of adhesive capsulitis?
|
pain
tenderness loss of active ROM long term symptoms (6-12 months) |
|
|
what are the three types of free phagocytes?
|
neutrophils
eosinophils monocytes |
|
|
what is the treatment for adhesive capsulitis?
|
exercise
cortisone surgery |
|
|
What does transmembraneous mean?
|
It means that the integral protein spans the entire thickness of the membrane
|
|
|
what is fibromyalgia?
|
condition characterized by diffuse aches, stiffness, muscle tenderness, fatigue
|
|
|
what are the three characteristics of the immune response?
|
recognition
specificity memory |
|
|
where are the aches concentrated in fibromyalgia?
|
the axial region with a few in the elbow and knee
|
|
|
what is the main function of integral proteins?
|
They act as channels or carriers for transport
|
|
|
what are some conditions associated with fibromyalgia?
|
IBS
tension headaches paresthsia in upper extremities sensation of swollen hands |
|
|
what type of white blood cell has a long memory and is mobilized quickly to produce antibodies?
|
lymphocytes
|
|
|
what is the ratio of women to men suffering from fibromyalgia?
|
3:1
|
|
|
Where would you find peripheral proteins?
|
attached to the ends (outside or inside) of integral proteins.
|
|
|
what is rheumatoid arthritis?
|
a systemic inflammator disorder characterized by swollen joints, pain, disability
|
|
|
how long does it take for the primary immune response to be effective?
|
approximately 10 days
|
|
|
which arthritic disorder is characterized by symmetric joint involvement?
|
rheumatoid arthritis
|
|
|
describe the polarity of the inside and the outside of the integral protein channels
|
the inside of the channel (the inner 'walls') are hydrophilic and the outter walls are hydrophobic
|
|
|
what is RF factor?
|
an antigen (rheumatoid factor)
|
|
|
When the body is exposed to an antigen for the first time how long does it take for the immune systems to mobilize?
|
a few days
|
|
|
what is pannus?
|
destructive granulation tissue
|
|
|
Where is the highest concentration of potassium found in regards to the cell?
|
inside the cell
|
|
|
what disorder is associated with pannus?
|
rheumatoid arthritis
|
|
|
do Natural Killer Cells destroy cells before or after the adaptive immune system is activated?
|
before
|
|
|
morning stiffness is unique to which joint condition?
|
rheumatoid arthritis
|
|
|
Where is the highest concentration of sodium found in regards to the cell?
|
outside the cell
|
|
|
what is the cause of reduced ROM in early rheumatoid arthritis?
|
pain
|
|
|
how do Natural Killer Cells work?
|
they are non phagocytic and destroy cells by direct contact.
|
|
|
what is the cause of reduced ROM in late rheumatoid arthritis?
|
fibrosis
|
|
|
What are the three major factors for keeping cells together?
|
glycoccalyx
membrane junction the plasma membranes of adjacent cells fitting together (similar shapes) |
|
|
what are three common joint deformities seen with rheumatoid arthritis?
|
ulnar deviation of the fingers
swan neck deformity boutonniere deformity |
|
|
What do Natural Killer Cells do to the cells they come in contact with?
|
induce them to undergo apoptosis
|
|
|
what can result from ulnar deviation of the fingers in rheumatoid arthritis?
|
sublaxation of the MCPs
|
|
|
What do membrance junctions do?
|
They connect cells to one another
|
|
|
describe Swan neck deformity
|
hyperextension of the PIP joints and partial flexion of DIP joints
|
|
|
Is inflammation a specific or non-specific response to injury?
|
non-specific
|
|
|
why does swan neck deformity make daily living so difficult?
|
person can no longer make a fist and grasping becomes impossible
|
|
|
what are the three types of junctions?
|
tight junctions
gap junctions desmosomes |
|
|
what is boutonniere deformity?
|
flexion of the PIP and hyperextension of the DIP
|
|
|
list three things inflammation does
|
protect tissue
isolate the injury destroy injurious agents and dead cells |
|
|
what are the systemic manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis?
|
weakness, fatigue
weight loss low grade fever anemia that resists iron supplementation rheumatoid nodules |
|
|
are tight junctions permeable or impermeable?
|
impermeable
|
|
|
what are rheumatoid nodules?
|
nodules formed around small blood vessels that may be tender on palpation
|
|
|
what does inflammation help to prevent by localizing the damage?
|
systemic infection
|
|
|
what is the target population for rheumatoid arthritis?
|
all ages
increases with age |
|
|
What is the main function of tight junctions?
|
Prevents the movement of substances between cells
|
|
|
how many people are affected with rheumatoid arthritis?
|
1 in 7
|
|
|
what are the three phases of the inflammatory response?
|
inflammatory
proliferate remodelling |
|
|
what gender suffers more frequently from rheumatoid arthritis?
|
women
|
|
|
what does a gap junction do?
|
it creates a passage way between cells for the movement of substances (ions and small molecules)
|
|
|
what is the peak population for rheumatoid arthritis?
|
women between 40 and 60
|
|
|
which phase of inflammation isolates and clears the area of injurious agent?
|
inflammatory
|
|
|
how is rheumatoid arthritis treated?
|
NSAIDs
immunosuppressant drugs rest therapeutic exercise |
|
|
what is the main function of desmosomes?
|
They bind cells together by acting as anchors
|
|
|
what characterizes systemic lupus erythematosus?
|
presence of auto-antibodies
immunce complexes in the serum |
|
|
what happens during the proliferate phase of the inflammatory response?
|
fibroblast and endothelial activity builds connective tissue and new capillaries
|
|
|
what is the pathogenesis of lupus?
|
increase in lymphocyte activity
production of auto-antibodies |
|
|
describe how a desmosome binds cells together.
|
plaques on the cytoplasmic side of adjacent cells are joined by line linker proteins.
|
|
|
what structure is affected in 90% of lupus cases?
|
joints
polyarthritis |
|
|
which phase of inflammation degrades old collagen and re-shapes the wound?
|
remodelling
|
|
|
what structure is affected in 50% of lupus cases?
|
kidneys
|
|
|
what types of tissue require desmosones?
|
Tissues with high mechanic stress (the skin, the heart for example)
|
|
|
what structure is affected in 40-50% of lupus cases?
|
lungs
|
|
|
what are the three stages of healing?
|
acute
sub-acute chronic |
|
|
the CNS is affected in what percentage of lupus cases?
|
30-75%
|
|
|
What are the two main types of transport for substances through the plasma membrane?
|
Passive transport and active transport.
|
|
|
what is haemolytic anemia and what condition is is associated with?
|
excessive red blood cell destruction
lupus |
|
|
what are the cardinal symptoms of inflammation?
|
swelling
heat red pain |
|
|
what is leukopenia and what arthride condition is is associated with?
|
decreased white blood cell count
lups |
|
|
Which type of the two major transport systems doesn't require energy for the movement of substances, and how does it work if energy isn't required?
|
Passive transport. Substance move along the concentration gradient.
|
|
|
what is the target population for lupus?
|
young women
|
|
|
what is the speed of onset and timeline of acute inflammatory response?
|
rapid onset
timeline: a few days |
|
|
how many people are affected with lupus?
|
1 in 2,000
|
|
|
What is the movement of substances in the concentration gradient?
|
Substances move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
|
|
|
what is the treatment of lupus?
|
management of symptoms
prevent organ deterioration minimize disability prevent complications from medications |
|
|
what is the timeline of sub-acute inflammatory response?
|
up to 2 weeks
|
|
|
a hereditary metabolic group of inflammatory disorders characterized by precipitation of crystals in joints describes what?
|
gout
|
|
|
what is diffusion?
|
the passive movement of of a substance from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
|
|
|
what is the etiology of gout?
|
excessive uric acid in blood
sodium urate in synovial fluid |
|
|
what is the timeline of chronic inflammatory response?
|
2-3 weeks and up to 6 months
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of gout?
|
severe pain in affected joints
low grade fever swollen joints |
|
|
What are the three types of diffusion?
|
osmosis
simple diffusion facilitated diffusion. |
|
|
what is the target population for gout?
|
men 40-60
|
|
|
there are two responses during the acute inflammatory phase that overlap, what are they?
|
vascular response
cellular response |
|
|
which women are more likely to suffer gout?
|
postmenopausal
|
|
|
What is another name for facilitated diffusion?
|
carrier mediated
|
|
|
what is the treatment for gout?
|
prevention
decrease blood serum levels of uric acid avoid red med, wine, organ meat |
|
|
what are the three vascular responses in the acute phase?
|
vasoconstriction
vasodilation increased capillary permeability |
|
|
why is it recommended that gout suffers drink a lot of water?
|
to decrease risk of kidney stones
|
|
|
what two things limits diffusion through the membrane?
|
the size of the moving particle(s) and the solubility properties of both the particles and the membrane.
|
|
|
what is systemic sclerosis?
|
'wax hands'
fibrotic thickening of skin and adhesion to subcutaneous structures |
|
|
what chemical controls the vascular response to injury?
|
histamine
|
|
|
what arthritic disorders are chronic inflammatory myopathies characterized by muscle weakness, pain and tenderness?
|
polymyositis
dermatomyosistis |
|
|
Which type of diffusion occurs when there is little resistance?
|
simple diffusion
|
|
|
all arthritic conditions are what kind of conditions?
|
inflammator
|
|
|
what are the prime players in the cellular response to injury?
|
White blood cells / phagocytes
|
|
|
how do hydrophilic substances diffuse through the membrane during simple diffusion?
|
They diffuse through the pores of protein channels
|
|
|
what are the four stages of phagocyte mobilization?
|
leukocytosis
margination diapedesis / emigration chemotaxis |
|
|
how do hydrophobic substances diffuse through the membrane during simple diffusion?
|
they diffuse through the the lipid bilayer (eg o2, CO2)
|
|
|
what inflammatory processes are responsible for the red and hot symptoms of inflammation?
|
hyperaemia
|
|
|
Which type of diffusion is HIGHLY selective?
|
Facilitated diffusion
|
|
|
what inflammatory processes are responsible for the swelling symptom of inflammation?
|
increases capillary permeability
|
|
|
What is the main type of substance that enters the cell via facilitated diffusion?
|
nutrients (amino acids and glucose).
|
|
|
what inflammatory processes are responsible for pain due to inflammation?
|
increased tissue pressure due to swelling - activate nociceptors
|
|
|
What can create a 'back up' during carrier mediated diffusion?
|
there are only so many carrier proteins available and if there are more substances than carriers there will be a back up.
|
|
|
what inflammatory processes are responsible for the impaired function due to inflammation?
|
increased capillary permeability leads to swelling which leads to decreased ROM
|
|
|
When a back up occurs because there aren't enough protein carriers, what is the system called?
|
Saturated
|
|
|
list the 8 phases of injury combining the vascular responses and the cellular responses.
|
histamine release
vasodilation increased capillary permeability plasma leaks into interstitial spaces tissue swells area is walled off lymph vessels drain extra fluid macrophages ingest/digest debris |
|
|
What type of diffusion is responsible for the movement of water across the membrane?
|
Osmosis
|
|
|
what is edema?
|
swelling due to the accumulation of large amounts of extracellular fluid.
|
|
|
Which type of transport is the Primary Active Transport?
|
solute pumping
|
|
|
what two responses cause edema?
|
vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
|
|
|
What type of carrier is required for active transport methods?
|
protein
|
|
|
what are the three phases of inflammation?
|
injury and inflammation
proliferation remodelling |
|
|
What are the names of the two types of coupled systems?
|
symport and antiport
|
|
|
what is the main event of the first phase of inflammation?
|
vasodilation and increased capillary permeability leads to edema
|
|
|
What types of nutrients enter the cell via symport?
|
nutrients, such as amino acids which are required for cell survival
|
|
|
what are the three main events of the second phase of inflammation?
|
extensive cell division
restoration of blood supply tissue replacement |
|
|
Describe symport
|
A substance is transported across the membrane along the concentration gradient and another substance pairs up with it and also moves. The paired substance is moving against the concentration gradient.
|
|
|
what is the main even of the third phase of inflammation?
|
remodeling:continual synthesis and degradation of collagen to shape the scar tissue
|
|
|
describe anti-port
|
one substance passively diffuses along the concentration gradient while another moves in the opposite direction against the concentration gradient.
|
|
|
what is angiogenesis and what phase does it occur in?
|
creation of new blood vessels
during proliferation stage |
|
|
In the resting membrane potentional what causes the separation of charge?
|
unequal distribution of ions across the membrane
|
|
|
what is regeneration and what phase does it occur in?
|
creation of new epithelial cells
during proliferation stage |
|
|
the separation of charge is also known as what?
|
the ectrochemical gradient
|
|
|
what is fibroblast activity and what phase of the inflammatory cycle does it occur in?
|
renewing of connective tissue layer
during proliferation stage |
|
|
Is the inside or the outside of the cell more negatively charged?
|
The inside
|
|
|
what is granulation tissue?
|
temporary tissue over a wound
|
|
|
are the ICF and ECF negative or positively charged?
|
Neither. They are neutral.
|
|
|
What does granulation tissue look like?
|
fragile and pink and bleeds easily
|
|
|
all somatic cells have a resting membrance potential in the range of what charge?
|
-20 to -200 mV
|
|
|
what happens to granulation tissue when it matures?
|
it will become functional tissue OR scar tissue
|
|
|
is the cell membrane more permeable to Sodium or potassiuim?
|
Potassium.
|
|
|
what is the first intention of wound healing?
|
the wound will heal with no tissue loss and function and structure will be restored.
|
|
|
transport functions of the membrane ensure what five things?
|
supply of nutrients
supply of oxygen removal of waste maintainance of RMP maintainance of pH |
|
|
what is the second intention of wound healing?
|
function will be lost, but structure will be restored
|
|
|
Passive transport allows which three things in and out of the cell?
|
water
small lipid soluable molecules larger hydrophilic molecules |
|
|
list five inhibiting factors to orderly scar formation
|
infection
nutrition (ex. Vitamin C is needed for collagen synthesis) steroid use poor perfusion foreign bodies |
|
|
active transport functions ensure what two things?
|
ionic balance b/w internal and external cell environment
tranport of organic molecules b/w body compartments |
|
|
if the injurious agent is removed what are the outcomes of the inflammatory response?
|
minimal necrosis and either regeneration of parenchymal tissue OR fibrosis
|
|
|
what is evagination?
|
the process of turning outward or inside out
|
|
|
if the injurious agent is not removed, what are the outcomes of the inflammatory response?
|
necrosis
|
|
|
what is invagination?
|
the process of covering or enclosing to fold in so that an outer surface becomes an inner surface
|
|
|
what are the possible outcomes of necrosis?
|
labile and stable tissues will regenerate or scar
permanent tissues will be lost forever |
|
|
what is egestion?
|
the act or process of discharging undigested or waste material from a cell or organism
|
|
|
what is fibrosis?
|
the process that produces collagen scar tissue
|
|
|
what is ingestion?
|
to take in for, or as if for, digestion
|
|
|
what is collagenase and what is it used for?
|
it is an enzyme that destroys collagen and it used during the remodeling phase of the inflammatory response.
|
|
|
what are the three types of endocytosis?
|
pinocytosis
phagocytosis receptor mediated endocytosis. |
|
|
the amount of collagen in a scar depends on what two things?
|
fibroblast activity
collagenase activity |
|
|
What type of endocytosis is known as cell drinking?
|
pinocytosis
|
|
|
what type of inflammatory activity is highly controlled, active only for a brief period of time and is then inactivated be specific tissue inhibators?
|
collagenase activity
|
|
|
outline the process of pinocytosis
|
ECF and solutes bind to the plasma membrane
invagination pinching off vesicle migrates vesicle releases ingested substances the membrane is recycled |
|
|
what are the major cause of tissue death?
|
ischemia leading to hypoxia
|
|
|
which organelle is the key player in phagocytosis?
|
lysosomes
|
|
|
what happens to necrotic cells?
|
the destroyed cells are digested by lysosomal enzymes and white blood cells
|
|
|
In which two cells does phagocytosis occur?
|
white blood cells: macrophage cells and neutrophil cells
|
|
|
describe coagulation necrosis
|
firm dry lesions
digestion is slow and tissue landmarks are preserved |
|
|
Outline the process / stages of phagocytosis
|
the particle binds to the cell membrance
invagination vesicle formation pinching off migration merging with a lysosome digestion egestion of the residue vesicle membrane is recycled. |
|
|
what type of necrosis has lesions with fluid centers and is characterized by rapid and complete digestion?
|
liquefaction necrosis
|
|
|
egestion occurs via which 'cytosis'?
|
exocytosis
|
|
|
describe caseation necrosis
|
soft, dry, cheesy formation with partial and incomplete digestion
|
|
|
describe the stages of exocytosis
|
a golgi vesicle is formed
the vesicle migrates to the membrane the vesicle and the membrane fuse the vesicle ruptures and spills its contents outside the cell |
|
|
what type of necrosis is firm and chalky in appearance
|
fat necrosis
|
|
|
what is the difference between secretion and excretion?
|
secretion is the exocytosis of produced goods to the outside cell environment. Excretion is the elimination of waste from the cell.
|
|
|
what causes the chalky appearance in fat necrosis?
|
calcification
|
|
|
describe receptor mediated endocytosis
|
specific receptors on the membrane attract specific substances, then phagocytosis occurs which these specific substances
|
|
|
what is the usual cause of gangrene?
|
loss of blood supply to a limb due to inflammation, injury or degenerative changes
|
|
|
What is the definition of health?
|
The ability to function productively under changing environmental conditions and to adapt to stress and maintain homeostasis
|
|
|
what are the three types of gangrene?
|
dry
wet gas |
|
|
what three things affect the ability to adapt?
|
age
health status (nutrition, heriditary factors etc.) emotional/psychological states |
|
|
which type of gangrene is aseptic?
|
dry
|
|
|
what are the two available mechanisms for the body to react to stress?
|
Short term and long term
|
|
|
which type of gangrene is septic?
|
wet and gas
|
|
|
what is the end result if homeostasis can't be maintained?
|
disease or injury
|
|
|
which type of gangrene detroys arteries but not veins and is characterised by tissue that turns black and drops off?
|
dry
|
|
|
what are the four mechanisms available in response to injury (broadly, not cellular)?
|
inflammation
fever antibodies cellular adaptation |
|
|
Dry gangrene is a form of what kind of necrosis?
|
coagulation
|
|
|
what two processes of phagocytosis help to clear debris?
|
endocytosis and digestion
|
|
|
what is disrupted in wet gangrene?
|
venous return
|
|
|
which organelle is used for digestion?
|
lysosome
|
|
|
describe wet gangrene
|
skin is moist
the area is cold and swollen |
|
|
what is inside the lysosome that helps to fulfill its digestive role?
|
hydrolytic enzymes
|
|
|
describe gas gangrene
|
the wound is infected with bacteria that produces gas
tissue is swollen and putrefied |
|
|
when a lysosome's enzymes are inactive it is which form of lysosome?
|
primary
|
|
|
what are the three common characteristics of white blood cells?
|
motile
chemotaxis amoeboid |
|
|
when a lysosome's enzymes are active it is which form of lysosome?
|
secondary
|
|
|
what does amoeboid mean?
|
the cells can change shape and squeeze through narrow spaces
|
|
|
what are the four functions of lysosomes?
|
regression of tissues/cell destruction
removal of damaged cells (heat, cold, trauma...) destroy invading bacteria digestion of fat and glycogen for fuel |
|
|
what are the two ways that white blood cells can be categorized?
|
granular
agranular |
|
|
the digestion of foreign substances and extracellular debris is what kind of digestion?
|
hetrophagy
|
|
|
which category of WBCs are associated with the acute inflammatory response?
|
granular
|
|
|
what is autophagy?
|
digestion of organelles, cell components or excess metabolites.
|
|
|
which category of WBCs are associated with the chronic inflammatory response?
|
agranular
|
|
|
is autophagy a part of normal, healthy cell function?
|
yes
|
|
|
unresolved acute inflammation can progress to what two things?
|
suppuration
chronic inflammation and excessive fibrosis |
|
|
is hetrophagy a part of normal function?
|
no, it is a reaction to inflammation and disease
|
|
|
what are the two major differences between actute inflammatory response and chronic?
|
time factor (short vs long term)
activity (exudates vs fibrosis) |
|
|
what happens to material that the lysosomes don't recognize?
|
it remains undigested inside the phagosome
|
|
|
what are the systemic manifestations of chronic inflammation?
|
elevated WBC count
low grade fever pain |
|
|
what is a residual body?
|
a phagosome containing undigested and undigestable substances
|
|
|
is acute inflammation ever useful?
|
yes
if it resolves the injury, localizes and destroys the injurious agent and the exudates carry away the debris |
|
|
what are the two patterns of reversible cell injury?
|
organelle/cell swelling and intracellular accumulation
|
|
|
what two ways can acute inflammation be harmful?
|
if it incites an autoimmune response
if it is over reactive |
|
|
what leads to organelle/cell swelling?
|
failure of the Na/K pump to maintain the electrochemical gradient. Water flows into the cell due to osmotic imbalance
|
|
|
is chronic inflammation ever useful?
|
no
|
|
|
what are the three categories of intracellular accumulation?
|
normal endogenous substances
abnormal endogenous substances exogenous substances |
|
|
what are exudates?
|
fluids that exude from injured tissues or capillaries
|
|
|
when too much fat is produced or there is a metabolic dysfunction, this is what kind of intracellular accumulation?
|
normal endogenous substances
|
|
|
what is the common result of exudates?
|
edema
|
|
|
if the cell contains certain things that can't be metabolized, what category of intracellular accumulation is this?
|
abnormal endogenous
|
|
|
what are the causes of edema due to injury?
|
vasodilation
increased membrane permeability inability of the lymphatic system to remover IF at the same rate that it is exuding from the capillaries |
|
|
if the cell contains substances from an outside source that can't be digested/metabolized, what type of intracellular accumulation is this?
|
exogenous
|
|
|
what are the five type types of exudates?
|
serous
fibrinous membranous purulent hemorrhagic |
|
|
irreversible cell injury usually leads to what process?
|
autolysis
|
|
|
describe serous exudate
|
low in protein
it is the initial post-injury exudate |
|
|
what happens during autolysis?
|
the lysosome ruptures and the hydrolytic enzymes are released into the cytoplasm
|
|
|
which type of exudate is high in fibrinogen and glues structures together and prevents the spread of infection?
|
fibrinous
|
|
|
is irreversible cell damage and/or autolysis always bad? If not, give an example.
|
no, sometimes the lysosomes clear away debris and tissue continues to function, such as tissue regression of the uterus after pregnancy.
|
|
|
describe membranous exudate
|
contains necrotic cells
|
|
|
What is a mixture?
|
the physical combination of 2 or more substances
|
|
|
what type of exudate contains pus and sometimes needs to be surgically removed?
|
purulent
|
|
|
what are the two categories of mixtures?
|
homogenous and heterogenous
|
|
|
describe hemorrhagic exudate
|
it contains blood
it happens when blood vessels rupture or when red blood cells more into tissue spaces |
|
|
what are the two components of a solution?
|
the solvent and the solute
|
|
|
what are the common contents of ALL exudates?
|
water
inorganic compounds (electrolytes) small organic molecules (glucose, amino acids) |
|
|
what is kinetic energy?
|
the movement of particles
|
|
|
if exudates are not removed, what is the outcome?
|
the inflammation will not be resolved
|
|
|
what kind of mixture is whole blood?
|
a suspension
|
|
|
describe the collagen fibre arrangement of tendons
|
parallel
long bundles |
|
|
what kind of mixture is blood plasma?
|
a colloid
|
|
|
what is a tendon sheath?
|
a connective tissue that wraps around a tendon in areas of high stress
|
|
|
what kind of mixture is blood serum?
|
a transparent solution
|
|
|
what is the major physiological characteristic of tendons?
|
very high tensile strength
|
|
|
what seven components are present in whole blood?
|
water
cells protein glucose amino acids urea ions |
|
|
what two things make tendons and tendon sheaths susceptible to injury?
|
friction
hypovascularity |
|
|
what is missing from blood plasma that is present in whole blood?
|
cells
|
|
|
what are located between tendons and bones and act as cushions to decrease friction?
|
fat pads
bursae |
|
|
what is missing from blood serum that is present in whole blood?
|
cells and proteins
|
|
|
what is tenosynovitis?
|
inflammation of an ensheathed tendon
|
|
|
Electrolytes are most vital to which two types of tissue?
|
muscle and nerve
|
|
|
what does hypovascular mean?
|
decreased capillaries
reduced oxygen and nutrient supply |
|
|
most salts disolve in water, but some don't. What happens to them and give one example in the body.
|
They form rocks or crystals. An example is calcium phosophate which forms bone
|
|
|
what does poor perfusion mean to injured tissue?
|
increased healing time
|
|
|
What is the definition of an isotonic solution?
|
a solution in which the solute concentration in the extracellular fluid is equal to the solute concentration of the cytoplasm
|
|
|
describe the tendon sheath
|
inner and outer layer
fluid between the layers |
|
|
What is the definition of a hypertonic solution?
|
a solution in which the solute concentration in the extracellular fluid is greater than the solute concentration of the cytoplasm
|
|
|
what is tendonitis?
|
inflammatory condition affecting a tendon or musculotendinous unit
|
|
|
What is the definition of a hypotonic solution?
|
a solution in which the solute concentration in the extracellular fluid is less than the solute concentration of the cytoplasm
|
|
|
what are the two common causes of tendonitis?
|
age/degeneration
tissue fatigue (RSI) |
|
|
what happens to a cell placed in a hypertonic solution?
|
the cell will shrink and may crenate
|
|
|
what are possible causes of tendinitis? (5)
|
overuse
compression of tendon by other structures joint calcification joint hypermobility postural misalignment |
|
|
what happens to a cell placed in a hypotonic solution?
|
the cell will swell and may undergo lysis
|
|
|
what are the long term consequences of tendonitis?
|
muscle weakness
degeneration and fibrosis of the tendon decreased range of motion |
|
|
what are the two categories of solutes?
|
polar substances and electrolytes
|
|
|
why does tendonitis tend to recur?
|
repetitive use
inadequate recovery time |
|
|
The body is divided into which two generalized cellular compartments?
|
intracellular and extracellular
|
|
|
describe the use of hydrotherapy for tendonitis
|
acute: cryotherapy
sub acute: contrast chronic: deep moist heat |
|
|
which fluid is contained in the intracellular compartment?
|
cytoplasm / cytosol / intracellular fluid
|
|
|
what are the treatment aims for tendonitis?
|
maintain mobility and tissue health
prevent reinjury |
|
|
intracellular fluid represents approximately how much volume of overall body fluid?
|
25 liters
|
|
|
what are the short term treatment aims for tendonitis?
|
decrease pain
maintain and restore tissue health |
|
|
what compartment is also referred to as the internal enviroment of the body?
|
the extracellular compartment
|
|
|
what are the long term treatment aims for tendinitis? (4)
|
prevent recurrence
increase range of motion increase muscle strength decrease scar formation |
|
|
extracellular fluid represents approximately how much volume of overall body fluid?
|
15 liters
|
|
|
which chemical mediators are responsible for chemotaxis of leukocytes?
|
Kinins
(bradykinin and others) |
|
|
extracellular fluid is subdivided into five addition fluids, name them.
|
interstitial fluid
blood plasma lymph cerebral spinal fluid synovial fluid |
|
|
which chemical mediators stimulate fibroblast activity and the repair of damaged tissues?
|
prostaglandins
|
|
|
substances flowing between the two body compartments are dependant upon which four things?
|
concentration gradient
particle size soluability (hydrophobic vs hydrophilic) type and number of receptors and carriers |
|
|
which system is the lymphatic sytem part of?
|
the circulatory system
|
|
|
what are three characteristics of membranes?
|
thin, selective and fragile
|
|
|
what are the two parts that compose the lymphatic system?
|
the network of lymph vessels
the lymphoid organs and tissues |
|
|
starting with the heart, describe the general pathway of fluids in the body
|
heart
blood vessels (arteries) interstitial spaces cells back to interstitial spaces blood vessels (veins) lymph vessels back to the heart |
|
|
what are the two main functions of the lymphatic system?
|
immunity
fluid balance |
|
|
which two types of pressure determine the movement of substances between compartments?
|
osmotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure
|
|
|
what do the lymphoid organs do?
|
filter fluid
phagocytize debris produce antibodies control fluid flow |
|
|
the make up of the intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid is different because of the amounts of what two substances?
|
the electrolyte concentration and the amount of proteins
|
|
|
what links the immunity role and the fluid balance role of the lymphatic system?
|
lymph nodes
|
|
|
the differences between the cytoplasm and the interstitial fluid is caused by these three cell characteristics
|
the hydrophobic nature of the plasma membrane
the selectivity of membrane proteins solute pumping. |
|
|
what forces the excess fluid into the interstitial spaces?
|
hydrostatic pressure inside the capillaries forces plasma into the IS
|
|
|
What is the product of fertilization?
|
a zygote
|
|
|
which structures collect interstitial fluid?
|
~ 3/4 is reabsorbed at the venous end of the capillaries
~ 1/4 is absorbed by lymph capillaries |
|
|
how long is the pre-embryonic period?
|
2 weeks
|
|
|
why can't protein be absorbed by the venous capillaries?
|
the particles are too big
|
|
|
What is the name for period of time spanning 9 weeks of pregnancy until birth?
|
the fetal period
|
|
|
what happens to the protein in the interstitial fluid?
|
it is absorbed by the lymph capillaries
|
|
|
what are the 6 stages of pre-embryonic development?
|
zygote
1st mitotic division early cleavage morula early blastocyst late blastocyst |
|
|
what characteristic of the lymph capillaries allows the proteins to be absorbed?
|
the overlapping endothelial cells have loose junctions
|
|
|
The first mitotic division results in the formation of how many identical cells and what is unique about them?
|
two cells and they are of unequal size
|
|
|
why does protein need to be taken out of the interstitial space?
|
because if it remains there it will increase the osmotic pressure and cause more fluids to be drawn out of the capillaries and cause swelling and disrupt the fluid balance
|
|
|
how many cells are there at morula formation and describe the conformation of the cells?
|
16 (or more) and they form a solid ball
|
|
|
how thick are lymph capillaries?
|
one cell thick
|
|
|
how soon after fertilization does the morula period occur?
|
72 hours
|
|
|
where will you not find lymph capillaries?
|
in the central nervous system
|
|
|
what happens during the blastocyst formation?
|
The morula separates into two parts
|
|
|
what are three ways that lymph capillaries have adapted to their role in the body?
|
highly permeable
anchored by protein filaments large openings |
|
|
what are the names of the two formations created in the early blastocyst period and what are their locations?
|
cytotrophoblast (the outer layer of cells)
embyonic disc / inner cell mass (the inner layer of cells) |
|
|
which lymph pathway is superfical?
|
the collecting vessels of the extremities
|
|
|
what blastocyst formation will form the placenta?
|
the cytotrophoblast
|
|
|
which lymph pathway is deeper?
|
the visceral vessels and trunks
|
|
|
what process or event is the end of the pre-embryonic period?
|
implantation - the blastocyst implants in the uterine wall
|
|
|
which duct drains the lower and the left side of the body?
|
thoracic duct
|
|
|
What is gastrulation?
|
the formation of primary tissue layers
|
|
|
which ducts drains the upper right portion of the body?
|
the right lymphatic duct
|
|
|
When does gastrulation occur?
|
Around week 3
|
|
|
which two forces determine the movement of fluids between the compartments of the body?
|
hydrostatic pressure
osmotic pressure |
|
|
what germ layers form the notochord?
|
the mesodermal cells
|
|
|
how many liters of fluid move out of the capillaries each day?
|
24 liters
|
|
|
what is the notochord?
|
the first axial support for the embryo
|
|
|
how much fluid is reabsorbed at the venule end of the capillary bed?
|
20 liters
|
|
|
what are the three germ layers?
|
ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
|
|
|
how much fluid each day does the lymphatic system carry?
|
4 liters
|
|
|
what is organogenesis and what period does it occur in?
|
the formation of body organs and systems. It occurs during the embryonic period
|
|
|
increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in what?
|
decreased drainage of interstitial fluid to lymph / build up of fluid
|
|
|
What tissues arise from the ectoderm?
|
The epidermis and the nervous system
|
|
|
decreased capillary osmotic pressure results in what?
|
decreased drainage of interstitial fluid to lymph / build up of fluid
|
|
|
The epithelium of the digestive and respiratory tract arise from which germ layer?
|
endoderm
|
|
|
inflammation, venous obstruction or surgical removal of the lymph vessels will lead to what?
|
local increased interstitial fluid
|
|
|
the mesoderm produces which tissues?
|
muscle and connective tissue including bone, blood and cartilage
|
|
|
which substance is the key contributor to osmotic pressure?
|
proteins
|
|
|
what four things are happening at the end of the embryonic period?
|
the bones are beginning to ossify
skeletal muscles are well formed and contracting spontaneously internal organs continue to develop rudimentary blood vessels are there to carry blood between the placenta and the embryo. |
|
|
what are some contributing factos to decreased plasma proteins?
|
liver disease
malnutrition kidney disease |
|
|
what ectodermic process is initiated as a result of signals from the notochord?
|
neurulation
|
|
|
how much protein leaks out of capillaries each day?
|
about half of the proteins in circulation
|
|
|
what is the name of the process which forms the nervous sytem?
|
neurulation
|
|
|
what is the name for generalized, systemic edema that affects the whole body?
|
anasarca
|
|
|
what are the five structures developed out of neurolation?
|
neural plate
neural groove neural folds neural tube neural crest |
|
|
why does increased capillary permeability lead to reduced osmotic pressure?
|
because the fluid that leaks out takes proteins with it. Less proteins in the capillary means lower osmotic pressure.
|
|
|
what is described as a thickening of the ectoderm overlying the notochord?
|
the neural plate
|
|
|
inflammatory exudates contain what kinds of things? (4)
|
plasma proteins
proteins from disintegrating cells Ab-Ag aggregates cellular debris from necrotic cells |
|
|
what is formed by the invagination of the neural plate?
|
the neural groove
|
|
|
the substances contained in exudates are removed by what system? Why?
|
by the lymphatic system, because the particles are too big to be removed any other way
|
|
|
when bilateral ridges from along the length of the neural groove what is this called?
|
the neural folds
|
|
|
what kind of edema is caused by serous exudates?
|
pitting edema
|
|
|
what is formed from the fusion of two neural folds?
|
the neural tube
|
|
|
what kind of edema is often associated with chronic edema?
|
pitting edema
|
|
|
what is the neural crest?
|
a group of neural cells on the underside of both neural folds
|
|
|
what kind of edema is associated with fibrinous exudates?
|
non pitting edema
|
|
|
the neural tube gives rise to what two structures?
|
The brain and the spinal cord
|
|
|
what kinds of injuries are associated with non pitting edema?
|
acute or sub acute injuries
|
|
|
the neural crest gives rise to which body structure?
|
The peripheral nerves
|
|
|
describe the feel of pitting edema
|
boggy
|
|
|
the mesoderm divides into what three sections?
|
somites
intermediate mesoderm lateral mesoderm |
|
|
describe the feel of non pitting edema
|
springy
|
|
|
name the three somites
|
sclerotome
dermatone myotome |
|
|
what kind of edema results in trophic skin changes?
|
chronic
|
|
|
the intermediate mesoderm gives rise to what two structures?
|
reproductive organs and kidneys
|
|
|
what is lymphangitis?
|
inflammation of lymph vessels
|
|
|
what are the two categories of the lateral mesoderm?
|
somatic and splanchnic
|
|
|
what is lymphedema?
|
excess interstitial fluid in the interstitial space and drainage can not keep up
|
|
|
the sclerotome will form what body structures?
|
the vertebrae and the ribs
|
|
|
what are some causes of dehydration?
|
excessive sweating
heavy bleeding severe burns vomiting diarrhea |
|
|
what will form the dermis of the skin and the dorsal part of the body?
|
the dermatone
|
|
|
what are signs and symptoms of dehydration?
|
dry mouth
hot, dry, itchy skin dizziness tired fever mental confusion |
|
|
The myotome will form what structure(s)?
|
The bulk of the skeletal muscles
|
|
|
what is the treatment for dehydration?
|
IV hypotonic infusion
|
|
|
what part of the lateral mesoderm will form the ventral dermis of the skin, the parietal serosa of the ventral body cavities and limb buds?
|
somatic
|
|
|
what is water intoxication?
|
decreased solute concentration in interstitial fluid leads to osmosis into cells due to increased osmotic pressure
|
|
|
what structures will arise from the splanchnic part of the lateral mesoderm? (3)
|
the cardiovascular system
most connective tissue structures smooth muscle of the gut and the respiratory tract |
|
|
what happens to cells during water intoxication?
|
cells and organelles swell ; metabolic disturbances
|
|
|
what are the two general categories of soft tissue?
|
contractile and non-contractile
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of water intoxication?
|
nausea
vomiting muscle cramps cerebral edema |
|
|
what are the properties of soft tissue (4)?
|
pliabe, resistant
loss of resiliency = loss of function susceptible to injury lends itself to manipulation |
|
|
what can cerebral edema lead to?
|
disorientation
convulsions coma death |
|
|
what is cytology?
|
study of cells (both structure and function)
|
|
|
what is the treatment for hyponatremia?
|
IV hypertonic infusion
|
|
|
what is histology?
|
study of tissues
|
|
|
which organ systems are responsible for maintaining homeostasis?
|
circulatory
respiratory digestive urinary |
|
|
what are the four basic types of body tissues?
|
epithelial
connective nerve muscle |
|
|
what does the osmotic pressure of capillaries do?
|
draws water back into blood volume
|
|
|
the property of a tissue depends on what four things?
|
chemical composition
types of cells arrangement of cells type of extracellular material |
|
|
what is net filtration pressure?
|
hydrostatic pressure less osmotic pressure
|
|
|
describe the structure of epithelial tissue (3)
|
single or multilayers
continuous tightly linked cells |
|
|
what type of edema is a reflection of inflammatory condition due to injury?
|
local edema
|
|
|
what is the function of epithelial tissue?
|
forms barriers
lends tensile strength transfer materials (absorption, excretion, secretion, filtration) |
|
|
what type of edema is secondary to an organ/system dysfunction?
|
generalized edema / anasarca
|
|
|
If a tissue were described as bundles of cells in a parallel arrangement that are excitable, what type of tissue would it be?
|
muscle
|
|
|
what are the four major causes of edema?
|
increased hydrostatic pressure
decreased plasma proteins increased capillary permeability blocked lymphatic vessels |
|
|
describe the structure of nerve tissue
|
bundles of cells with elongated projections (axons). It is an excitable tissue
|
|
|
what is acidosis?
|
build up of waste in cells
|
|
|
what is the function of nerve tissue?
|
tensile strength and flexibility. The degree of which is determined by the amount and arrangement of fibres
|
|
|
describe the relationship between edema and blood pressure
|
edema causes decreased blood pressure
the heart works harder blood pressure goes up hydrostatic pressure increases increased hydrostatic pressure spurs on the edema |
|
|
what are the three shapes of epithelial tissue cells?
|
cuboidal, squamous, columnar
|
|
|
list four pathologies that increase blood pressure and edema
|
poorly functioning venous valves
thrombosis chronic congestive heart failure anything that causes an increase in blood volume |
|
|
what are the two arrangements of epithelial tissue cells?
|
simple (single layer)
stratified (multi layers) |
|
|
what is hypoproteinemia?
|
decreased proteins
|
|
|
list the seven special characteristics of epithelial tissue
|
highly cellular/tightly packed
specialized contacts polarity basement membranes innervated avascular regeneration |
|
|
what is the result of hypoproteinemia in blood volume?
|
more proteins outside the blood capillaries will lead to higher OP in the interstitial space and water will be drawn into the interstitial space and edema will result
|
|
|
what are the two types of specialized contacts in epithelial tissue?
|
tight junctions and desmosomes
|
|
|
where will anasarca be most prominent in a mobile patient?
|
the ankles and lower legs
|
|
|
what are the two basement membranes of epithelial tissue?
|
basal lamina
reticular lamina |
|
|
where will anasarca be most prominent in a bed ridden patient?
|
back
sacral area lungs serous cavities |
|
|
what does the basal lamina do?
|
it's a selective filter
|
|
|
what process is critical to rapid gas exchange in the lungs?
|
the air sacs must remain dry
the OP in pulmonary capillaries is greater than the HP therefore very little fluid filters out |
|
|
what does the reticular lamina do?
|
resists stretching and tearing
|
|
|
what causes pulmonary edema?
|
increased HP in capillaries
OR increased permeability due to hypoxia and inhaled irritants |
|
|
what is the 'ground substance' and where is it highly abundant?
|
collagen fibres found abundantly in the extracellular fluid.
|
|
|
chronic congestive heart failure leads to tissue hypoxia which results in what kinds of systemic symptoms? (4)
|
decreased exercise tolerance
fatigue weakness loss of muscle mass |
|
|
what is the apical surface?
|
The surface exposed to the outside, the free surface
|
|
|
what happens systemically if the kidneys don't filter water and wastes properly?
|
electrolyte and water imbalances
accumulation of urea salt and water accumulate and increase blood volume blood pressure increases edema occurs in dependent parts which can then shift at night and lead to pulmonary edema. |
|
|
what is the basal surface?
|
The surface facing internal structures
|
|
|
what is a microbe?
|
a microscopic living or non-living organism
|
|
|
what is the state of most of the cells of the epidermis?
|
They are dead
|
|
|
List the layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial
|
basale
spinosum granulosum lucidum corneum |
|
|
what are the four categories of organisms based on how they obtain nutrients?
|
autotroph
heterotroph saprophyte parasite |
|
|
which two layers of the epidermis contain dead cells?
|
corneum and lucidum
|
|
|
I synthesize organic compounds from inorganic ones
|
autotroph
|
|
|
I require a supply of organic compounds
|
heterotroph
|
|
|
which layer of the epidermis is the most superfical layer to receive blood?
|
granulosum
|
|
|
I eat only dead organic matter
|
saprophyte
|
|
|
what is unique about the basale layer of cells?
|
it is regenerating
|
|
|
I live on or in other organisms
|
parasite
|
|
|
what type of protein is collagen and what does it tell you about its function?
|
a fibrous protein and therefore lends strength and support to the skin
|
|
|
what are the five classes of infectious microbes?
|
prions and viruses
bacteria chlamydiae or Rickettsia fungi parasites, protozoa |
|
|
what is the function of elastin?
|
provides stretch and flexibility
|
|
|
what does eukaryotic mean?
|
an organism with cell nucleus surrounded by a membrane
|
|
|
what causes wrinkles or scars to form?
|
Collagen replaces elastin in the skin.
|
|
|
what is a host?
|
the organism supporting the nutritional needs and physical environment of another organism
|
|
|
what is present in the dermis that makes it an active part of healing injuries?
|
white blood cells
|
|
|
list three ways that a parasite can cause harm to its host
|
deplete nutritional resources
release toxic waste products incite adverse immune responses |
|
|
what are the two layers of the dermis?
|
papillary layer
reticular layer |
|
|
what is a parasitic relationship?
|
parasite benefits, host is harmed
|
|
|
which layer of the dermis is the superficial layer?
|
papillary layer
|
|
|
what is a symbiotic relationship?
|
both host and parasite benefit mutually
|
|
|
which layer of the epidermis is the source of all epidermal cells?
|
the basale
|
|
|
infection
|
parasites present and multiplying within host
|
|
|
which layer of the epidermis is attached to the dermis?
|
the basale
|
|
|
infected
|
organism is invaded by parasite
|
|
|
what are the two major functions of the skin?
|
protective and sensory
|
|
|
infectious disease
|
state where host is injured
|
|
|
what are the four types of cells in the epidermis?
|
keratinocytes
melanocytes Langerhans Merkel |
|
|
pathogen
|
disease causing parasite
|
|
|
which epidermal cells are tough and protective?
|
keratinocytes
|
|
|
pathogenicity
|
ability of a parasite to cause disease
|
|
|
where are melanocytes found and what do they do?
|
in the basale layer and they protect from UV radiation
|
|
|
virulence
|
severity of disease process
|
|
|
which cell type is found in the spinosum layer and what are their functions?
|
Langerhans. They are immune cells that destroy foreign substances
|
|
|
describe the 'effect' of prions
|
neurodegenerative
slow, progressive loss of coordination dementia |
|
|
where do you find Merkel cells and what do they do?
|
at the junction of the dermis and the epidermis - they sense light touch
|
|
|
what is the treatment for prion infection?
|
none
resistant to chemical and physical sterilization |
|
|
what are the six components of the dermis?
|
blood
lymph vessels sensory nerve endings sweat glands sebaceous glands smooth muscles |
|
|
what causes the neurodegeneration in a prion infection?
|
build up of protein
|
|
|
what do lymph vessels do?
|
they drain excess interstial fluid and return it to systemic circulation
|
|
|
what does obligate intracellular parasite mean?
|
it can not replicate outside the cell
|
|
|
what are the smooth muscles of the dermis called?
|
errector pili
|
|
|
viruses are living or non-living?
|
non - living
|
|
|
what are the protective functions of the skin?
|
first line of defense
prevents excess water from leaving or entering protects against radiation barrier (chemical, physical, biological) |
|
|
a virus consists of what three things?
|
a capsid (a protein coat)
nucleic acid core (DNA or RNA) a lipoprotein envelope (from the host) |
|
|
what are the six general functions of the skin?
|
protective
temperature regulation metabolic blood resevoir excretion cutaneous sensation |
|
|
how does a virus synthesize its components?
|
it hijacks the host cell's mechanisms
|
|
|
what are the three ways that skin regulates temperature?
|
sweating, shivering, oily secretions
|
|
|
how do viral particles 'spread'? (2)
|
host cells burst and viral particles are released to infect new cells
budding out of host cells |
|
|
what type of sweating occurs only at rest?
|
insensible perspiration
|
|
|
what are the two life cycles of viruses?
|
lytic cycle
latent cycle |
|
|
what is the metabolic function of skin?
|
converts amodified form of cholesterol into a precursor of vitamin D
|
|
|
describe the virus lytic cycle
|
infection
replication lysis release of virions |
|
|
How much of the total blood volume can the skin hold?
|
5%
|
|
|
what happens in the latent cycle?
|
viral DNA is inserted into host chromosomes
replication occurs later and begins lytic cycle |
|
|
what substances does the skin excrete?
|
water
salt nitrogenous wastes (urea, ammonia, uric acid) |
|
|
what four things can viruses interfere with?
|
DNA replication
RNA synthesis protein synthesis energy production |
|
|
what does cutaneous sensation allow us to do?
|
note changes in the environment
|
|
|
what does the body produce to interfere with virus replication?
|
interferons
|
|
|
what does prokaryote mean?
|
lacking a true nucleus
|
|
|
bacteria - prokaryote or eukaryotic>
|
prokaryotes
|
|
|
what classification (by nutrient gathering) does bacteria belong to?
|
heterotroph
|
|
|
describe the structure of bacteria
|
cell membrane
simple cell structure |
|
|
how do bacteria reproduce?
|
asexually - through mitosis
|
|
|
what kinds of life sustaining functions do bacterial engage in? (5)
|
energy production
protein synthesis maintaining boundaries DNA replication cellular reproduction |
|
|
do bacteria need a host cell?
|
no
|
|
|
are the majority of bacteria harmful or helpful?
|
helpful
|
|
|
the bacteria that are pathogenic, where do they multiply?
|
in blood and CSF etc
mostly extracellular |
|
|
what causes the damage to the host from a pathogenic bacteria?
|
toxins excreted by the bacteria lead to pathological tissue damage
|
|
|
what are the three shapes of bacteria?
|
cocci
spirrilla baccilus |
|
|
a spherical shaped bacteria
|
cocci
|
|
|
describe the shape of spirrilla bacteria
|
helical
|
|
|
elongated shaped bacteria
|
baccilus
|
|
|
describe / define prions and viruses
|
obligated intracellular parasite
non living infectious particle or organism |
|
|
what is an autonomously replicating unicellular organism?
|
bacteria
|
|
|
describe / define prions, chlamydiae and rickettsia
|
obligated intrecellular parasites with both viral and bacterial characteristics
|
|
|
what is a free living, eukaryotic saprophyte
|
fungi
|
|
|
describe / define parasites/protozoa
|
single celled, smallest members of the animal kingdom
|
|
|
how can a virus hide from a hosts immune system?
|
by embedding viral buds into hosts cell membrane
|
|
|
viral DNA can insert itself into the host's DNA. What is the result of mutating host cells?
|
malignant cells
|
|
|
antibiotics interfere with what five bacteria functions?
|
cell wall synthesis
DNA replication protein synthesis energy production / metabolism membrane function |
|
|
why do antibiotics not interfere with the host's cells?
|
because the host is a eukaryote and the bacteria is a prokaryote (no nucleus or organelles)
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of local bacterial infection?
|
erythemia
swelling pain exudates |
|
|
what are the signs of systemic bacterial infection?
|
fever
leukocytosis fatigue / weakness headaches myalgia arthralgia |
|
|
how are bacterial infections spread from person to person?
|
secretions
blood urine fecal matter |
|
|
what is the hallmark of bacterial infection?
|
release of toxins to host tissues
|
|
|
what are the two categories of bacterial toxins?
|
exotoxins
endotoxins |
|
|
what makes up bacterial exotoxins?
|
proteins/enzymes
|
|
|
what happens when bacteria release exotoxins?
|
key cellular components in the host's cells are deactivated
leads to cell dysfunction and possible death |
|
|
what makes up endotoxins?
|
complex glycolipids
|
|
|
when are endotoxins released?
|
upon lysis
|
|
|
what is endotoxemia?
|
blood poisoning
|
|
|
release of endotoxins lead to what activity in the host?
|
blood clotting
bleeding hypotension inflammation |
|
|
what do endotoxins do to host cells?
|
change or destroy normal functions
|
|
|
what kinds of parasites are rickettsiae and chlamydiae
|
obligate intracellular parasites
|
|
|
in what ways are rickettsiae and chlamydiae like viruses?
|
obligate intracellular parasites
they can not reproduce independent of host cell |
|
|
in what way are rickettsiae and chlamydiae like bacteria?
|
produce a rigid cell wall
reproduce asexually contain DNA and RNA |
|
|
what is the vector of rickettsia?
|
arthropods (ticks, fleas, lice)
|
|
|
what is the relationship between the vector and rickettsiae?
|
symbiotic
|
|
|
what does chlamydiae affect?
|
affects ATP productions
|
|
|
how is chlamydiae transmitted?
|
directly from one host to another
no vector required |
|
|
what do spirochetes most resemble?
|
similar to bacteria, they are a specialized type of bacteria
|
|
|
what are mycoplasms?
|
a genus of micro-organisms that as a whole do not produce disease
|
|
|
describe fungi based on their cellular make up, how they obtain food and their relationship to other organisms
|
eukaryotic
saprophytic parasitic |
|
|
what are the two categories of fungi?
|
yeasts
molds |
|
|
which of the fungi are uni-cellular? How do they reproduce?
|
yeasts. They reproduce via budding
|
|
|
which of the fungi are multi-cellular? How do they reproduce?
|
molds. They reproduce sexually and asexually
|
|
|
what is myselium?
|
a thin thread produced by mold that acts as an anchor
|
|
|
fungi are opportunistic. What does this mean?
|
They usually don't cause any problems, but will infect humans when immunity is low
|
|
|
what are the three categories of parasites?
|
protozoa
worms arthropods |
|
|
describe protozoa based on their cellular make up and how they obtain food.
|
eukaryotic
saprophytes |
|
|
how are protozoa transmitted?
|
directly between hosts.
Body fluids, food, water |
|
|
how are worms transmitted?
|
ingestion of fertilized eggs (via food or water)
skin penetration by larvae |
|
|
what are ectoparasites and give an example
|
parasites that infest the surface of the skin
arthropods such as fleas, lice, ticks |
|
|
which body secretions transmit pathogens?
|
nasal secretions
saliva urine blood feces semen/vaginal secretions |
|
|
what is the definition of infectious disease?
|
state in which the host sustains injury or pathological tissue change
|
|
|
what are the two main ports of entry for pathogens?
|
open passageways
lesion sites |
|
|
what are the three open passage ways of the body?
|
GI tracts
respiratory tract genitourinary tract |
|
|
what are the four modes of transmission available to pathogens?
|
penetration
direct contact between hosts ingestion inhalation |
|
|
what are the defences for penetration by pathogens?
|
inflammatory defence
|
|
|
what are the defences for direct contact transmission by pathogens?
|
immune system
inflammation |
|
|
what are the defences for ingestion of pathogens?
|
intestinal microflora
mucous lining of the GI tracts gastric acid |
|
|
what are the defences for inhalation of pathogens?
|
cilia
mucous coughing antimicrobial secretions phagocytes |
|
|
how is a congenital infection contracted?
|
in untero (vertical transmission)
|
|
|
describe the course of pathogen infection
|
invade
colonize tissue multiply harm host tissue released from host infect a new host |
|
|
what factos affect the spread of disease?
|
virulence
host immunity sanity factors |
|
|
opportunistic microflora infections are a type of what source of infection?
|
endogenous
|
|
|
infections acquired from an external source are a type of what source of infection?
|
external
|
|
|
what are the three types of exogenous infections?
|
zoonoses
nosocomial community acquired |
|
|
an infection passed from animals to humans
|
zoonoses
|
|
|
an infection developed in hospital patients
|
nosocomial
|
|
|
an infection acquired from a public place
|
community acquired
|
|
|
what is an iatrogenic infection?
|
an infection acquired from surgery
|
|
|
list the five stages of disease
|
incubation
prodromal acute convalescent resolution |
|
|
which stage of disease is when the pathogen replicates and the host shows no signs or symptoms?
|
incubation
|
|
|
describe the prodromal stage of disease
|
initial appearance of symptoms
|
|
|
that stage of disease when symptoms are most pronounced and specific
|
acute stage
|
|
|
describe the convalescent stage of disease
|
infection is contained
number of pathogens decreases damaged tissue is repaired |
|
|
during which stage of disease does immunity occur via memory cells?
|
the resolution stage
|
|
|
during which stage of disease is the pathogen eliminated from the body?
|
the resolution stage
|
|
|
if the body's immunute system is not able to contain the infection what are the two possible outcomes?
|
septicemia
chronic infection |
|
|
what is the definition of a chronic infection
|
mild symptoms that are destructive over time
|
|
|
do all skin lesions or changes signifiy disease?
|
no
|
|
|
what are the three manifestations of skin disorders?
|
rashes
lesions pruritis |
|
|
what is pruritis?
|
itching
|
|
|
what are skin excoriations?
|
destruction of small pieces of skin surface or mucus membranes, chafing or abrasions
|
|
|
what are the three lesions that occur due to mechanical processes?
|
blister
callus corn |
|
|
what is hyperkeratosis?
|
increased skin production
|
|
|
describe the shape of a corn
|
conical (apex is deep)
|
|
|
where do primary skin lesions form?
|
on normal skin
|
|
|
where do secondary skin lesions form?
|
on primary lesions
|
|
|
name the two flat, non-palpable skin changes / lesions
|
macule
patch |
|
|
which is larger, a macule or a patch?
|
a patch
|
|
|
a freckle is an example of what type of skin colour change?
|
macule
|
|
|
what type of skin lesion is larger than 1 cm, made up of white areas surrounded by normal skin?
|
patch
|
|
|
what is the only difference between a macule and a patch?
|
size
|
|
|
list the five palpable, elevated solid skin masses
|
papule
plaque nodule tumour wheal |
|
|
size of a papule?
|
up to half a centimeter
|
|
|
describe a plaque
|
elevated surface greater than 0.5 cm
a fusion of papules |
|
|
what type of skin lesion is 0.5 cm and up to 1 or 2 cm and deeper and firmer than a papule
|
nodule
|
|
|
describe a tumour
|
larger than 1-2 cm
abnormal mass of cells |
|
|
describe a wheal (4)
|
irregular
transient superficial area of local skin edema due to inflammatory response |
|
|
list the three palpable, elevated, fluid filled masses
|
vesicle
bulla pustule |
|
|
what is the size of a vesicle?
|
up to 0.5 cm
|
|
|
which fluid filled masses contain serous fluid?
|
bulla and a vesicle
|
|
|
what would you find in a pustule?
|
pus
|
|
|
define lesion
|
wound, injury or pathological change in tissue
|
|
|
define rash / eruptions
|
scattered outbreak on skin surface
usually raised fluid filled vesicles may be covered with scales / crusts |
|
|
what can cause skin excoriations?
|
excessive scratching
trauma chemicals |
|
|
what are some treatments for excoriations?
|
cold therapy
topical creams and lotions |
|
|
list four types of infectious skin disorders
|
viral
bacterial fungal parasitic |
|
|
list five types of non infectious skin disorders
|
burns
inflammation neoplasms allergic mechanical |
|
|
what type of fungal infection involves the epidermis and dermis and sometimes the subcutaneous layers?
|
deep fungal infections
|
|
|
what are the two main culprits in superficial fungal infections?
|
candiasis
tinea |
|
|
what type of fungus causes tinea infections?
|
mould
|
|
|
what is the site of infection of Tinea Corporis?
|
the body
|
|
|
what is the site of infection of Tinea Capitis?
|
the head
|
|
|
what is the site of infection of Tinea pedis
|
the foot
athlete's foot |
|
|
what is the site of infection of Tinea unguium?
|
nails
|
|
|
what is the site of infection of Tinea manus?
|
the hands
|
|
|
what is the site of infection of Tinea cruris?
|
thigh
jock itch |
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of a tinea infection?
|
scaling or vesicles
itching red-grey patches brittle hair |
|
|
tinea capitis mostly affects which population?
|
children
ages 3 - 8 |
|
|
how can tinea pedis be avoided?
|
hygiene!
feet clean and dry change socks often wear open footwear |
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of tinea unguium?
|
thick opaque white/yellow/brown nails
brittle nails cracks nail plates separate from the bed |
|
|
define candiasis
|
yeast infections caused by candida albicans which is part of the the microflora of the mouth, GI and vagina
|
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of candiasis?
|
itching, burning
red, swollen mucous membranes thick, whitish discharge painful urination |
|
|
what are some factors that predispose one to candiasis infections?
|
diabetes
antibiotics birth control malnutrition immunosuppression |
|
|
what type of infection is impetigo?
|
a superficial, contagious, bacterial infection
|
|
|
what are the common sites for impetigo?
|
around the mouth
nostrils |
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of impetigo?
|
thin walled vesicles, bulla, pustules
clusters contain yellowish fluid / crust |
|
|
what is the target population for impetigo?
|
infants and young children
|
|
|
what are decubitus ulcers?
|
bed sores
|
|
|
what type of infection are decubitus ulcers?
|
non contagious deep tissue infection
|
|
|
what is the target population for decubitus ulcers?
|
bed ridden patients
wheel chair users |
|
|
what are common sites of decubitus ulcers?
|
sacrum
heel ischial area greater trochanter lateral malleoli |
|
|
what are the two contributing factors to decubitus ulcers?
|
external pressure, ischemia, hypoxia
friction / shearing when shifting in bed or in a chair |
|
|
where would you find the most painful part of a decubitus ulcer?
|
the edges of the lesion
the center has degraded past the area where nocicepters are found |
|
|
if untreated, decubitus ulcers can lead to what?
|
gangrene
amputation death |
|
|
when was penicillin discovered?
|
1928
|
|
|
what global event spurred the commercial development of antibiotics?
|
WWII
|
|
|
what are natural microflora?
|
microbes that inhabit different body areas and do not cause disease (if body is in homeostatic balance)
|
|
|
when are microflora established?
|
shortly after birth
|
|
|
what is the predominant microflora bacteria?
|
serratia
|
|
|
what are the common viral microflora?
|
Herpes simplex, varicella, Epstein Barre
|
|
|
what are the common fungal microflora?
|
candida
|
|
|
what is the role of microflora?
|
protection
|
|
|
viruses require a host, meaning they are what kind of parasite?
|
obligate intracellular
|
|
|
what are two common skin infections in humans that are viral in nature?
|
warts and herpes
|
|
|
what type of herpes is a cold sore?
|
HSV1
|
|
|
Herpes simplex virus 2 is what kind of herpes?
|
genital herpes
|
|
|
what type of herpes virus are chicken pox and shingles?
|
varicella zoster or simplex 3
|
|
|
herpes simplex 4 is also known as what group?
|
lymphotrophic beta group
|
|
|
what is herpes simplex virus 8?
|
Koposi's sarcoma
|
|
|
which virus causes warts?
|
human papilloma virus (HPV)
|
|
|
are warts contagious?
|
yes
|
|
|
describe the appearance of warts
|
elevated mass of cells
irregular thickening of stratum spinosum increased thickening of stratum corneum |
|
|
an eruption of vesicles related to overexposure to the sun, stress and reduced immunity describes what?
|
Herpes simplex 1
|
|
|
describe the appearance of herpes simplex 1
|
thin walled vesicles
tend to recur at same site appear at the junction of skin and mucous membranes |
|
|
describe the 10 step pathogenesis of herpes simplex 1
|
virus enters the cell
replication of viral particles cell lysis and release of virons infection spreads necrosis and vesicle eruption wound healing virus moves along nerve colonizes ganglionic cells latency recurrence |
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of HSV1? (7)
|
pruritis
burning sensation soreness tenderness erythema erupted vesicles vesicles rupute |
|
|
what does herpes zoster cause?
|
post herpetic neuralgia / shingles
|
|
|
what is described as an acute inflammatory condition of spinal or cranial nerves?
|
herpes zoster / HSV3
|
|
|
what are the common sites of infection of herpes zoster?
|
trigeminal nerve
lumbar nerves |
|
|
describe the pathogenesis of shingles
|
childhood viral infection
lies latent for years unilateral cutaneous eruption vesicles subside after a few weeks |
|
|
severe pain and neuralgia and paraesthesia are signs and symptoms of what kind of infection?
|
herpes zoster
|
|
|
what is the treatment for herpes zoster?
|
corticosteroids, antiviral drugs, pain relievers
|
|
|
what is the causative agent of scabies?
|
a mite that burrows into the epidermis
|
|
|
what are the common sites of scabies infections?
|
between fingers
wrists axillae genitalia inner thigh |
|
|
papules, vesicles, pustules, itching, excoriations are signs and symptoms of what?
|
scabies
|
|
|
pediculus humanus is the causative agent for what infection?
|
lice infestation
|
|
|
what body areas are infected by lice?
|
body
head pubic area |
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of lice?
|
pruritis
skin irritation eczematous patches |
|
|
what diseases are associated with ticks?
|
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Lyme Disease |
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of a tick carried virus in humans?
|
high fevers
rashes malaise |
|
|
why do antibiotics work against tick infections?
|
because the viruses have characteristics or bacteria
|
|
|
inflammatory, allergic, burns and neoplasms are examples of what kind of skin disorders?
|
non-infectious
|
|
|
burns can have what four serious consequences due to skin damage?
|
compromise the integrity of the skin
loss of protective function lead to infection reduced thermoregulation loss of fluids |
|
|
what kinds of skin disorders should an RMT look for and possibly refer a client to a heath care professional? (6)
|
bruises
fissures moles athlete's foot dry skin odours |
|
|
what are examples of heavy skin scaling?
|
dandruff
psoriasis eczema |
|
|
what glands secrete sebum and what kind of structure are they?
|
sebaceous glands. They are an epithelial structure
|
|
|
What does sebum contain?
|
a mixture of fatty substances
|
|
|
what is a holocrine process?
|
cells produce a secretion and then release it by bursting
|
|
|
how is sebum released?
|
via a holocrine process
|
|
|
what stimulates sebaceous cell proliferation and sebum production?
|
hormones
|
|
|
pubescent acne is related the increase of which sex hormone?
|
the male sex hormone androgen
|
|
|
what are the four types of lesions associated with acne?
|
comedones
papules pustules cysts |
|
|
what is the laypersons name of comedones?
|
whiteheads
blackheads |
|
|
what causes a comedone?
|
obstructed ducts of accumulated sebum
|
|
|
what do blackheads contain?
|
melanin from broken down melanocytes
|
|
|
the inflammation of acne is cause by what?
|
irritating effects of some of the fatty acids in sebum
|
|
|
what are the three forms of acne?
|
acne vulgaris
acne conglobata acne rosacea |
|
|
what type of acne is common at puberty?
|
acne vulgaris
|
|
|
when does acne conglobata normally occur?
|
in adulthood
|
|
|
which type of acne is more common in the elderly?
|
acne rosacea
|
|
|
what is the cause of acne vulgaris?
|
idiopathic / unknown
|
|
|
hormonal activity, keratinisation of epithelial cells and increased sebum are contributing factors to what non-infectious skin condition?
|
acne vulgaris
|
|
|
what is the prevention and treatment of acne vulgaris?
|
keep skin clean
balanced diet avoid stress topical creams |
|
|
what are the three most common lesion site for acne conglobata?
|
back
buttocks chest |
|
|
how does acne conglobata manifest?
|
comedomes
postules abscesses cysts scars |
|
|
keloid scarring due to abnormal remodeling is related to what type of acne?
|
acne conglobata
|
|
|
what is a raised pink or red firm mass of cells due to excess collagen deposition?
|
keloid
|
|
|
what are the systemic manifestations of acne conglobata?
|
anaemia, increased white blood cell count, increased neutrophil counts
|
|
|
describe the onset of acne rosacea
|
insidious
begins with red patches over the nose and cheek that spread to chin and forehead |
|
|
what is telangiectasia and what type of skin disorder is it associated with?
|
it is dilation of capillaries and it is seen in acne rosacea
|
|
|
how can one best manage acne rosacea?
|
avoid vascular stimulants
|
|
|
what are the lesion types seen in acne rosacea?
|
red patches (erythema)
telangiectasia spider lesions pustules may or may not be present |
|
|
what is the etiology of psoriasis?
|
unknown
|
|
|
what can exacerbate psoriasis?
|
stress
|
|
|
what are common lesion sites of psoriasis?
|
elbows
knees scalp |
|
|
what kinds of lesions are seen with psoriasis?
|
papules
plaques thick, silvery scales erythema |
|
|
what is hyperkeratosis?
|
rapid proliferation and migration of keratinocytes from the basal layer to the corneum
|
|
|
photochemotherapy, sunbathing, mud treatments and methotrexate are treatment options for which skin condition?
|
psoriasis
|
|
|
what is the pathology of psoriasis?
|
hyperkeratosis
|
|
|
what are some possible treatments for psoriasis?
|
photochemotherapy
sunbathing methotrexate natural remedies |
|
|
what type of white blood cells release histamine?
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basophils
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what are mast cells?
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specialized basophils found in connective tissue
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what types of white blood cells are phagocytic?
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neutrophils and monocytes
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what do lymphocytes do?
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produce specific antibodies
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what are the two types of lymphocytes?
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B-lymphocytes
T-lymphocytes |
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what types of white blood cells are responsible for circulating antibodies and mediating blood/humoral immunity?
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B-lymphocytes
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what type of white blood cells are responsible for cell mediated immunity and play a role in allergic reactions?
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T-lymphocytes
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which white blood cells are granulocytes?
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neutrophils
eosinophils basophils |
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which white blood cells are agranulocytes?
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lymphocytes
monocytes |
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what is an allergy?
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an acquired abnormal immune response to a substance that does not normally elicit a reaction
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what are the two classifications of allergies?
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immediate / type I
delayed / type IV |
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what type of cell is involved in type I allergic reactions?
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mast cells
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what do mast cells release when they bind with an allergen?
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histamine
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what three things happen at first exposure to an allergen that will eventually cause a Type I reaction?
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no symptoms
the mast cells become sensitized an IgE is produced and attaches to the mast cells |
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What happens at subsequent exposure to an allergen in a Type I allergic response?
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the allergen binds to the IgE
mast cells release histamine localized inflammatory response symptoms appear |
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what is the most severe form of a Type I allergic reaction?
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anaphylaxis
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what type of vascular response does histamine produce?
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vasodilation
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what is the consequence of vasodilation in an allergic response (anaphylaxis)?
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blood pressure drops drastically which leads to edema in the lungs and airway constriction
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what category of allergic response is eczema?
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Type I
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what is the appearance of eczema lesions in infants?
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oozing vesicles
crusty scales excoriations |
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what is the appearance of eczema lesions in adults?
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dry, leathery
hyper or hypopigmentation pruritis weeping / oozing (if severe) |
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how is eczema treated?
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avoid extreme temperatures
avoid stress moisturize skine |
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what two things are reacting in Type IV hypersensitivity?
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allergen and T-lymphocytes
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Type IV hypersensitivity is mediated by what?
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cells
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what happens at first exposure in a Type IV hypersensitivity?
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the T-lymphocytes become sensitized
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what happens at subsequent exposure in a Type IV hypersensitivity?
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allergen binds to T-lymphocytes
synthesis of lymphokines and cytokines circulating and fixed macrophages are recruited T-lymphocytes proliferate local inflammation tissue damage |
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dermatitis is what type of hypersensitivity?
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Type IV
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what are the types of dermatitis?
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irritant contact
allergic contact |
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what causes the inflammation in irritant contact dermatitis?
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chemical irritation
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how long does it take for lesions to appear due to allergic contact dermatitis?
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24 - 48 hours
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what are the signs of contact dermatitis?
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erythema
edema vesicles or bulla excoriation pruritis |
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how is dermatitis treated?
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avoid irritant
wash affected area dress area loosely topical ointment for itch corticosteroids |
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what is a burn?
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tissue injury due to excessive heat, chemicals, electricity or radiation
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what are the two systemic effects of burns?
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primary shock
secondary shock |
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which type of shock due to burns has an insidious onset and follows severe burns?
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secondary shock
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what are the three classifications of burns?
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first degree
second degree third degree |
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what degree of burn is also called superficial?
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first
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which degree of burn is also called partial thickness?
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second degree
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which degree of burn is also called full thickness?
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third degree
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a first degree burn results in damage to which structure?
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the epidermis
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a second degree burn results in damage to which structure?
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epidermis and dermis
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a third degree burn results in damage to which structure?
|
skin and subcutaneous layer
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what are six possible burn complications?
|
shock
secondary infection rigor muscles vomiting convulsions fever |
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what type of cell is an undifferentiated cell?
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a stem cell
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a stem cell can divide into which two different types of cells?
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another stem cell
a progenitor cell |
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a progenitor cell will go on to become what?
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a specialized cell
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what are the four types of labile cells?
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epithelial
endothelial bone fibrous connective tissue |
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what are the two types of permanent cells?
|
cardiac muscle
neurons |
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what are the four types of stabile cells
|
smooth muscle
dense regular connective tissue skeletal muscle cartilage |
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which of the stabile cells are very limited with regeneration?
|
skeletal muscle
cartilage |
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what are the three ways that cells can adapt?
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change size
change shape change in number |
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what are the two types of adaptation?
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physiological
pathological |
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what is a physiological adaptation?
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a response to appropriate stimuli and the adaptation stops when the stimuli is removed
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what are the two types of pathological adaptation?
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trophic changes
plastic changes |
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what is a pathological adaptation
|
abnormal adaptation and response to inappropriate stimuli
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what is a trophic change?
|
change in cell size due to change in nourishment and demand on cells
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what is a plastic change?
|
change in number, type and appearance of cells
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what is atrophy?
|
decrease in cell size
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which type of atrophy is irreversible?
|
atrophy due to denervation
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|
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what are some causes of atrophy? (4)
|
disuse
decreased hormone stimulation malnutrition ischemia |
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what is hypertrophy?
|
increase in cell size
|
|
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what are the types of hypertrophy?
|
physiological
pathological |
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what causes physiological hypertrophy?
|
increased workload or metabolic demands
|
|
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what are the types of pathological hypertrophy?
|
adaptive
compensatory |
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|
what is adaptive hypertrophy?
|
a response to chronic pathological conditions
|
|
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what is compensatory hypertrophy?
|
enlargement due to tissue or organ loss
|
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can hypertrophy go on forever?
|
no, it is limited
|
|
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what are the three types of plastic changes in cells?
|
hyperplasia
metaplasia dysplasia |
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what is hyperplasia?
|
increase in the number of cells
|
|
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what types of cells are capable of physiological hyperplasia?
|
cells capable of mitosis - labile and stable cells
|
|
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what is pathological hyperplasia?
|
excessive reproduction of cells due to viral infections or excessive hormonal stimulation
|
|
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which trophic and plastic changes can occur at the same time when stimulated by the same factor?
|
hypertrophy and hyperplasia
|
|
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what is metaplasia?
|
replacement of one cell type by another within the boundaries of a primary tissue
|
|
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what is dysplasia?
|
a deranged line of cells
|
|
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which one is a normal adaptation, metaplasia or dysplasia?
|
metaplasia
|
|
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what are the cell adaptations that result in a change in cell size or cell number?
|
hyperplasia
hypertrophy atrophy |
|
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what are the cell adaptations that result in a change in cell type?
|
metaplasia
dysplasia |
