Hm Study Guide 2

Front 1

What is the soft tissue that covers the alveolar process and
surrounds the necks of the teeth?

Back 1

gingiva

Front 2

What is an inflammation of the gingiva that is relatively
mild and is sometimes localized, existing around one, two,
or several teeth?

Back 2

Marginal Gingivitis

Front 3

What tissue of the periodontium consists of hundreds of
fibers that completely surround the tooth root?

Back 3

periodontal ligament

Front 4

Formation of small blisters and ulcers on the oral mucosa is
known as:

Back 4

Stomatitis

Front 5

Which tissue of the tooth forms a protective layer over the
root?

Back 5

cementum

Front 6

What classification of tooth fracture has slight exposure of
the pulp?

Back 6

II

Front 7

What classification of tooth fracture has a large fracture
with much exposure of the pulp?

Back 7

III

Front 8

What classification of tooth fracture is a fracture of the
root, which may be further complicated by a fracture of the crown

Back 8

IV

Front 9

What classification of tooth fracture is a slight chip
fracture of the enamel and no pulp is exposed?

Back 9

I

Front 10

What color tape on the dental record indicates dental class
III (patients that have oral/dental conditions that will
result in an emergency within 12 months?)

Back 10

yellow

Front 11

What color tape on the
II (patients that have
within 12 months)?
dental record indicates dental class
oral/dental conditions that are
unlikely to result in an emergency within 12 months)?

Back 11

green

Front 12

What color tape on the dental record indicates
I (patients who require no dental treatment)?

Back 12

white

Front 13

What color tape on the dental record indicates dental class
IV (patients whose oral classification is unknown and have
NOT been examined in the past 12 months)?

Back 13

red

Front 14

What form number is the dental health questionnaire?

Back 14

6600/3

Front 15

What is the most frequent cause of severe dental pain?

Back 15

Acute pulpitis

Front 16

What covers the entire crown of the tooth and cannot
regenerate or repair itself?

Back 16

enamel

Front 17

What term describes a dry socket?

Back 17

Alveolar Osteitis

Front 18

What are the tissues of the periodontium?

Back 18

alveolar process, periodontal ligament, cementum and
the gingiva

Front 19

What acts as a shock absorber reducing the impact of the
teeth as they occlude?

Back 19

periodontal ligament

Front 20

What is the light yellow substance that makes up the bulk of
the tooth and continues to form throughout life?

Back 20

dentin

Front 21

What are the 4 tissues of the teeth?

Back 21

enamel, dentin, cementum, and pulp

Front 22

What forms a protective layer over the root portion of the
dentin?

Back 22

cementum

Front 23

What is the portion of the maxilla and mandible that forms
and supports the sockets of the teeth?

Back 23

alveolar process

Front 24

The most frequent cause of Marginal Gingivitis is:

Back 24

Poor oral hygiene

Front 25

What is the soft tissue of the tooth that contains numerous
blood vessels and nerves that enter the tooth through the
apical foramen?

Back 25

pulp

Front 26

What dental condition results when a normal clot fails to
form in the socket of a recently extracted tooth?

Back 26

Alveolar Osteitis

Front 27

What is the chief hard tissue of the tooth which surrounds
the tooth pulp and is covered by enamel on the crown and by
cementum on the root?

Back 27

dentin

Front 28

What is a severe inflammation of the tooth pulp called?

Back 28

acute pulpitis

Front 29

What color of tape is used in the "Record Category Type" box
on the NAVMED 6150/10-19 military health (dental) treatment
record jacket?

Back 29

dark blue

Front 30

Where is the dental classification colored tape (white,
green, yellow, red) placed on the dental record?

Back 30

upper right hand corner

Front 31

How are allergies or hypersensitivities, ill effects from
injections of novocaine or xylocaine and heart
disease/rheumatic fever/murmur recorded on the SF-603?

Back 31

marked in red in prominent letters across the top

Front 32

What action should- be taken to record refusal of dental
treatment by a patient?

Back 32

entry on a SF603

Front 33

What is the tissue that surrounds and supports the teeth?

Back 33

periodontium

Front 34

What is the bonelike connective tissue covering the root of
a tooth which assists in tooth support?

Back 34

cementum

Front 35

What is an inflammatory condition involving the gingiva,
alveolar bone and the periodontal membrane and develops as a
result of untreated Marginal Gingivitis?

Back 35

Periodontitis

Front 36

If a patient complains of a bad taste in the mouth, a tooth
that feels longer than the others or a gum boil, you can
suspect:

Back 36

Periapical Abscess

Front 37

What is an inflammation of the gingiva around a partially
erupted tooth that often occurs between 18 and 25 years of
age?

Back 37

Pericoronitis

Front 38

What is an inflammatory condition that involves the gingiva
and is marked by gradual recession of the periodontal
tissues?

Back 38

Periodontitis

Front 39

What usually results from an infection of the tooth pulp?

Back 39

Periapical Abscess

Front 40

What is usually the result
food debr_is, _ deep dep_o_sits
of long continued irritation by
of calculus or a foreign object
(popcorn husk or toothbrush bristle) being tightly packed
into the interproximal spaces between the tooth and soft
tissues?

Back 40

Periodontal Abscess

Front 41

What should be done if drainage does NOT occur when debris
is removed from a Periapical Abscess?

Back 41

have patient rinse with warm saline for 10 minutes
every 2 hours

Front 42

The most common cause of dental caries is:

Back 42

bacterial plaque

Front 43

What is harmed if too much eugenol is used?

Back 43

Pulp

Front 44

Which of the following supplies the dentin with blood?

Back 44

Pulp

Front 45

The primary function of the pulp is:

Back 45

dentin formation

Front 46

Labial herpes will normally disappear spontaneously within
how many days?

Back 46

7 to 10

Front 47

How should information on the cover of the dental record be
recorded?

Back 47

a felt tip pen

Front 48

Which of the following dental forms are marked if a patient
has an allergy to a medication?

Back 48

2.SF 603 (health record-dental)
3. NAVMED 6150/10-19 (dental health record jacket)
4. NAVMED 6600/3 (dental health questionnaire)

Front 49

What is the most
injections?
commonly used anesthetic for dental

Back 49

Lidocaine or Xylocaine in a 2% aqueous solution

Front 50

What is the maximum safe dosage of Lidocaine for an adult?

Back 50

300 mg

Front 51

Excruciating, constant pain with a history of extraction
within 5 days usually indicates:

Back 51

Alveolar Osteitis

Front 52

Which of the following tissues of the tooth cannot
regenerate itself?

Back 52

enamel

Front 53

Dental Caries begins in the enamel and it first appears as:

Back 53

chalky white spot

Front 54

The affected tooth is sensitive
patient will point to a healthy
aches is a symptom of:

Back 54

dental carries

Front 55

Continue removing debris if there is no pulpal bleeding,
then lightly dry the interior of the tooth with a cotton
pellet prior to placement of a temporary filling is
treatment for:

Back 55

dental caries

Front 56

All of the following regarding Zinc Oxide Eugenol (ZOE)
fillings are true in the treatment of Dental Caries EXCEPT:

Back 56

do not chew for 30 min

Front 57

This disease is the result of Dental Caries and is the most
frequent cause of severe dental pain when pressure is placed
on the affected tooth:

Back 57

Acute Pulpitis

Front 58

Gently remove loose debris, dry cavity, place a small pellet
with eugenol in the cavity and cover with a dry cotton
pellet is the treatment for:

Back 58

acute Pulpitis

Front 59

This disease is the result of unchecked pulpitis causing
fluid to build up in the pulp chamber leading to the
formation of a gumboil (parulis) :

Back 59

Periapical Abscess

Front 60

Signs and symptoms. of this dental disease are a complaint of
bad taste in the mouth and a tooth that feels longer than
the others with severe pain when applying finger pressure to
the affected tooth:

Back 60

Periapical Abcess

Front 61

Treatment for Periapical Abscess includes all of the
following EXCEPT:

Back 61

gouge through the caries to reach the pulp to
facilitate drainage

Front 62

This disease is a severe inflammation of the gingiva with
signs and symptoms of a bad taste in the mouth and pain when
eating or brushing. The most characteristic sign is
ulceration and cratering of the interdental papillae:

Back 62

NUG

Front 63

This dental disease most often affects
molars and is one of the most frequent
emergencies:

Back 63

___> Pericoronitis

Front 64

Treatment for Pericoronitis includes:

Back 64

rinse with warm saline every 30 minutes, b) irrigate the under surface of the tissue flap
with warm saline

Front 65

What precautions should you take when examining a patient
with oral lesions?

Back 65

wear rubber gloves

Front 66

Treatment for patients with Labial Herpes should include:

Back 66

1. treat recurrent cases by having patient hold 1
. teaspoon of Tetracycline Oral Suspension in the
mouth for 2 minutes 4 times daily for 5 days
2. pt should rinse with warm solution of Sodium
Bicarbonate several times daily

Front 67

Postextraction Hemorrhage occurs------- days after tooth
extraction.

Back 67

3-5

Front 68

How should information on the inside cover of the dental
record be recorded?

Back 68

with a pencil

Front 69

What is a recommended treatment for Stomatitis?

Back 69

Sodium Bicarbonate rinses several times daily

Front 70

Treatment for Pericoronitis includes which of the following:

Back 70

Glycerite of Iodine

Front 71

The area between the cheeks, teeth and gingiva is called
the:

Back 71

buccal vestibule

Front 72

What is the bonelike connective tissue covering the root of
a tooth and assisting in tooth support?

Back 72

cementum

Front 73

What is the aperture at or near the apex of the root of a
tooth, through which blood vessels and nerves supplying the
pulp pass?

Back 73

apical foramen

Front 74

What is the hard substance that covers and protects the
dentin and the crown of a tooth?

Back 74

enamel

Front 75

What is the neck of the tooth?

Back 75

cervix

Front 76

What is used as a topical analgesic/antiseptic and is also
used in combination with Zinc Oxide as a sedative dressing
in a tooth?

Back 76

eugenol

Front 77

What is the furrow surrounding a tooth?

Back 77

gingival sulcus

Front 78

What is the triangular pad between the surfaces of two
adjacent teeth?

Back 78

interdental papilla

Front 79

Redness, swelling, pain, hemorrhage and a necrotic odor are
symptoms of:

Back 79

Trench Mouth

Front 80

What is the solution of rosin or resin that is applied to
teeth to protect the pulp?

Back 80

varnish

Front 81

What is the main function of cementurn?

Back 81

anchor the tooth to the socket

Front 82

What is the treatment for Marginal Gingivitis?

Back 82

1. (b) refer patient to a dental treatment facility for
scaling and polishing
2. (a) plague control instructions

Front 83

Poor oral hygiene and dietary habits, excessive smoking or
alcohol consumption, and poor physical condition of patient
are all contributing factors to:

Back 83

Trench Mouth

Front 84

Gray white membrane covering gingiva, a punched out
appearance between the crowns of the teeth, elevated
temperature, pus oozing and foul odor are all signs of:

Back 84

NUG

Front 85

Itchiness of gums, bad taste, uneven bite and loose or
elongated tooth are symptoms of:

Back 85

Periodontitis

Front 86

What is one of the most frequent periodontal emergencies
encountered?

Back 86

Periodontitis

Front 87

Sore neck, difficulty opening the mouth, pain when chewing,
enlarged lymph nodes under mandible or on side of neck are
signs and symptoms of:

Back 87

Periodontitis

Front 88

Canker sore, fever blister, rundown feeling are symptoms of:

Back 88

Herpetic Gingivostomatitis

Front 89

For stubborn recurrent cases of Stomatitis, treatment would
include:

Back 89

one teaspoon Tetracycline Oral Suspension held in
mouth for 2 minutes 4 times daily for 5 days

Front 90

What is the initial treatment for a Postoperative
Hemorrhage?

Back 90

place a 4x4 gauze pad or tea bag on the wound site
and have patient bite down firmly for 15-20 minutes

Front 91

Smooth sharp edges with sandpaper strips is the treatment
for which type of tooth fracture?

Back 91

Type1

Front 92

Placing a plastic crown that is filled with a thin mixture
of calcium hydroxide or ZOE is the treatment for what type
of tooth fracture?

Back 92

type 2

Front 93

What type of tooth fracture has symptoms of entire crown of
tooth broken off, severe pain, and mastication is almost
impossible?

Back 93

type 3

Front 94

Treatment for a Type III tooth fracture includes:

Back 94

splint tooth

Front 95

Radiographic diagnosis is often the only sure way to
determine this type of tooth fracture?

Back 95

type 4

Front 96

Irreversible brain damage can occur how long after breathing has stopped?

Back 96

4 minutes

Front 97

When performing CPR, keep the heel of your hand off the
xiphoid process to prevent a laceration to the:

Back 97

liver

Front 98

When two persons perform CPR,
ventilations is:
the ratio of compressions to

Back 98

5 to 1

Front 99

How far should the sternum be depressed when giving CPR on
an adult?

Back 99

1 1/2 to 2 inches

Front 100

What is the compression rate for children or infants?

Back 100

80-100

Front 101

To prevent anaerobic infections, primary closures are NOT
made on what type of wounds?

Back 101

puncture wounds

Front 102

The spiral reverse bandage would be used to retain a
dressing on the:

Back 102

leg or forearm

Front 103

What bandage is particularly useful in retaining large
compresses on the foot?

Back 103

triangular

Front 104

The cravat bandage for the temple, cheek, ear is also known
as a:

Back 104

modified barton

Front 105

What pressure point should be used only if it is absolutely
essential?

Back 105

common carotid

Front 106

What should NOT be used on an abdominal wound with
protrusion of the intestines?

Back 106

vasaline gauze

Front 107

Which of the below sutures material has the smallest
diameter?

Back 107

6-0

Front 108

All sutures in the soles, palms,
be removed in:
back or over joints should

Back 108

10 days

Front 109

What type of shock carries a poor prognosis and must always
be treated under the direct supervision of a medical
officer?

Back 109

septic shock

Front 110

un agrumes

Back 110

citrus fruit

Front 111

When using suctioning devices, you should NOT apply suction
for longer than:

Back 111

15 seconds

Front 112

When one person performs CPR, the ratio of compressions to
ventilations is:

Back 112

15-2

Front 113

The figure of eight bandage would be used to retain a
dressing on the:

Back 113

elbow

Front 114

What is the term used to describe excretion of bright red
blood from the rectum?

Back 114

hematochezia

Front 115

What term is used to describe tarry dark stools?

Back 115

melena

Front 116

What size suture material should be used on the face of an
adult?

Back 116

5-0

Front 117

What type of shock is the most frequently encountered and
most important type for the corpsman to understand?

Back 117

hemorrhagic

Front 118

Intravenous fluid administration is the single most
important factor in the treatment of any type of shock
except:

Back 118

cardiogenic

Front 119

A splint should be secured in ----------------places when
immobilizing a fractured femur.

Back 119

5

Front 120

Coast Guard historical artifacts are reported to?

Back 120

CG-09224
(PPM, 2-12)

Hint 120

C

Front 121

Which of the below listed poisonings would indicate the use
of an emetic?
1. ammonia
2.iodine
3. red furniture polish
4. creosol

Back 121

iodine

Front 122

What type of inhalation poisoning is associated with
solvents, in dry cleaning fluid, electrical equipment
cleanser, degreasing agents and fire extinguishers?

1. chlorine
2.trichlorethylene
3. carbon monoxide
4. carbon dioxide

Back 122

trichlorethylene

Front 123

What is the MOST COMMON agent of gas poisoning?

Back 123

carbon monoxide

Front 124

Which of the snakes listed are of the family Elapidae?
1. rattle snake
2. copperhead
3. moccasin
4.Coral

Back 124

coral

Front 125

Which of the snakes listed below is only found in India?
1. coral
2. cobra
3.krait
4. mamba

Back 125

krait

Front 126

A patient reports to sickbay complaining of tingling and
numbness of the affected area; swelling of the feet, legs,
or hands; bluish discoloration of the skin and painful
blisters would be suffering from

Back 126

immersion foot

Front 127

Cold injury caused by prolonged and repeated exposure to
of air temperatures from above freezins (32
as high as-60 degrees F is:
several hours
degrees P) to

Back 127

chilblain

Front 128

Which of the below agents listed are classified as a
corrosive poison?
1. silver nitrate
2. phosphorus
3.phenols
4. arsenic

Back 128

phenols

Front 129

What is responsible for night vision?

Back 129

rods

Front 130

What is known as the "Master Gland of the Body"?

Back 130

pituitary gland

Front 131

Patients for Aeromedical evacuation whom speedy evacuation
is necessary to save life or limb, to prevent complications
of serious illness, or to avoid permanent disability are
assigned a------ degree of evacuation.

Back 131

Priority l/URGENT

Front 132

Patients for Aeromedical evacuation who require specialized
treatment not available locally and who are liable to suffer
unnecessary pain or disability unless evacuated with the
least possible delay are assigned a-------- degree of
evacuation.

Back 132

Priority 2/PRIORITY

Front 133

Patients for Aeromedical evacuation whose immediate
treatment requirements are available locally but whose
prognosis would definitely benefit by air evacuation on
routine scheduled flights are assigned a degree
of evacuation.

Back 133

Priority 3/ROUTINE

Front 134

Patients for Aeromedical evacuation whom air evacuation is a
matter of medical convenience rather than necessity are
assigned a degree of evacuation.

Back 134

priority 4

Front 135

What dose in rads will cause death within 2 to 3 weeks?

Back 135

1000

Front 136

What dose in rads will cause death within 5 to 10 days?

Back 136

3000

Front 137

What dose in rads will cause death within 2 to 3 days?

Back 137

4500

Front 138

What dose in rads will cause death within 1 day?

Back 138

8000

Front 139

How many litters will a CH-46 helicopter hold?

Back 139

15

Front 140

How many litters will a CH-53A/D and a CH-53E helicopter
hold?

Back 140

24

Front 141

How many litters will a KC-130 transport helicopter hold?

Back 141

70

Front 142

How many litters will a V-22 (Osprey) transport helicopter
hold?

Back 142

12

Front 143

How many litters will a C-9 transport helicopter hold?

Back 143

40

Front 144

Physical exams are recorded on a:

Back 144

SF-88

Front 145

All active duty members must have a baseline Audiogram
recorded in their health record. What form is it recorded
on?

Back 145

DD-2215

Front 146

What form is used to recommend the waiver of a disqualifying
defect noted in a physical exam?

Back 146

SF-88

Front 147

What form must be completed if a member applies for
aviation, submarine or diving duty?

Back 147

NAVMED 6150/2

Front 148

What is the maximum acceptable persistent resting pulse rate
in an applicant for Naval Service

Back 148

99

Front 149

An applicant for a Naval Service appointment would be
rejected if their diastolic blood pressure was persistently------
mm or above.

Back 149

90

Front 150

The NAVMED 6120/2, Officer Physical Examination
Questionnaire, is an adjunct to the:

Back 150

SF93

Front 151

After age 25, periodicity between examinations will not
e x c e e d years.

Back 151

5 years

Front 152

Specific guidelines for surveillance exams on individuals
who work with hazardous materials,
or Asbestos) can be found in:
(ie: Beryllium, Mercury

Back 152

OPNAVINST 5100.23

Front 153

What chapter of the Manual of the Medical Department deals
specifically with Physical Exams?

Back 153

ch 15

Front 154

Which of the below is a method for testing near visual
acuity when the Armed Forces Vision Tester (AFVT) is not
available?

Back 154

Jaegar cards

Front 155

The preferred method for testing color vision is the:

Back 155

Farnsworth lantern (FALANT)

Front 156

Recurrent asthmatic bronchitis is a cause for rejection if
it occurs past the age of:

Back 156

12

Front 157

Frequent and incapacitating migraine headaches that
interfere with normal function is suggestive of:

Back 157

Neurological disorder

Front 158

A member separating from the Naval Service will receive a
tuberculin skin test___ prior to separation.

Back 158

1

Front 159

Any defects found on physical exam before discharge will be
recorded on SF:

Back 159

88

Front 160

Immunization requirements for overseas service are listed
in:

Back 160

BUMED 6230.3

Front 161

What is the maximum
acceptable persistent blood pressure for aviation personnel?

Back 161

138/89

Front 162

Which of the following is cause for rejection of an
applicant from the Naval Service?

Back 162

a tattoo

Front 163

Applicants for submarine duty must have a standard chest
x-ray within the preceding---------- I on initial application and
when clinically indicated.

Back 163

6 months

Front 164

Which of the following should be determined in the final
phase of eye examinations?

Back 164

Intraocular tension

Front 165

Routine tonometry to detect glaucoma will be performed
annually beginning at age.

Back 165

40 yrs

Front 166

The modified Valsalva's Maneuver is used to evaluate:

Back 166

The Eustachian tubes

Front 167

What part of
the Report of Medical History (SF 93) shall be
signed by a medical officer?

Back 167

Item 25

Front 168

Females receiving physicals will have mammograms starting at
age_____ .

Back 168

35

Front 169

During physical examinations, stool guaiac will be performed
starting at age____:

Back 169

35

Front 170

At age 50, physical exams are required every______ years

Back 170

2

Front 171

For aviation physicals,_____ is the only acceptable depth
perception test for candidates, students and designated
naval aviators.

Back 171

Verhoeff Stereopter

Front 172

What are the most efficient sources of energy and are known
as the "Fuel of Life"?

Back 172

Carbs

Front 173

What element of nutrition helps carry oxygen throughout the
body and is a constituent of hemoglobin, blood and tissue?

Back 173

iron

Front 174

What diet is indicated in some postoperative cases, acute
illnesses and for inflammatory conditions of the
gastrointestinal tract?

Back 174

liquid

Front 175

Which of the following below is NOT true concerning diet
therapy?
1.Seriously burned and radiation patients should
receive about 187.5 of protein daily
2.60 to 70g per day of protein is indicated in a low
protein diet for a patient suffering from chronic
renal insufficiency
3.Low calorie diets consist of 800 to 1800 calories
per day
4.At least one serving of 100% wheat bran cereal is
recommended daily for the high residue diet

Back 175

2.60 to 70g per day of protein is indicated in a low
protein diet for a patient suffering from chronic
renal insufficiency

Front 176

Which of the following vitamins is transported throughout
the body in fats and is considered fat soluble?
1.B
2.D
3.C
4.Folic acid

Back 176

2.D

Front 177

Vitamins A, E, K and___ are fat soluble vitamins.

Back 177

D

Front 178

Substances present in food that act as catalysts in many
chemical reactions that occur in the body are called:

Back 178

Vitamins

Front 179

An insufficient intake of water may cause loss of weight,
abnormal body temperature, constipation and dehydration
leading to:

Back 179

Ketosis-is recognizable by the smell of acetone (as in nail varnish) on the breath. It occurs when the body's processing of nutrient materials for the release of energy depends predominantly on the use of fat

Front 180

What type of diet is indicated for ulcerations, inflammation
and other gastric disorders, such as partial intestinal
obstruction, diverticulitis, hemorrhoids and dysenteries?

Back 180

Low Residue

Front 181

What type of diet is indicated for hyperthyroidism,
poliomyelitis, tuberculosis, post surgical or convalescing
from acute illness(infections, burns and fevers)?

Back 181

High calorie

Front 182

How many calories does each gram of fat yields in the
process of its metabolism?

Back 182

9

Front 183

Which element of nutrition assists in normal functions of
the thyroid gland?

Back 183

Iodine

Front 184

What diet is
hemorrhoids,
reconanended for gastritis, hyperacidity,
peptic ulcer and pyrosis (heartburn)?

Back 184

bland

Front 185

What diet is used in renal diseases (chronic nephrotic
edema) associated with nitrogen retention or GI disorders
when putrefaction is present?

Back 185

Low Protein

Front 186

Which of the below is NOT true concerning diet therapy
1. A patient with rheumatic fever should be placed on a
high calorie, soft diet
2. An insufficient intake of water causes diarrhea
3. The recommended intake of proteins for adult
patients is at least .8 g per kg of body weight
4. The high residue diet is indicated for atonic
constipation

Back 186

An insufficient intake of water causes diarrhea

Front 187

A high protein diet should provide__ g of protein per
kg of body weight.

Back 187

1.5

Front 188

Which of the following vitamins is transported throughout
the body in water and is classified as water soluble?
1. E
2. C
3. D
4. K

Back 188

C

Front 189

Which of the below is NOT true concerning a low sodium diet?
1. Indicated when edema is present in renal diseases
2. Patients should be encouraged to drink 2,000 to
3,000 ml of low sodium fluids daily
3. The allowance of sodium in a strict low sodium diet
is 250 to 1000 mg daily
4. Regular diets with no salt added contain 4.2 to 5.4
g of sodium

Back 189

Regular diets with no salt added contain 4.2 to 5.4
g of sodium

Front 190

Which of the below is NOT true concerning the low
carbohydrate, high protein diet?
1. Foods may be divided into 3 to 6 or more small meals
2. Sweets should never be given for hypoglycemic
reactions
3. Snacks may help hypoglycemic reactions to include
cheese, peanut butter, milk and hard boiled eggs
4. Recommended diet in the treatment of hypoglycemia

Back 190

Sweets should never be given for hypoglycemic
reactions

Front 191

What type of diet is indicated for atonic constipation,
spastic colon, irritable bowel syndrome and diverticulosis?

Back 191

High Residue

Front 192

What diet is recommended in the treatment of hypoglycemia?

Back 192

Low carb high protein

Front 193

What diet is recommended in the treatment of renal diseases,
hypertension and certain cardiac conditions (when edema is
present)?

Back 193

low sodium

Front 194

What diet is recommended in the treatment of arthritis,
hypertension, diabetes, cardiac disease, or hypothyroidism?

Back 194

Low calorie

Front 195

What diet is recommended in the treatment of almost all
illnesses such as nephrosis, cirrhosis infectious
hepatitis, burns, radiation injury and fractures?

Back 195

High protein

Front 196

How many calories does each gram of protein, fat and
carbohydrate yield in the process of its metabolism?

Back 196

4,9,4

Front 197

Which element of nutrition regulates osmotic pressure, pH
balance and heartbeat?

Back 197

sodium

Front 198

Which element of nutrition regulates osmotic pressure and pH
balance (a constituent of all cells)?

Back 198

Potassium

Front 199

Which element of nutrition assists in maintaining mineral
balance?

Back 199

Magnesium

Front 200

Which element of nutrition assists in blood coagulation,
regulates the heartbeat, aids in regulating mineral
metabolism and muscle and nerve response (a constituent of
bones and teeth)?

Back 200

calcium

Front 201

Which element of nutrition aids in metabolizing organic
foodstuffs and maintains pH balance (a constituent of bones
and teeth)?

Back 201

Phosphorus

Front 202

Which element of nutrition promotes hair and nail formation
and growth (a constituent of all body tissue)?

Back 202

Sulphur

Front 203

Which element of nutrition aids in the use of iron in
hemoglobin synthesis?

Back 203

copper

Front 204

What instruction outlines requirements for update and
maintenance of health records?

Back 204

NAVMEDCOMINST 6150.1

Front 205

The information on the inside of the health record jacket
shall be recorded using:

Back 205

pencil only

Front 206

Health records must be verified:
1. At receipt and transfer
2. All responses are correct
3. During physical exams
4. Annually

Back 206

All responses

Front 207

If a person does NOT desire to state a religious preference
on the SF-88, what should be entered in Block 16?

Back 207

None stated

Front 208

What is the form number of the record of Exposure to
Ionizing Radiation?

Back 208

DD-1141

Front 209

When enlisted members of the Naval Service are discharged,
their health records are:

Back 209

closed

Front 210

When closing a health record, what should be entered on the
Abstract of Service and Medical History (NAVMED 6150/4)?
1. Title of servicing activity
2. Explanatory circumstances
3. All responses are correct
4. Date of Separation

Back 210

All responses

Front 211

Which of the following must be written on a health record
jacket that is replacing one that is destroyed?
1. Substitute
2. Replacement
3. Duplicate
4. New

Back 211

replacement

Front 212

A chronological listing of all ships and stations a Naval
member has been assigned for duty and treatment, may be
found on the:

Back 212

NAVMED 6150/4

Front 213

Prior to a members transfer, an entry should be made on a
_____to indicate the record was screened?

Back 213

SF-600

Front 214

What is the correct form number for the Privacy Act
Statement?

Back 214

DD2005

Front 215

What form are laboratory chits displayed?

Back 215

SF 545

Front 216

What prefix code is placed on the record of an active-duty
member?

Back 216

20-XXX-XX-XXXX

Front 217

Health records are for official use only, but are subject to
inspection at any time by:
1. The Commanding Officer and his seniors in the chain
of command
2. Duly authorized Medical Inspectors
3. Fleet Medical Officer
4. All responses are correct

Back 217

All responses

Front 218

The health record of a military member may be used to:
1. All answers are correct
2. Evaluating physical fitness
3. Provide data for medical statistics
4. Aid in determining disability claims

Back 218

All responses

Front 219

A health record is opened when:
1. the original record has been lost or destroyed
2. an individual becomes a member of the Naval Service
3. a member on the retired list is returned to active
duty
4. All answers are correct

Back 219

All reponses

Front 220

Which of the below situations is a health record NOT closed?
1. When member is declared Missing In Action (MIA)
2. When member is placed on the Retired List
3. When member transfers to the Fleet Reserve
4. When member transfers to a new duty station

Back 220

4. When member transfers to a new duty station

Front 221

When a member is hospitalized in a foreign nation and the
ship departs port, the health record is:

Back 221

forwarded to the nearest U.S. Consulate or Embassy

Front 222

In the record category box, all military (medical) treatment
records shall be identified with:

Back 222

red tape

Front 223

What form in the health record is blood typing and grouping
annotated?

Back 223

Special SF 600

Front 224

An active duty member reports to sick bay to receive
treatment for poison ivy,
the:
the HM would record findings on

Back 224

SF 600

Front 225

What health record form is used to order corrective lenses?

Back 225

DD 771

Front 226

What may be used for an active duty patient who is admitted
to the hospital for less than 48 hours?

Back 226

SF 539

Front 227

What health record form is used to record the record of
prophylactic immunizations and sensitivity tests?

Back 227

SF 601

Front 228

What is the correct disposition of the DD 698, Individual
Sick Slip?
1. forward it to the Office of Medical Affairs after
treatment
2. destroy it after the information has been
transcribed to a SF600
3. insert it in the health record, filing
chronologically with the SF 600's
4. return it to the treatment facility of origin after
the information has been transcribed to a SF 600

Back 228

destroy

Front 229

What is the form used to record dental treatment?

Back 229

SF 603

Front 230

Standards for assignment to duties involving occupational
exposure to ionizing radiation are prescribed in:

Back 230

NAVMED P-5055

Front 231

Submarine duty candidates are required to establish their
physical fitness for duty upon:

Back 231

first special duty examination or training

Front 232

Which of the following'forms should NOT be permanently
incorporated into the Health Record?
1. Chronological Record of Medical Care, SF 600
2. Narrative Summary SF 502
3. Special Duty Medical Abstract, NAVMED 6150/2
4. Individual Sick Slip DD 689Individual Sick Slip DD 689

Back 232

Individual Sick Slip DD 689

Front 233

The health record is of significant medico-legal value to
the:

Back 233

Member, Federal government, Members beneficiaries

Front 234

What chapter of the Manual of the Medical Department
provides guidelines and details on the proper page
arrangement for a military health record?

Back 234

16

Front 235

If an individual is appointed, enlisted, or reenlisted with
disqualifying defects which have been waived by
NAVMILPERSCOM or MARCORPS, the description of each defect
with authority for waiver shall be entered on the:

Back 235

SF88 and SF 600

Front 236

Former Navy military members may obtain copies of their
health and dental records by sending a DD 877 to:

Back 236

National Personnel Records Center, St. Louis, MO

Front 237

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding positive HIV
results?
1. Record results on the NAVMED 6150/20 (Summary of
Care)
2. Record results on the NAVMED 6000/2
record of HIV testing
Chronological
3. Record results on the SF601 and the SF603
4. Record results on the outside of the medical and
dental records

Back 237

4. Record results on the outside of the medical and
dental records

Front 238

What disposition is made of the health record of a newly
appointed Naval Reserve Officer who is on inactive duty and
assigned to a Drill Unit of the Selective Reserve?

Back 238

Forward to the Drill Unit to which assigned

Front 239

Who is responsible for opening the health record of an
individual who will be enlisting in two months?

Back 239

Activity executing the enlistment

Front 240

The instructions for opening health records for a civilian
selected for an Officer Candidate School Program may be
found in all the following publications EXCEPT:
1. Naval Reserve Recruiting Instructions
2. US Navy Recruiting Manual
3. Manual of the Medical Department
4. Navy Regulations

Back 240

Navy regs

Front 241

Upon apprehension of a deserter who had been gone for over
180 days, you would request his health record on day 181
from:

Back 241

Commaner NMPC

Front 242

A health record is closed on all the following occasions
EXCEPT:
1. When a member is released to inactive duty
2. When a member is missing in action
3. When a member is discharged
4. When an enlisted member is commissioned

Back 242

4. When an enlisted member is commissioned

Front 243

What visual form shall be prepared when ordering corrective
prescription eyewear?

Back 243

DD771

Front 244

The Morning Report of the Sick (NAVMED 6320/19) is used to
excuse an individual from duty for a period of more than 24
hours and is submitted daily to the Commanding Officer by:

Back 244

1000

Front 245

Which of the following is Not included on the Morning Report
of the Sick?
1. Diagnosis
2. Conditions
3. ICD Codes
4. Names

Back 245

ICD codes

Front 246

The military health (INPATIENT) treatment records shall be
identified with what color of l/2" cellophane tape in the
"Record Category Tape" box?

Back 246

Green

Front 247

Nonactive duty health records should be retired years
after the calendar year date of their last treatment.

Back 247

2 years

Front 248

Training and research facilities tie: NNMC Bethesda; NMC San
Diego; NMC Oakland and NMC Portsmouth, VA) may maintain
select outpatient treatment records for up to___ years
after the calendar year date of last treatment.

Back 248

5

Front 249

All dates on health record documents shall be recorded:

Back 249

20 JUN 96

Front 250

What shall be done in the event a health record is lost or
destroyed?
1. A "replacement" record shall be made
2. All responses are correct
3. The designation "Replacement" shall be entered on
the jacket and all forms replaced
4. A synopsis of the circumstances necessitating the
duplication or replacement shall be entered on a SF
600

Back 250

All respones

Front 251

The Abbreviated Clinical Record (SF539) is used in
uncomplicated inpatient care, if the patient is hospitalized
for less than:

Back 251

48 hrs

Front 252

If an erroneous entry is noted when reviewing the health
record, what procedure'should be followed?
1. Draw a single diagonal line through the erroneous
entry in black or blue-black ink
2. Signature should be included
3. Make an additional entry on an SF600 explaining the
initial entry was erroneous

Back 252

All responses

Front 253

What is the disposition of the active duty member who is transferred from another branch of service?

Back 253

The record shall accompany the member or be
transferred as soon as possible

Front 254

Which of the following forms is used for the Personnel
Reliability Program?

Back 254

NAVPERS 5510/l

Front 255

What is the form number for the Medical Board Report Cover Sheet?

Back 255

NAVMED 6100/l

Front 256

Which of the following forms does NOT require the signature
of the service member?
1. SF 602
2. NAVPERS 5510/l
3. DD 2005
4. SF 93

Back 256

NAVPERS 5510/1

Front 257

What disposition is made of the health record of a Class III
Marine Corps Officer who is.appointed and retained on
inactive duty?

Back 257

Forwarded to Marine Corps Reserve Support Center,
Overland Park, KS

Front 258

Who is responsible~ for the opening of the health record of a
Marine who is immediately ordered to active duty at a
recruit training facility?

Back 258

Marine Corps Recruit Depot

Front 259

The health record for a civilian selected for the Naval
Academy would be opened at:

Back 259

Naval Academy at the time of appointment

Front 260

Which of the three section on the Syphilis Record (SF 602)
is the patient required to sign?

Back 260

II

Front 261

What health record form is an invaluable aid in the
identification of deceased members?

Back 261

SF 603

Front 262

Which form is uppermost on the left side (right-side, part
2, section A) of the health record EXCEPT in the case of a death?

Back 262

NAVPERS 5510/l (Record Identifier for Personnel
Reliability Program)

Front 263

What digit of the member's SSN is preprinted on the
treatment record jacket?

Back 263

Second to last

Front 264

What family member prefix would be given to the sponsor's
registered (including stepchildren)?

Back 264

01-XXX-XX-XXXX

Front 265

What information is NOT included on the inside of the front
leaf of the dental and medical health care treatment record?

Back 265

Home of record and telephone number

Front 266

Which of the below listed health record forms is NOT filed on the left side of the health record (part l)?

Back 266

SF 600

Front 267

Which of the following forms is NOT filed on the left side
(right side-part 2, section A) of the health record?

Back 267

SF 502 Narrative Summary

Front 268

Which of the following is found on the Right Side (right
side, part 4) of the health record?
1. Record of Auxiliary Studies and Therapies
2. Record of Preventive Medicine and Occupational
Health
3. Physical Qualifications, Administrative Forms
4. Record of Medical Care and Treatment

Back 268

1. Record of Auxiliary Studies and Therapies

Front 269

Which of the following is found on the Left Side (right side, part 2, section B) of the health record?
1. Record of Medical Care and Treatment
2. Record of Preventive Medicine and Occupational
Health
3. Physical Qualifications, Administrative Forms
4. Inpatient Care, Ambulatory Surgeries

Back 269

Inpatient Care, Ambulatory Surgeries

Front 270

What color of health record jacket would a dependent have if
their last four were 0955 and the sponsor's was 1426?

Back 270

yellow

Front 271

What digit of the member's social security number is
completely covered with black tape at the top left and right
side of the dental and medical health care treatment record?

Back 271

Last

Front 272

What family member prefix would be given to the 3RD spouse of an active duty member?

Back 272

32

Front 273

To identify the record of an individual in a special duty
program (ie: Personnel Reliability Program or Asbestos Program) use tape instead of blacking out digit of the SSN on the right edge of the health record.

Back 273

red

Front 274

Which of the below listed health record forms is
the last
record.
NOT filed
on the right side, (right side, part 4) of the treatment
record jacket?

Back 274

SF 513 (Consultation Sheet)

Front 275

What health record form is used to indicate that a Dental
Officer did NOT perform the dental exam?

Back 275

SF 88-report of medical examination

Front 276

What form is devised for the purpose of cross medical
service notification between the Armed Forces?

Back 276

DD 689

Front 277

Pulm Flow

Back 277

Pulm.Flow = O2 consumed/AtoV O2 difference

Front 278

Which of the following is NOT true concerning SSN's for
foreign military and their dependents:
1. family member prefix is 99
2. the color of the folder represents the last two
digits (primary) of the patients SSN
3. the pseudo SS# is only for foreign military and
their families
4. some foreign military may use a driver's license
student ID as their pseudo SSN

Back 278

the pseudo SS# is only for foreign military and
their families

Front 279

How would the SS# and the Family Member Prefix be annotated
on a health record for a civilian medical emergency?

Back 279

98 and patients SS#

Front 280

Which of the following is NOT true concerning SSN's for
foreign military and their dependents?
1. Assign a pseudo SSN as follows: 800 for the first
three digits, the year, month, day of birth for the remaining six digits (800-YY-MM-DD)
2. When two patients have the same birth date, the
first three digits would change from 800 to 801 through 899
3. 000-01-9999, 000-02-9999 (in numerical sequence)
4. For foreign military use the military member's
birthdate for all family members

Back 280

000-01-9999, 000-02-9999 (in numerical sequence)

Front 281

The retirement year block on the front of the medical record
indicates the anticipated retirement year for Nonactive Duty
Outpatient Records (ORECVs) . If the patient's date of
treatment is in the year 1997, 2003 or 2009, the tape color
would be:

Back 281

blue

Front 282

The retirement year block on the front of the medical record
indicates the anticipated retirement year for Nonactive Duty
Outpatient Records (ORECts). If the patient's date of
treatment is in the year 1993, 1999 or 2005, the tape color
would be:

Back 282

yellow

Front 283

What BDMED instruction prescribes for transferring patients and treatment records by aeromedical evacuation?

Back 283

6320.1

Front 284

What family member prefix code would be given to foreign
nationals (including foreign military)?

Back 284

99

Front 285

What BDMEDINST establishes procedures for the transferring
of inpatient records and patients to a Veteran's
Administration Hospital?

Back 285

6320.11

Front 286

A member whose SSN has a primary number of 74, would _____health and dental treatment record.

Back 286

almond

Front 287

A member whose SSN has a primary number of 93, would have a_____colored health and dental treatment record.

Back 287

red

Front 288

When performing a Gram's Stain, what is referred to as the mordant?

Back 288

Gram's Iodine

Front 289

When performing a Gram's Stain, what is referred to as the decolorizer?

Back 289

95% Ethyl Alcohol/Acetone

Front 290

When performing a Gram's Stain, what is referred to as the primary stain?

Back 290

Crystal Violet

Front 291

When performing a Gram's Stain, what is referred to as the counter stain?

Back 291

Safranine

Front 292

Using a) Safranine b) Crystal Violet c) Gram's Iodine d)
95% Ethyl Alcohol/Acetone, what is the proper sequence of
using the stains?

Back 292

b, c, d, a

Front 293

Which of the following staining materials does NOT stand for
one minute before beginning the next step in a Gram's Stain?

Back 293

95% Ethyl Alcohol/Acetone

Front 294

What urine preservative may dissolve to produce false
positives for Albumin?

Back 294

Thymol

Front 295

What urine preservative will false positives for Albumin
seldom be encountered?

Back 295

Toluene

Front 296

When performing a finger puncture, wipe away the first drop of blood to avoid______ .

Back 296

Dilution with tissue fluid

Front 297

What part of the microscope controls the amount of light
that reaches the condenser?

Back 297

Iris Diaphragm

Front 298

What objective should be used for detailed study of stained bacteria smears?

Back 298

oil immersion

Front 299

What diluting fluid is used for a Red Blood Cell count?

Back 299

0.85% Sodium Chloride (Gower's solution)

Front 300

Once blood and diluting fluid is drawn into the pipette, in
what direction and how long should the pipette be shaken?

Back 300

3 minutes not in the direction of the long axis

Front 301

After the 4 fields are counted during a white blood cell
count, you should multiply by____ .

Back 301

50

Front 302

When performing a Complete Blood Cell count, what indicates that the counting chamber is properly loaded?

Back 302

There is a thin even film of fluid under the cover glass

Front 303

What is the most accurate method of determining hemoglobin estimation?

Back 303

Photometer

Front 304

The normal hematocrit for males is approximately _____.

Back 304

42% to 50%

Front 305

The normal hematocrit for females is approximately ____.

Back 305

40%-48%

Front 306

A low RBC count is a sign of_____ .

Back 306

anemia

Front 307

Dyscrasia of blood forming tissue caused by:

Back 307

leukemia

Front 308

Which of the following is found on the Right Side (right
side, part 4) of the health record?
1. Record of Auxiliary Studies and Therapies
2. Record of Preventive Medicine and Occupational
Health
3. Physical Qualifications, Administrative Forms
4. Record of Medical Care and Treatment

Back 308

1. Record of Auxiliary Studies and Therapies

Front 309

Which of the following is found on the Left Side (right side, part 2, section B) of the health record?
1. Record of Medical Care and Treatment
2. Record of Preventive Medicine and Occupational
Health
3. Physical Qualifications, Administrative Forms
4. Inpatient Care, Ambulatory Surgeries

Back 309

Inpatient Care, Ambulatory Surgeries

Front 310

What color of health record jacket would a dependent have if
their last four were 0955 and the sponsor's was 1426?

Back 310

yellow

Front 311

What digit of the member's social security number is
completely covered with black tape at the top left and right
side of the dental and medical health care treatment record?

Back 311

Last

Front 312

What family member prefix would be given to the 3RD spouse of an active duty member?

Back 312

32

Front 313

To identify the record of an individual in a special duty
program (ie: Personnel Reliability Program or Asbestos Program) use tape instead of blacking out digit of the SSN on the right edge of the health record.

Back 313

red

Front 314

Which of the below listed health record forms is
the last
record.
NOT filed
on the right side, (right side, part 4) of the treatment
record jacket?

Back 314

SF 513 (Consultation Sheet)

Front 315

What health record form is used to indicate that a Dental
Officer did NOT perform the dental exam?

Back 315

SF 88-report of medical examination

Front 316

What form is devised for the purpose of cross medical
service notification between the Armed Forces?

Back 316

DD 689

Front 317

The outpatient treatment record is used to document
outpatient medical care provided to all eligible
beneficiaries EXCEPT:

Back 317

Civilian employees

Front 318

When performing a Gram's Stain, what is referred to as the mordant?

Back 318

Gram's Iodine

Front 319

When performing a Gram's Stain, what is referred to as the decolorizer?

Back 319

95% Ethyl Alcohol/Acetone

Front 320

When performing a Gram's Stain, what is referred to as the primary stain?

Back 320

Crystal Violet

Front 321

When performing a Gram's Stain, what is referred to as the counter stain?

Back 321

Safranine

Front 322

Using a) Safranine b) Crystal Violet c) Gram's Iodine d)
95% Ethyl Alcohol/Acetone, what is the proper sequence of
using the stains?

Back 322

b, c, d, a

Front 323

Which of the following staining materials does NOT stand for
one minute before beginning the next step in a Gram's Stain?

Back 323

95% Ethyl Alcohol/Acetone

Front 324

What urine preservative may dissolve to produce false
positives for Albumin?

Back 324

Thymol

Front 325

What urine preservative will false positives for Albumin
seldom be encountered?

Back 325

Toluene

Front 326

When performing a finger puncture, wipe away the first drop of blood to avoid______ .

Back 326

Dilution with tissue fluid

Front 327

What part of the microscope controls the amount of light
that reaches the condenser?

Back 327

Iris Diaphragm

Front 328

What objective should be used for detailed study of stained bacteria smears?

Back 328

oil immersion

Front 329

What diluting fluid is used for a Red Blood Cell count?

Back 329

0.85% Sodium Chloride (Gower's solution)

Front 330

Once blood and diluting fluid is drawn into the pipette, in
what direction and how long should the pipette be shaken?

Back 330

3 minutes not in the direction of the long axis

Front 331

After the 4 fields are counted during a white blood cell
count, you should multiply by____ .

Back 331

50

Front 332

When performing a Complete Blood Cell count, what indicates that the counting chamber is properly loaded?

Back 332

There is a thin even film of fluid under the cover
glass

Front 333

What is the most accurate method of determining hemoglobin estimation?

Back 333

Photometer

Front 334

The normal hematocrit for males is approximately _______.

Back 334

42%-50%

Front 335

The normal hematocrit for females is approximately____ .

Back 335

40%-48%

Front 336

A low RBC count is a sign of______ .

Back 336

anemia

Front 337

Dyscrasia of blood forming tissue caused by:

Back 337

Leukemia

Front 338

When performing a CBC, you are determining the amount of
blood in ______.

Back 338

One cubic millimeter

Front 339

Which of the following conditions is NOT characterized by
Leukocytosis?

Back 339

Anaphylactic Shock

Front 340

A continued shift to the left with a decrease in total white
blood cell count indicates .

Back 340

A breakdown of the body's defense mechanism and is a
poor prognosis

Front 341

What White Blood Cell increases in parasitic infections and
allergic conditions?

Back 341

Eosinophils

Front 342

What stain is used in the lab for performing a differential?

Back 342

Wright's

Front 343

BOAR

Back 343

Segmented viruses

Front 344

How many cells are counted when performing a differential?

Back 344

100

Front 345

What is the youngest form of Neutrophil?

Back 345

Metamyelocyte

Front 346

Which Neutrophil is known as a "Stab"?

Back 346

Band

Front 347

Which Neutrophil has a nucleus that is divided into 6 or
more segments?

Back 347

Hypersegmented

Front 348

Which Neutrophil has a nucleus that is divided into 2, 3, 4 or 5 segments?

Back 348

Segmented

Front 349

A White Blood Cell whose cytoplasm contains numerous course
reddish-brown granules which are lighter than the nucleus is
a(n):

Back 349

Eosinophil

Front 350

A White Blood Cell whose cytoplasm is a clear to sky blue color is a(n):

Back 350

Lymphocyte

Front 351

A White Blood Cell whose cytoplasm is a muddy gray-blue is a(n):

Back 351

Basophil

Front 352

All of the following are normal values for Leukocytes EXCEPT:
1. Lymphocytes 21% - 35%
2. Bands 0% - 10%
3. Segmented 51% - 67%
4. Neutrophils 4% - 8%

Back 352

Neutrophils 4% - 8%

Front 353

What is the least valid specimen of urine?

Back 353

random

Front 354

What is the normal specific gravity of urine during a 24
hour period?

Back 354

1.015 - 1.030

Front 355

What is the normal pH of a urine sample?

Back 355

4.6 to 8.0

Front 356

When testing a urine sample, what indicates Albuminuria
(albumin in the urine)?

Back 356

White turbidity

Front 357

If test strips are NOT available to test a urine sample for
Albumin, what other method may be used?

Back 357

3% Sulfosalicylic Acid

Front 358

If you have only one urine sample to centrifuge, you should:

Back 358

Place a tube directly opposite to it containing an
equivalent weight of water and centrifuge sample for
5 minutes at 1,500 r.p.m.

Front 359

If casts are present in large amounts, the urine is almost
always:

Back 359

positive for Albumin

Front 360

If 3 or more Leukocytes are present in a microscopic urine
sample, it is indicative of:

Back 360

Disease in the urinary tract

Front 361

If Casts are present in a microscopic urine sample, it is
indicative of:

Back 361

Kidney Disease

Front 362

The addition of one drop of 5% Acetic Acid to the urine
sediment will______ in a urine sample.

Back 362

(a) Disintegrate any Red Cells
(b) Make White Cells nucleus more visible

Front 363

Pathogens that reproduce best at 15 - 20 degrees C are
termed:

Back 363

Psychrophilic

Front 364

Pathogens that reproduce best at 20 - 45 degrees C are
termed:

Back 364

Mesophilic

Front 365

Pathogens that reproduce best at 50 - 55 degrees C are
termed:

Back 365

Thermophilic

Front 366

What type of bacteria is spherical, appearing singly, in
pairs, chains, clusters or packets?

Back 366

cocci

Front 367

What type of bacteria are corkscrew shaped and appear singly only?

Back 367

Spirilla

Front 368

What type of bacteria are rod shaped, appear singly in
chains or palisades?

Back 368

Bacilli

Front 369

A gram positive organism will leave a______ color reaction to gram's stain.

Back 369

Dark blue-black

Front 370

A gram negative organism will leave a________ color
reaction to gram's stain.

Back 370

Deep pink or reddish

Front 371

All of the following are structures in a bacteria EXCEPT:
1. Endameba
2. Spore
3. Capsule
4. Flagellum

Back 371

endameba

Front 372

Bacteria are classified according to their disease producing
ability, growth requirements, morphological characteristics,
colonial morphology, biochemical activity, toxins and its
reaction to:

Back 372

Gram's stain

Front 373

The 4 growth requirements for bacteria are temperature,
oxygen, nutrition and:

Back 373

moisture

Front 374

An individual with Tetanus, Diphtheria, Gas Gangrene and
Food Poisoning would have_____ bacteria present in
their system.

Back 374

Gram Positive Bacilli

Front 375

An individual with Pneumonia, Strep Throat or Staph Aureus
would have_______ bacteria present in their system.

Back 375

Gram Positive Cocci

Front 376

An individual with Gonorrhea or Meningitis would have______
bacteria present in their system.

Back 376

Gram Negative Cocci

Front 377

An individual with Bubonic or Pneumonic Plague, Undulant
Fever, Whooping Cough, Salmonella or Shigella would have________bacteria present in their system.

Back 377

Gram Negative Bacilli

Front 378

The Potassium Hydroxide (KOH) preparation test is used in the lab for identification of:

Back 378

fungi

Front 379

An individual who has neither anti ItAn or anti lrBn
antibodies (agglutination) would be placed in group?

Back 379

AB

Front 380

An individual who has anti IAn antibodies and the presence of
the Rh agglutination would have what blood type?

Back 380

B

Front 381

For a complete list of all laboratory forms you should
consult the Manual of the Medical Department, chapter:

Back 381

23

Front 382

When performing a CBC on an infant, where should you make
the puncture with the hemolet?

Back 382

great toe or heel

Front 383

What diluting fluid is used for performing a WBC count?

Back 383

Glacial Acetic Acid, Dilute Hydrochloric Acid

Front 384

What white blood cell increases in parasitic infections?

Back 384

Eosinophils

Front 385

What white blood cell increases in TB indicating activity in the affected area?

Back 385

Monocyte

Front 386

When staining with Wright's Stain, the stain and buffer
should be mixed until the film appears:

Back 386

Coppery, Metallic

Front 387

What is the largest of all normal WBC's?

Back 387

Monocyte

Front 388

The specific gravity of urine will be higher during the:

Back 388

morning

Front 389

A Urinometer is the most convenient means of determining
specific gravity of urine. The urinometer should NOT touch
the sides or bottom of the container and should be read at:

Back 389

The bottom of the meniscus

Front 390

The specific gravity of a liquid or solid substance is the
weight of the substance as compared to an equal volume of:

Back 390

Distilled Water

Front 391

A smear that reveals large numbers of pus cells with varying
numbers of intracellular and extracellular gram negative,
bean shaped cocci in pairs indicates:

Back 391

Gonorrhea

Front 392

What is the normal daily urine volume for adults?

Back 392

800-2OOOml, 1500ml average

Front 393

What is the normal RBC for a newborn infant?

Back 393

5.1 (+ or - .9 million)

Front 394

What is the normal value for leukocytes?

Back 394

Leukocytosis

Front 395

An increase in Lymphocytes (lymphocytosis) in a patient with TB indicates:

Back 395

healing

Front 396

What leukocyte is also known as a juvenile cell?

Back 396

Metamyelocyte

Front 397

What leukocyte has a horseshoe or "S" shaped nucleus?

Back 397

Band

Front 398

Which of the following is NOT ture regarding a 24 hour urine
specimen?
1. Specimen does not require refrigeration
2. Collected over a 24 hour period
3. Preservatives are added to the first specimen voided
4. Patient voids and discards first specimen

Back 398

1. Specimen does not require refrigeration

Front 399

Olive green to brown-black urine is caused by:

Back 399

Phenols

Front 400

Bile in urine causes the urine to turn yellow, brown or:

Back 400

Foam when shaken

Front 401

What causes urine to have a milky appearance?

Back 401

Chyle

Front 402

What does a stained smear reveal?

Back 402

Morphology and staining characteristics of bacteria
present

Front 403

A person with Endocarditis, Impetigo, Septicemia, or
Osteomyelitis will have ______bacteria present in their
blood.

Back 403

Gram Positive Cocci

Front 404

A person with boils or furuncles will have_______
bacteria present in their blood.

Back 404

Gram Positive Cocci

Front 405

A person with gastroenteritis has____ bacteria present
in their blood.

Back 405

Gram Negative Bacilli

Front 406

What is the incubation period for Mononucleosis?

Back 406

4-21 days

Front 407

What in the urine would indicate a kidney disorder?

Back 407

Casts

Front 408

Gram Positive Bacilli in the blood is indicative of:

Back 408

Gas Gangrene

Front 409

Which bacteria, when it gets into the abdominal cavity, can
cause peritonitis?

Back 409

E. coli

Front 410

The RPR test is a screening test for:

Back 410

syphilis

Front 411

Mononucleosis imitates many diseases and diagnosis is only
confirmed by:

Back 411

selective serologic testing

Front 412

What rule states that when an antigen is on a red blood
cell, the corresponding antibody is never present
simultaneously?

Back 412

Landsteiner's rule

Front 413

Repair parties are assigned areas of responsibility
throughout the ship. Which of the following repair parties
would have the responsibility for ordnance?
1. Repair 7
2. Repair 1
3. Repair 2
4. Repair 6

Back 413

repair 6

Front 414

Which of the following repair parties would have the
responsibility for propulsion repair?
1. Repair 5
2. Repair 3
3. Repair 6
4. Repair 4

Back 414

repair 5

Front 415

Which, if any, of the following material conditions provides
the least amount of protection?
1. Zebra
2. No correct answer given
3. X-ray
4. Yoke

Back 415

x-ray

Front 416

Which of the following material conditions provides the
greatest level of protection?
1. Circle William
2. Yoke
3. Zebra
4. X-ray

Back 416

zebra

Front 417

Which of the following material conditions would be set at
night on a ship when it must travel without being seen?
1. Dog Zebra
2. Circle William
3. Modified Yoke
4. Yoke

Back 417

dog zebra

Front 418

Fires are divided into how many classifications?

Back 418

4

Front 419

Which of the following agents is used primarily in
extinguishing class A fires?

Back 419

water

Front 420

A burning fuel oil tank would be classified as what class of
fire?

Back 420

b

Front 421

Which of the following agents is used to extinguish a class C fire?

Back 421

co2

Front 422

What material condition is set when the general alarm is
sounded?

Back 422

zebra

Front 423

What condition of material readiness is set during MOPP
level-ltsuspected threat)?

Back 423

yoke

Front 424

What condition of material readiness is set during MOPP
level-2(possible threat)?

Back 424

zebra modified

Front 425

What condition of material readiness is set during MOPP
level-3(probable threat)?

Back 425

zebra

Front 426

What condition of material readiness is set during MOPP
level_4(imminent threat)?

Back 426

circle william

Front 427

Condition Zebra is fully set when which of the following
conditions have been met?
1. When all X-ray and Circle William fittings have been
closed
2. When all Circle William and Red Circle Zebra
fittings have been closed
3. When all X-ray, Yoke and Zebra fittings have been
closed
4. When all Yoke and Circle William fittings have been
closed

Back 427

When all X-ray, Yoke and Zebra fittings have been
closed

Front 428

Which of the following circuits is the main damage control
intercom circuit?

Back 428

4mc

Front 429

During what level of Mission-Oriented Protective Posture
(MOPP) is all protective equipment required to be worn?

Back 429

level 4

Front 430

With the exception of toxic gases, an Oxygen Breathing
Apparatus (OBA) can provide the wearer with a self generated supply of oxygen for_____ minutes.

Back 430

60

Front 431

When setting the timer on the OBA, how many minutes of
escape time should be allowed?

Back 431

30

Front 432

When two or more OBA wearers are in the same compartment,
what precautions should be taken in regard to tending lines?

Back 432

tending lines is not used

Front 433

A code, known as OATH, is used between the wearer and tender
of an OBA. How many pull(s) on the safety line for "O"?

Back 433

1

Front 434

A code, known as OATH, is used between the wearer and tender
of an OBA. How many pull(s) on the safety line for "A"?

Back 434

2

Front 435

A code, known as OATH, is used between the wearer and tender
of an OBA. How many pull(s) on the safety line for "T"?

Back 435

3

Front 436

A code, known as OATH, is used between the wearer and tender
of an OBA. How many pull(s) on the safety line for "H"?

Back 436

4

Front 437

Which of the following is NOT considered a material that
would cause a Class "A" Fire?

Back 437

paint can

Front 438

Class "B" fires involve:

Back 438

gasoline, paint, oil

Front 439

What is the best extinguishable agent for Class "B" fires?

Back 439

AFFF

Front 440

Which of the following can be used to extinguish a Class "D"
Fire?

Back 440

sand

Front 441

If water is the only source to extinguish a Class "D" Fire,
______is the best method to use.

Back 441

high velocity fog

Front 442

When fighting a Class "D" Fire, the Fire Fighting party must
take safety precautions and use:

Back 442

welder's goggles

Front 443

The 2 piece (CPO) Chemical Protective Overgarment will
provide____ hour(s) of protection.

Back 443

6

Front 444

Which of the following is the International Emergency
Warning Flag for, "I have a diver(s) down - Keep well clear
at low speeds"?

Back 444

alpha

Front 445

Which of the following is the International Emergency
Warning Flag for, (t I am taking in, discharging, or carrying
dangerous materials"?

Back 445

bravo

Front 446

Which of the following is the International Emergency
Warning Flag for, "I am in distress"?

Back 446

november charlie

Front 447

Which of the following is the Emergency Warning Flag for,
"This ship has medical guard duty"?

Back 447

Mike 1

Front 448

Which of the following is the Emergency Warning Flag for,
"Breakdown, vessel is having engine or steering difficulty"?

Back 448

Flag Five

Front 449

Which of the following is the Emergency Warning Flag for,
"This ship has dental guard duty"?

Back 449

mike 2

Front 450

How many personnel are assigned to an in-port fire party?

Back 450

18

Front 451

How many personnel are assigned to an at-sea fire party?

Back 451

15

Front 452

In a fire party, how many personnel are assigned as
investigators?

Back 452

2

Front 453

When manning emergency stations on a ship, what traffic
pattern is observed to avoid slowing personnel from getting
to their assigned stations?

Back 453

up and forward on the starboard side, down and aft
on the port side

Front 454

Extra Military Instruction (EMI) will NOT normally be
assigned for more than___ hours per day.

Back 454

2

Front 455

Which of the below is NOT true concerning Lewisite(L)?
1. If the eyes are affected, flush immediately with
copious amounts of water
2. Dimercaprol is a peanut oil suspension for injection
and is given in the case of systemic involvement
3. Sodium Sulfacetamide 30% solution, maybe used to
combat eye infections immediately after exposure
4. British Anti-Lewisite(BAL) is somewhat toxic and
injection of more than 3mg/kg will cause severe
symptoms

Back 455

Sodium Sulfacetamide 30% solution, maybe used to
combat eye infections immediately after exposure

Front 456

Clothing that is grossly contaminated, but in short supply,
should be:

Back 456

buried in deep pits or trenches - in metal cans
with tight fitting lids, buried at sea

Front 457

All ships of the force will have a minimum of_______
decontamination stations.

Back 457

2

Front 458

What personal decontamination kit is used to chemically
neutralize chemical agents you may have on your clothing or skin?

Back 458

M-258

Front 459

Which chemical agent has an almond like odor?

Back 459

Hydrocyanic Acid (AC)

Front 460

What is given to a nerve gas casualty for the regeneration
of blocked cholinesterase?

Back 460

2-Pam Chloride

Front 461

What type of diet should a radiation casualty be placed on?

Back 461

bland

Front 462

If signs of infection develop in a casualty with radiation
overdose, what antibiotic therapy is recommended?

Back 462

triple the recommended dose

Front 463

What type of radiation does NOT constitute an external
radiation problem but constitutes a very serious hazard when
taken into the body through ingestion, inhalation, or
through an open wound?

Back 463

alpha