Him361 Test 4

Front 1

1.)blood is composed of cells or formed ___, suspended in a clear, straw-colored liquid called __

2.)the cells normally constitute __% of blood volume

3.)RBCs=___, WBCs=___, clotting cells=___

4.)the remaining 55% of blood is __

5.)plasma is a solution of __, proteins, __, salts, __, lipids, and __

Back 1

1.)elements, plasma

2.)45

3.)erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets or thrombocytes

4.)plasma

water, sugars, hormones, vitamins

Front 2

1.)two components of blood

2.)the 3 cells of blood

3.)erythrocytes do what?

4.)thrombocytes do what

5.)leukocytes do what

6.)5 leukocytes

Back 2

1.)cells, plasma

2.)erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes(platelets)

3.)carry oxygen

4.)blood clotting

5.)immunity

6.)neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, lymphocytes

Front 3

1.)plasma is made up of what

2.)albumin, globulins, fibrinogen, and prothrombin make up what

3.)the three globulins

4.)the gamma globulins are what?

5.)4 blood types

6.)__% of the population is type A, __% type B, __% type AB, and __% type O

Back 3

1.)water, salts, nutrients, hormones, lipids, vitamins, proteins

2.)proteins

3.)alpha, beta, gamma

4.)immunoglobulins

5.)41, 10, 4, 45

Front 4

1.)red cell antigens for type A=___, B=___, AB=___, O=__

2.)serum antibodies for type A=__, B=__, AB=__, O=__

3.)universal donor? universal recipient

4.)blood clotting, or __, is a complicated process involving many different substances and chemical reactions

Back 4

1.)A ,B, A and B, no A and B

2.)Yes(anti-B), Yes (anti-A), no (anti-A or anti-B), Yes (anti A and anti-B)

3.)O negative (no antigens), AB positive

4.)coagulation

Front 5

1.)specific protein (immunoglobulin) produced by lymphocytes in response to bacteria, viruses, or other antigens, it is specific to an antigen and inactivates it

2.)substance (usually foreign) that stimulates the production of an antibody

3.)blood clotting

4.)method of separating serum proteins by electrical charge

Back 5

antibody (AB)

antigen

coagulation

electrophoresis

Front 6

1.)red blood cell

2.)blood protein containing iron, carries oxygen in RBCs

3.)destruction or breakdown of blood (RBCs)

4.)anticoagulant found in blood and tissue cells

5.)protein (globulin) with antibody activity; IgG, IgM, etc.

Back 6

erythrocyte

hemoglobin

hemolysis

heparin

immunoglobulin

Front 7

1.)white blood cell

2.)liquid portion of blood; contains water, proteins, salts, nutrients, lipids, hormones, and vitamins

3.)removal of plasma from withdrawn blood by centrifuge, collected cells are re-transfused back into the donor, fresh-frozen plasma or salt solution is used to replace withdrawn plasma

Back 7

leukocyte

plasma

plasmapheresis

Front 8

1.)small blood fragment that collects at sites of injury to begin the clotting process

2.)plasma minus clotting proteins and cells, clear, yellowish fluid that separates from blood when it is allowed to clot, it is formed from plasma, but does not contain protein-coagulation factors

3.)platelet

4.)bas/o

Back 8

platelet

serum

thrombocyte

base(alkaline)

Front 9

1.)chrom/o

2.)coagul/o

3.)cyt/o

4.)eosin/o

5.)erythr/o

6.)granul/o

7.)hem/o

8.)hemat/o

9.)hemoglobin/o

Back 9

color

clotting

cell

red, dawn, rosy

red

granules

blood

blood

hemoglobin

Front 10

1.)is/o

2.)kary/o

3.)leuk/o

4.)mon/o

5.)morph/o

6.)myel/o

7.)neutr/o

8.)nucle/o

9.)phag/o

Back 10

same, equal

nucleus

white

one, single

shape, form

bone marrow

neutral (not acidic or basic)

nucleus

eat, swallow

Front 11

1.)poikil/o

2.)sider/o

3.)sphere/o

4.)thromb/o

5.)-apheresis

6.)-blast

7.)-cytosis

8.)-emia

9.)-gen

Back 11

varied, irregular

iron

globe, round

clot

removal, a carrying away

immature cell, embryonic

abnormal condition of cells (increase in cells)

blood condition

giving rise to; producing

Front 12

1.)leukemia is what exactly?

2.)anemia is what exactly?

3.)-globin or -globulin

4.)-lytic

5.)-oid

6.)-osis

7.)-penia

8.)-phage

9.)-philia

Back 12

increase in WBCs

decrease in RBCs

protein

pertaining to destruction

derived or originating from

abnormal condition

deficiency

eat, swallow

attraction for (an increase in cell numbers)

Front 13

1.)-phoresis

2.)-poiesis

3.)-stasis

4.)an abnormal or pathologic condition of the blood generally is referred to as a blood __(disease)

5.)deficiency in erythrocytes or hemoglobin

Back 13

carrying transmission

formation

stop, controlling

dyscrasia

anemia

Front 14

1.)the most common type of anemia is ___anemia, it is caused by a lack of iron, which is required for hemoglobin production

2.)__anemia is failure of blood cell production in the bone marrow

3.)__anemia is the reduction in red cells due to excessive destruction

4.)__anemia is the lack of mature erythrocytes caused by inability to absorb vitamin B12 into the blood stream

Back 14

iron deficiency

aplastic

hemolytic

pernicious

Front 15

1.)__anemia is a hereditary disorder of abnormal hemoglobin producing sickle-shaped erythrocytes and hemolysis

2.)__is an inherited defect in ability to produce hemoglobin, leading to hypochromia

3.)__is excess iron deposits throughout the body

4.)__is general increase in RBCs (erythremia)

Back 15

sickle cell

thalassemia

hemochromatosis

polycythemia vera

Front 16

1.)excessive bleeding caused by hereditary lack of blood clotting factors (factor VIII or IX) necessary for blood clotting

2.)multiple pinpoint hemorrhages and accumulation of blood under the skin

3.)__are tiny purple or red flat spots appearing on the skin as a result of hemorrhages

4.)__are larger blue or purplish patches on the skin (bruises)

Back 16

hemophilia

purpura

petechiae

eccymoses

Front 17

1.)increase in cancerous WBCs

2.)AML

3.)ALL

4.)CML

5.)CLL

6.)effective treatment of leukemia can lead to a __(disappearance of signs and symptoms of disease)

Back 17

leukemia

Acute myelogenous (myeloytic) leukemia

Acute lymphocytic Leukemia

Chronic myelogenous (myelotic) leukemia

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

remission

Front 18

1.)__occurs when disease symptoms and signs reappear, necessitating further treatment

2.)abnormal increase in granulocytes in the blood

3.)infectious disease marked by increased numbers of mononuclear leukocytes and enlarged cervical lymph nodes

4.)is mononucleosis viral or bacteria

5.)malignant neoplasm of bone marrow

Back 18

relapse

granulocytosis

mononucleosis

viral

multiple myeloma

Front 19

1.)time required for venous blood to clot in a test tube

2.)determination of numbers of blood cells, hemoglobin concentration, hematocrit, and red cell values

3.)number of erythrocytes per cubic millimeter or microliter of blood. (can be high, low, critical)

Back 19

coagulation time

complete blood count (CBC)

red blood cell count (RBC)

Front 20

1.)number of leukocytes per cubic millimeter or microliter of blood

2.)separation of blood into component parts and removal of a select portion from the blood

3.)whole blood or cells are taken from a donor and infused into a patient

4.)microscopic examination of a core of bone marrow removed with a needle

Back 20

white blood cell count (WBC)

apheresis

blood transfusion

bone marrow biopsy

Front 21

1.)bone marrow also may be removed by brief suction produced by a syringe, which is termed a bone marrow __

2.)peripheral stem cells from a compatible donor are administered to a recipient

3.)where is the needle placed for bone marrow aspiration

4.)Ab

5.)ABO

Back 21

aspiration

hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

iliac crest

antibody

four main blood types, A, B, AB, and O

Front 22

1.)ALL

2.)AML

3.)CBC

4.)CLL

5.)CML

6.)diff

7.)Hct

8.)Hgb or HGB

9.)H and H

Back 22

acute lymphocytic leukemia

acute myelogenous leukemia

complete blood count

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

chronic myelogenous leukemia

differential count (White blood cells)

hematocrit

hemoglobin

hemoglobin and hematocrit

Front 23

1.)PT or pro time

2.)PTT

3.)RBC

4.)WBC

5.)WNL

6.)percentage of erythrocytes in a volume of blood

Back 23

prothrombin time

partial thromboplastin time

red blood cell, red blood cell count

white blood cell, white blood cell count

within normal limits

hematocrit

Front 24

1.)are the lymphatic and immune systems closely related

2.)__is a clear, watery fluid that surround body cells and flows in a system of thin walled lymph vessels (lymphatic system) that extends throughout the body

3.)lymph and blood differ, lymph fluid does not contain __or __, but it is rich in two types of __

Back 24

yes

lymph

erythrocytes, platelets, WBCs

Front 25

1.)what two WBCs do lymph contain

2.)the liquid part of lymph is similar to blood plasma in that it contains __, salts, __, and waste of metabolism such as __ and creatinine, but it differs in that it contains les __

3.)lymph originates from __

4.)is lymph the same fluid that filters out of tiny blood capillaries into the spaces b/w cells

Back 25

lymphocytes, monocytes

water, sugars, urea, protein

blood

yes

Front 26

1.)the fluid that surrounds body cells is called __

2.)interstitial fluid passes continuously into specialized thin-walled vessels called lymph __, which are found coursing through tissue spaces

3.)the fluid in the lymph capillaries, now called __instead of interstitial fluid, passes through larger lymphatic vessels and through clusters of lymph tissues (__)m finally reaching large lymphatic vessels in the upper chest

Back 26

interstitial fluid

capillaries

lymph, lymph nodes

Front 27

1.)lymph enters these large lymphatic vessels, which then empty into the __

2.)first function of the lymphatic system is it is a __system to transport needed proteins and fluid that have leaked out of the blood capillaries (and into the interstitial fluid) back to the bloodstream via the veins

Back 27

bloodstream

drainage

Front 28

1.)the second function of the lymphatic system is the lymphatic vessels in the intestines absorb __from the small intestine and transport them to the bloodstream

2.)a third function of the lymphatic system relates to the __system which is the defense of the body against foreign organisms such as bacteria and viruses

Back 28

lipids (fats)

immune

Front 29

1.)lymph contains no __, fluid is moved along by muscle movement and valves

2.)what color is lymph

3.)what kind of blood cells does lymph contain

4.)the interstitial fluid of lymph contains?

5.)what color is blood

6.)blood has a __, heart pumps blood through blood vessels

Back 29

pump

colorless

WBC(lymphocytes and monocytes)

water, LESS protein, lipids from SI

red

pump

Front 30

1.)what blood cells does blood contain

2.)what is in blood plasma

3.)lymph __begin at the spaces around cells throughout the body

4.)lymph capillaries carry lymph from tissue spaces to larger lymph __

5.)does lymph vessels have valves

6.)lymph flows in one direction, toward the __cavity

Back 30

erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets

water, proteins, salts, nutrients, fats, wastes

capillaries

vessels

yes

thoracic

Front 31

1.)collections of stationary lymph tissue, called __, are located along the path of the lymph vessels

2.)major sites of lymph node concentration are the __(neck), __(armpit), __(chest), __(intestinal), __(lumbar), and __(groin)

3.)__is the bodys ability to resist foreign organisms and toxins that damage tissues and organs

Back 31

1.)lymph nodes

2.)cervical, axillary, mediastina, mesenteric, paraaortic, inguinal

3.)immunity

Front 32

1.)the __are masses of lymph tissue in the throat near the back of the mouth (oropharynx) and __are enlarged lymph tissue in the part of the throat near the nasal passages (nasopharynx)

2.)__immunity is resistance present at birth

3.)is natural immunity dependent on prior exposure to an antigen(infectious agent)

Back 32

tonsils, adenoids

natural

no

Front 33

1.)an example of natural immunity is after a bacterial infection, __respond immediately to the intruding antigens

2.)__travel to the infected area and ingest bacteria

3.)__immunity is the body's ability to recognize and remember specific antigens in an immune response

4.)example of adaptive immunity

Back 33

WBCs

Neutrophils

adaptive

vaccination

Front 34

1.)with natural immunity, it is __at birth, no prior exposure to __, and it includes what 4 cells

2.)with adaptive immunity, it has the lymphocytes __and __, and __are produced after exposure to the antigen

3.)with adaptive immunity, __occurs and it is when a second exposure occurs and it elicits a faster and larger response

Back 34

1.)resistance, antigens, neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, NK cells

2.)T and B cells, antibodies

3.)memory

Front 35

1.)with adaptive immunity, things such as __, antitoxins, __, and maternal antibodies are common

2.)the ability to recognize and remember specific antigens and mount an attack on them; humoral (B cells) and cell-mediated immunity (T cells) are examples

3.)mass of lymphatic tissue in the nasopharynx

Back 35

vaccination, immunoglobulins

adaptive immunity

adenoids

Front 36

1.)protein produced by B cells to destroy antigens

2.)substance that the body recognizes as foreign, evokes an immune response, most are proteins or protein fragments found on the surface of bacteria, viruses, or organ transplant tissue cells

3.)lymph nodes in the armpit

4.)lymph nodes in the neck region

Back 36

antibody

antigen

axillary nodes

cervical nodes

Front 37

1.)bodys ability to resist foreign organisms and toxins that damage tissues and organs

2.)lymph nodes in the groin region

3.)thin, watery fluid found within lymphatic vessels and collected from tissues throughout the body

4.)tinniest lymphatic vessel

5.)lymph nodes, spleen, thymus gland

Back 37

immunity

inguinal nodes

lymph

lymph capillaries

lymph organs

Front 38

1.)collection of stationary solid lymphatic tissue along lymph vessels; contain cells (lymphocytes and macrophages) that fight infection

2.)carrier of lymph throughout the body; they empty lymph into veins in the upper part of the chest

3.)lymph nodes in the area b/w the lungs in the thoracic (chest) cavity

Back 38

lymph node

lymph vessel

mediastinal nodes

Front 39

1.)lymph nodes in the mesentery (intestinal region)

2.)protection that an individual is born with to fight infection such as neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages and NK cells

3.)lymph nodes near the aorta in the lumbar (waste) area of the body

4.)masses of lymphatic tissue in the back of the oropharynx

Back 39

mesenteric nodes

natural immunity

paraaortic nodes

tonsils

Front 40

1.)poison, a protein produced by certain bacteria, animals, or plants

2.)exposure of an individual to a foreign protein (antigen) that provokes an immune response, the response destroys any cell that possesses the antigen on its surface and will protect against infection

3.)weakened or killed microorganisms, toxins, or other proteins given to induce immunity to infection or disease

Back 40

toxin

vaccination

vaccine

Front 41

1.)immune/o (no "e", cram keeps autocorrecting)

2.)lymph/o

3.)lymphaden/o

4.)spleen/o (only one "e" )

5.)thym/o

6.)tox/o

7.)ana-

8.)inter-

Back 41

protection

lymph

lymph node

spleen

thymus gland

poison

again, anew

between

Front 42

1.)are some immunodeficiency disorders present at birth

2.)an example of a disorder present at birth is ___, the infected infants are born with a deficiency of B cells and T cells, resulting in a lack of immunity, the thymus is small and children have little or no protection against infection

Back 42

1.)yes

2.)severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)

Front 43

1.)a group of clinical signs and symptoms associated with suppression of the immune system and marked by opportunistic infections, secondary, neoplasms, and neurologic problems

2.)AIDS is acquired by the ___

3.)HIV destroys the ___cells(CD4 cells)

Back 43

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Helper T-cells

Front 44

1.)infectious diseases associated with AIDS are called __infections because HIV lowers resistance and allows infection by bacteria and parasites that are easily otherwise contained by normal defenses

2.)are herpes simplex, candidiasis, and cryptorsporidosis opportunistic infections?

Back 44

opportunistic

yes

Front 45

1.)malignancies associated with AIDS are ___(a cancer arising from the lining cells of capillaries that produces dark purplish skin nodules) and __(cancer of lymph nodes).

2.)__syndrome is marked by weight loss and decrease in muscular strength, appetite, and mental activity, also may occur with AIDS

Back 45

Kaposi sarcoma, lymphoma

Wasting

Front 46

1.)common routes of transmission of AIDS virus includes receptive __and __intercourse. found in women and men

2.)common routes of transmission of AIDS virus is receptive __intercourse found in women

3.)common routes of transmission of AIDS virus is contaminated __(for transfusion) or blood products, found in men and women (hemophiliacs)

Back 46

oral, anal

vaginal

blood

Front 47

1.)common routes of transmission of AIDS virus from mother, in utero or via __feeding, found in neonates.

2.)abnormal hypersensitivity acquired by exposure to an antigen

3.)__reactions occur when a sensitized person, who has previously been exposed to an agent (allergen) reacts violently to a subsequent exposure

Back 47

breast

allergy

allergic

Front 48

1.)allergic reactions vary in intensity from allergic __or hay fever(caused by pollen or animal dander) to __in which an extraordinary hypersensitivity reaction occurs throughout the body

2.)systemic anaphylaxis leads to a __in blood pressure, shock, __distress, and __(swelling) of the pharnyx

Back 48

rhinitis, systemic anaphylaxis

drop (hypotension), respiratory, edema

Front 49

1.)other allergies include __(pollens, dust, molds) and __(caused by food or drugs)

2.)malignant tumor of lymph nodes and lymph tissue

3.)malignant tumor of lymphoid tissue in the spleen and lymph nodes

4.)what is lymphadenopathy

Back 49

asthma, hives

lymphoma

Hodgkin disease

lymph nodes enlarge

Front 50

1.)stage __of Hodgkin disease is involvement of single lymph node or group of lymph nodes

2.)stage __of Hodgkin disease is involvement of two or more sites on same side of diaphragm, often involves mediastinum

3.)stage __of Hodgkin disease is disease on both sides of diaphragm, may include spleen

Back 50

I

II

III

Front 51

1.)stage __of Hodgkin disease is widespread extralymphatic involvement (liver, bone marrow, lung, skin)

2.)malignant tumor of bone marrow cells

3.)substance capable of causing a specific hypersensitivity reaction in the body; a type of antigen

Back 51

IV

multiple myeloma

allergen

Front 52

1.)exaggerated or unusual hypersensitivity to foreign protein or other substance

2.)malignant tumor of lymphoid tissue in spleen and lymph nodes; Reed-Sternberg cell often is found on microscopic analysis

3.)virus(retrovirus) that causes AIDS

4.)malignant lesion associated with AIDS, arises from the lining of capillaries and appears as red, purple, brown, or black skin nodules

Back 52

anaphylaxis

Hodgkin disease

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Kaposi sarcoma

Front 53

1.)infectious diseases associated with AIDS, they occur because HIV infection lowers the body's resistance and allows infection by bacteria and parasites that normally are easily contained

2.)weight loss, decrease in muscular strength, appetite, and mental activity, associated with AIDS

3.)screening test to detect anti-HIV antibodies in the bloodstream

Back 53

opportunistic infections

wasting syndrome

ELISA

Front 54

1.)if the result of the ELISA test is positive, it is confirmed with a __test, which is more specific

2.)X-ray imaging produces cross-sectional and other views of anatomic structures

3.)AIDS

4.)CMV

5.)HD

6.)HIV

Back 54

1.)Western blot

2.)computed tomography (CT) scan

3.)acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

4.)cytomegalovirus (causes opportunistic AIDS related infection)

5.)Hodgkin disease

6.)human immunodeficiency virus-causes AIDS

Front 55

1.)HSV

2.)KS

3.)__provide the framework on which the body is constructed and protect and support internal organs

4.)__are the places at which bones come together

5.)__, whether attached to bones or to internal organs and blood vessels, are responsible for movement

Back 55

herpes simplex virus

Kaposi sarcoma

bones

joints

muscles

Front 56

1.)__are connective tissue that bind muscles to bones, while __bind bones to other bones

2.)__are physicians who treat (surgically and medically) bone, joint, and muscle conditions

3.)__are physicians (nonsurgical) who specialize primarily in joint problems such as arthritis

4.)__are medical doctors whose focus is on rehabilitation after injury or illness to muscles, bones, and nerves

Back 56

tendons, ligaments

orthopedists

rheumatologists

physiatrists

Front 57

1.)can both a medial doctor (MD) and an osteopathic physician (DO) specialize in orthopedics or rheumatology

2.)An __has added training in the musculoskeletal system, with an emphasis on body mechanics to promote good health

Back 57

yes

osteopath

Front 58

1.)a __is not a physician but has extensive and specialized training in using physical means to manipulate the spinal column, joints, and soft tissues

2.)do MD and DO have similar medial education programs and can perform surgery as well as prescribe medication

3.)a __is a masters or doctoral degree-prepared health care professional who develops a treatment plan based on a physicians diagnosis

Back 58

chiropractor

yes

physical therapist

Front 59

1.)the goals of physical therapy are to restore __, improve __, and relieve __

2.)bone__are enlarged areas that extend out from bones to serve as attachments for muscles, tendons, and ligaments

3.)bone __are openings or hollow regions serving as connections b/w bones, or passageways for blood vessels and nerves

Back 59

function, mobility, pain

processes

depressions

Front 60

1.)rounded end of bone

2.)rounded knuckle-like process

3.)small rounded process above the condyle

4.)large and small processes for tendon attachment

5.)small round elevation where tendons and muscles attach

Back 60

bone head

condyle

epicondyle

trochanters

tuberosity (tubercle)

Front 61

1.)narrow groove or slit-like opening

2.)opening for blood vessels and nerves

3.)shallow cavity in or on a bone

4.)hollow cavity within bone

5.)__bone forms the forehead and the roof of the bony sockets that contain the eyes

Back 61

fissure-eye socket

foramen-foramen magnum of skull

fossa-olecranon

sinus-sinuses of skull

frontal

Front 62

1.)__bone is the two bones(one on each side of the skull) that form the roof and upper part of the sides of the cranium

2.)__bone is the two bones that form the lower sides and base of the cranium

3.)The __is the area of connection b/w the temporal and mandibular bones

Back 62

parietal

temporal

temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

Front 63

1.)__bone forms the back and base of the skull and joins the parietal and temporal bones, forming a suture

2.)__bone is the bat shaped bone that extends behind the eyes and forms part of the base of the skull

3.)__bone is the thin, delicate bone that supports the nasal cavity and forms part of the sockets of the eyes

Back 63

occipital

sphenoid

ethmoid

Front 64

1.)__bone is the two slender bones that support the bridge of the nose

2.)__bone is the two small, thin bones located at the corner of each eye

3.)__bone is the two large bones that compose the massive upper jawbone (maxillae)

4.)__bone is the lower jawbone (mandible)

Back 64

nasal

lacrimal

maxillary

mandibular

Front 65

1.)__bone is the two bones, one on each side of the face, that form the high portion of the cheek

2.)__bone is the thin, single, flat bone that forms the lower portion of the nasal septum

3.)__or air cavities are located in specific places within the cranial and facial bones to lighten the skull and warm and moisten air as it passes through

Back 65

zygomatic

vomer

sinuses

Front 66

1.)supports nasal cavity and eye sockets

2.)forehead, part of eye sockets

3.)back and base of skull

4.)top and sides of skull

5.)base of skull behind eyes (bat-shaped bone)

6.)lower sides and back of skull

7.)corners of each eye

8.)lower jawbone

9.)upper jawbone

Back 66

ethmoid bone

frontal bone

occipital bone

parietal bone

sphenoid bone

temporal bone

lacrimal bones

mandible

maxillae

Front 67

1.)bridge and septum of nose

2.)nasal septum (thin, flat bone)

3.)cheek bones

4.)the __is composed of 26 bone segments, called vertebrae, that are arranged in five divisions from the base of the skull to the tailbone

5.)the bones are separated by pads of cartilage called __

Back 67

nasal bones

vomer

zygomatic bones

vertebral (spinal column)

intervertebral disks (discs)

Front 68

1.)the first seven bones of the vertebral column, forming the bony aspect of the neck are the __vertebrae

2.)the second set of 12 vertebrae is known as the __vertebrae

3.)the third set of five vertebral bones is the __vertebrae

4.)the __are five separate bones that fuse in a young child

Back 68

cervical (C1-C7)

thoracic (T1-T12)

lumbar (L1-L5)

sacral vertebrae (sacrum)

Front 69

1.)the __is the tailbone and it is also fused, having been formed from 4 small coccygeal bones

2.)__is the collar bone, it is a slender bone positioned ventrally, one on each side, connecting the breastbone (sternum) to each shoulder blade (scapula)

3.)__is the shoulder blade, one of two flat, triangular bones on each dorsal side of the throax

Back 69

coccyx

clavicle

scapula

Front 70

1.)the extension of the scapula that joins with the clavicle to form a joint above the shoulder is called the _

2.)joint of the acromion and clavicle

3.)__is the breastbone, which is a flat bone extending ventrally down the midline of the chest

4.)the lowest portion of the sternum is the __

Back 70

acromion

acromioclavicular

sternum

xiphoid process

Front 71

1.)the uppermost portion of the sternum is the __

2.)there are __pairs of ribs

3.)ribs 1-7 are called __ribs, they join with the sternum anteriorly and with the vertebral column posteriorly

4.)ribs 8-10 are called __ribs, they join with the vertebral column posteriorly but join the 7th rib anteriorly instead of attaching to the sternum

Back 71

manubrium

12

true

false

Front 72

1.)ribs 11 and 12 are the __ribs because they are completely free at their anterior ends

2.)__is the upper arm bone

3.)__is the medial lower arm (forearm) bone

4.)__is the lateral lower arm (forearm) bone (in line with the thumb)

5.)__is the wrist bones, there are two rows of four bones in the wrist

Back 72

floating

humerus

ulna

radius

carpals

Front 73

1.)the five bones of the palm of the hand

2.)finger bones

3.)each finger except the thumb has __phalanges

4.)__is the pelvis, it is the collection of bones that support the trunk of the body and articulates with the femur to form the hip joint

5.)the adult pelvis is composed of 3 pairs of fused bones, what are they

Back 73

metacarpals

phalanges

3

pelvic girdle

ilium, ischium, pubis

Front 74

1.)__is the uppermost and largest portion of the pelvis

2.)the superior part of the ilium is the __, it is filled with red bone marrow

3.)where is a typical bone grafting spot

4.)__is the inferior or lower part of the pelvis

5.)__is the anterior part of the pelvis

6.)with the pubis, the two bones join by a way of a cartilaginous disk, area is called __

Back 74

ilium

iliac crest

ilium

ischium

pubis

pubic symphysis

Front 75

1.)__is the region within the ring of bone formed by the pelvic girdle

2.)__is the thigh bone, it is the longest bone in the body

3.)at the proximal end of the femur, it has a rounded head that fits into a depression or socket in the pelvis and the socket is called __

Back 75

pelvic cavity

femur

socket

acetabulum

Front 76

1.)the head of the femur and the acetabulum form a ball and socket joint otherwise known as the __

2.)__is the knee cap, it is a small, flat bone that lies in front of the articulation b/w the femur and one of the lower leg bones called the tibia

3.)__are the larger of two bones of the lower leg, it runs under the skin in the front part of the leg

Back 76

hip joint

patella

tibia

Front 77

1.)the tibia joins with the femur and patella proximally, and at its distal end (ankle) forms a flare that is the bony prominence (___) at the inside of the ankle

2.)the tibia is also called?

3.)__is the smaller of the two lower leg bones, it is thin and well hidden under the leg muscles, it runs parallel to the tibia

Back 77

medial malleolus

shin bone

fibula

Front 78

1.)at the distal part of the fibula, it forms a flare which is the bony prominence (___) on the outside of the ankle

2.)the tibia, fibula, and talus(first of the tarsal bones) come together to form the __

3.)___are bones of the hind part of the foot, these seven short bones resemble the carpal bones of the wrist but are larger

Back 78

lateral malleolus

ankle joint

tarsals

Front 79

1.)the __is the largest of the tarsals

2.)the calcaneus is also called?

3.)__are bones of the mid-foot, there are 5 metatarsal bones, which are similar to the metacarpals of the hand

4.)__are bones of the forefoot, as in the digits of the hand; there are 2 in the big toe and 3 in each of the other toes

Back 79

calcaneus

heel bone

metatarsals

phalanges of the toes

Front 80

1.)hip socket

2.)heel

3.)wrist bones

4.)collar bone

5.)tailbone

6.)skull

7.)thigh bone

8.)smaller of the 2 lower leg bones

9.)upper arm bone

Back 80

acetabulum

calcaneus

carpals

clavicle

coccyx

cranium

femur

fibula

humerus

Front 81

1.)upper part of pelvic bone

2.)inferior part of pelvic bone

3.)ankle

4.)lower jawbone

5.)upper jawbone

6.)hand bones

7.)midfoot bones

8.)elbow

9.)kneecap

Back 81

ilium

ischium

malleolus

mandible

maxilla

metacarpals

metatarsals

olecranon

patella

Front 82

1.)finger and toe bones

2.)anterior part of the pelvic bone

3.)forearm bone-thumb side

4.)shoulder blade

5.)breastbone

6.)hindfoot bones

7.)shin bone-larger of the two lower leg bones

8.)forearm bone-little finger side

9.)backbone/spine

Back 82

phalanges

pubis

radius

scapula

sternum

tarsals

tibia

ulna

vertebrae

Front 83

1.)rounded depression, or socket in the pelvis that joins the femur (thigh bone), forming the hip joint

2.)outward extension of the shoulder blade forming the point of the shoulder, it overlies the shoulder and articulates with the clavicle

3.)opening or hollow region serving as a connection for bones, or passageway for blood vessels and nerves (fissure, foramen, etc.)

Back 83

acetabulum

acromion

bone depression

Front 84

1.)enlarged area that extends from bones as an attachment for muscles, tendons, ligaments (bone head, condyle, etc.)

2.)skull bones

3.)shaft, or mid-portion, of a long bone

4.)flat, round, plate-like structure, it is a fibrocartilaginous substance b/w 2 vertebrae

Back 84

bone process

cranial bones

diaphysis

disk

Front 85

1.)each end of a long bone, the area beyond the epiphyseal plate

2.)bones of the face

3.)fibrous tissue connecting bones to other bones

4.)round process on both sides of the ankle joint

5.)upper portion of the sternum, articulates with the medial aspect of the clavicle

Back 85

epiphysis

facial bones

ligament

malleolus

manubrium

Front 86

1.)large process on the proximal end of the ulna, the point of the flexed elbow

2.)medical doctor who specializes in bone, joint, and muscle conditions

3.)twelve pairs of curved bones that form the chest wall

4.)connection on either side of the head b/w the temporal bone of the skull and mandibular bone of the jaw

Back 86

olecranon

orthopedist

ribs

temporomandibular joint

Front 87

1.)fibrous CT connecting muscles and bones

2.)individual segment of the spine composed of the vertebral body, vertebral arch, spinous process, transverse process, and lamina, enclosing the neural canal

3.)lower, narrow portion of the sternum

4.)calc/o or calci/o

5.)kyph/o

Back 87

1.)tendon

2.)vertebra

3.)xiphoid process

4.)calcium

5.)humpack, hunchback (posterior curvature in the thoracic region)

Front 88

1.)lamin/o

2.)lord/o

3.)lumb/o

4.)myel/o

5.)orth/o

6.)oste/o

7.)scoli/o

Back 88

1.)lamina(part of the vertebral arch)

2.)curve, swayback (anterior curvature in the lumbar region)

3.)loins, lower back

4.)bone marrow

5.)straight

6.)bone

7.)crooked, bent (lateral curvature)

Front 89

1.)this term indicates a hump on the back

2.)this is when the normal anterior curvature of the lumbar spine becomes exaggerated

3.)this is when the spinal column is bent abnormally to the side

4.)spondyl/o

5.)vertebr/o

6.)-blast

Back 89

kyphosis

lordosis

scoliosis

vertebra

vertebra

embryonic or immature cell

Front 90

1.)-clast

2.)-listhesis

3.)-malacia

4.)-physis

5.)-porosis

6.)-tome

7.)acetabul/o

8.)calcane/o

9.)carp/o

Back 90

to break

slipping

softening

to grow

pore, passage

instrument to cut

acetabulum

calcaneus

carpals

Front 91

1.)clavicul/o

2.)cost/o

3.)crani/o

4.)femor/o

5.)fibul/o

6.)humer/o

7.)ili/o

8.)ischi/o

9.)malleol/o

Back 91

clavicle

ribs

cranium

femur

fibula

humerus

ilium

ischium

malleolus

Front 92

1.)mandibul/o

2.)maxilla/o (no "a" crams autocorrecting)

3.)metacarp/o

4.)metatars/o

5.)olecran/o

6.)patell/o

7.)pelv/i

Back 92

mandible

maxilla

metacarpals

metatarsals

olecranon

patella

pelvis

Front 93

1.)perone/o

2.)phalang/o

3.)pub/o

4.)radi/o

5.)scapula/o

6.)stern/o

7.)tars/o

8.)tibi/o

9.)uln/o

Back 93

fibula

phalanges

pubis

radius

scapula

sternum

tarsals

tibia

ulna

Front 94

1.)rare malignant tumor arising in bone, most often occurring in children

2.)bony growth(benign) arising from the surface of bone

3.)a __is a swelling of the metatarsophalangeal joint near the base of the big toe and is accompanied by the buildup of soft tissue and underlying bone at the distal/medial aspect of the first metatarsals

Back 94

Ewing sarcoma

exostosis

bunion

Front 95

1.)traumatic breaking of a bone

2.)in a __fracture, the bone is broken but there is no open would in the skin

3.)in a __fracture, the bone is broken and a fragment of bone protrudes through an open wound in the skin

4.)__is the crackling sound produced when ends of bones rub each other or rub against roughened cartilage

Back 95

fracture

simple(closed)

compound (open)

crepitus

Front 96

1.)treatment of fractures involves __, which is restoration of the bone to its normal position

2.)a __reduction is manipulative reduction without a surgical incision

3.)a __reduction is when an incision is made for access to the fracture site

4.)A __(solid mold of the body part) is applied to fractures to immobilize the injured bone after a closed reduction

Back 96

reduction

closed

open

cast

Front 97

1.)__often involves insertion of metal plates, screws, rods, or pins to stabilize the bone

2.) __fractures are near the wrist at distal end of the radius

3.)__fractures is when bone is splintered and crushed into several pieces

4.)__fractures is when bone collapses or is compressed, occurs in the vertebrae

Back 97

Open Reduction/Internal fixation (ORIF)

Colles

Comminuted

Compression

Front 98

1.)__fractures is when bone is partially broken, it breaks on one surface and bends on another, often occurring in the forearm

2.)__fractures is when one fragment is driven firmly into the other, at the head of the femur or head of the humerus

3.)common malignant tumor arising from osteoblast, found primarily in children and adolescents

Back 98

greenstick

impacted

osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma)

Front 99

1.)softening of bone, with inadequate amounts of mineral (Calcium) in the bone

2.)osteomalacia occurs primarily as a disease of infancy and childhood and is then known as __

3.)inflammation of the bone and bone marrow secondary infection

4.)decrease n bone density (mass); thinning and weakening of bone

Back 99

osteomalacia

rickets

osteomyelitis

osteoporosis

Front 100

1.)osteoporosis causes __

2.)__is a condition in which bone mineral density is lower than normal

3.)congenital abnormality of the hindfoot (involving the talus)

4.)the most common form of talipes is __, or clubfoot

5.)a __is a coming together of two or more bones

Back 100

kyphosis

osteopenia

talipes

talipes equinovarus

joint (articulation)

Front 101

1.)some joints are immovable such as the __joints between the skull bones

2.)are the vertebrae partially moveable

3.)the freely moveable joints are called __joints

4.)the bones in a synovial joint are surrounded by a __composed of fibrous tissue

Back 101

suture

yes

synovial

joint capsule

Front 102

1.)__(thickened fibrous bands of CT) anchor one bone to another and thereby add considerable strength to the joint capsule in critical areas

2.)bones at the joint are covered with a smooth glistening white tissue called __

3.)the __membrane lies under the joint capsule and lines the __ b/w the bones

Back 102

ligament

articular cartilage

synovial, synovial cavity

Front 103

1.)the synovial cavity is filled with a special lubricating fluid produced by the synovial membrane, this __contains water and nutrients that nourish as well as lubricate the joints so that fiction on the articular cartilage is minimal

2.)a __is a crescent shaped fibrocartilaginous structure that partly divides a joint cavity and acts as a protective cushion

Back 103

synovial fluid

meniscus

Front 104

1.)__are closed sacs of synovial fluid lined with a synovial membrane and are located near but not within a joint

2.)common sites of bursae are between __(CT that connects a muscle to bone) and bones, b/w __(CT binding boneto bone) and bones, and between __and bones in areas where bony anatomy is prominent

Back 104

bursae

tendons, ligaments, skin

Front 105

1.)any type of joint

2.)sac of fluid near a joint, promotes smooth sliding of one tissue against another

3.)CT binding bones to other bones, supports, strengthens, and stabilizes the joint

4.)space b/w bones at a synovial joint, contains synovial fluid produced by the synovial membrane

Back 105

articulation

bursa

ligament

synovial cavity

Front 106

1.)viscous (sticky) fluid within the synovial cavity

2.)a freely movable joint

3.)tissue lining the synovial cavity, it produces synovial fluid

4.)CT that binds muscles to bones

5.)ankyl/o

6.)arthr/o

7.)articul/o

Back 106

synovial fluid

synovial joint

synovial membrane

tendon

stiff

joint

joint

Front 107

1.)burs/o

2.)chondr/o

3.)ligament/o

4.)rheumat/o

5.)synov/o

6.)ten/o

7.)tendin/o

8.)-desis

9.)-stenoiss

Back 107

bursa

cartilage

ligament

watery fluid

synovial membrane

tendon

tendon

to bind, tie together

narrowing

Front 108

1.)inflammation of a joint

2.)chronic, progressive arthritis with stiffening of joints, primarily of the spine

3.)inflammation and painful swelling joints caused by excessive uric acid in the body

4.)progressive, degenerative joint disease with loss of articular cartilage and hypertrophy of bone (formation of osteophytes, or bone spurs) at articular surface

Back 108

arthritis

ankylosing spondylitis

gouty arthritis (gout)

osteoarthritis (OA)

Front 109

1.)osteoarthritis is also known as __ and can occur in any joint, but occurs mainly in the spine, hips, and knees of older people

2.)chronic joint condition with inflammation and pain, caused by an autoimmune reaction against joint tissue, particularly the synovial membrane

3.)enlargement of bone or tissue around the joint at the base of the big toe (metarsophalangeal joint)

Back 109

degenerative joint disease

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

bunion

Front 110

1.)compression of the median nerve as it passes b/w the ligament and the bones and tendons of the wrist

2.)displacement of a bone from its joint

3.)treatment for dislocations involves __, which is restoration of the bones to their normal positions

4.)a __is a partial or incomplete dislocation

Back 110

carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)

dislocation

reduction

subluxation

Front 111

1.)fluid filled sac arising from joint capsules or tendons, typically in hand

2.)abnormal protrusion of an intervertebral disk into the spinal canal or spinal nerves

3.)herniation of an intervertebral disk(disc) is commonly referred to as a __

4.)disorder marked by arthritis, myalgia, and malaise; cause is a bacterium carried by a tick

Back 111

ganglion cyst

herniation of an intervertebral disk (disc)

slipped disk

Lyme Disease (Lyme arthritis)

Front 112

1.)trauma to ligaments without rupture

2.)chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease involving joints, skin, kidneys, central nervous system, heart, and lungs

3.)__muscle makes up the voluntary or skeletal muscles that move all bones, as well as controlling facial expression and eye movements

Back 112

sprain

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

striated

Front 113

1.)__muscle makes up the involuntary or visceral muscles that move internal organs such as the digestive tract, blood vessels, and secretory ducts leading from glands.

2.)__muscle is striated in appearance but is like smooth muscle in action, its movement cannot be consciously controlled

Back 113

smooth

cardiac

Front 114

1.)decreasing the angle b/w two bones, bending a limb

2.)increasing the angle b/w two bones, straightening out a limb

3.)movement away from the midline of the body

4.)movement toward the midline of the body

5.)circular movement around an axis (central point)

Back 114

flexion

extension

abduction

adduction

rotation

Front 115

1.)__rotation is toward the center of the body and __rotation is away from the center of the body

2.)decreasing the angle of the ankle joint so that the foot bends backward(upward), opposite movement of stepping on the gas pedal

3.)motion that extends the foot downward toward the ground as when pointing the toes or stepping on the gas pedal

Back 115

internal, external

dorsiflexion

plantar flexion

Front 116

1.)as applied to the hand and forearm, the act of turning the palm up; as applied to the foot, it is outward roll of the foot during normal motion

2.)as applied to the hand and forearm, the act of turning the palm down, as applied to the foot, it is inward roll of the foot during normal motion

3.)fibrous membrane separating and enveloping muscles

Back 116

supination

pronation

fascia

Front 117

1.)connection of the muscle to a bone that moves

2.)connection of the muscle to a stationary bone

3.)muscle connected to bones; voluntary or skeletal muscle

4.)muscle connected to internal organs; involuntary or smooth muscle

5.)fasci/o

Back 117

insertion of a muscle

origin of a muscle

striated muscle

visceral muscle

fascia(forms sheaths enveloping muscles)

Front 118

1.)fibr/o

2.)leiomy/o

3.)my/o

4.)myocardi/o

5.)myos/o

6.)plant/o

7.)rhabdomy/o

Back 118

1.)fibrous CT

2.)smooth(visceral)muscle that lines the walls of internal organs

3.)muscle

4.)heart muscle

5.)muscle

6.)sole of the foot

7.)skeletal (striated) muscle connected to bones

Front 119

1.)sarc/o

2.)-asthenia

3.)-trophy

4.)ab-

5.)ad-

6.)dorsi

7.)poly

Back 119

muscle and flesh

lack of strenth

development, nourishment

away from

toward

back

many, much

Front 120

1.)group of inherited diseases characterized by progressive weakness and degeneration of muscle fibers without involvement of the nervous system

2.)surgical puncture to remove fluid from the joint space

3.)taking x-ray images after injection of contrast material into a joint

Back 120

muscular dystrophy

arthrocentesis

arthrography

Front 121

1.)surgical repair or replacement of a joint

2.)in a __, a metal prosthesis covers the end of the femur, and a tibial component made of metal and plastic covers the tip end of the tibia

3.)visual examination of a joint with an arthroscope and television camera

Back 121

arthroplasty

total knee replacement (TKR)

arthroscopy

Front 122

1.)low energy x-ray absorption in bones of the spinal column, pelvis, and wrist is used to measure bone mass

2.)uptake of a radioactive substance is measure in bone

3.)X-ray beam and computer provide cross-sectional and other images

Back 122

bone density test (bone densitometry)

bone scan

computed tomography (CT)

Front 123

1.)recording the strength of muscle contraction as a result of electrical stimulation

2.)magnetic field creates images of soft tissue

3.)removal of muscle tissue for microscopic examination

4.)C1-C7

5.)Ca

6.)CTS

Back 123

electromyography (EMG)

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

muscle biopsy

cervical vertebrae

calcium

carpal tunnel syndrome

Front 124

1.)DO

2.)DTRs

3.)EMG

4.)HNP

5.)IM

6.)L1-L5

7.)OA

8.)ORIF

Back 124

doctor of osteopathy

deep tendon reflexes

electromyography

herniated nucleus pulposus

intramuscular

lumbar vertebrae

osteoarthritis

Open Reduction(of fracture)/Internal Fixation

Front 125

1.)ortho

2.)OT

3.)P

4.)PT

5.)RA

6.)ROM

7.)SLE

8.)T1-T12

Back 125

orthopedics

occupational therapist

phosphorus

physical therapist

rheumatoid arthritis

range of motion

systemic lupus erythematosus

thoracic vertebrae

Front 126

1.)TKR

2.)THR

3.)TMJ

4.)DJD

5.)__helps patients with impaired musculoskeletal function perform activities of daily living and function in work-related situations

Back 126

total knee replacement/arthroplasty

total hip replacement/arthroplasty

temporomandibular joint

degenerative joint disease

occupational therapy

Front 127

1.)__helps patients regain use of muscles and joints after injury or surgery

2.)the skin and its accessory structures (hair, nails, and glands) make up the __system

3.)the first function of the skin is it acts as a protective membrane over the entire body, it guards the deeper tissues against excessive __loss, salts, and heat and against invasion of __and their toxins

Back 127

physical therapy

integumentary

water, pathogens

Front 128

1.)the skin contains two types of glands that produce important secretions, these glands in the skin are the __glands and the __glands

2.)sebaceous glands produce __, an oil secretion

3.)sweat glands produce __, a watery secretion

4.)sebum and sweat pass to the outer edges of the skin through ducts and leave the skin through openings or __

Back 128

sebaceous, sweat

sebum

sweat

pores

Front 129

1.)__lubricates the surface of he skin, and __cools the body as it evaporates from the skin surface

2.)__fibers under the skin are receptors for sensations such as pain, temperature, pressure, and touch

3.)the body's adjustment to the environment depends on sensory messages relayed to the brain and spinal cord by sensitive __endings in the skin

Back 129

sebum, sweat

nerve

nerve

Front 130

1.)different __in the skin maintain body temperature (thermoregulation)

2.)__is a thin, cellular membrane layer, containing keratin, outermost part of skin

3.)__is dense, fibrous, CT layer, containing collagen, middle layer of skin

4.)__is a thick, fat containing tissue, innermost part of the skin

Back 130

tissues

epidermis

dermis

subcutaneous layer

Front 131

1.)epidermis contains __, dermis contains __, and subcutaneous layer contains __

2.)__(fat cells) are predominant in the subcutaneous layer, and they manufacture and store large quantities of fat

3.)the __is a semilunar whitish region at the base of the nail plate, it generally can be seen in the thumbnail of most people and is evident to varying degrees in other fingernails

Back 131

keratin, collagen, fat

adipocytes

lunula

Front 132

1.)the __is a narrow band of epidermis (layer of keratin), is at the base and sides of the nail plate

2.)__glands are located in the dermal layer of the skin over the entire body, with the exception of the palms(hands), soles (feet), and lips

3.)sebaceous glands secrete oily substance called __

Back 132

cuticle

sebaceous

sebum

Front 133

1.)sebum, containing __, lubricates the skin and minimizes water loss

2.)__glands are tiny, coiled glands found on almost all body surfaces (about 2 million in body)

3.)__sweat glands are the most common sweat glands

4.)where are the most numerous sweat glands

Back 133

lipids

sweat

eccrine

palm of hand and sole of foot

Front 134

1.)the coiled __sweat gland originates deep in the dermis and straightens out to extend up through the epidermis

2.)the tiny opening on the surface of the epidermis is a __

3.)sweat or __ is almost pure water, with dissolved materials such as salt making up less than 1% of the total composition

Back 134

eccrine

pore

perspiration

Front 135

1.)what color and smell is sweat

2.)the odor produced when sweat accumulates on the skin is caused by the action of __on the sweat

3.)sweat __the body as it evaporates into the air

4.)fat cell

5.)person with skin deficient in pigment (melanin)

Back 135

colorless and odorless

bacteria

cools

adipocyte

albino

Front 136

1.)glands that are active only from puberty onward and are large, these glands (__sweat glands) secrete odorless sweat, containing substances easily broken down by bacteria on the skin

2.)middle layer of the skin

3.)outermost layer of the skin

4.)sac within each hair grows

Back 136

apocrine

dermis

epidermis

hair follicle

Front 137

1.)the skin and its accessory structures such as hair and nails

2.)the half-moon-shaped, whitish area at the base of a nail

3.)oil-secreting gland in the dermis that is associated with hair follicles

4.)oily substance secreted by sebaceous glands

5.)innermost layer of the skin, contain fat tissue

Back 137

integumentary system

lunula

sebaceous gland

sebum

subcutaneous layer

Front 138

1.)adip/o

2.)albin/o

3.)caus/o

4.)cauter/o

5.)cutane/o

6.)derm/o or dremat/o

7.)diaphor/o

8.)erythema/o or erythemat/o

9.)hidr/o

Back 138

fat

white

burn, burning

heat, burn

skin

skin

profuse sweating

redness

sweat

Front 139

1.)ichthy/o

2.)albin/o

3.)anthrac/o

4.)chlor/o

5.)cirrh/o

6.)cyan/o

7.)eosin/o

8.)erythr/o

9.)jaund/o

Back 139

dry, scaly

white

black (as coal)

green

tawny yellow

blue

rosy

red

yellow

Front 140

1.)leuk/o

2.)lute/o

3.)melan/o

4.)poli/o

5.)xanth/o

6.)kerat/o

7.)leuk/o

8.)lip/o

9.)melan/o

Back 140

white

yellow

black

gray

yellow

hard

white

fat

black

Front 141

1.)myc/o

2.)onych/o

3.)phyt/o

4.)pil/o

5.)py/o

6.)rhytid/o

7.)seb/o

8.)squam/o

9.)steat/o

Back 141

fungus

nail

plant

hair

pus

wrinkly

sebum

scale-like

fat

Front 142

1.)trich/o

2.)ungu/o

3.)xanth/o

4.)xer/o

5.)medical word for very dry skin

6.)a __is an area of abnormal tissue anywhere on or in the body, can be caused by disease or trauma

Back 142

hair

nail

yellow

dry

xerosis

lesion

Front 143

1.)collection of dried serum and cellular debris

2.)A __is a crust

3.)thick walled, closed sac or pouch containing fluid or semisolid material

4.)wearing away or loss of epidermis

5.)groove or crack like sore

6.)flat lesion measuring less than 1 cm in diameter

Back 143

crust

scab

cyst

erosion

fissure

macule

Front 144

1.)example of macules

2.)solid, round or oval elevated lesion 1 cm or more in diameter

3.)small (less than 1 cm in diameter) solid elevation of the skin

4.)__are examples of papules

5.)growth extending from the surface of mucous membrane

Back 144

freckles, tattoo marks, and flat moles

nodule

papule

pimple

polyp

Front 145

1.)an example of a nodule

2.)papule containing pus

3.)a pustule is a small __(collection of pus)

4.)open sore on the skin or mucous membranes (deeper than an erosion)

5.)__ulcers are caused by pressure that results from lying in one position

6.)another name for decubitus ulcers

Back 145

lymph node

pustule

abscess

ulcer

decubitus

bedsores

Front 146

1.)small collection (papule) of clear fluid (serum), also called a blister

2.)a __is a large vesicle

3.)smooth, edematous (swollen) papule or plaque that is redder or paler than the surrounding skin

4.)wheals may be popular as in a __, or may involve a wide area, as in __

Back 146

vesicle

bulla

wheal

mosquito bite, allergic reactions

Front 147

1.)absence of hair from areas where it normally grows

2.)bluish-purplish mark (bruise) on the skin

3.)small pinpoint hemorrhage

4.)both ecchymosis and petechiae are forms of __(bleeding into the skin)

5.)itching

Back 147

alopecia

ecchymosis, ecchymoses

petechi a, petechiae

purpura

pruritus

Front 148

1.)chronic popular and pustular eruption of the skin with increased production of sebum

2.)a __or __is a sebum plug partially blocking the pore

3.)if the pore becomes completely blocked, a __ or __forms

4.)injury to tissues caused by heat contact

Back 148

acne

blackhead, open comedo

whitehead, closed comedo

burning

Front 149

1.) __degree burns are superficial epidermal lesions, erythema, hyperesthesia, and no blisters

2.)__degree burns are epidermal and dermal lesions, erythema, blisters, and hyperesthesia

3.)__degree burns are when the epidermis and dermis are destroyed (necrosis of skin), and subcutaneous layer is damaged, leaving charred, white tissue

Back 149

first

second

third

Front 150

1.)diffuse, acute infection of the skin marked by local heat, redness, pain, and swelling

2.)inflammatory skin disease with erythematous, papulovesicular, or papalosquamous lesions

3.)rash (exanthem) of the skin due to a viral infection

Back 150

cellulitis

eczema (atopic dermatitis)

exanthematous viral diseases

Front 151

1.)examples of exanthematous viral diseases are __(German measles), __(measles), and __(chicken pox)

2.)death of tissue associated with loss of blood supply

3.)bacterial inflammatory skin disease characterized by vesicles, pustules, and crusted-over lesions

Back 151

rubella, rubeola, varicella

gangrene

impetigo

Front 152

1.)impetigo is a contagious pyoderma (pus) and is usually caused by what bacteria

2.)chronic recurrent dermatosis marked by itchy, scaly, red plaques covered by silvery gray scales

3.)contagious, parasitic infection of the skin with intense pruritus

Back 152

staphylococcus, streptococcus

psoriasis

scabies

Front 153

1.)chronic progressive disease of the skin and internal organs with hardening and shrinking of CT

2.)chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease of collagen in skin, joints, and internal organs

3.)infection of the skin caused by a fungus

4.)__or ringworm, so called because the infection is in a ring-like pattern, is highly contagious and causes severe pruritus

Back 153

scleroderma

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

tinea

tinea corporis

Front 154

1.)__is also called athletes foot which affects the skin between the toes

2.)__is infection on the scalp

3.)__is infection affecting the skin under a beard

4.)__is infection affecting the nails

5.)acute allergic reaction in which red, round wheals develop on the skin

Back 154

tinea pedis

tinea capitis

tinea barbae

tinea unguium

urticaria (hives)

Front 155

1.)loss of pigment (depigmentation) in areas of the skin (milk-white patches)

2.)increased growth of cells in the keratin layer of the epidermis caused by pressure or friction

3.)a __is a type of callus that develops a hard core (a whitish, cone-shaped central kernel)

4.)excess hypertrophied, thickened scar developing after trauma or surgical incision

Back 155

vitiligo

callus

corn

keloid

Front 156

1.)thickened and rough lesion of the epidermis; associated with aging or skin damage

2.)white, thickened patches on mucous membrane tissue of the tongue or cheek (evolves to squamous cell carcinoma)

3.)pigmented lesion of the skin

4.)Nevi are commonly known as __

Back 156

keratosis

leukoplakia

nevus, nevi

moles

Front 157

1.)epidermal growth (wart) caused by a virus

2.)___(common wart) is the most frequent type of wart

3.)__warts appear on the soles of the feet

4.)malignant tumor of the basal cell layer of the epidermis

5.)malignant tumor of the squamous epithelial cells in the epidermis

Back 157

verruca, verrucae

verruca vulgaris

plantar

basal cell carcinoma

squamous cell carcinoma

Front 158

1.)cancerous growth composed of melanocytes

2.)malignant, vascular, neoplastic growth characterized by cutaneous nodules

3.)ABCDEs of melanoma

4.)samples of skin are examined for presence of microorganisms

Back 158

1.)malignant melanoma

2.)Kaposi sarcoma

3.)Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolution

4.)bacterial analyses

Front 159

1.)for bacterial analyses, __(pus-filled) or __(fluid that accumulates) often is taken for examination

2.)use of subfreezing temperature achieved with liquid nitrogen application to destroy tissue

3.)use of a sharp dermal curette to scrape away a skin lesion

4.)tissue is destroyed by burning with an electric spark

Back 159

purulent, exudate

cryosurgery

curettage

electrodesiccation

Front 160

1.)thin layers of malignant tissue are removed, and each slice is examined under a microscope to check for adequate extent of the resection

2.)suspected malignant skin lesions are removed and examined microscopically by a pathologist

3.)substances are injected intradermally or applied to the skin, and results are observed

Back 160

Mohs surgery

skin biopsy

skin test

Front 161

1.)in a __test, an allergen-treated piece of gauze or filter paper is applied to the skin, if the skin becomes red or swollen, the result is positive

2.)in the __test, several scratches are made in the skin, and a very minute amount of test material is inserted into the scrateches

3.)ABCDE

Back 161

patch

scratch

for melanoma

Front 162

1.)Bx

2.)Derm

3.)SLE

4.)SC

Back 162

biopsy

dermatology

systemic lupus erythematosus

subcutaneous