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130 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Airway Obstruction Management:
The ______ (subdiaphragmatic abdominal thrusts) is recommended for relieving foreign-body airway obstruction. |
Heimlich maneuver
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Non-tactical situations:
injuries are critical but who will require only minimal time or equipment to manage and who have a good prognosis for survival. (Compromised airway or massive external hemorrhage.) |
Priority I – Immediate
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Non-tactical situations:
Casualties whose injuries are debilitating but who do not require immediate management to salvage life or limb. (long bone fracture) |
Priority II – Delayed
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Non-tactical situations:
Casualties, often called the “walking wounded” who have minor injuries that can wait for treatment or who may even assist in the interim by comforting other casualties or helping as litter bearers. |
Priority III – Minor
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Use a large bore (_____ inch, ___ gauge) needle and catheter unit to perform a needle chest decompression.
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3.25 inches, 14 gauge
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______ shock – occurs when the vascular container (blood vessels) dilate (enlarge) without a proportional increase in fluid volume.
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Distributive (Vasogenic) shock
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What are the three kinds of Distributive (Vasogenic) shock ?
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Neurogenic shock - failure of the nervous system to control the diameter of blood vessels;
Septic shock脓毒性休克 - severe infection which leads to vasodilation; Psychogenic (vasovagal) shock - parasympathetic nervous system, vagus nerve produces bradycardia |
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Because it is a self-limited condition, a _____ is unlikely to result in true “shock” and normal blood pressure is quickly restored when the casualty is placed in a _____ position.
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vasovagal episode/ Psychogenic shock
horizontal positive |
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______ shock is caused by the heart failing to pump blood adequately to all vital parts of the body.
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Cardiogenic shock
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________, also known simply as angina, is caused by insufficient oxygen being circulated to the _____. Many people who suffer from that situation carry _____ tablets, place one pill under the tongue.
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Angina pectoris
heart muscle nitroglycerin |
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_________ results when a coronary artery is severely occluded by arteriosclerosis or completely blocked by a clot.
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Acute Myocardial Infarction 心肌梗死
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A heart suffering from prolonged hypertension, valve disease, or heart disease will try to compensate for decreased function by increasing the size of the left ventricular pumping chamber and increasing the heart rate. This condition is known as ________.
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congestive heart failure
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______ shock is caused by a life-threatening reaction of the body to a substance to which a patient is extremely allergic.
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Anaphylactic shock
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STAGES OF SHOCK:
1. ______________; 2. ______________; 3. ______________. |
1. Compensated (Non-progressive) Shock;
2. Decompensated (Progressive) Shock; 3. Irreversible Shock. |
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Normally, a loss of approximately ___ liter/ ___ pints of the person’s blood volume will create a life-threatening condition.
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1 liter/ 2 pints
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________ most often results either from forgetting to take insulin or from taking too little insulin to maintain a balanced condition.
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Diabetic ketoacidosis 糖尿病酮症酸中毒
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______ shock results from too little sugar in the blood (hypoglycemia).
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Insulin shock
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_____ are made when the skin is rubbed or scraped off.
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Abrasions
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_______ are torn, rather than cut.
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LACERATIONS
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An _____ is the tearing away of tissue from a body part.
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avulsion
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A ______ is an abscess in the true skin caused by the entry of microorganisms through a hair follicle or sweat gland.
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furuncle (boil)
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A _____ is a group of furuncular abscesses having multiple sloughs, often interconnected under the true skin.
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carbuncle
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Type Gut Absorption Time:
A: _____- 10 days B: _____- 20 days C: _____- 30 days D: _____- 40 days |
A: Plain - 10 days
B: Mild - 20 days C: Medium - 30 days D: Extra - 40 days |
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Type Gut Absorption Time:
A: Plain - ____ days B: Mild - ____days C: Medium - ____days D: Extra - ____days |
A: Plain - 10 days
B: Mild - 20 days C: Medium - 30 days D: Extra - 40 days |
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Animal Bites
A special kind of infection that must be guarded against in case of animal bites is rabies (sometimes called “_____”). |
hydrophobia
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_____ are injuries to the ligaments and soft tissues that support a joint.
Injuries caused by the forcible overstretching or tearing of muscles or tendons are known as ____. |
Sprains
Strains |
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Difference between Heat Exhaustion and Heat Stroke:
skin, pupil, temperature |
Heat Exhaustion:
Moist & clammy skin, Pupils dilated, Normal /Subnormal Temp Heat Stroke: Dry hot Skin, Pupils constricted, Very High body Temp |
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_______ is a mild cold injury caused by prolonged and repeated exposure for several hours to air temperatures from above freezing 32F (0C) to as high as 60F (16C).
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Chilblain 冻疮
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Chilblain is characterized by _____________.
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redness, swelling, tingling, and pain to the affected skin area
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______, which also may occur in the hands, results from prolonged exposure to wet cold at temperatures ranging from just above freezing to 50F (10C).
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Immersion foot 浸泡脚
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______ occurs when ice crystals form in the skin or deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32F (0C) or lower.
It is classified as ____ or ____, depending on the extent of tissue involvement. |
Frostbite
superficial or deep |
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1 atmosphere = ____ psi = ___ feet sea water
1 foot sea water = ____ psi |
1 atmosphere = 14.7 psi = 33 feet sea water
1 foot sea water = .445 psi |
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_____ is defined as damage to tissues caused by a change in ambient pressure 环境压力.
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Barotrauma 气压伤
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______ is barotrauma of the lung. Several types of POIS
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Pulmonary Over Inflation Syndrome (POIS)
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_____ Law predicts gas changes in volume. For any gas at a constant temperature, pressure, and volume are inversely related.
That Law is used for ____. |
Boyles Law
Barotrauma |
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___ Law: As a gas descends in the water column it is exposed to increased pressure and becomes more concentrated.
That Law is used for ____. |
Dalton’s Law
Toxicities |
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____ Law: The amount of gas which will dissolve in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas above the liquid.
That Law is used for ____. |
Henry’s Law
Decompression Sickness (DCS) |
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____ Law - Barotrauma
____ Law - Toxicities ____ Law - Decompression Sickness (DCS) |
Boyles Law - Barotrauma
Dalton’s Law - Toxicities Henry’s Law - Decompression Sickness (DCS) |
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The most common type of squeeze, “_____,” can be experienced by simply jumping in a swimming pool and swimming to the bottom – pressure increases, the volume of gas in the middle ear decreases resulting in pain.
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middle ear squeeze
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Essentially, DCS (decompression sickness) is the ______ in tissues.
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formation of bubbles 气泡 in tissues
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A _____ is a sterile pad or compress used to cover wounds to control bleeding and prevent further contamination.
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dressing
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Dressings should be large enough to cover the entire area of the wound and extend at least ___" in every direction beyond the wound edges.
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1 inch
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_____ are made of gauze or muslin and are used over a sterile dressing to secure the dressing in place, to close off its edge from dirt and germs, and to create pressure on the wound and control bleeding.
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Standard bandages
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A ______ type of bandage is used around the elbow joint to retain a compress in the elbow region and to allow a certain amount of movement.
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spica or figure-eight type of bandage
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For the hand and wrist, a ____ bandage is ideal.
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figure-eight bandage
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The _____ bandage is also used for dressings of the ankle, such as for supporting a sprain.
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figure-eight bandage
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The ____ bandage must be used to cover wounds of the forearm and lower extremities; only such bandages can keep the dressing flat and even.
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spiral reverse bandage
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The ______ bandage is good for bandaging any protruding part of the body.
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four-tailed bandage
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The _____ bandage is frequently used for fractures of the lower jaw and to retain compresses to the chin.
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Barton bandage
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_____ bandages are made by cutting a 36 to 40 inch square of a piece of cloth and then cutting the square diagonally 对角线.
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Triangular bandages
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A triangular bandage can be folded into a strip for easy application during an emergency. The bandage is called a _____.
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cravat
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There are two types of fluids used for intravenous drips静脉点滴: _____ and _____.
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crystalloids 晶体溶液 (aqueous solutions of mineral salts or other water-soluble molecules)
colloids 胶体 (larger insoluble molecules, such as gelatin) |
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The most commonly used crystalloid fluid is ______.
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normal saline
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blood itself is a _____.
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colloid
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______ is often used for fluid resuscitation after a blood loss due to trauma, surgery, or a burn injury.
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Lactated Ringers Solution乳酸钠林格溶液 (LR)
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_____ is a synthetic plasma expander that works by producing expansion of plasma blood volume.
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Hetastarch 羟乙基淀粉
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United States oxygen cylinders are color coded ___, silver or chrome with a ____ area around the valve stem on top. The international color code is _____.
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Green
Green White |
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When the cylinder regulator pressure gauge reads ____ psi or lower, the oxygen tank is considered empty.
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200 psi
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The cylinder valve cap may be noisy or difficult to remove; however, the threads of the cylinder cap should (be/ never be) oiled. If the "___" ring is not present, an oxygen leak will occur. "_____" and "_____" signs should be posted in the areas where oxygen is in use or stored.
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never be oiled
"O" ring "OXYGEN" and "NO SMOKING" signs |
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An _____ is provided for emergency use in compartments containing insufficient oxygen.
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oxygen breathing apparatus (OBA)
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The effective life of the canister (as used in the OBA) or bottle varies from __to __ minutes, depending on the particular apparatus and the type of work being done.
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20-45 minutes
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The lifeline is a ____-wire cable, ____ feet long.
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The lifeline is a steel-wire cable, 50 feet long.
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How many Stages of Extrication 解救 are there?
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5 Stages of Extrication 解救
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What are the 5 Stages of Extrication?
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The first stage of extrication is gaining access to the victim.
The second stage involves giving lifesaving emergency care. The third stage is disentanglement. The careful removal of debris and other impediments from the victim will prevent further injury to both the victim and the rescuer. The fourth stage is preparing the victim for removal. The final stage, removing the victim from the trapped area and transporting to an ambulance or sickbay. |
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Nine line MedEvac:
1. _____ 3. _____ 4. _____ |
1. Location
3. Number of patients by precedence (urgent, routine) 4. Special equipment required |
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When selecting the landing site, the ground slope must be no more than _____ degrees.
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15 degrees
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The _____ litter is the most commonly used for transporting sick or injured persons.
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Navy service litter/ Stokes stretcher
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_____ is a semi-rigid support used to immobilize casualties with minor neck and back injuries.
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Kendrick Extrication Device (KED)
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The _____ Board is constructed of an outer plastic shell with an injected foam core of polyurethane foam. It is impervious to chemicals and elements.
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Miller (Full Body) Board
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_____ board can be used in virtually every confined-space rescue密闭空间救援and vertical extrication脱困.
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Miller (Full Body) Board
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The ______ stretcher is designed for removing an injured person from engine-room spaces, holds, and other compartments where access hatches are too small to permit the use of regular stretchers.
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Neil Robertson strecher
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_____ stretcher is particularly valuable for transferring injured persons to and from boats.
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Stokes Stretcher
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_____ can be used for direct ship-to-ship transfer of injured persons.
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Stokes Stretcher
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Stokes Stretcher is limited to one casualty or ____lbs.
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400 lbs
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_____ is designed for rapid immobilization of spinal and neck injuries in tight places.
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Reeves Sleeve 里夫斯套
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____ are equipment used in the immobilization of suspected or real fractures of the spinal column.
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Spineboards
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Spineboards has two sizes, short (__" × __") and long (__" × __"); the short and long boards are often used together.
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short (18" × 32") and long (18" × 72")
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____ is made of steel-wire, or it can be made from any strong fiber line. Used only in extreme emergencies, when an injured person must be moved and no other means is available.
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Emergency Rescue Lines
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___ is one of the easiest ways to carry a casualty (unconscious or unable to walk).
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Fireman’s Carry
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With the ____ carry, it is possible to carry a heavy casualty for a considerable distance.
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pack-strap carry
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The ____ (carry), may be used to drag an unconscious casualty for a short distance. It is useful when required to crawl underneath a low structure.
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tied-hands crawl
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____ is the least desirable method as the casualty’s head is not supported.
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tied-hands crawl
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HAZARDOUS MATERIAL EXPOSURE:
Explosives _____ Non-Flammable Gases ____ Flammable, Liquids ____ Flammable, Solids ____ Oxidizers & Peroxides ____ Poisons & Biohazards ____ Radioactive Materials ____ Corrosives ____ Other ____ |
Explosives - Solid Orange Color
Non-Flammable Gases - Solid Green Color Flammable, Liquids - Solid Red Color Flammable - Solids White and Red Stripes Oxidizers & Peroxides - Solid Yellow Color Poisons & Biohazards - Solid White Color Radioactive Materials - Half White / Half Yellow with black radiation Symbol Corrosives - Half White / Half Black Others - Usually White |
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Toxicity Levels:
____ indicates the flammability ____ indicates the reactivity ____ indicates any special hazards ____ indicates health hazards |
Toxicity Levels:
Red indicates the flammability Yellow indicates the reactivity White indicates any special hazards Blue indicates health hazards |
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The health hazard levels:
4 - ____ 3 - ____ 2 - ____ 1 - ____ 0 - ____ |
The health hazard levels:
4 - deadly 3 - extreme danger 2 - hazardous 1 - slightly hazardous 0 - normal material |
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Protection Levels: The protection levels A, B, C, and D indicate the type and amount of protective equipment required in a given hazardous circumstance. Level ____ provides the greatest amount of protection and is used for the most hazardous incident(s).
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Level A
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______ is the process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of contaminants that have accumulated on personnel and equipment.
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Decontamination
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Types of Decontamination:
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Dilution
Absorption Chemical washes Disposal and isolation |
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Types of Decontamination:
_______: specific chemicals used to neutralize the hazardous material |
Chemical washes
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Types of Decontamination:
_______: the use of special filters and chemicals to absorb the hazardous material |
Absorption
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Types of Decontamination:
______: the flushing of the contaminated person or equipment with water. It is the most frequently appropriate method of decontamination |
Dilution
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_______ Zone: The transition area between the contaminated area and the clean area.
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Contamination-Reduction Zone (Warm Zone)
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_____ Zone: The location of the administrative and other support functions needed to keep the operations in the exclusion and contamination- reduction zones running smoothly.
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Support Zone
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The command post supervisor/incident commander should be present in the _____ zone.
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support zone.
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_____ Zone: The area the contamination has occurred.
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Exclusion Zone 禁区 (Hot Zone)
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Which of the following conditions results in the secretion of bright red blood from the rectum?
Epistaxis Hematuria Hematochezia Hematemesis |
Hematochezia
Epistaxis 鼻出血 |
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What is the term for tarry black stool?
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Melena
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What are the terms for coughing up blood, vomiting blood, fainting, and dizziness?
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Hemoptysis, hematemesis, syncope, vertigo
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What is used to remove water from a near drowning victim?
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Abdominal thrusts
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What delivered greatest oxygen and it used for an extended period?
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Bag valve mask
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What delivers the greatest air volume?
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Mouth to mask
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What type of suture needle may cause small amounts of damage, used in deep tissue?
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Taper point
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What does insufficient oxygen to the heart muscle cause?
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Angina pectoris
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What type of stretcher is a collapsible stretcher made of canvas?
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ARMY LITTER
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During treatment procedures, what is the most important factor in the treatment of all types of shock?
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IV ADMINISTRATION
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Name the different fungus infections and there associated areas of the body (6)
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Tinea Capitis: ringworm of the head
Tinea Corporis: ringworm of the body. Tinea Cruris: jock itch in the inner thighs. Tinea Pedis: Athlete’s foot. Tinea Versicolor: in the trunk. Tinea Ungum: of the nail |
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20-1. Why is the spica or figure eight bandage used around the elbow?
1. Allows for movement while holding a compress 2. Hard to apply 3. Best for controlling bleeding 4. Can be only applied by using a 6 inch roller bandage |
1. Allows for movement while holding a compress
For the hand and wrist, a figure-eight bandage is ideal with several turns of a 2 or 3 inch bandage.. |
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21-5. What is the method for sorting casualties in a multiple casualty incident (MCI)?
1. F.I.N.I.S.H 2. S.T.O.P 3. Stop at the first patient I come to and provide for all their needs 4. S.T.A.R.T |
4. S.T.A.R.T (SIMPLE TRAIGE AND RAPID TRANSPORT)
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21-7. What is the maximum amount of time allowed for continuous suctioning of an infant’s airway?
1. 5 seconds 2. 10 seconds 3. 15 seconds 4. 2 seconds |
1. 5 seconds
Never suction for more than 15 seconds at one time for adults, 10 seconds for children, and 5 seconds for infants. |
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21-14. A patient with a skin assessment of pale and cool and whose blood pressure dropped briefly would be consider to be in what type of shock?
1. Neurogenic 2. Psychogenic 3. Hypovolemic 4. Cardiogenic |
2. Psychogenic
See Table 21-2 |
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What kind of shocks need IV?
Which not? |
Need IV: Hypovolemic shock, Distributive/ Vasogenic shock (Neurogenic shock, Septic shock), Cardiogenic shock
Not Need IV: Psychogenic (vasovagal) shock |
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21-18. The index of suspicion is derived directly from which of the following?
1. Mechanism of Injury 2. Number of patients 3. Scene assessment 4. Triage category |
1. Mechanism of Injury
The MOI will lead to the HM to the index of suspicion (IOS). |
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21-20. An interruption of arterial blood flow to the brain is best described as a/an ______ .
1. Convulsion 2. Cerebrovascular Accident 3. Syncopial episode 4. Epileptic episode |
2. Cerebrovascular Accident
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21-21. All of the following are steps in treating Syncope EXCEPT?
1. Lying patient down in shock position 2. Placing a cool cloth on the patients forehead 3. Loosening their clothing 4. Giving the patient something to eat |
4. Giving the patient something to eat
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21-22. What does the acronym AVPU stand for?
1. Airway, Vital signs, and Pulses are Uniform 2. Alert, Verbal, Painful, Unresponsive 3. Analyze, Verify, Process, Uniformity 4. None of the above |
2. Alert, Verbal, Painful,
Unresponsive |
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21-23. What is the acronym used when assessing a patient during a rapid physical exam?
1. PASTHAM 2. ABCDE 3. SAMPLE 4. DCAP-BTLS |
4. DCAP-BTLS
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21-27. Which of the following is not a contraindication for using Activated Charcoal for patients suffering from poison ingestion?
1. Altered mental status 2. Unable to swallow 3. Patient is suspected of having swallowed acids or alkalis 4. Unable to speak |
4. Unable to speak (不能说话不等于不能吞)
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21-29. In cases of airway obstruction from severe glottic edema, what procedure may be necessary?
1. Needle chest decompression 2. Mouth to mouth ventilations 3. Cricothyroidotomy 4. Endotracheal intubation |
3. Cricothyroidotomy
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21-31. The HM suspects a patient is suffering from a brain injury. Upon assessment the HM discovers the patient has asymmetrical pupils, headache, nausea, and vomiting. The HM suspects the patient is suffering from _____ .
1. A mild concussion 2. A migraine 3. A stroke 4. Increased intracranial pressure |
4. Increased intracranial pressure
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21-32. Which of the following signs and symptoms is considered a late sign of a hemothorax?
1. Deviated trachea 2. Cyanosis 3. Shock 4. Coughing up frothy red blood |
1. Deviated trachea 偏离气管
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21-37. What is the usual dose of morphine for adult patients in severe pain?
1. 2-5 mg 2. 5-10 mg 3. 10-15 mg 4. 10-20 mg |
4. 10-20 mg
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21-42. Which type of suture material is best used for surface closures and cause very little tissue reaction?
1. Silk 2. Cotton 3. Catgut 4. Dermalon |
4. Dermalon
Synthetic materials (e.g., nylon, dermalon) are excellent, particularly for surface use. They cause very little tissue reaction; however, there is a tendency for the knots to come untied. |
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21-44. For a large, gaping, soft-tissue wound, a primary closure is acceptable.
1. True 2. False |
False.
Wounds are closed either primarily (takes place within a short time, minimal cleaning and preparation) or secondarily (delay of the closure for up to several days). Wounds 6 to 14 hours old may be closed primarily if they are not grossly contaminated and are meticulously cleaned. Wounds 14 to 24 hours old should not be closed primarily. When reddening and edema of the wound margins, discharge of pus, persistent fever, or toxemia are present, do not close the wound. Do not use a primary closure for a large, gaping, soft-tissue wound. This type of wound will require warm dressings and irrigations, along with aseptic care for 3 to 7 days to clear up the wound. Then a secondary wound closure may be performed. |
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21-48. What method should be utilized when opening the airway of a patient who is suspected of having a spinal cord injury?
1. Head tilt, chin lift 2. Jaw Thrust 3. Tongue in cheek 4. None of the above |
2. Jaw Thrust
Head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver: Do not use this method if a spinal injury is suspected. |
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21-53. What degree of thermal burns to the skin is characterized by epidermal blisters, mottled appearance, and a red base? Damage extends into but not through the dermis. Recovery usually takes 2 to 3 weeks.
1. Second degree burn 2. First degree burn 3. Third Degree burn 4. Fourth degree burn |
2. First degree burn
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* 21-54. The rule of nines assigns what percentage value for burns of the anterior chest and anterior neck?
1. 13 2. 14 3. 26 4. 28 |
2. 14 (13+1)
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21-59. The usual treatment for chemical burns is to flush with copious amounts of water. The two exceptions to this rule are in the case of which of the following chemicals?
1. Phosphoric acid and lye 2. White phosphorus and carbolic acid 3. Dry lime and carbolic acid 4. Sulfuric acid and carbolic acid |
3. Dry lime and carbolic acid干燥石灰和石炭酸
In alkali burns caused by dry lime, the mixing of water and lime creates a very corrosive substance. Dry lime should be brushed away from the skin and clothing, unless large amounts of water are available for rapid and complete flushing. |
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21-63. A middle ear squeeze is classified under which type of diving injury?
1. Arterial Gas Embolism 2. Barotrauma 3. Dalton's Law 4. DCS |
4. DCS
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21-64. The treatment for a middle ear squeeze consists of all the following EXCEPT?
1. Decongestants 2. NSAIDS for pain and inflammation 3. Administer ear drops for ruptured ear drum 4. No diving chit |
3. Administer ear drops for ruptured ear drum
Treatment consists of decongestants, NSAID’s for pain and inflammation as needed, and discontinue diving until healed. Three days to several weeks depending on severity. |
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21-66. Which statement below is NOT applicable for treatment of Decompression Sickness?
1. 100% oxygen by mask 2. Obtain a dive history 3. Contact the closest Recompression Facility, Dive Medical Officer, or Dive Medical Technician. 4. Do not pressurize the cabin of aircraft when transporting to treatment facility |
4. Do not pressurize the cabin of aircraft when transporting to treatment facility
Remember 1-3 for diving |