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260 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
magnification(M) = _____ * _____
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Objective lens; eyepiece lens
|
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Resoluton(r) =
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0.16lambda / NA
where lambda = light wavelength in micrometers NA = numerical aperture of a lens |
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Lower values of r represent ______ resolution.
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higher
|
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What is the range of the visible light spectrum?
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Wavelengths about 390-750 nm.
|
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What formula were we given for "real life" calculation of resolution?
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r = 1.22lambda/(NAobj +NAcond)
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NA =
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NA=nsina
where a is the angle corresponding to half the width of the cone of light collected by the lens and n is the refractive index of the object through which it travels |
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What is the refractive index of air? Is the refractive index of oil higher or lower?
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The refractive index of air is 1. Oil's is 1.4.
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In real life, r is usually greater than ____ and NA is less than ____.
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.25um; 1.35
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Proteins destined for secretion are synthesized in the ____. Proteins destined to remain in the cell are synthesized in ______.
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RER; polysomes
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Proteins enter the Golgi through its __ face and exit through its ___ face.
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cis; trans
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optimal lysosome pH
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5.0
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Centrioles are microtubule organizing centers for the ________. Centrioles have __ triplets of microtubules.
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mitotic spindle; 9
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Put in order of smallest to largest:
actin, microtubules, myosin, intermediate |
actin (8um) < intermediate (10um) <myosin (15um) < microtubules (20-25 um)
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___ stiffens the cell membrane and provides support for villi. They are also sites of membrane attachment to extracellular matrix proteins
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Microfilaments (actin)
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The keratin in epithelium, the vimentin in connective tissue, and the desmin in muscle are all ____.
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composed of intermediate filaments
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Microtubules are heterodimers of alpha and beta _____. They consist of __ protofilaments surrounding an empty core.
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tubulin; 13
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Which element of the cytoskeleton forms specialized structures involved in subcellular movements such as cilia, flagella, basal bodies of cilia, mitotic spindles, and centrioles?
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microtubules
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4 tissue types
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epithelium, connective, muscle, nerve
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Epithelium has no direct _____, and therefore, uses nutrition by ____.
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vascularization; diffusion
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Which epithelium is derived from ectoderm?
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skin, oral/nasal cavity, anal canal
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Which epithelium is derived from endotoderm?
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lining of digestive and respiratory systems, pancreas, liver
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Which epithelium is derived from mesoderm?
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blood vessel endothelium, mesothelium, kidney and gonad epithelium
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Give three examples of specialization of the apical surfaces of epithelium.
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cilia, microvilli, stereocilia
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Microvilli increase ______ and facilitate ______. Their core is composed of _______.
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cell surface area; absorption; actin filaments
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Sterocilia are similar to what? What is the special function of stereocilia?
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They are similar to microvilli. They facilitate sperm maturation in the epididymis.
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What is an axoneme?
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An axoneme is the cytoskeletal structure that is at the core of cilia and flagella.
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What are the two main components of the cilia axoneme? How are they arranged?
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Its main components are microtubules and dynein. There are nine pairs (one A, one B) of tubules with inner and outer dynein arms oriented in a counterclockwise ring. This ring surrounds an inner core of two microtubles.
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What are the three types of epithelial cell junctions?
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Occluding (tight), anchoring, and gap (communicating)
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What are the three kinds of epithelial anchoring junctions?
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1. Zona adherens (belt desmosome)
2. Macula adherens (spot desmosome) 3. Hemidesmosome |
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Which types of epithelial cell junctions are associated with cytoskeletal components? Which component is associated with each?
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The three types of anchoring junctions.
Zona adherens (belt desmosomes) are associated with actin. Macula (spot) and hemidesmosomes are associated with intermediate filaments. |
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_____ and _____ junctions are NOT associated with cytoskeletal components.
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Occluding; gap
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Which type of junction links the basal surface of the cell to the basal lamina?
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hemidesmosome
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Which type of junction prevents apical membrane proteins from migrating to the lateral cell surface?
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occluding
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The ____ adherens is usually found below the occluding junctions. This type of junction is associated with ____ filaments.
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zona; actin
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A zona adherens can attach the cell to the ________ through an adhesion plaque.
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extracellular matrix
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Spot desmosomes are found on ____ cell surfaces. Intracellularly, they are linked to ____ filaments.
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lateral; keratin (intermediate)
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How big are the intercellular spaces of Zona adherens junctions? Macula adherens junctions?
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Zona: 20 nm
Macula: 24 nm |
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Hemidesmosomes anchor the cell to the basal lamina using transcellular proteins known as ____.
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integrins
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What is a connexon?
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It is a transmembrane cylinder made of 6 connexin proteins. It is the structure of the gap junction in epithelial cells. It communicates via the passage of small molecules such as Ca2+.
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If one connexon releases Ca2+ to the connexon of an adjacent cell, what might happen? (common example, given in lecture)
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The second messenger cAMP could be activated.
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Epithelium can be classified as ___ or ____ based on the number of cell layers.
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simple; complex (stratified)
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What are the three shapes of epithelial surface cells?
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squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
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What kind of simple epithelium is involved in gas exchange? Where can it be found?
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simple squamous. Lining of blood vessels
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What kind of simple epithelium lines ducts?
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simple cuboidal
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What kind of simple epithelium lines intestines?
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simple columnar
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What kind of epithelium has an oval, basal nucleus?
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simple columnar
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The microvilli of the small intestine form a _______.
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brush border
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Stratified squamous epithelium can be either keratinizing or non-keratinizing. What is the difference (how can you tell)?
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In non-keratinizing epithelium, the outermost layer of cells retains a nucleus. In keratinizing epithelium, those cells will not have nuclei.
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What kind of epithelium lines the respiratory tract?
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Pseudo-stratified, ciliated, columnar
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What is the function of transitional epithelium? Where is it found? What kind of cells compose it?
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It is modified to accommodate distention. It is found in the urinary tract. It is stratified columnar or squamous (depending on the state) epithelium.
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A primary epidermal ridge overlies a _____. In my estimation, it has three parts. Name them.
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dermal papilla.
The interpapillary peg is in the middle. There is a secondary epidermal ridge on each side. |
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A primary dermal papilla is subdivided into two ________ by a downgrowth of the ________.
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secondary dermal papillae; epidermal interpapillary peg
|
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What are the three cell types in skin epidermis?
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keratinocytes, melanocytes, and Langerhans cells
|
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Describe the structure and function of the Langerhans cell.
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This is a dendritic cell formed from a bone marrow precursor. It presents antigens to T-lymphocytes.
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What are the first cells (embryologically) to arrive in the epidermis?
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melanocytes
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Melanocytes produce ____, which is absorbed by keratinocytes.
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melanin
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No _____ exist between melanocytes and keratinocytes.
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desmosomes
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The ______ is the outermost layer of the epidermis composed of dead skin cells lacking nuclei.
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stratum corneum
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Epidermolysis bullosa simplex, epidermolytic hyperkeratosis, and epidermolytic plantopalmar keratoderma and result from mutations of what?
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Keratin (intermediate) filaments. Each disease causes mutations of a different kind of keratin, affecting different layers of the epidermis.
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What are the two kinds of cells found in connective tissue?
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1. resident/fixed (fibroblasts, adipocytes)
2. transient/wandering/immigrant (macrophages, plasma cells, mast cells) |
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What are the two components of the extracellular matrix of connective tissue?
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1. ground substance (proteoglycans)
2. fibers (collagen, elastin, microfibrils) |
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What is the embryonic precursor of connective tissue?
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mesenchyme
|
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What kind of connective tissue is often found in the mucosa and submucosa of organs?
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loose (areolar)
|
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What kind of connective tissue is found in the dermis?
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dense irregular
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In dense irregular tissue, there is no preferential ______.
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line of stress
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What kind of connective tissue is typical of tendons and ligaments>
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dense regular
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Where will you find reticular tissue (example given in class)? What does it do there? What is a structural characteristic to take note of?
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It is found in the lymph nodes. It allows the movement of lymphoid cells in and out of organs. It is mostly fibers of type 3 collagen
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What kind of connective tissue is found in the walls of arteries?
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elastic tissue
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Basic location of collagen types 1, 2 and 3.
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1. Most abundant (skin, bone, ligaments, dentine, etc)
2. cartilage 3. reticular |
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Name four cell types that synthesize collagen.
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fibroblasts, osteoblasts, chondroblasts, odontoblasts
|
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Scurvy is a disease of collagen defect and results from _____ deficiency. How does deficiency affect collagen?
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Vitamin C. Vitamin C helps the collagen remain in a helix.
|
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The squiggly black lines are probably ____.
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elastin
|
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You will not see pure elastin. Elastin is deposited onto a scaffold of _____.
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fibrillin (microfibrils)
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What is hyaluronic acid?
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It is a glycosaminoglycan found in most connective tissue ECM.
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What is keratan sulfate?
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It is a glycosaminoglycan found in the cartilage, cornea, and intervertebral disks in the ECM of the connective tissue.
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What are proteoglycans?
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They are extracellular protein complexes of glycosaminoglycans.
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What is at the core of a proteoglycan aggregate?
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A hyaluronan molecule.
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What are the common names of unilocular and multilocular adipocytes?
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Unilocular adipocytes are white (or yellow) fat and multilocular adipocytes are brown fat.
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What makes brown fat brown/red?
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mitochondria
|
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What is the main function of white fat? Brown fat?
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White fat stores lipids. Brown fat is involved in thermogenesis.
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Looking at a slide, how can you tell the difference between brown and white fat?
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White fat has one big lipid droplet, whereas lipid droplets are scattered throughout brown fat cells.
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What kind of fat might you find more of newborns near the scapula and in hibernating animals?
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brown fat
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What does a chondroblast become when its ability to divide is lost?
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a chondrocyte
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What kind of collagen is in the fibers of cartilage?
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Type II - elastine and hyaline
Type I and Type II - fibrocartilage |
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Most cartilage is surrounded by _____.
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perichondrium
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Cartilage is _____. Nutrition takes place by diffusion.
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avascular
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In addition to adipocytes, _____ have lipid droplets.
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chondrocytes
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What surrounds the lacunae of cartilage? What is the inner ring of this called?
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The territorial matrix surrounds the lacunae. Its inner ring is called the lacunar rim.
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What are aggrecan, verican, and decorin?
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These are the most common proteoglycans in the ECM of cartilage.
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What kind of cartilage is the embryonic skeleton?
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hyaline
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_______ is replaced with bone during endochondrial ossification.
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Hyaline cartilage
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Where will you find hyaline cartilage in adults?
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Nose, trachea, and joints.
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In elastic cartilage , the volume of ____ is smaller than in other types. Chondrocytes are surrounded by _____.
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extracellular matrix; elastic fibers
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In adults, where do you find elastic cartilage?
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External ear, epiglottis
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In what kind of cartilage are chondrocytes aligned along lines of stress?
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fibrocartilage
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Which kind of cartilage is not surrounded by perichondria? Where is it found?
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Fibrocartilage (intervertebral discs, TMJ), and articular cartilage (joints)
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What is a group of daughter cells in a single cartilage lacuna called?
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an isogenous group
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In cartilage, the chondrogenic layer is just beneath the ______. This is an example of _____ growth.
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perichondrium; appositional
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Osteoprogenitor cells become _____, which become _____. _____, on the other hand, have a different cell lineage.
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osteoblasts; osteocytes; osteoclasts
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The bone matrix has a mineralized portion and an portion with no mineral. What is the most abundant mineral? What is the unmineralized portion called?
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Hyrdoxyapatite. The osteoid has no mineral.
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What is the difference between mineralization and calcification?
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Calcification can occur in any tissue and involves calcium carbonite. Mineralization refers to addition of hydroxyapatite to bone.
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What kind of fibers are in bone?
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Type 1 collagen
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What are the two portions of the long bone that contain spongy bone? What separates them?
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The epiphysis and the metaphysis both contain spongy bone. They are separated by the epiphyseal or growth plate.
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A Haversian system is also called an _____.
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osteon
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The ____ layer of the periosteum contains abundant collagen fibers and blood vessels that penetrate _________.
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outer; Volkmann's canals.
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Volkmann's canals are perpendicular to _______.
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Haversian tubules
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The inner layer of the periosteum contains_____ cells.
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osteoprogenitor
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Sharpey's fibers are collagen that projects from the outer layer of the periosteum into the ______.
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outer circumferential lamellar system
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The boudary of an osteon is called the _____.
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cement line
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The bone matrix is __% inorganic and __% organic.
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65; 35
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The organic part of bone has which three main components?
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Type 1 collagen, glycoaminoglycans, and non-collagenous proteins
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What are the three non-collagenous bone proteins we were told to remember?
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osteocalcin, osteopontin, and osteonectin
|
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What does osteonectin do?
|
It may regulate mineralization.
|
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What does osteocalcin do? Which vitamin is necessary for its expression?
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It binds calcium in bone. Vitamin D3. (No D3 leads to rickets.)
|
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What does osteopontin do?
|
It makes new blood vessels in bone. Attaches bone to osteoclast.
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Osteoblasts are positive for ___ and osteoclasts are positive for ____.
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AP; TRAP
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How can you distinguish an osteoclast on a slide?
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It is multinucleated.
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An osteocyte in the matrix will extend cell processes into the _____ to get nutrition.
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canaliculi
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___ junctions are present at the points of osteocyte processes.
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Gap
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Describe how the ostelclast is sealed to the bone.
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Actin from the cell attaches to osteopontin in the bone via an integrin.
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The hole that the osteoclast sits in is called ______.
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Howship's lacuna or the subosteoclastic compartment
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____ create an acidic environment in Howship's lacuna.
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Protons
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Bicarbonate is exchanged for _____ which enters Howship's lacuna.
|
chloride ions
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Dissolved ______ acid in Howship's lacuna breaks down _____.
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hydrochloric; hydroxyapatite
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Which two things bind to the RANKL on the osteoblast?
|
1. The RANK receptor of the osteoclast precursor binds with less affinity
2. Osteoprotegerin, produced by the osteoblast itself, binds with greater affinity |
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Parathyroid hormone ____ the synthesis of osteoprotegerin.
|
blocks
|
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When levels of PTH are low, will more or less functional osteoclasts be produced?
|
Less. Less PTH means MORE osteoprotegerin. More osteoprotegerin means LESS RANKL for osteoclast precursors.
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What is osteopenia?
|
Decreased calcification or density of bone.
|
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What is osteoporosis?
|
Progressive reduction of quantity of bone.
|
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What is osteopetrosis?
|
Excessive formation of dense, trabecullar bone, meaning the marrow becomes filled with spongy bone.
|
|
In a nutshell, how is intramembranous ossification different from endochondrial ossification
|
During intramembranous ossification, bone is formed directly from mesenchyme as opposed to endochonrdrial ossification, where bone replaces hyaline cartilage.
|
|
What does hedgehog do?
|
It's one of the proteins involved in the aggregation of mesenchymal cells during intramembranous ossification. It also stimulates chondrocyte proliferation during endochondrial bone growth.
|
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During intramembranous ossification, a group of mesenchymal cells become ostecytes surrounded by osteoid. What is this structure called?
|
a bone blastema
|
|
Where is the primary ossification center in a long bone?
|
At the midpoint of the shaft.
|
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The periosteal bone collar extends along the _____.
|
diaphysis
|
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Blood vessels in the primary ossification center form the ______.
|
periosteal bud
|
|
Where are secondary ossification centers?
|
In both of the epiphyses.
|
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During endochondral ossification, there are several zones of cartilage. Name them (in order from epiphysis).
|
Epiphysis, reserve zone, proliferative zone, hypertrophic zone, vascular invasion zone.
|
|
What is happening in the reserve, proliferative, and hypertrophic zones?
|
Reserve - cartilage advances
Proliferative - chondrocytes align into colums hypertrophic - cells get big and then die. The matrix is calcified. |
|
A group of chondrocytes that share a territorial matrix is called a ____. (It's an isogenous group of cells.)
|
chondron
|
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The ___ of chondrocytes in the proliferative zone will dilate because they contain ____.
|
RER; matrix proteins
|
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After _____ of chondrocytes in the hypertrophic zones, transverse and longitudinal septa become ____. Invading osteoblasts deposit ____ on the calcified matrix.
|
apoptosis; calcified; osteoid
|
|
Cbfa1 deficiency leads to what?
|
Lack of ossification. Cleinocranial dysplasia.
|
|
Two kinds of non-synovial joints.
|
Fibrous (eg skull sutures)
Cartilaginous (eg vetebral bodies) |
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The joint capsule is lined with ___ and attaches to the edges of the ______. It is continuous with the ____.
|
synovial membrane; articular hyaline cartilage; periosteum
|
|
Rheumatoid arthritis results from _____ overgrowth.
|
synovial
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A muscle is a bunch of bundles together. Those bundles are called ____ and each one is covered in connective tissue called _____.
|
fascicles; perimysium
|
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A fascicle is a bundle of _____, each of which is covered in ____.
|
muscle fibers; endomysium
|
|
____ is the connective tissue coating that covers a whole muscle.
|
Epimysium
|
|
A fascicle contains many muscle fibers, just as a muscle fibers contain several _____.
|
myofibrils
|
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What are the two major "bands" of the myofibril?
|
A and I. I is LIght. A is dArk.
|
|
What are the two areas within the I and A bands of the myofibril?
|
H and Z. H is in the middle of A. Z is in the middle of I
AHA IZI |
|
_____ run from Z line to Z line.
|
Sarcomeres
|
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What is cytoplasm called in muscle?
|
sarcoplasm
|
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The I band contains only "thin" ____ filaments.
|
actin
|
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What is the line in the middle of the H band?
|
the M line
|
|
The H zone contains only "thick" ____ filaments.
|
myosin
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The A band represents the overlap of ____ and ____.
|
myosin and actin
|
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Which filaments have the "motors" to power muscle contraction?
|
myosin
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The M line is where the _____ connect with one annother.
|
myosin filaments
|
|
What does the T-tubule system regulate? What membrane is it continuous with?
|
the availability of calcium. Continuous with the sarcolemma
|
|
The _____ is a meshwork that extends on either side of the T-tubules.
|
sarcoplasmic reticulum
|
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The T tubule is right at the junction of the ____ and ____.
|
A band; I band
|
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_____ is a thread that circles actin and covers the spots on actin where _____ would like to bind.
|
Tropomyosin; myosin
|
|
____ is a complex of proteins that sense calcium and move tropomyosin.
|
Troponin
|
|
Calcium pulls up the troponin, shifting the entire _____ thread, allowing _____ to bind to _____.
|
tropomyosin; myosin; actin
|
|
A motor unit is a _____ and all the ____ it innervates.
|
motor neuron; muscle fibers
|
|
Small motor units (~5 fibers in one unit) are involved in _______ control.
|
fine motor
|
|
If muscle fibers cannot divide, how does muscle regenerate when it is destroyed?
|
satellite cells become new muscle cells or fuse to existing fibers
|
|
What is an indicator of muscle repair?
|
You will cell nuclei in the center of muscle fibers.
|
|
During atrophy, muscle ____ are eliminated via ____.
|
nuclei; apoptosis.
|
|
During muscle _____, nuclei are added to a fiber.
|
hypertrophy
|
|
Cardiac muscle has _____ discs and is ___nucleated.
|
intercalated; mono
|
|
On the longitudinal side of cardiac muscle are ___ links.
|
ionic
|
|
Smooth muscle is ___nucleated. Instead of regular Z-lines, filaments are connected by irregular _____.
|
mono; dense bodies
|
|
The ____ of smooth muscle contain dense lipid rafts.
|
caveoli
|
|
____ muscle and ____ muscle both have gap junctions between them and are electrically coupled.
|
Cardiac; smooth
|
|
_____ neurons go from the PNS to the CNS. ____ go from the the CNS to the PNS.
|
Afferent; efferent
|
|
Any cells in the nervous system that are not neurons are _____.
|
supporting cells
|
|
The soma of the neuron receives information via ____.
|
dendrites
|
|
What are the three types of neurons based on number of fibers from the soma?
|
multipolar (most common), bipolar, and pseudounipoloar
|
|
Bipolar neurons are associated with ___ systems.
|
sensory
|
|
Pseudounipolar neurons are associated with sensory ganglia of ___ and ___ nerves.
|
cranial; spinal
|
|
At the origin of the axon, you will see an absence of _____.
|
Nissl bodies
|
|
The _____ are at the terminal region of the axon.
|
teleodendria
|
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At the end of the teleodendria are the ______ or ____.
|
synaptic terminals; boutons
|
|
At a synapse where the presynaptic cell's axon connects with the postsynaptic cell's dendrite, the type of synapse is termed _____.
|
axodendritic
|
|
When the membrane potential becomes less ____, it can become depolarized.
|
negative___
|
|
_____ is a protein that helps synaptic vesicles travel along the microtubules of the axon to the synaptic terminal.
|
Kinesin
|
|
____ is a protein that helps the empty synaptic vesicles travel from the synaptic terminal back to the soma.
|
dynein
|
|
The support cells of the CNS are called ___ cells.
|
glial
|
|
Schwann cells are found in the _NS.
|
P
|
|
Schwann cells boost the signal by making ____ conduction possible.
|
saltatory
|
|
The connective tissue that covers the outer layer of a nerve is called ____.
|
epineurium
|
|
The connective tissue that covers fascicles of neurons is called ____.
|
perineurium
|
|
The connective tissue that covers a single neuron is called _____.
|
endoneurium
|
|
Multiple axons can be protected by a single Schwann cell by nestling beneath their _____.
|
basal lamina
|
|
What kind of neurons are found in the dorsal root ganglia?
|
The are sensory, pseudounipolar, and myelinated (not by Schwann). They are afferent.
|
|
What kind of neurons are found in the ventral root ganglia.
|
They are efferent, autonomic, multipolar, and mostly unmyelinated.
|
|
What kind of cells myelinate the neurons of the CNS?
|
oligodendrocytes. They myelinate multiple axons.
|
|
What do astrocytes do?
|
They aid in the exchange of nutrients, gases, and metabolites with capillaries. (blood-brain barrier)
|
|
What do microglia do?
|
They are the macrophages (immune system) of the CNS.
|
|
What are the formed elements of blood?
|
RBCs WBs platelets
|
|
What is the major component of plasma? The second most major?
|
Water. Proteins.
|
|
What is a hematocrit? What is the usual value?
|
It's the %RBCs by volume. It's usually about 42-47%.
|
|
If you try to measure the hematocrit of blood without anticoagulant, what will happen?
|
The blood will clot.
|
|
What is the difference between plasma and serum?
|
Serum lacks fibrinogen.
|
|
Platelets are fragments of _______.
|
megakaryocytes
|
|
Platelets release their ____ contents to cause vasoconstriction and fibrin clot formation.
|
granule
|
|
Megakaryocytes are not in the blood vessels, but in the ____. Small pieces called ____ break off into the vessels.
|
bone marrow; platelets
|
|
Life span of an erythrocyte.
|
~120 days
|
|
What are the two general histological categories of leukocytes?
|
agranulocytes and granulocytes
|
|
What two types of agranulocytes did we dicuss?
|
lymphocytes and monocytes
|
|
What three types of graulocytes did we discuss?
|
Neutrophils (PMNs), basophils, and eosinophils
|
|
Which granulocytes have a red appearance when stained? Blue?
|
Eosinophils: red
Basophils: blue (neutrophils: neutral) |
|
Too many WBCs is an indication of what pathology?
|
leukemias
|
|
Which type of wbc has a multi-lobed nucleus?
|
neutrophils
|
|
Which kind of wbc is most numerous?
|
neutrophil (50-70%)
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Eosinophils have _____ nuclei. By phagocytizing Ab-Ag complexes, they aid in the ___ response. The action of histaminase counteracts the action of the _____ cells.
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bi-lobed; immune; basophils
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_____ attack the membranes of parasitic worms.
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Eosinophils
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Basophils are involved in the ____ response.
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allergic
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Both ___ and ___have bi-lobed nuclei.
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eosinophils; basophils
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The most common agranulocytes are ____.
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lymphocytes
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What are the two kinds of lymphocytes? Which is most numerous?
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T and B. T is more numerous.
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What are the kinds of T-lymphocytes?
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cytotoxic, T-helper, and T-suppressor
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T- lymphocytes are involved in _____ immunity, whereas B-lymphocytes are involved in _____ immunity.
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cell-mediated; humoral
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_____ are both phagocytic and chemotactic.
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Monocytes
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Monocytes can different into _____ upon entering connective tissue.
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macrophages
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Osteoclasts, Langerhans cells, and microglia are all derived from ____ precursors.
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monocyte
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Put these in order, small to large:
WBCs, platelets, RBCs |
platelets < RBCs < WBCs
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Put the 5 kinds of WBCs we discussed in order by size, small to large.
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lymphocyte < neutrophil < eosinophil < basophil < monocyte
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The antibacterial substance _____ is found in both saliva and tears.
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lysozyme
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Along with protective surface mechanisms, vetebrates use two kinds of immunity mechanisms called _____ immunity and ____ immunity.
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innate; acquired
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___ immunity does not require previous contact with the pathogen.
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Innate
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Inflammation is an ___ immune response caused by the ____ cells. Pus is dead ____.
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innate; neutrophil; neutrophils
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Neutrophils slow down in the vessel by rolling. ____ on the surface of the endothelium help slow the neutrophils.
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Selectins
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Selectins cause the neutrophils to start presenting ____ on their surfaces.
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integrins
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After the selectin phase comes the _____, during which the neutrophil migrates through the basement lamina into the tissue.
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integrin phase
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The selectin recognizes a _____ on the surface of the neutrophil.
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glycoprotein
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____ is any molecule or substance that binds to particulate Ag or bacteria, inducing and amplifying the phagocytic process.
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Opsonin
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Foreign material is internalized into the phagosome through a process known as _____.
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"zippering"
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The ____ fuses with the phagosome and releases lytic eznymes to degrade foreign material.
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secondary lysosome
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The larger blood vessels all have what three layers?
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tunica adventitia, tunica media, and tunica intima
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The "resistance vessels" are ___.
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arterioles
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The "exchange vessels" are ___.
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capillaries
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The blood vessel under the lowest pressure ifs the ____. Under the most pressure is the ____.
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vena cava; aorta
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The tunica intima has what three layers?
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1. endothelium
2. subendothelial connective tissue 3. internal elastic lamina (usually arteries only) |
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What are the three components of the the tunica media?
|
1. smooth muscle cells
2. elastin/collagen 3. +/- external elastic lamella |
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How does the tunica media of an artery differ from that of a vein?
|
It's much thicker.
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What is vasa vasorum?
|
It's a blood vessel WITHIN another blood vessel. (For larger arteries and veins.)
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|
Three components of tunica adventitia.
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1. Fibroblasts
2. Fibroelastic CT 3. Vasa vasorum |
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The aorta has a ____ intima and ___ media.
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thin; thick
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As you move away from the aorta and other elastic arteries, you get to the ____ arteries, which have an increase in ______ and a decrease in _____.
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muscular; smooth muscle cells; elastin
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A metarteriole has interrupted smooth muscle cells surrounding its endothelium and transports blood across the _______.
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capillary bed
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What are the three kinds of capillary structure? Which is typical?
|
Continuous (most common), fenesrated, and discontinuous
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|
In the liver, you may find capillaries with a ____ structure.
|
discontinuous
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Lymphocytes can migrate into tissue via the _______ venules.
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postcapillary
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Desmosine and ______ are special covalent bonds present in _____.
|
elastic fibers
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Mast cells and _____ derive from the same progenitor in the bone marrow.
|
basophils
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_____ contain secretory vesicles rich in heparin and histamine.
|
Mast cells
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