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422 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the study of the body structures and the relation to one part to another?
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Anatomy
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What is the study of the processes and functions of the body tissue and organs?
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Physiology
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What is the study of the body from a fertilized egg, or ovum?
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Embryology
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What planes of the body are draw perpendicular to the sagittal lines and divide the body into anterior and posterior sections?
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Frontal Planes
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Divides the body into superior and inferior sections?
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Horizontal, or transverse plane.
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What is indicated by the anatomical term posterior or dorsal?
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Toward the back, or dorsal, side of the body.
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Nearer the point of origin or closer to the body?
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proximal
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What is the process of absorption, storeage, and teh use of foods for body growth, maintenance, and repair?
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Metabolism
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What is the body's self regulated control of its internal environment?
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Homeostasis
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What has been called "the secret of life"
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Protoplasm
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What is the plasma membrane?
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A Selectively permeable membrane surrounding the cell.
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What is the process where solids and gases (such as oxygen, proteins, carbohydrates, and mineral salts) pass through the plasma membrane
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Diffusion
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What is the water-to-gelatinous substance surrounding the nucleus and is contained by the plasma membrane?
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cytoplasm
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What are the four main groups of tissues
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Epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous
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Lining tissue of the body?
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Epithelium
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Main protective tissue of the body
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Squamous
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What type of tissue supports the various structures of the body?
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Connective
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What type of connective tissue is dense and forms tendons, ligamens, catilage, and bond?
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osseous
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what type of connective tissue's chief functions is to bind parts of the body together?
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areolar
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what type of connective tissue is generally called fatty tissue?
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Adipose
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What are the three types of muscular tissue?
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skeletal, smooth, and cardiac
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What muscle tissues are involuntary muscles and are located on in the heart?
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Cardiac
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What is the basic cell of the nerve tissue?
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neuron
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What number of bones composes the skeletal system of the body?
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206
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What is the study of the structure of bone?
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Osteology
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What gives bone its strength and hardness?
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Inorganic mineral salts
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What are the two types of bone marrow?
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Red and Yellow
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What is the thin outer membrane surrounding the bone?
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the periosteum
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What is the pain center of the bone?
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The Periosteum
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What bones are contained in the classification of long?
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Femur and humerus
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What bones are contained in the classification of short?
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Wrist and ankle
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What bones are contained in the classification of flat?
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Skull, sternum, and scapula
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What bones are contained in the classification of irregular?
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Vertebrae, mandible, hyoid, and pelvic
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What Number of bones are contained in the skull?
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28
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What cranial bone forms the roof of the skull?
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The parietal bones
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How many bones make up the facial bones of the skull?
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14 (13 immovable bones and a movable lower jawbone).
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What facial bones are responsible for the prominence of the cheeks?
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The zygomatic bones
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What facial bone is connected to the ethmoid bone, and together they form the nasal septum?
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the vomer bone
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What is the mandible's main function?
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mastication
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What composes the vertebral (spinal) column
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24 movable or true vertebrae; the sacrum; and the coccyx, or tail bone.
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What is the name of the first of the seven cervical vertebrae in the neck, which resembles a bony ring?
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the atlas
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How many vertebrae are in the thoracic region?
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12
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HOW MANY vertebrae are in the lumbar region
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5
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What is the name for the first seven pairs of ribs attached to the sternum by cartilage?
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true ribs
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What is the name for the last two rib pairs which have no cartilagionous attachments to the sternum?
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floating ribs
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What number of carpal bones form the wrist?
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8 arranged in two rows.
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What is the longest bone in the body?
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The femur
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what is formed whenever two bones are attached to each other?
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Joint
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What type of joints are contained in the bones of the skull?
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Immovable
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What type of joints are the knee, hip, and shoulder?
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Freely movable
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What are the 4 general types of joint movements?
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gliding, angular, rotation, circumduction
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What is the simplest type of joint movement?
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Gliding
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Bending the arm or leg is what type of joint motion?
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flexion (angular joint)
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What type of angular joint momtion is extension?
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straightening or unbending, as in straightening the forearm, leg, or fingers.
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Moving an extremity away from the body
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Abduction
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Bringing an extremity toward the body
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adduction
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Turning outward as in turning the sole of the foot to the outside?
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eversion
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Turning the sole of the foot inward?
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inversion
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What term is used to reer to a contracting muscle?
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Prime mover
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What term is used to refer to a muscle that is relaxing while a prime mover is contracting?
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Antagonist
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What is a continual state of partial contraction that gives muscles a certain firmness
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muscular tone or tonicity
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What are the two stages of the chemical action of muscle fibers?
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contraction and recovery
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What is the term for the condition when muscles stretch when force is applied?
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extensibility
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What is the term used to describe the stiffening of a muscle that dies(usually within 10 minutes to serveral hours after death)?
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Rigor Mortis
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What is a fan shaped muscle located on the side of the skull, above and in front of the ear?
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The temporalis muscle
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What muscle raises the mandible or lower jaw to close the mouth?
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The masseter
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What muscle is commonly affected in cases of stiff neck?
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Sternocleidomastoid.
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Primary muscle of respiration?
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Diaphragm
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What muscle is the site of choice for massive intramuscular injections?
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The gluteus maximus
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Longest muscle in the body?
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The sartorius
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What muscles extend the foot at the ankle?
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The gastrocnemius and soleus
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What are the two layers of the skin?
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The epidermis and the dermis
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Whatt is the outer skin layer?
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The epidermis
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What is responsible for skin color , and is found in the deepest sublayer of the epiidermis?
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melanin
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Where is the dermis located?
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below the epidermis
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Where does new formation of nails occur?
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in the epithelium of the nail bed
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What amount of fluid is excreted daily by sweat glands?
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about one liter
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What are ceruminous glands?
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Modified sweat glands found only in the auditory canal
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Osmosis
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The transfer of fluids through the plasma membrane from an area of lower concentration of particles to an area of higher concentration, and the method of feeding body tissues and eliminating waste materials
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total blood volume of the average adult?
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5to6 liters
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What is the liquid part of the blood that constitues 50 to 60 percent of whole blood?
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plasma
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What Number of RBC'S ARE CONTAINED IN THE BLOOD OF THE AVERAGE MAN?
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5million red cells per cubic millimeter.
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What number of RBC'S are contained in the blood of the average woman?
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4.5 million
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what is the key of the red cell's ability to carry oxygen and carbon dioxide?
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Hemoglobin
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How long will a rbc live in a body?
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100to120 days
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What organ is called the graveyard, where old, worn out cells are removed from the blood stream?
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the spleen
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What are leukocytes?
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wbc'S
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What is the ratio of red and white cells in the blood?
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one white cell to every 600 rbc's.
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What is the name for the movement where leukocytes squeeze between the cells that form blood cell walls?
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diapedesis
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Secondary function of WBC'S?
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Blood clotting
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Which part of the heart pumps the blood past the pulmonary valve through the pulmonary artery to the lungs, where it is oxygenated?
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The right ventricle
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What is the contraction of the heart?
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Systole
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What is the relaxation of the heart with limited dilation?
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Diastole
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wHAT STIMULATES and maintains the contractions of the heart?
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The sinoatrial node, commonly called the pacemaker of the heart.
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What is the term for the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure?
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Pulse pressure
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What are the three distinct classification for blood vessels of the body?
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Distributors(arteries and arterioles) Exchangers (capillaries) collectors (veins and venules)
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What are the smallest branches of the arteries?
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Arterioles
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What arteries are branches of the ascending aorta, and supplies the heart with blood?
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Coronary arteries
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What is the name of the large artery going to the arm
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Axillary
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Corpus Luteum
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Term given to follicle after ovulation;
produces estrogen and progesterone in luteal phase of the menstrual cycle |
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What is the collective name of the system of minute vessels that vary in structure at the end of the arterioles?
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capillaries
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What is the system of vessels that collect blood for the capillaries and carry it back to the heart?
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veins and venules
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How large is the capillary system in the body?
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approximately 60,000 miles.
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What is the largest artery in the body, and is a large tube-like structure arising from the left ventricle of the heart?
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Aorta
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What is the major function of the coronary arteries?
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supply blood to the heart.
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What arteries provide blood to the muscle and skin of the face as well as the brain and the eyes?
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The carotid arteries
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Where does the aorta divide to supply blood to the lower extremities?
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into the left and right comon iliacs
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What does the left and right common iliacs become upon entering the thigh?
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The femoral artery
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wHAT IS THE name for the aorta at the knee?
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the popliteal artery
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What are the three principal venous systems in the body?
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the pulmonary, portal, and systemic
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What venous system contains the only veins in the body that carry fresh oxygenated blood?
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The Pulmonary system.
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What venous system in the body conveys absorbed substances from the intestinal tract to the liver for storage, alteration, or detoxification?
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The portal system
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What are the two divisions of the systemic system?
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deep and superficial veins
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what vein is most commonly used for venipuncture?
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the median cubital
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What vein is used for intravenous injections at the ankle?
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The great saphenous vein.
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what part of the lymphatic system gives immunity , or resistance, to the effects of specific disease-causing agents?
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lymphocytes
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what is the function of lymph nodes?
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They act as filters to remove bacteria and particles from teh lymph stream.
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What is contained by lymph nodes which engulf and destroy foreign substances , damaged cells, and cellular debris?
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macrophages
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What is the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the atmosphere and the cells of the body?
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Respiration
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What are the two phases of respiration?
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Physical and physiological
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What separates the nasal and oral cavities?
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The palate
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What are the thin microscopic air sacs within the lungs?
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Alveoli
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What is the interpleural space between the two lungs?
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Mediatinum
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What is the primary muscle of respiration?
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The diaphragm
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What nerve controls the diaphragm?
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The Phrenic Nerve
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What nerve controls the Larynx?
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The vagus nerve
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what is the term for the amount of air left in the lungs after forceful exhalation?
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Residual air
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What is the term for the air exchanged with each normal respiration?
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Tidal air
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What is the term for ordinary quiet respiration?
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Eupnea
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What is the normal respiration in the body?
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14to18 cycles per minute
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What is the term for abnormal slowness of breathing?
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Bradypnea
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What is the term for excessive rapidity of respiration?
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Tachypnea
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What is the term for the cessation of breathing?
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Apnea
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What is the term for respiration that increases with force and frequency up to a certain point, then decreases until they cease altogether?
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Cheyne-stokes respiration
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What is the term for a rattling sound in the throat due to partial obstruction?
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rhoncus
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what is the composition of the neuron, or nerve cell?
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Dendrites, a cyton, and a axon
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What are the two major groups of the nervous system?
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CNS, and the peripheral nervous system.
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Which neuron carries command inpuleses from a central area to the responding muscles or organs?
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motor
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What are dendrites?
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Thin receptive branches, and vary greatly in size, shape, and number with different types of neurons.
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Each nerve fiber is an extension of what part of the nervous system?
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a neuron
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What type of nerve conducts impulses into the brain or the spinal cord?
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Sensory
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What type of nerve carries impulses to muscles and glands?
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motor
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What type of nerve includes both sensory and motor fibers?
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mixed
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What composes the central nervous system?
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The brain and spinal cord
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What are the two main divisions of the brain?
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The cerebrum and the cerebellum
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What is the outer surface of the brain and is all called "gray matter"
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The cortex
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What is the portion of the brain located beneath the cortex layer and is often called the "white matter" of the brain
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The medulla
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what part of the cerebrum is associated with the higher mental processes such as memory?
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the frontal lobe
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What part of the cerebrum is concerned primarily with general sensations?
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the parietal lobe
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What part of the cerebrum is related to the sense of light?
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the occipital lobe.
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what part of the cerebrum is concerned with hearing?
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The temporal lobe
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What part of the brain is concerned chiefly with bringing balance, harmony, and coordination to the motions initiated by the cerebrum?
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the cerebellum
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What two small divisions of the brain form the brain stem and are vital to life?
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the pons and the medulla oblongata
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What is the inflammation of the meninges?
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Meningitis
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What is the total quantity of spinal fluid bathing the spinal cord
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about 75ml
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What number of nerves make up the peripheral nervous system?
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12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves arising from the brain and spinal cord.
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Which nerves send fibers to the sensory surfaces and muscles of the trunk and extremities?
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spinal nerves
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Which cranial nerve conveys the sensation of sight from the retinal cells of the eye to the visual area of the brain?
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optic
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Which cranial nerve controls most muscles that move the eyeball and some of those in the iris of the eye?
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oculomotor
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Which cranial nerve controls the muscles that turn the eyeball down and the side?
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trochlear
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Which cranial nerve is divided into three branches (opthalmic, maxilary, and mandibular)
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Trigeminal
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Which cranial nerve controls the muscles of the face, scalp, and ears?
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Facial
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Which cranial nerve is the nerve of hearing and equilibrium?
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Acoustic
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Which cranial nerve controls the muscles of the tongue?
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Hypoglossal
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What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?
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Sympathetic and parasympathetic
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What part of the autonomic nervous system dilates pupils?
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sympathetic
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What part of the autonomic nervous system constricts pupils?
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parasympathetic
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What part of the autonomic nervous system relaxes the gastrointestinal tract and bladder?
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Sympathetic
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What part of the autonomic nervous system constricts bronchi?
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Parasympathetic
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What is the name of the clear, watery fluid that fills both chanbers of the anterior cavity of the eye?
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Vitreous humor
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what helps gives the cornea its curved shape?
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The aqueous humor
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What is the name of the soft gelatin substance that fills the posterior cavity of the eye?
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Vitreous humor
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What is the outer layer of the eye?
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The sclera
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What is the middle layer of the eye?
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The choroid
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What is the inner layer of the eye?
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The retina
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What regulates the amount of light entering the eye?
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Constriction of the pupil by the iris.
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What is the opening in the iris called?
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The pupil
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What are the receptors of the sense of vision contained in the retina of the eye?
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rods and cones
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What part of the retina is responsible for night vision?
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Rods
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What part of the retina is responsible for daytime vision?
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cones
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What is the term for the deflection of light in the eye?
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Refraction.
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What process of seeing produces clear, three dimensional vision?
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convergence
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What connects the middle ear with the pharynx?
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The eustachian tube.
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'What is the cartilaginous structure located on each side of the head?
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The auricle, or pinna.
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What are the three auditory ossicles in the middle ear which transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the fluid in the inner ear?
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The malleus (hammer) The incus (anvil) and the stapes (stirrup)
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What is the fluid that fills the inner ear?
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Endolymph
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Where are superficial receptors located?
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at or near the surface of the body
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What is the function of the eustachian tube?
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equalizes internal and external air pressure.
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What is the name for the chemiclal messengers that carry messages from the endocrine system?
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Hormones
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What is often called the master gland of the body, because it influences most other endocrine glands?
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The pituitary gland
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What is the growth hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?
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Somatotropin
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What results when the antidiuretic hormone is not produced in adequate amounts?
|
The daily urine volume is between 10 to 15 liters instead of the normal 1.5 liters.
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What is essential for the formation of thyroxin?
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Iodine
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What condition is caused by an insufficient secretion of thyroxin?
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Hypothyroidism
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What are glucocorticoids?
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They increase certain liver functions, have an anti-inflammatory effect, and are essential to metabolism.
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What sex hormones are produced by the adrenal cortex?
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Androgens
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What is the name of the endocrine portion of the pancreas consisting of cells arranged in groups?
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islands of langerhans
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What term refers to the primary sex organs of the reproductive system (male and female)?
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Gonads
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What hormone is secreted by the male gonads?
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Testosterone
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What hormones are secreted by the female gonads, the ovaries?
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Estrogen and progesterone
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When does mechanical digestion occur?
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When food is chewed, swallowed, and churned by peristalsis
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What is the passageway between the mouth and the esophagus and is shared with the respiratory tract?
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the pharynx
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What is the cartilaginous flap that closes the opening to the larynx when food is being swallowed down the pharynx?
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The epiglottis
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What is a muscular tube about 25cm long and is the passageway between the pharynx and the stomach?
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the esophagus
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Where does most food absorption take place?
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in the small intestine
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What part of the digestive system forms a c-shaped curve around the head of the pancreas, posterior to the liver?
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The duodenum
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What is the middle part of the small intestine and is approximately 2.5 meters long?
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the jejunum
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What is the source of the digestive juice bile?
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liver
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What is the last ande longest part of the small intestine?
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Ileum
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What are the three distinct parts of the large intestine?
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The cecum, colon and rectum
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When does waste material from a meal reach the rectum?
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24 hours after food is ingested.
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What amount of saliva is secerted daily?
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One liter
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What is the largest gland of the body?
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The liver
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What are the two main organs of the urinary system?
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Kidneys and urinary bladder
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What amount of urine is excreted daily by a normal person?
|
From 1000 to 1500 ml per day, but a person can function normally by excreting only 500 per day.
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What are the two distinct regions of the kidney?
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An inner medulla and outer cortex
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What are the functional units of the kidneys?
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Nephrons
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What amount of blood is filtered every 24 hours as it passes through the glomerulus?
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2500 gallons
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What amount of urine can the bladder hold?
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600 ml
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What does the prostate gland resemble in shape and size
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a chestnut
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What is the correct temperature for storing and distributing the yellow fever vaccine?
|
0 degrees celsius (32 degrees F)
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What particular care is necessary to preserve the potency of the oral poliovirus vaccine?
|
Storage should be in the frozen state at aa temperature of -14 degrees c (7 degrees f) (thawing or evidence of thawing reders the shipment unacceptable for use.)
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What is the required storage temperature for biologicals other than the yellow fever and oral poliovirus vaccines?
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between 2and8 degrees, make sure they dont freeze.
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How should you handle empty containers of all living vaccines?
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As infectious wastes.
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When may immunizing agents be used that are beyond their stated expiration dates?
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when an extension has been specifically authorized by navmedcom
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What vaccines should not be given to persons with a significant allergy to eggs or fowl?
|
Typhus, influenza, yellow fever, measles
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What precaution must be taken before administering only live virus vaccine to a female, except the oral poliovirus vaccine?
|
ask her if there is any chance she may be pregnant
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What is the flying restriction for aircrew members after receiving any immunization excep the oral poliovirus and smallpox vaccines?
|
they must not fly for a minimum of 12 hours (preferable 24 hours)
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Unless a medical officer directs otherwise, what is the minimum period between doses of different live virus vaccines?
|
30 days
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Why should you not mix two or more immunizing agents in a vial or syringe for the purpose of permitting a single simultaneous injection?
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Agents may be biologically or physically incompatible
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When are navy and marine corps personnel immunized for smallpox?
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when they can be isolated from the general population
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|
When is the typhoid vaccine administered to all active duty Navy personnel?
|
At their first permanent duty station
|
|
|
What is the reimmunization requirement for tetanus?
|
every 10 years
|
|
|
For what period of time may live trivalent oral poliovirus vaccine be administered after the bottle is opened?
|
7 days, never refreeze the vaccine.
|
|
|
Unless otherwise specified, what amount of influenza vaccine is given annually
|
One injection 0.5 IM
|
|
|
how often is yellow fever vaccine reimmunization required?
|
every 10 years
|
|
|
How often is the cholera vaccine reimmunization required
|
at 6 month intervals, if required
|
|
|
What are the requirements for the basic series of plague vaccine?
|
it consists of two doses, the first is 0.5 ml given IM and the second is 0.2 given IM 3 months after the first dose.
|
|
|
What is the dosage regimen of the hep B virus vaccine?
|
three doses of 1.0 ml each, administered IM; the second dose is given 1 month after the first dose, and the third dose is given 6 months after the first dose
|
|
|
What record of immunizations is prepared for each member of the armed forces?
|
the yellow phs form 731
|
|
|
What form, in addition to the yellow phs form 731, is prepared to document immunizations for all personell entering the Navy?
|
An Immunization record, sf 601
|
|
|
What are the two types of transmission of infectious agents?
|
direct and indirect
|
|
|
What are the three types of direct transmission of infectious agents?
|
direct contact, direct projection, and direct exposure
|
|
|
What are the three types of indirect transmission of infectious agents?
|
vehicle borne, vector borne, and airborne
|
|
|
What are the two types of vector-borne infectious agents?
|
Mechanical and biological
|
|
|
Where can you find instructions and requirement for reporting to local, state, national, and international health authorities?
|
Navmed -p-5038
|
|
|
Disease alert report inst?
|
navmedcominst 6220.2
|
|
|
What is the average incubation period for amebiasis?
|
2-4 weeks
|
|
|
What is the incubation period for chickenpox?
|
2-3 weeks
|
|
|
What are the signs and symptoms of cholera?
|
sudden vomiting , large quantities of watery stools, dehydration, and circulatory failure.
|
|
|
Major method of chloera transmission?
|
Drinking water contaminated with excretions of patients.
|
|
|
How is dengue fever transmitted to man?
|
Genus Aedes
|
|
|
Incubations period for Hep A?
|
28 to 30 days.
|
|
|
What is the average incubation period for vital Hep B?
|
from 60to90 days
|
|
|
When is the influenza recovery usually complete?
|
within 2to7 days
|
|
|
How is influenza most commonly transmitted?
|
airborne
|
|
|
How is measles spread?
|
by nasal or throat secretions through droplets, direct contact, and less frequently by airborne methods or fomites.
|
|
|
What is the communicable measles period?
|
From just prior to the onset of fever to about 4 days after the appearance of the rash.
|
|
|
What is meningococcal meningitis?
|
a bacterial disease that has a sudden onset with symptoms of fever, sever headache, nausea and usually vomiting, stiff neck and oftena pinpoint red rash.
|
|
|
What is the drug of choice for meningococcal meningitis?
|
Penicillin in adequate doses given parentally
|
|
|
How is mumps transmitted?
|
By direct contact with saliva or by droplet spread with saliva from an infected person.
|
|
|
When are mumps most infectious?
|
about 38 hours prior to the onset of illness.
|
|
|
What is peduculosis?
|
Infestation of lice on the body and or clothing
|
|
|
What is the first sign of plague?
|
usually an inflammation of lymph node.(bubonic plague) in the infuinal, axillary, or cervical regions, depending the location of the flea bite.
|
|
|
What is the fatality rate for bubonic plague?
|
50 percent
|
|
|
How is rabies contracted?
|
By the introduction of virus-containing saliva of a rabid animal through a break in theskin, usually a bite.
|
|
|
What is rubella?
|
German Measles, which is a mild viral infectious disease.
|
|
|
communicable period for rubella?
|
a week prior to the appearance of a rash until about 4 days after the appearance.
|
|
|
what age should children receive a vaccine of combined rubella/measles?
|
15 months of age
|
|
|
When are smallpox vaccinations administered to the us military?
|
only when members can be isolated from the general public for about 2 weeks, that is, during basic training
|
|
|
Tuberculosis inst?
|
6224.1
|
|
|
What disposition is made of individuals whose ppd skin test show them to be positive for positive for a past or present infection?
|
They are placed on a 1-year program of antituberculosis medication and periodic evaulations.
|
|
|
Typhoid fever symptoms?
|
Fever, loss of appetite, malaise, cough, red spots on the trunk, and constipation, or diarrhea.
|
|
|
Typhus fever symptoms?
|
the onset is frequently sudden and commences with general pain, fever, chills, headache, and prostration.
|
|
|
How is diagnosis of typhus fever established?
|
By serological tests.
|
|
|
How does man acquire yellow fever?
|
When they are bitten by an infected mosquito
|
|
|
When is recertification required of PMT's at empu's and dvecc's?
|
every 3 years
|
|
|
What insect ranks first in importance that transmit disease to man?
|
Mosquitoes
|
|
|
What are the most common and persistently troublesome arthropod pest encountered indoors?
|
cockroaches
|
|
|
How is all untreated water considered until approved by a medical officer or a designated respresentative?
|
as unsafe
|
|
|
What amount of time should be allowed after treating canteen water with calcium hypochloride ampules, before drinking?
|
atleast 30 minutes
|
|
|
What is the method of choice for bacteriological testing aboard ship?
|
The membrane filter technique
|
|
|
What are the 4 quarantinable diseases?
|
Smallpox, plague, yellow fever, cholera
|
|
|
What is the frequency of bacteriological testing for ice machines?
|
weekly
|
|
|
What methods should be used to dispose of all containers of live virus vaccines?
|
Autoclaving, burning or boiling
|
|
|
What Immunizations are required to be current for wastewater workers?
|
Tetanus, typhoid, and polio
|
|
|
What is the average incubation period for amebiasis?
|
2-4 weeks
|
|
|
What class of frozen sandwich is prepared in enlisted dinig facilities and are intended for use in flight and boat meals?
|
class 2
|
|
|
What inspection is conducted of processed fish and shellfish products as required by the fish and wildlife Act?
|
u.s.d.c.
|
|
|
What medical term is used for a person with ring worm of the finger or toe nail/
|
Tinea unguium.
|
|
|
Whhic live virus may be given to a female suspected of being pregnant?
|
oral polio
|
|
|
how frequently must emergency water be tested to ensure that it is properly stored and safe for human consumption?
|
Monthly
|
|
|
What is the temp requirement for a chill box?
|
32to35 Degrees F.
|
|
|
Which type of chemical agent prevents the cells to use oxygen?
|
blood agents
|
|
|
What temp do fats and grease begin to break down?
|
120 Degrees F.
|
|
|
What form is used to report food-service inspections?
|
Navmed form 6240/1
|
|
|
Manual of prev med?
|
NAVMED p-5010
|
|
|
Who sets the minimum standards for immunizations for members of the armed forces?
|
department of health and human services
|
|
|
What report is submitted for a communicable disease?
|
The medical event report (MER)
|
|
|
wHAT DIRective sets drinking water standards for naval establishments worldwide?
|
bumedinst 6240.1 Standards for potable water.
|
|
|
What is pharmacognosy?
|
The recognition, quality, purity, and identification of drugs.
|
|
|
What is Pharmacy?
|
The preparation, stability, preservation, and storage of pharmaceutical preparations.
|
|
|
what is posology?
|
Dosage or amount of drug to be given.
|
|
|
What is pharmacodynamics?
|
The response of living tissue to chemical stimuli in the absence of disease.
|
|
|
What is toxicology?
|
The toxic or poisonous effects of substances.
|
|
|
The art of treating disease by any method that will relieve pain, cure disease, or prolong life
|
therapeutics
|
|
|
Most commonly used text/reference in American Pharmacy?
|
Remington; The Science and Practice and Pharmacy.
|
|
|
What is the textbook of pharmacology, toxicology, and therapeutics known as the "blue bible" of pharmacology?
|
The Pharmaceutical Basis of therapeutics.
|
|
|
Therapeutic dose?
|
also referred to as the normal adult dose, the usual dose or average dose, it is the amount needed to produce the desired therapeutic effect.
|
|
|
What is the basis for a therapeutic dose?
|
it is calculated on an average adult about 24 years old, weighing approx 150lbs
|
|
|
What is the minimum lethal dose?
|
The least amount of drug that can produce death.
|
|
|
What two primary factors determine or influence dosage?
|
age and weight
|
|
|
How is a calculation of pediatric doses made using young's rule?
|
The age in years of the child is the numerator and the age plus 12 is the denominator. The fraction is then multiplied by the normal adult dose.
|
|
|
Clark's rule?
|
The weight in Lbs is the numerator and the average adult weight, 150lbs , is the denominator. This fraction is multiplied by the adult dose.
|
|
|
Sublingual drug administered?
|
The drug is placed under the tongue and rapidly absorbed directly into the bloodstream. (example nitroglycerin sublingual tablets).
|
|
|
Buccal drug administration?
|
placed between the cheeks and gum.
|
|
|
Parenteral medications?
|
Those introduced by injections
|
|
|
How is the subcutaneous type of parenteral drug administered?
|
Injedted just below the skin's cutaneous layers (insulin)
|
|
|
Intradermal type of parenteral drug administered?
|
The drug is injected within the dermis (PPD)
|
|
|
when is the rectal method preferred to the oral route of administering a drug?
|
When there is a danger of vomiting or when the patient is unconscious uncooperative, or mentally incapable
|
|
|
What is the definition of a drug?
|
Any chemical substance that has an effect on living tissue but is not used as a food
|
|
|
How are general drugs grouped?
|
According to their source, whether animal, vegetable, or mineral in origin.
|
|
|
How are chemical drugs grouped?
|
By their chemical characteristics
|
|
|
How are therapeutic drugs classisfied/
|
According to their action on the body
|
|
|
Normally, what are the three different names for drugs?
|
Chemical, generic, and trade
|
|
|
What drugs are used to counteract by hyperacidity in the stomach?
|
Antacids.
|
|
|
Why should most oral drugs not be taken within 2 hours of taking an antacid?
|
because antacids may interfere with the body's ability to use many drugs
|
|
|
What may result from prolonged use of magnesium hydroxide?
|
Kidney stones
|
|
|
What is the major advantage of aluminum hydroxide gel?
|
No systemic alkalosis is produced
|
|
|
Astringents?
|
Drugs that cause shrinkage of the skin and mucous membranes
|
|
|
When should calamine lotion not be applied to the skin?
|
When it is blistered, raw, or oozing
|
|
|
What is an absorbent?
|
A drug that attaches another substance to its surface
|
|
|
Primary use for Activated charcoal?
|
Emergency treatment in poisoning by most drugs and chemicals
|
|
|
Emollients?
|
Bland or fatty substances that may be applied to the skin to make it more pliable and soft.
|
|
|
Expectorants?
|
drugs used to assist in the removal of secretions of exudate from the trachea, bronchi, or lungs
|
|
|
antitussives?
|
Agents that specifically inhibit or suppress the act of coughing
|
|
|
Guaifenesin?
|
Symptomatic relief of dry, nonproductive cougs and in the persence of mucous in the respiratory tract
|
|
|
Dextromethorphan
|
A synthetic, non narcotic derivative of codeine that acts as an antitussive
|
|
|
Benzonatate?
|
Symptomatic relief of nonproductive coughs
|
|
|
antiseptics?
|
Drugs that suppress that growth of microorganisms and are used topically.
|
|
|
How should doses of 10 million units or higher of penicillin g be given?
|
only by intravenous infusion
|
|
|
How is methicillin sodium (staphcillin) used?
|
Parenterally only.
|
|
|
What are cephalosporins?
|
a group of semisynthetic derivatives of cephalosporin c, an antimicrobial agent of fungal origin.
|
|
|
What is the usual dosage of cefazolin?
|
it may be given intramuscularly or intravenously from 250 to 500 mg every 8 hours; 1 to 1.5g every 6hrs in life threatening infections.
|
|
|
What's the use of cefoxitin (mefoxin)?
|
for the treatment of susceptible gram-positive and gram negative bacteria.
|
|
|
What is the most important mechanism of action of the tetracyclines?
|
blocking the formation of polypeptides used in protein sysnthesis.
|
|
|
What determines the toxicity of poisons?
|
their method of introductioninto the body and how fast they are absorbed by the body
|
|
|
How must all controlled substances and other drugs be stored?
|
Must be kept under lock and key.
|
|
|
what established 5 schedules (categories) related to a drug's potential for abuse, medical usefullness, and degree of dependency, if abused?
|
The controlled substance Act of 1970
|
|
|
What is a schedule 1 controlled substance?
|
Substances with high abuse potential and no accepted medical use (e.g. heroin, marijuana,lsd)
|
|
|
What are schedule 2 controlled substances?
|
Substances with high abuse potential and severe psychological and/or physical dependence liability.
|
|
|
What are examples of schedule 2 controlled substances?
|
Narcotics, amphetamines, and barbiturates.
|
|
|
What are the major restrictions on prescribing schedule 2 controlled substances?
|
Prescriptions may never be ordered with refills and must be filled within 7 days of the date originally written.
|
|
|
What are schedule 3 controlled substances?
|
Substances with less abuse potential than schedule 2 substances and moderate dependence liability.
|
|
|
What are examples of controlled 3 substances?
|
nonbarbiturate sedatives, nonamphetamine stimulants, and medications that contain a limited quantity of certain narcotics.
|
|
|
What are the major restrictions on prescribing schedule 3 controlled substances?
|
Prescriptions must be filled within 30 days of the date written and may be refilled up to 5 times within a size month period.
|
|
|
What are schedule 4 controlled substances?
|
Substances that have less abuse potential than schedule 3 substances and limited dependence liability.
|
|
|
What are schedule 5 controlled substances?
|
Substances with limited abuse potential and are primarily antitussives or antidiarrheals that contain small amounts of narcotics (codeine)
|
|
|
what items are classified as dangerous drugs?
|
poisonous drugs, chemicals, and similar substances.
|
|
|
What is required to store schedule 3,4,5, controlled substances?
|
locked cabinet
|
|
|
How often is the USP-NF (United States Pharmacopoeia and National Formulary) revised?
|
Every 5 years
|
|
|
Known as the arithmetic of pharmacy, it is the science of weights and measures and its application to drugs and their dosage, preparation, compounding, and dispensing?
|
metrology
|
|
|
What is the basic unit of weight in the metric system?
|
The gram
|
|
|
what are the two divisions of measurement under the apothecary system?
|
weight and volume
|
|
|
What is specific gravity?
|
The ratio of the weight of a given substance to the weight of an equal volume of a substance chosen as a standard.
|
|
|
What is trituration?
|
a process of reducing a solid to a very fine powder by grinding in a mortan and pestle.
|
|
|
what is levigation?
|
solids that can be ground to even finer subdivisions by adding a small amount of liquid to make a paste and triturating further
|
|
|
what is colation?
|
straining
|
|
|
What is filtration?
|
the process of separating a solid from a liquid with the purpose of obtaining the liquid in a clear transparent state, devoid of impurities.
|
|
|
what is ebullition
|
boiling
|
|
|
How often is the USP-NF (United States Pharmacopoeia and National Formulary) revised?
|
Every 5 years
|
|
|
Known as the arithmetic of pharmacy, it is the science of weights and measures and its application to drugs and their dosage, preparation, compounding, and dispensing?
|
metrology
|
|
|
What is the basic unit of weight in the metric system?
|
The gram
|
|
|
what are the two divisions of measurement under the apothecary system?
|
weight and volume
|
|
|
What is specific gravity?
|
The ratio of the weight of a given substance to the weight of an equal volume of a substance chosen as a standard.
|
|
|
What is trituration?
|
a process of reducing a solid to a very fine powder by grinding in a mortan and pestle.
|
|
|
what is levigation?
|
solids thatt can be ground to even finer subdivisions by adding a small amount of liquid to make a paste and triturating further
|
|
|
what is colation?
|
straining
|
|
|
What is filtration?
|
the process of separating a solid from a liquid with the purpose of obtaining the liquid in a clear transparent state, devoid of impurities.
|
|
|
what is ebullition
|
boiling
|
|
|
What level should measuring be done with a graduate?
|
always at eye level.
|
|
|
What can be used to effectively remove a chemical agent on the skin?
|
the m291 skin decontamination kit (which replaced the m258A1)
|
|
|
What directive contains detailed instructions on the use of skin decontamination kits?
|
NAVMED P-5041
|
|
|
What are the two types of antidote autoinjectors in you become a nerve agent casualty?
|
Atropine and 2-PAM-CI
|
|
|
What are the top priorities for first aid and decontaminating casualties?
|
First, control of massive hemorrhage and then first aid for life-threatening shock and wounds.
|
|
|
What are the minimum number of decontamination stations, or dirty areas that each ship must have, insofar as the hull design permits?
|
two
|
|
|
who has custody of the keys to the locked decontamination supply cabinets?
|
The damage-control assistance
|
|
|
Generally, what are the differences between chemical and biological weapons?
|
Chemical weapons are more suited for tactical, short-term local use, while biological weapons have a strategic, long-range goal.
|
|
|
what agents are included in harrassing chemical agents?
|
Tear gas and vomiting agents
|
|
|
When are chemical agents classified as lethal?
|
When they result in a 10 percent or greater death rate among casulaties.
|
|
|
What is an apparent sign if a nerve agent was a vapor exposure?
|
The pupils will constrict, usually to a pinpoint.
|
|
|
What is an apparent sign if a nerve agent was exposed through the skin?
|
There will be a local muscular twitching where the agent was absorbed.
|
|
|
What is the specific therapy for nerve agent casulaties?
|
Atropine, an acetylcholine blocker.
|
|
|
When exposed, what is issued to each member of the Navy and Marine Corps?
|
three 2mg autoinjectors of atropine and three 600 mg autoinjectors of 2-pam cl.
|
|
|
Where do you administer ONE SET of atropine and 2-pam cl injections (when you experience mild symptoms of nerve agent poisoning)?
|
Lateral thigh muscle or buttocks
|
|
|
How long should the atropine injector be firmly held in place for a nerve-agent injection?
|
atleast 10 seconds.
|
|
|
why are mustard HD blister agents particularly insidious?
|
they dont manifest their symptoms for several hours after exposure.
|
|
|
What part of the body is most vulnerable to mustard gas?
|
The eyes
|
|
|
What is the first symptoms of lewisite?
|
The vapors are so irritating that conscious persons are immediately warned by disconfort to put on the mask.
|
|
|
What are the two suggested antidotes in treating cyanides?
|
Amyl nitrite in crush ampules is provided as first aid. Followup therapy with intravenous sodium thiosulfate solution is required.
|
|
|
What is phosgene?
|
A colorless gas with a distinctive odor similar to that of new mown hay or freshly cut grass.
|
|
|
What is the treatment for choking or lung agents?
|
once symptoms appear, complete bed rest is mandatory and treatment has to be symptomatic.
|
|
|
What first aid is given for vomiting agents?
|
Washing the skin and rinsing the eyes and mouth with water with a mild analgesic to relieve any headache.
|
|
|
What is the major differences between biological agents and most war gases or vapors?
|
they cannot be detected by the physical senses or by chemical detectors.
|
|
|
what is considered the greatest potential hazard in biological warfare?
|
inhalation of airborne organisms.
|
|
|
what is the normal duration of flash blindness?
|
20to30 min
|
|
|
who will be burn casualties in a nuclear explosion?
|
only those in the direct line of sight of thermal emission.
|
|
|
what form is used extensively for outpatient prescriptions?
|
dd form 1289
|
|
|
what part of the prescription lists the names and quantities of the ingredients to be used?
|
The inscription
|
|
|
What part of the prescription follows the inscription and given directions to the compounder?
|
The subscription.
|
|
|
What publication issues policy on the Milstrip/Milstrap system and is not distributed afloat?
|
NAV-SUP P-437
|
|
|
What publication was published as a handy reference for personnel responsible for originating and processing MILSTRIP/MILSTRAP documents?
|
NAV-SUP P-409
|
|
|
What publication establishes policies for operating and managing afloat supply departments and activities?
|
NAV-SUP P485
|
|
|
What appropriation, also referred to as a "no-year appropriation" is one that is available for incurring obligations until the funding is exhausted?
|
continuing appropriation
|
|
|
What is the term for the annual budget of an activity and is assigned by the CNO to major claimants?
|
The operating budget.
|
|
|
The minimum amount of medical material to be maintained on board a ship or on order at any given time?
|
AMAL
|
|
|
How is the amount of material determined that is designated in an AMAL?
|
By each class of ship based on past experiences
|
|
|
Where are recommendations for changes to the AMAL forwarded?
|
Chain of Command of BUMED.
|
|
|
Minimum amount of dental material to be maintained on board a ship or on order at any time?
|
ADAL
|
|
|
Who administers the Federal Supply Catalog System under the direction of the Secretary Navy?
|
The Defense Logistics Agency.
|
|
|
What publication contains the listing of all professional books and publications that are required to be maintained at an activity?
|
BUMEDINST 6820.4 series
|
|
|
What form is used to report item or packaging discrepancies attributable to the shipper
|
SF 364
|
