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139 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Is histamine a drug?

no

Why is histamine important?

for it's physiological and pathophysiological actions

What histamine drugs have therapeutic value?

drugs that inhibit its release or block its receptors

What does histamine mean?

tissue amine

What kind of compound is histamine?

nitrogen

What do Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions look like?

rash on back


whelps on back

What kind of amine is histamine?

low molecular weight hydrophilic amine

Histamines belong to a class of _______ receptors

G-protein coupled receptors

Histamine is an important mediator of?

inflammation with allergies

Does histamine cross the BBB?

no

Where is histamine found in the body?

large amounts in the skin, lungs, GI tract, and basophils

What is the precursor to histamine?

histadine

This is released in response to an antigen?

stored histadine

Stored histadine is released in response to an?

antigen

What is an antigen?

any substance that causes your immune system to produce antibodies it. (cat dander)

What s/s does local application of histamine cause?

swelling, redness, and edema mimicking amild anti-inflammatory reaction.

What changes do large systemic doses of histamine lead to?

vascular changes similar to those seen after shock or anaphylaxis origin

Within the body, the largest concentrations of histamine are found in?

skin, lungs, GI tract

How is histamine metabolized?

Two ways



Pathway 1. methylaztion catalyzed by histamine-N-methyltransferase which is furter degraded by MAO.



Pathway 2. histamine undergoes oxidative deamination catalyzed by diamine oxidase.

What happens to histamine once it is formed?

it is either stored in mast cells or rapidly degraded by one of the two metabolic pathways

Both routes of metabolism lead to a pharmacologically inactive metabolite that is excreted how?

renal

What are 3 conditions that release histamine?

1. tissue injury


2. allergic reactions


3. drugs and other foreign compounds

What causes a tissue injury?

any physical or chemical agent that injures tissue, skin, or mucosa is particularly sensitive to injury and will cause the immediate release of histamine from mast cells.

How does an allergic reaction cause the release of histamine?

exposure of an antigen to a previously sensitized subject can immediately trigger allergic reactions.

Name some drugs and foreign compounds that cause the release of histamine.

morphine, dextran, antimalarial drugs, dyes, antibiotic bases, alkaloids, amides, quaternary ammonium compounds, enzymes (phospholipase C).


Penicillins, Tetracyclines


Basic drugs- amides, amidines, diamidines, Toxins, venoms, Proteolytic enzymes, Bradykinin, Kallidin, & Substance P

What immunoglobulin plays a pivitol role in allergic conditions?

IgE

What are some mild or cutaneous symptoms associated with histamine release?


urticaria (hives)


itching


erythema

What are some mild to moderate symptoms associated with histamine release?

skin reactions


tachycardia


dysrhythmias


mild respiratory distress


moderate hypotension

What are some severe or anaphylactic symptoms associated with histamine release?

ventricular fibrillations


bronchospams


respiratory arrest


severe hypotension


cardiac arrest

Histamine 1 receptors cause what changes in the body?

smooth muscle contraction in the GI and respiratory tract

Histamine 1 receptors are associated with what body changes?

sneezing and pruritus

Histamine receptors are indicated in these s/s?

tachycardia


hypotension


flushing


headache

Histamine 1 receptors in the heart can cause what s/s?

vasoconstriction in coronary epicardial vessels



decrease AV node conduction

Histamine 1 receptors work on?

smooth muscle, endothelium, & CNS causing bronchoconstriction and vasodilation??


pain


itching


allergic rhinitis


motion sickness

How does the histamine 2 receptor affect the heart and GI system?

stimulation results in increased GI hydrogen ion secretion



in the heart it increases myocardial contraction and HR

How can histamine cause confusion when cimetidine is taken?

histamine 2 is found in the CNS

Where is histamine 2 found?

CNS


gastric parietal cells


vascular smooth muscle


basophils

What does histamine 2 regulate?

gastric acid

Where is histamine 3 expressed?

CNS

How does histamine work in the CNS?

works presynaptically to inhibit the release of other neurotransmittes

How do histamine 3 receptors play a role in control of satiety?

It is thought that an increase in the hypothalamic concentration of histamine produces a reduction in food intake

How many histamine receptors are there?

4

Histamine 4 receptors exhibit very restricted locations where?

intestinal tissue


spleen


immune active cells

Why were the first generation histamine blockers & anti-histamines developed?

to counteract allergic symptoms

What is the most common example of a 1st generation histamine blocker?

benadryl

What is a majot side effect of benedryl and other 1st generation anti-histamines?

extreme sedation

Do 1st generation antihistamines cross the BBB?

yes

What characteristic do 1st generation histamines possess that allows them to cross the BBB?

they are lipophilic

Do 2nd generation antihistimes cross the BBB?

no

Name some 2nd generation anti-histamines.

Claritan (loratadine)


Allegra (fexofenadine)

Do the 2nd generation antihistamines cause excessive sedation?

no, they cause less sedation

Where are histamine 2 receptors found?

in the stomach lining

Stimulation of histamine 2 receptors causes these s/s?

increased digestion


stomach acid secretion

Name some histamine 2 receptor blockers.

Zantac (ranitidine)


Axid (nizatidine)


Pepcid (famotidine)


Tagament (cimetidine)


What is the function of histamine 2 receptor blockers?

to counteract excess stomach acid in PUD or GERD

The histamine receptors on the basolateral membranes of the acid secreting gastric parietal cells are of hte histamine 2 type and are not blocked by _______ medications.

histamine 1

What are some clinical uses of histamine 1 blockers?

motion sickness


n/v


toxicity


drug allergies

What histamine 1 blockers have the greatest effectiveness in treating motion sickness?

benadryl, phenergan

What histamine 1 blockers have the greatest effectiveness in preventing motion sickness?

scopolamine and certain 1st generation H1 blockers

Name 2 other H1 blockers that are effective for motion sickness and are less sedating.

meclizine and cyclizine (marezine)

Are H1 blockers recommended for use in management of n/v in pregnancy? Why?

No, due to difficulty in assessment of possible birth defects associated with H1 antagonists



known teratogenic effects of other H1 blockers

How do H1 blockers help with toxicity?


-excessive excitation and convulsions in children


-orthostatic (postural) hypotension


-Allergic responses


H1 or H2 blockers are used for drug allergies and can be used topically?

H1 blockers

Overdose of a 1st generation blocker is similar to ________ overdose.

atropine

Overdose of a 2nd generation blocker may induce?

cardiac arrhythmias

Name some clinical uses of H2 blockers.

Gastric ulcers


GERD (erosive esophagitis)


Hypersecretory diseases


Toxicity

Is GERD treated with higher or lower doses of H2 receptor agonists as compared to gastric and peptic ulcer disease?

higher doses

Name some hypersecretory diseases.

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome


Systemic mastocytosis


multiple endocrine adenomas

How is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome characterized?

acid hypersecretion which is caused y a gastrin secreting tumor.



It is often fatal, however H2 receptor antagonists often control the symptoms

What is systemic mastocytosis and multiple endocrine adenomas?

hypersecretory conditions in which H2 receptor antagonists often control the symptoms

Are H2 receptor antagonists generally well tolerated?

yes

What are some side effects of H2 receptor antagonists toxicity?

diarrhea


dizziness


somnolence


headache


rash


What H2 blocker has the most adverse effects and what are they?

cimetidine (tagament)



side effects: granulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, aplastic anemia (extremely rare), hepatoxicity with reversible cholestatic effects, reversible hepatitis, liver enzyme test abnormalities



Which H2 blocker has the fewest side effects?

Axid (nizatidine

What are some uncommon side effects of H2 blockers?

CNS effects (except in the elderly where confusional states, delerium, and slurred speech may occur)



blood dyscrasias

Endocrine effects are not associated with which H2 blockers?

pepcid, zantac, axid

Which of the following antihistamines is most likely to potentiate the effects of alcohol?

a. phenergan


b. claritan


c. zantac


d. chlor-trimeton

Rantidine (zantac), an H2 receptor antagonist is most likely to produce which of the following effects?

a. inhibition of the "triple effect" of histamine


b. inhibition of gastric secretions


c. inhibition of nausea & vomiting


d. sedation


e. inhibition of salivary and bronchial secretion

Which of the following statements about antihistamines are correct?

a. antihistamines prevent histamine release


b. antihistamines produce their effects through


competition at the receptor


c. antihistamines promote histamine degradation


d. antihistamines prevent histamine synthesis


e. all of the above are correct

Which of following effects is not associated with histamine

a. triple effect


b. progressive fall in BP


c. headache


d. secretion of catecholamines from chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla


e. sedation

Which of the following drugs would be the best treatment for allergic rhinitis if you operated heavy machinery?

a. benedryl


b. axid


c. phenergan


d. allegra


e. zantac

Axid an H2 antagonist, can be effectively used for the control of ________?

a. itching associated with insect bites


b. asthma


c. indigestion


d. the triple effect


e. insomnia

Antihistamines acting at the ______ receptor are most likely to ________.

a. H1 receptor; inhibit the triple effect of histamines


b. H2 receptor: inhibit the triple effect of histamines


c. H1 receptor: reverse anaphylaxis


d. H2 receptor: reverse anaphylaxis


e. H1 receptor; block gastric secretions

Which of the following effects is most commonly associated with histamine?

a. progressive increase in BP


b. progressive decrease in BP


c. decrease in gastric secretions


d. triple effect


e. sedation

This drug is a 1st generation, sedating, oral antihistamine.

benadryl

This medication is an excellent topical anesthetic, effective for local anesthesia as an injection and has anti-pruritic effects.

benadryl

Benadryl has a __ dimensional structure, which is similar to other anesthetic drugs.

3

This drug is not really a 1st line anesthetic, but can be used to help with sedation in a pt with a regional anesthetic.

benadryl

In patients who are allergic to local anesthetics, a local injection of _____________ provides adequate anesthesia for _______ % of people within _____ minutes. The duration of anesthesia is between 15 minutes and 3 hours, which is adequate for dermatology procedures.

1% benadryl


80%


5 minutes

Bronchodilators are the therapeutic mainstay for patients with ______.

COPD

In COPD, bronchodilators have been consistently shown to induce long term improvements in?

symptoms


exercise capacity


airflow limitation (even when there is no spirometric improvement following a single test dose

How can bronchodilators be administered?

inhalation


orally


SC


IV

Name 3 pulmonary bronchodilators.

beta agonists


anticholinergics


theophylline

All symptomatic COPD patients should be prescribed this medication?

short acting bronchodilator to be used on as as needed basis

What should be added to the medication regimen if COPD symptoms are inadequately controlled with short acting bronchodilator therapy or if the pt is at risk for poor outcomes?

a regularly scheduled long acting bronchodilator

What is the recommended method of delivery of medications in COPD patients? Why?

inhalation



because it maximizes the bronchodilators direct effect on the airways, while minimizing the systemic effects

How can medications be delivered by inhalation?

MDI


DPI


SMI


nebulizer

Can SABA and anticholinergics be used alone, in combination, or both.

both

True or False: All short acting broncohdilators improve lung function and symptoms?

True

Why is combination therapy often preferred when treating COPD?

because the combination of a SABA plus a short acting anticholinergic achieves a greater bronchodiator response that either one alone

In COPD, is monotherapy with SABA or short acting anticholinergics acceptable?

yes

Name some short acting bronchodilators.

albuterol and levabuterol

What is the first decision that most clinicians face when managing a patient with COPD?

deciding which short acting bronchodilator is most appropriate in a pt with mild intermittnet symptoms

What is the advantage of SABA?

their rapid onset of action

Short acting bronchodilators alone or in combination may be ________ to control symptoms and are not considered to be _______ therapies.

insufficient



maintenance

What asthma medications are the most potent and rapid acting?

beta adrenergic agonists

How do beta agonists interact with beta adrenergic receptors. Name 5 ways.

1. relax bronchial smooth muscle


2. decrease mast cell mediator release


3. inhibit neutrophil, eosinophil, and lymphocyte functional responses


4. increase mucociliary transprot


5. affect vascular tone and edema formation

What are the acute s/s of asthma?

SOB


coughing


wheezing


chest tightness

What is the primary use of SABA?

quick relief of acuteasthma symptoms

Are SABA prescribed for use on an as needed basis or routine basis?

as needed

What is the DOC for asthma exacerbations?

SABA

Do short acting anticholinergics improve lung function?

yes

Name 2 antichoinergic medications.

atrovent (ipratopium)


budesamide (formorterol)

Are SABA permitted for relief of acute dyspnea?

yes

How do albuterol and atrovent compare to one another?

they both improve lung function to a similar degree



side effects are minimal

The degree of bronchodilation achieved by SABA and anticholinergics is _________, especially when submaximal doses of each agent are combined.

additive

In COPD, are anticholinergics or SABA superior?

anticholinergics (atrovent)

Atrovent (ipratropium) may result in improvement in ______.

quality of life

These medications are used in combination with inhaled glucocorticoids for patients with moderate or severe asthma whose symptoms are inadequately controlled on inhaled glucocorticoid therapy alone, especially when nocturnal symptoms are problematic.

Long-acting beta agonists (LABAs), formoterol and salmeterol

LABAs have ________ effects with inhaled glucocorticoids (LAG) when the two agents are used in combination

additive

______ should NEVER be prescribed as monotherapy for asthma

LABA


A regularly scheduled ________ is added in patients, who have more advanced disease. What two medications are acceptable to prescribe?

long-acting inhaled bronchodilator



LABA or long acting anticholinergic

Initial selection of a long acting bronchodilator is often based on what criteria?

patient specific needs, co-morbidities, and side effects

What is the dose of epinephrine to treat acute asthma/bronchospasm exacerbation?

0.01 mg/kg to a max dose of 0.3 mg

How can epinephrine be administered?

IM or SC (according to the ppt)


guess she forgot about IV access

Epinephrine is reserved for times when?

nebulized therapy is either unavailbale to ineffective clinically

Is nebulized epinephrine usually more for croup or bronchospasm?

croup

What is the MOA of epinephrine in asthma?


Epinephrine constricts pre-capillary arterioles in the upper airway mucosa, DECREASING capillary hydrostatic pressure, leading to fluid resorption and improvement in airway edema


Does epinephrine increase or decrease hydrostatic pressure in asthma?

decreases

Anticholinergics are derivatives of?

atropine

What condition are anticholinergics only approved for? But also used in _____?

COPD



asthma

How do anticholinergics work?

reduce bronchospasm and mucus

Name 3 anticholingeric medications used for COPD and asthma.

Atrovent (ipratropium)


combivnet (combo of atrovent and albuterol)


spiriva (tiotropium)

What is the onset time for atrovent? How long does it last? How is it adminisered?

30 minutes



6 hours



MDI or nebulizer

What other condition can combivent be use for? What route is it administered?

allergic rhinitis



intranasally

What are the effects of glucocorticoids?

Decreases release of inflammatory mediator
Decreases infiltration and action of WBC’s
Decreases airway edema
Decreases airway mucus production
Increases number of beta-2 receptors
Increases sensitivity of beta-2 receptors


What are some characteristics of systemic glucocorticoids?

stronger effects


more side effects, esp with long term therapy


action is UNAFFECTED by lung restriction

What are some characteristics of inhaled glucocorticoids?

1. localized action


2. fewer side effects; some absorption occurs


3. action AFFECTED by lung restriction (disease may prevent penetration of drug to affected areas

Name some inhaled corticosteroids?


Fluticasone (Flovent) MDI


-Advair Diskus DPI (combo fluticasone with salmeterol)


-Flunisolide (Aerobid) MDI


-Budesonide (Pulmicor Turbohaler) DPI, neb


-Beclomethasone QVAR (MDI)


-Triamcinolone (Azmacort) MDI


-Almost all of these also have intranasal preparations for allergic rhinitis