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260 Cards in this Set

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magnification(M) = _____ * _____
Objective lens; eyepiece lens
Resoluton(r) =
0.16lambda / NA

where
lambda = light wavelength in micrometers
NA = numerical aperture of a lens
Lower values of r represent ______ resolution.
higher
What is the range of the visible light spectrum?
Wavelengths about 390-750 nm.
What formula were we given for "real life" calculation of resolution?
r = 1.22lambda/(NAobj +NAcond)
NA =
NA=nsina

where a is the angle corresponding to half the width of the cone of light collected by the lens

and n is the refractive index of the object through which it travels
What is the refractive index of air? Is the refractive index of oil higher or lower?
The refractive index of air is 1. Oil's is 1.4.
In real life, r is usually greater than ____ and NA is less than ____.
.25um; 1.35
Proteins destined for secretion are synthesized in the ____. Proteins destined to remain in the cell are synthesized in ______.
RER; polysomes
Proteins enter the Golgi through its __ face and exit through its ___ face.
cis; trans
optimal lysosome pH
5.0
Centrioles are microtubule organizing centers for the ________. Centrioles have __ triplets of microtubules.
mitotic spindle; 9
Put in order of smallest to largest:
actin, microtubules, myosin, intermediate
actin (8um) < intermediate (10um) <myosin (15um) < microtubules (20-25 um)
___ stiffens the cell membrane and provides support for villi. They are also sites of membrane attachment to extracellular matrix proteins
Microfilaments (actin)
The keratin in epithelium, the vimentin in connective tissue, and the desmin in muscle are all ____.
composed of intermediate filaments
Microtubules are heterodimers of alpha and beta _____. They consist of __ protofilaments surrounding an empty core.
tubulin; 13
Which element of the cytoskeleton forms specialized structures involved in subcellular movements such as cilia, flagella, basal bodies of cilia, mitotic spindles, and centrioles?
microtubules
4 tissue types
epithelium, connective, muscle, nerve
Epithelium has no direct _____, and therefore, uses nutrition by ____.
vascularization; diffusion
Which epithelium is derived from ectoderm?
skin, oral/nasal cavity, anal canal
Which epithelium is derived from endotoderm?
lining of digestive and respiratory systems, pancreas, liver
Which epithelium is derived from mesoderm?
blood vessel endothelium, mesothelium, kidney and gonad epithelium
Give three examples of specialization of the apical surfaces of epithelium.
cilia, microvilli, stereocilia
Microvilli increase ______ and facilitate ______. Their core is composed of _______.
cell surface area; absorption; actin filaments
Sterocilia are similar to what? What is the special function of stereocilia?
They are similar to microvilli. They facilitate sperm maturation in the epididymis.
What is an axoneme?
An axoneme is the cytoskeletal structure that is at the core of cilia and flagella.
What are the two main components of the cilia axoneme? How are they arranged?
Its main components are microtubules and dynein. There are nine pairs (one A, one B) of tubules with inner and outer dynein arms oriented in a counterclockwise ring. This ring surrounds an inner core of two microtubles.
What are the three types of epithelial cell junctions?
Occluding (tight), anchoring, and gap (communicating)
What are the three kinds of epithelial anchoring junctions?
1. Zona adherens (belt desmosome)
2. Macula adherens (spot desmosome)
3. Hemidesmosome
Which types of epithelial cell junctions are associated with cytoskeletal components? Which component is associated with each?
The three types of anchoring junctions.

Zona adherens (belt desmosomes) are associated with actin.

Macula (spot) and hemidesmosomes are associated with intermediate filaments.
_____ and _____ junctions are NOT associated with cytoskeletal components.
Occluding; gap
Which type of junction links the basal surface of the cell to the basal lamina?
hemidesmosome
Which type of junction prevents apical membrane proteins from migrating to the lateral cell surface?
occluding
The ____ adherens is usually found below the occluding junctions. This type of junction is associated with ____ filaments.
zona; actin
A zona adherens can attach the cell to the ________ through an adhesion plaque.
extracellular matrix
Spot desmosomes are found on ____ cell surfaces. Intracellularly, they are linked to ____ filaments.
lateral; keratin (intermediate)
How big are the intercellular spaces of Zona adherens junctions? Macula adherens junctions?
Zona: 20 nm
Macula: 24 nm
Hemidesmosomes anchor the cell to the basal lamina using transcellular proteins known as ____.
integrins
What is a connexon?
It is a transmembrane cylinder made of 6 connexin proteins. It is the structure of the gap junction in epithelial cells. It communicates via the passage of small molecules such as Ca2+.
If one connexon releases Ca2+ to the connexon of an adjacent cell, what might happen? (common example, given in lecture)
The second messenger cAMP could be activated.
Epithelium can be classified as ___ or ____ based on the number of cell layers.
simple; complex (stratified)
What are the three shapes of epithelial surface cells?
squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
What kind of simple epithelium is involved in gas exchange? Where can it be found?
simple squamous. Lining of blood vessels
What kind of simple epithelium lines ducts?
simple cuboidal
What kind of simple epithelium lines intestines?
simple columnar
What kind of epithelium has an oval, basal nucleus?
simple columnar
The microvilli of the small intestine form a _______.
brush border
Stratified squamous epithelium can be either keratinizing or non-keratinizing. What is the difference (how can you tell)?
In non-keratinizing epithelium, the outermost layer of cells retains a nucleus. In keratinizing epithelium, those cells will not have nuclei.
What kind of epithelium lines the respiratory tract?
Pseudo-stratified, ciliated, columnar
What is the function of transitional epithelium? Where is it found? What kind of cells compose it?
It is modified to accommodate distention. It is found in the urinary tract. It is stratified columnar or squamous (depending on the state) epithelium.
A primary epidermal ridge overlies a _____. In my estimation, it has three parts. Name them.
dermal papilla.

The interpapillary peg is in the middle. There is a secondary epidermal ridge on each side.
A primary dermal papilla is subdivided into two ________ by a downgrowth of the ________.
secondary dermal papillae; epidermal interpapillary peg
What are the three cell types in skin epidermis?
keratinocytes, melanocytes, and Langerhans cells
Describe the structure and function of the Langerhans cell.
This is a dendritic cell formed from a bone marrow precursor. It presents antigens to T-lymphocytes.
What are the first cells (embryologically) to arrive in the epidermis?
melanocytes
Melanocytes produce ____, which is absorbed by keratinocytes.
melanin
No _____ exist between melanocytes and keratinocytes.
desmosomes
The ______ is the outermost layer of the epidermis composed of dead skin cells lacking nuclei.
stratum corneum
Epidermolysis bullosa simplex, epidermolytic hyperkeratosis, and epidermolytic plantopalmar keratoderma and result from mutations of what?
Keratin (intermediate) filaments. Each disease causes mutations of a different kind of keratin, affecting different layers of the epidermis.
What are the two kinds of cells found in connective tissue?
1. resident/fixed (fibroblasts, adipocytes)

2. transient/wandering/immigrant (macrophages, plasma cells, mast cells)
What are the two components of the extracellular matrix of connective tissue?
1. ground substance (proteoglycans)

2. fibers (collagen, elastin, microfibrils)
What is the embryonic precursor of connective tissue?
mesenchyme
What kind of connective tissue is often found in the mucosa and submucosa of organs?
loose (areolar)
What kind of connective tissue is found in the dermis?
dense irregular
In dense irregular tissue, there is no preferential ______.
line of stress
What kind of connective tissue is typical of tendons and ligaments>
dense regular
Where will you find reticular tissue (example given in class)? What does it do there? What is a structural characteristic to take note of?
It is found in the lymph nodes. It allows the movement of lymphoid cells in and out of organs. It is mostly fibers of type 3 collagen
What kind of connective tissue is found in the walls of arteries?
elastic tissue
Basic location of collagen types 1, 2 and 3.
1. Most abundant (skin, bone, ligaments, dentine, etc)
2. cartilage
3. reticular
Name four cell types that synthesize collagen.
fibroblasts, osteoblasts, chondroblasts, odontoblasts
Scurvy is a disease of collagen defect and results from _____ deficiency. How does deficiency affect collagen?
Vitamin C. Vitamin C helps the collagen remain in a helix.
The squiggly black lines are probably ____.
elastin
You will not see pure elastin. Elastin is deposited onto a scaffold of _____.
fibrillin (microfibrils)
What is hyaluronic acid?
It is a glycosaminoglycan found in most connective tissue ECM.
What is keratan sulfate?
It is a glycosaminoglycan found in the cartilage, cornea, and intervertebral disks in the ECM of the connective tissue.
What are proteoglycans?
They are extracellular protein complexes of glycosaminoglycans.
What is at the core of a proteoglycan aggregate?
A hyaluronan molecule.
What are the common names of unilocular and multilocular adipocytes?
Unilocular adipocytes are white (or yellow) fat and multilocular adipocytes are brown fat.
What makes brown fat brown/red?
mitochondria
What is the main function of white fat? Brown fat?
White fat stores lipids. Brown fat is involved in thermogenesis.
Looking at a slide, how can you tell the difference between brown and white fat?
White fat has one big lipid droplet, whereas lipid droplets are scattered throughout brown fat cells.
What kind of fat might you find more of newborns near the scapula and in hibernating animals?
brown fat
What does a chondroblast become when its ability to divide is lost?
a chondrocyte
What kind of collagen is in the fibers of cartilage?
Type II - elastine and hyaline

Type I and Type II - fibrocartilage
Most cartilage is surrounded by _____.
perichondrium
Cartilage is _____. Nutrition takes place by diffusion.
avascular
In addition to adipocytes, _____ have lipid droplets.
chondrocytes
What surrounds the lacunae of cartilage? What is the inner ring of this called?
The territorial matrix surrounds the lacunae. Its inner ring is called the lacunar rim.
What are aggrecan, verican, and decorin?
These are the most common proteoglycans in the ECM of cartilage.
What kind of cartilage is the embryonic skeleton?
hyaline
_______ is replaced with bone during endochondrial ossification.
Hyaline cartilage
Where will you find hyaline cartilage in adults?
Nose, trachea, and joints.
In elastic cartilage , the volume of ____ is smaller than in other types. Chondrocytes are surrounded by _____.
extracellular matrix; elastic fibers
In adults, where do you find elastic cartilage?
External ear, epiglottis
In what kind of cartilage are chondrocytes aligned along lines of stress?
fibrocartilage
Which kind of cartilage is not surrounded by perichondria? Where is it found?
Fibrocartilage (intervertebral discs, TMJ), and articular cartilage (joints)
What is a group of daughter cells in a single cartilage lacuna called?
an isogenous group
In cartilage, the chondrogenic layer is just beneath the ______. This is an example of _____ growth.
perichondrium; appositional
Osteoprogenitor cells become _____, which become _____. _____, on the other hand, have a different cell lineage.
osteoblasts; osteocytes; osteoclasts
The bone matrix has a mineralized portion and an portion with no mineral. What is the most abundant mineral? What is the unmineralized portion called?
Hyrdoxyapatite. The osteoid has no mineral.
What is the difference between mineralization and calcification?
Calcification can occur in any tissue and involves calcium carbonite. Mineralization refers to addition of hydroxyapatite to bone.
What kind of fibers are in bone?
Type 1 collagen
What are the two portions of the long bone that contain spongy bone? What separates them?
The epiphysis and the metaphysis both contain spongy bone. They are separated by the epiphyseal or growth plate.
A Haversian system is also called an _____.
osteon
The ____ layer of the periosteum contains abundant collagen fibers and blood vessels that penetrate _________.
outer; Volkmann's canals.
Volkmann's canals are perpendicular to _______.
Haversian tubules
The inner layer of the periosteum contains_____ cells.
osteoprogenitor
Sharpey's fibers are collagen that projects from the outer layer of the periosteum into the ______.
outer circumferential lamellar system
The boudary of an osteon is called the _____.
cement line
The bone matrix is __% inorganic and __% organic.
65; 35
The organic part of bone has which three main components?
Type 1 collagen, glycoaminoglycans, and non-collagenous proteins
What are the three non-collagenous bone proteins we were told to remember?
osteocalcin, osteopontin, and osteonectin
What does osteonectin do?
It may regulate mineralization.
What does osteocalcin do? Which vitamin is necessary for its expression?
It binds calcium in bone. Vitamin D3. (No D3 leads to rickets.)
What does osteopontin do?
It makes new blood vessels in bone. Attaches bone to osteoclast.
Osteoblasts are positive for ___ and osteoclasts are positive for ____.
AP; TRAP
How can you distinguish an osteoclast on a slide?
It is multinucleated.
An osteocyte in the matrix will extend cell processes into the _____ to get nutrition.
canaliculi
___ junctions are present at the points of osteocyte processes.
Gap
Describe how the ostelclast is sealed to the bone.
Actin from the cell attaches to osteopontin in the bone via an integrin.
The hole that the osteoclast sits in is called ______.
Howship's lacuna or the subosteoclastic compartment
____ create an acidic environment in Howship's lacuna.
Protons
Bicarbonate is exchanged for _____ which enters Howship's lacuna.
chloride ions
Dissolved ______ acid in Howship's lacuna breaks down _____.
hydrochloric; hydroxyapatite
Which two things bind to the RANKL on the osteoblast?
1. The RANK receptor of the osteoclast precursor binds with less affinity

2. Osteoprotegerin, produced by the osteoblast itself, binds with greater affinity
Parathyroid hormone ____ the synthesis of osteoprotegerin.
blocks
When levels of PTH are low, will more or less functional osteoclasts be produced?
Less. Less PTH means MORE osteoprotegerin. More osteoprotegerin means LESS RANKL for osteoclast precursors.
What is osteopenia?
Decreased calcification or density of bone.
What is osteoporosis?
Progressive reduction of quantity of bone.
What is osteopetrosis?
Excessive formation of dense, trabecullar bone, meaning the marrow becomes filled with spongy bone.
In a nutshell, how is intramembranous ossification different from endochondrial ossification
During intramembranous ossification, bone is formed directly from mesenchyme as opposed to endochonrdrial ossification, where bone replaces hyaline cartilage.
What does hedgehog do?
It's one of the proteins involved in the aggregation of mesenchymal cells during intramembranous ossification. It also stimulates chondrocyte proliferation during endochondrial bone growth.
During intramembranous ossification, a group of mesenchymal cells become ostecytes surrounded by osteoid. What is this structure called?
a bone blastema
Where is the primary ossification center in a long bone?
At the midpoint of the shaft.
The periosteal bone collar extends along the _____.
diaphysis
Blood vessels in the primary ossification center form the ______.
periosteal bud
Where are secondary ossification centers?
In both of the epiphyses.
During endochondral ossification, there are several zones of cartilage. Name them (in order from epiphysis).
Epiphysis, reserve zone, proliferative zone, hypertrophic zone, vascular invasion zone.
What is happening in the reserve, proliferative, and hypertrophic zones?
Reserve - cartilage advances
Proliferative - chondrocytes align into colums
hypertrophic - cells get big and then die. The matrix is calcified.
A group of chondrocytes that share a territorial matrix is called a ____. (It's an isogenous group of cells.)
chondron
The ___ of chondrocytes in the proliferative zone will dilate because they contain ____.
RER; matrix proteins
After _____ of chondrocytes in the hypertrophic zones, transverse and longitudinal septa become ____. Invading osteoblasts deposit ____ on the calcified matrix.
apoptosis; calcified; osteoid
Cbfa1 deficiency leads to what?
Lack of ossification. Cleinocranial dysplasia.
Two kinds of non-synovial joints.
Fibrous (eg skull sutures)

Cartilaginous (eg vetebral bodies)
The joint capsule is lined with ___ and attaches to the edges of the ______. It is continuous with the ____.
synovial membrane; articular hyaline cartilage; periosteum
Rheumatoid arthritis results from _____ overgrowth.
synovial
A muscle is a bunch of bundles together. Those bundles are called ____ and each one is covered in connective tissue called _____.
fascicles; perimysium
A fascicle is a bundle of _____, each of which is covered in ____.
muscle fibers; endomysium
____ is the connective tissue coating that covers a whole muscle.
Epimysium
A fascicle contains many muscle fibers, just as a muscle fibers contain several _____.
myofibrils
What are the two major "bands" of the myofibril?
A and I. I is LIght. A is dArk.
What are the two areas within the I and A bands of the myofibril?
H and Z. H is in the middle of A. Z is in the middle of I
AHA IZI
_____ run from Z line to Z line.
Sarcomeres
What is cytoplasm called in muscle?
sarcoplasm
The I band contains only "thin" ____ filaments.
actin
What is the line in the middle of the H band?
the M line
The H zone contains only "thick" ____ filaments.
myosin
The A band represents the overlap of ____ and ____.
myosin and actin
Which filaments have the "motors" to power muscle contraction?
myosin
The M line is where the _____ connect with one annother.
myosin filaments
What does the T-tubule system regulate? What membrane is it continuous with?
the availability of calcium. Continuous with the sarcolemma
The _____ is a meshwork that extends on either side of the T-tubules.
sarcoplasmic reticulum
The T tubule is right at the junction of the ____ and ____.
A band; I band
_____ is a thread that circles actin and covers the spots on actin where _____ would like to bind.
Tropomyosin; myosin
____ is a complex of proteins that sense calcium and move tropomyosin.
Troponin
Calcium pulls up the troponin, shifting the entire _____ thread, allowing _____ to bind to _____.
tropomyosin; myosin; actin
A motor unit is a _____ and all the ____ it innervates.
motor neuron; muscle fibers
Small motor units (~5 fibers in one unit) are involved in _______ control.
fine motor
If muscle fibers cannot divide, how does muscle regenerate when it is destroyed?
satellite cells become new muscle cells or fuse to existing fibers
What is an indicator of muscle repair?
You will cell nuclei in the center of muscle fibers.
During atrophy, muscle ____ are eliminated via ____.
nuclei; apoptosis.
During muscle _____, nuclei are added to a fiber.
hypertrophy
Cardiac muscle has _____ discs and is ___nucleated.
intercalated; mono
On the longitudinal side of cardiac muscle are ___ links.
ionic
Smooth muscle is ___nucleated. Instead of regular Z-lines, filaments are connected by irregular _____.
mono; dense bodies
The ____ of smooth muscle contain dense lipid rafts.
caveoli
____ muscle and ____ muscle both have gap junctions between them and are electrically coupled.
Cardiac; smooth
_____ neurons go from the PNS to the CNS. ____ go from the the CNS to the PNS.
Afferent; efferent
Any cells in the nervous system that are not neurons are _____.
supporting cells
The soma of the neuron receives information via ____.
dendrites
What are the three types of neurons based on number of fibers from the soma?
multipolar (most common), bipolar, and pseudounipoloar
Bipolar neurons are associated with ___ systems.
sensory
Pseudounipolar neurons are associated with sensory ganglia of ___ and ___ nerves.
cranial; spinal
At the origin of the axon, you will see an absence of _____.
Nissl bodies
The _____ are at the terminal region of the axon.
teleodendria
At the end of the teleodendria are the ______ or ____.
synaptic terminals; boutons
At a synapse where the presynaptic cell's axon connects with the postsynaptic cell's dendrite, the type of synapse is termed _____.
axodendritic
When the membrane potential becomes less ____, it can become depolarized.
negative___
_____ is a protein that helps synaptic vesicles travel along the microtubules of the axon to the synaptic terminal.
Kinesin
____ is a protein that helps the empty synaptic vesicles travel from the synaptic terminal back to the soma.
dynein
The support cells of the CNS are called ___ cells.
glial
Schwann cells are found in the _NS.
P
Schwann cells boost the signal by making ____ conduction possible.
saltatory
The connective tissue that covers the outer layer of a nerve is called ____.
epineurium
The connective tissue that covers fascicles of neurons is called ____.
perineurium
The connective tissue that covers a single neuron is called _____.
endoneurium
Multiple axons can be protected by a single Schwann cell by nestling beneath their _____.
basal lamina
What kind of neurons are found in the dorsal root ganglia?
The are sensory, pseudounipolar, and myelinated (not by Schwann). They are afferent.
What kind of neurons are found in the ventral root ganglia.
They are efferent, autonomic, multipolar, and mostly unmyelinated.
What kind of cells myelinate the neurons of the CNS?
oligodendrocytes. They myelinate multiple axons.
What do astrocytes do?
They aid in the exchange of nutrients, gases, and metabolites with capillaries. (blood-brain barrier)
What do microglia do?
They are the macrophages (immune system) of the CNS.
What are the formed elements of blood?
RBCs WBs platelets
What is the major component of plasma? The second most major?
Water. Proteins.
What is a hematocrit? What is the usual value?
It's the %RBCs by volume. It's usually about 42-47%.
If you try to measure the hematocrit of blood without anticoagulant, what will happen?
The blood will clot.
What is the difference between plasma and serum?
Serum lacks fibrinogen.
Platelets are fragments of _______.
megakaryocytes
Platelets release their ____ contents to cause vasoconstriction and fibrin clot formation.
granule
Megakaryocytes are not in the blood vessels, but in the ____. Small pieces called ____ break off into the vessels.
bone marrow; platelets
Life span of an erythrocyte.
~120 days
What are the two general histological categories of leukocytes?
agranulocytes and granulocytes
What two types of agranulocytes did we dicuss?
lymphocytes and monocytes
What three types of graulocytes did we discuss?
Neutrophils (PMNs), basophils, and eosinophils
Which granulocytes have a red appearance when stained? Blue?
Eosinophils: red
Basophils: blue

(neutrophils: neutral)
Too many WBCs is an indication of what pathology?
leukemias
Which type of wbc has a multi-lobed nucleus?
neutrophils
Which kind of wbc is most numerous?
neutrophil (50-70%)
Eosinophils have _____ nuclei. By phagocytizing Ab-Ag complexes, they aid in the ___ response. The action of histaminase counteracts the action of the _____ cells.
bi-lobed; immune; basophils
_____ attack the membranes of parasitic worms.
Eosinophils
Basophils are involved in the ____ response.
allergic
Both ___ and ___have bi-lobed nuclei.
eosinophils; basophils
The most common agranulocytes are ____.
lymphocytes
What are the two kinds of lymphocytes? Which is most numerous?
T and B. T is more numerous.
What are the kinds of T-lymphocytes?
cytotoxic, T-helper, and T-suppressor
T- lymphocytes are involved in _____ immunity, whereas B-lymphocytes are involved in _____ immunity.
cell-mediated; humoral
_____ are both phagocytic and chemotactic.
Monocytes
Monocytes can different into _____ upon entering connective tissue.
macrophages
Osteoclasts, Langerhans cells, and microglia are all derived from ____ precursors.
monocyte
Put these in order, small to large:
WBCs, platelets, RBCs
platelets < RBCs < WBCs
Put the 5 kinds of WBCs we discussed in order by size, small to large.
lymphocyte < neutrophil < eosinophil < basophil < monocyte
The antibacterial substance _____ is found in both saliva and tears.
lysozyme
Along with protective surface mechanisms, vetebrates use two kinds of immunity mechanisms called _____ immunity and ____ immunity.
innate; acquired
___ immunity does not require previous contact with the pathogen.
Innate
Inflammation is an ___ immune response caused by the ____ cells. Pus is dead ____.
innate; neutrophil; neutrophils
Neutrophils slow down in the vessel by rolling. ____ on the surface of the endothelium help slow the neutrophils.
Selectins
Selectins cause the neutrophils to start presenting ____ on their surfaces.
integrins
After the selectin phase comes the _____, during which the neutrophil migrates through the basement lamina into the tissue.
integrin phase
The selectin recognizes a _____ on the surface of the neutrophil.
glycoprotein
____ is any molecule or substance that binds to particulate Ag or bacteria, inducing and amplifying the phagocytic process.
Opsonin
Foreign material is internalized into the phagosome through a process known as _____.
"zippering"
The ____ fuses with the phagosome and releases lytic eznymes to degrade foreign material.
secondary lysosome
The larger blood vessels all have what three layers?
tunica adventitia, tunica media, and tunica intima
The "resistance vessels" are ___.
arterioles
The "exchange vessels" are ___.
capillaries
The blood vessel under the lowest pressure ifs the ____. Under the most pressure is the ____.
vena cava; aorta
The tunica intima has what three layers?
1. endothelium
2. subendothelial connective tissue
3. internal elastic lamina (usually arteries only)
What are the three components of the the tunica media?
1. smooth muscle cells
2. elastin/collagen
3. +/- external elastic lamella
How does the tunica media of an artery differ from that of a vein?
It's much thicker.
What is vasa vasorum?
It's a blood vessel WITHIN another blood vessel. (For larger arteries and veins.)
Three components of tunica adventitia.
1. Fibroblasts
2. Fibroelastic CT
3. Vasa vasorum
The aorta has a ____ intima and ___ media.
thin; thick
As you move away from the aorta and other elastic arteries, you get to the ____ arteries, which have an increase in ______ and a decrease in _____.
muscular; smooth muscle cells; elastin
A metarteriole has interrupted smooth muscle cells surrounding its endothelium and transports blood across the _______.
capillary bed
What are the three kinds of capillary structure? Which is typical?
Continuous (most common), fenesrated, and discontinuous
In the liver, you may find capillaries with a ____ structure.
discontinuous
Lymphocytes can migrate into tissue via the _______ venules.
postcapillary
Desmosine and ______ are special covalent bonds present in _____.
elastic fibers
Mast cells and _____ derive from the same progenitor in the bone marrow.
basophils
_____ contain secretory vesicles rich in heparin and histamine.
Mast cells