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244 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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When does the posterior fontanel close?
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Within the first 3 months
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What age range is Trust vs Mistrust?
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0-12 months
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When do infants teeth emerge?
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Within the first 6 months
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At 6 months of age what can the nurse expect the infants weight to be relative to its birth weight?
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Double
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At what age can a nurse expect the infants weight to be triple that of its birth weight?
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1 year
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At what age does an infant begin to fear separation from its mother?
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6-9 months
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At what age does the anterior fontanelle close?
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18 months
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When does an infant begin to start using words?
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9-12 months
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What age range is Autonomy vs Shame and doubt?
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1-3 years
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A child demonstrating parallel play is assumed to be in what age range?
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1-3 years
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When does a childs teeth completely emerge?
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3-6 years
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What age range is Initiative vs Guilt?
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3-6 years (preschool)
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When does a childs conscience develop?
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3-6 years (preschool)
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At what age does a child learn to tie his/her shoes?
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6 years
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At what age range does a child begin to lose its baby teeth?
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6-12 years (school age)
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At what age does a child begin to discard parental standards
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6-12 years (school age)
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What age range is Industry vs Inferiority?
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6-12 years (school age)
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When does a child begin to develop a rational sense of self?
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12-18 years (Adolescent)
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What age range is Identity vs Inferiority (Role Confusion)?
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12-18 (Adolescent)
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What age range is Intimacy vs Isolation?
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18-35 (young adult)
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At what age range is Generativity vs Stagnation?
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36-65 (Middle age)
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At what age range is Ego Integrity vs Despair?
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65+ (Older adult)
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Performing an act that a reasonable and prudent person would not perform under similar conditions is defined as
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Negligence
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In order to be guilty of malpractice the following 4 things must be present:
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Duty (obligation to maintain a nursing standard)
Breach of duty (failure to maintain standard) Injury Proximate cause (connection between the breach of duty and the injury) |
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Mental or physical threat to touch or harm without permission
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Assault
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Touching or harming without permission, with or without the intent to cause harm.
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Battery
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Detaining a competent person against his or her will, confinement, or use of restraints without clients consent
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False imprisonment
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Exposure or discussion of the clients case (even after death)
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Exposure of a person
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Written statement that may cause harm to a persons reputation
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Libel
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Verbal statement that may cause harm to a persons reputation
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Slander
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Before the administration of medication or taking of blood the following must be performed every time
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Identity must be verified through 2 different sources
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In order for verbal consent to be valid what must be documented?
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Full detail how and why the verbal consent was obtained in addition to 2 witnesses who are not directly related to the treatment or procedure
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Most states limit involuntary commitment to an institution to what time period?
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90 days
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A person declared legally incompetent loses which freedoms?
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Freedom to vote, drive, make contracts, sue or be sued, or hold a professional license
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If a nurse believes a physicians prescription is wrong the nurse should
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Notify physician and nursing supervisor, document it, and refuse to carry out the perscription
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If the nurse believes that a physicians prescription was made with poor judgment the nurse should
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Question the order with the physician, document it, and carry out the prescription regardless.
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If the nurse is asked to perform a task for which he/she has not been prepared educationally or does not have the necessary experience the nurse should
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Inform the physician, refuse the order, and arrange to have supervisor or other nurse perform it.
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When can a nurse reduce a medication dose without a physicians prescription?
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Never
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Clients may be restrained only under which circumstances?
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In an emergency
For a limited time For the limited purpose fo client safety or safety of others |
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A restraint order must be renewed within
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24 hours
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A nurse checks frequently on a restraint patient observing for
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proper circulation and pressure sores/injuries
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HIPAA stands for
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Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
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What tasks can an LPN delegate to others?
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Tasks that do not require nursing judgment (Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Evaluation)
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The 4 aspects of nursing judgment are
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Assessment
Diagnosis Planning Evaluation |
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What are the 4 colors used in the triage system, in order from most urgent to least?
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Red -> Yellow -> Green -> Black
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How is Anthrax spread?
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Inhalation of spores or powder and eating undercooked meat of infected animals.
CANNOT be spread from person to person |
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What is the Anthrax incubation period?
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Within 7 days (inhalation can take up to 42 days)
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What are the S/S of Anthrax?
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Cutaneous: Sores that develop into painless blisters, then ulcers with black centers.
GI: severe stomach pain, bloody diarrhea, anorexia Inhalation: Cold and flue symptoms, muscle aches, chest discomfort, S.O.B. |
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What is the Tx for Anthrax?
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60 day course of antibiotics
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How is Pneumonic plague transmitted?
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Spread by bacteria found in rodents and their fleas. Can also be transmitted via aerosol release or respiratory droplets from infected person
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What is the incubation period for Pneumonic plague?
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1-6 days
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What are the S/S for Pneumonic Plague?
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Rapidly developing pneumonia, bloody or watery sputum, and abdominal pain. Without early Tx: shock, respiratory failure and death
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What is the Tx for Pneumonic Plague?
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Antibiotics for 7 days
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How is Botulism transmitted?
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Eating toxic food or contact of an open wound with C. botulinum.
Cannot be spread person to person |
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What is the incubation period for Botulism?
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A few hours to a few days. Foodborne can take up to 2 weeks.
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What are the S/S of Botulism?
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Diplopia, slurred speech, descending muscle weakness, dysphasia.
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What is the Tx for Botulism?
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Antitoxins to reduce severity. May require mechanical ventilation.
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How is Smallpox transmitted?
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Contact with infected person, Aerosol release, body fluids, contaminated objects.
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What is the incubation period for Smallpox?
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1-2 weeks
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What are the S/S of Smallpox?
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High fever, head and body aches, rash that progresses to raised bumps and pus-filled blisters that crust and scab.
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What is the Tx for Smallpox?
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None
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How is Inhalation Tularemia transmitted?
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Insect bites (usually tick/deerfly), handling sick animals, contaminated food/water.
Cannot be spread person to person |
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What is the Incubation period for Inhalation Tularemia?
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3-5 days but can take 2 weeks
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What are the S/S for Inhalation Tularemia?
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Skin ulcers, swollen/painful lymph gland, mouth sores, pneumonia.
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What is the Tx for Inhalation Tularemia?
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Antibiotics for 2 weeks
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How is Viral Hemorrhagic Fever transmitted?
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Rodents/animal hosts as well as body fluids.
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What is the incubation period for Viral Hemorrhagic Fever?
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2-21 days
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What are the S/S of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever?
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Exhaustion, fever, muscle aches, bleeding under skin and body orifices (mouth,eyes, ears), shock, CNS malfunction, seizures, coma, renal failure.
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What is the Tx for Viral Hemorrhagic Fever?
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No cure. Supportive therapy only.
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How is radiation transmitted?
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x-rays, nuclear bombs/disasters, the sun. Small quantities in air, water, and food cause internal exposure.
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What are the S/S of radiation exposure?
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ARS (Acute radiation syndrome): N/V/Diarrhea, bone marrow depletion, weight loss, loss of appetite, infection, bleeding.
May lead to cancer |
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What does ARDS stand for?
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Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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What is ARDS?
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unexpected, catastrophic pulmonary complication occurring in a person with no previous pulmonary problems. High mortality rate (50%). You will see Hypoxemia and Hypercapnia.
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What is hypercapnia?
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Elevated CO2 levels in the body.
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What is shock?
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Widespread, serious reduction of tissue perfusion
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What are the early signs of shock?
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Agitation and restlessness resulting from cerebral hypoxia
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What is cardiogenic shock?
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Related to ischemia from MI, serious arrythmia, or CHF. If cardiogenic shock exists with the presence of pulmonary edema then position the client to REDUCE venous return (High fowlers w/legs down) to decrease venous return further to the left ventricle.
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What is the Tx for shock?
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Rapid infusion of volume-expanding fluids and then Tx of underlying condition. Drugs are usually withheld until circulating volume normalizes.
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What are the S/S of Acute Hemolytic Reaction?
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Fever, low back pain, chills, tachcardia, hypotension progressing to acute renal failure, shock and cardiac arrest
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What is the intervention if a patient on transfusion therapy presents with Acute Hemolytic Reaction?
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Stop the transfusion, change tubing and continue saline IV. Treat for shock if present. Monitor hourly urine output.
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What are the S/S of Febrile nonhemolytic reaction?
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Sudden chills and fever, headache, anxiety and muscle pain
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What is the treatment for Febrile nonhemolytic reaction?
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Antipyretics
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What are the S/S of mild allergic reaction to transfusion therapy?
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Flushing, itching, urticaria (hives)
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What is urticaria?
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Hives
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What is the treatment for mild allergic reaction to transfusion therapy?
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Antihistamines
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What are the S/S of Anaphylactic reaction to transfusion therapy?
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Anxiety, urticaria, wheezing, progressive cyanosis leading to shock and possible cardiac arrest.
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What is the intervention for a patient who suffers an Anaphylactic reaction to transfusion therapy?
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Initiate CPR
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What are the S/S of Circulatory overload reaction to transfusion therapy?
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Cough, dyspnea, pulmonary congestion, headache, hypertension
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What is the intervention for a patient who suffers circulatory overload reaction from transfusion therapy?
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Place the client in upright position with feet in dependent positions and administer diuretics, oxygen, and morphine
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What are the S/S of sepsis related to transfusion therapy?
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Rapid onset of chills, high fever, vomiting, marked hypotension, and shock
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What is the intervention for sepsis related to transfusion therapy?
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Ensure a patent airway, obtain blood culture, administer prescribed antibiotics and monitor vitals.
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What does DIC stand for?
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Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
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What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation?
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A coagulation disorder with paradoxical thombosis and hemorrhage.
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What are the S/S of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation?
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Petechiae, purpura, hematoma's
Bloody oozing from two or more unexpected sites Hemoptysis Hpotension, tachycardia, and mental status changes |
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What are the nursing interventions for a patient with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation?
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Provide gentle oral care with mouth swabs, turn frequently to eliminate pressure points, minimize number of BP's taken by cuff, minimize needle sticks and use smallest gauge needle possible.
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What causes septic shock?
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Release of endotoxins from bacteria that act on nerves in vascular space in periphery, causing vascular pooling, reduced venous return, decreased CO, and poor systemic perfusion.
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It is important to differentiate between hypovolemic and cardiogenic shock. How might the nurse determine the existence of cardiogenic shock?
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History of MI with left ventricular failure or possible cardiomyopathy, with symptoms of pulmonary edema
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If a client is in cardiogenic shock, what might result from administration of volume expanding fluids?
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Pulmonary edema
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List 5 assessment findings found in most shock victims
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Tachycardia
Tachypnia Hypotension Cool clammy skin Decrease in urinary output |
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What is the normal central venous pressure for an adult?
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4-10 cm of H20
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What is the established minimum renal output per hour?
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30 ml/hr
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List four measurable criteria that are the major expected outcomes of a shock crisis
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BP mean of 80-90 mmHg
PO2 more than 50 mmHg CVP above 6 cm of H2O Urine output at least 30 mL/hr |
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What drug is used in the treatment of DIC?
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Heparin
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What causes Cardiopulmonary arrest?
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Miocardial Infarction
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What are the S/S of a patient immediately preceding an MI?
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Chest pain at rest or with moderate activity
Described as crushing, pressing or heavy pain (elephant sitting on chest) Tends to increase in intensity over a few minutes May be substernal or more diffused - radiating to shoulder, neck/jaw, or back. |
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What are the steps to preforming CPR?
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Position person in supine position, shake and call out "Are you okay?"
If no response call 911 Establish airway be extending neck with the head/tilt, chin/lift, clear airway of foreign body if visible Look, listen, and feel for breathing If no breathing ventilate 2 breaths, assess circulation and if no pulse begin compressions |
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What causes hyponatremia?
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Diuretics
GI fluid loss D5W or hypotonic IV fluids Diaphoresis |
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What are the S/S of hyponatremia?
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Anorexia, N/V, weakness, lethargy, confusion, seizures.
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What is the Tx for Hyponatremia?
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Restrict fluids
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What causes hypernatremia?
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Water deprivation, renal failure, cushings syndrome, diabetes insipidus
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What are the S/S of hypernatremia?
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Thirst, hyperpyrexia, dry mouth, irritability, seizures.
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What is the Tx for hypernatremia?
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restrict sodium in diet and increase water intake
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What causes hypokalemia?
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Diuretics, hyperaldosteronism, bulimia, cushing syndrom
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What are the S/S of hypokalemia?
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Fatigue, anorexia, N/V, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, paresthesia, flat T waves
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What is the Tx for hypokalemia?
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Potassium supplements (potassium IV should NEVER be given as a bolus)
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What causes hyperkalemia?
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Oliguria, acidosis, renal failure, addison disease
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What are the S/S of hyperkalemia?
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Muscle weakness, bradycardia, dysrhythmias, tall T waves
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What is the Tx for hyperkalemia?
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Kayexalate, glucose, and insulin
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What causes hypocalcemia?
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Renal failure, hypoparathyroidism, alkalosis
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What are the S/S of hypocalcemia?
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numbness, tingling of extremities, + Trousseau sign, Chvostek sign
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What is the Tx for hypocalcemia?
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Administer calcium suppliments
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What causes hypercalcemia?
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Hyperparathyroidism, prolonged immobilization, excess calcium suppliments
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What are the S/S of hypercalcemia?
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Constipation, anorexia, polyuria, polydipsia, dysrhythmia
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What is the treatment for hypercalcemia?
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Loop diuretics, calcitonin, avoid calcium based antacids
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What causes hypomagnesemia?
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Alcoholism, DKA, diuretics
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What are the S/S of hypomagnesemia?
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Anorexia, distention, depression, disorientation
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What causes hypermagnesemia?
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Renal failure, adrenal insufficiency
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What are the S/S of hypermagnesemia?
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Flushing, hypotension, depressed respirations, bradycardia, hypoactive reflexes
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What causes hypophosphatemia?
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Refeeding after starvation, alcohol withdrawl, DKA
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What are the S/S of hypophosphatemia?
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Paresthesias, muscle weakness/pain, respiratory failure
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What causes hyperphosphatemia?
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Renal failure
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What is the lab value range for phosphorus?
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2-4.5 mEq/L
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What is the lab value range for magnesemia?
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1.5-2.5
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What is the lab value range for Calcium?
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8.5-10.5
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What is the lab value range for potassium?
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3.5-5
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What is the lab value range for sodium?
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135-145
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What type of solution is 0.9% normal saline?
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Isotonic
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What type of solution is Lactated Ringers?
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Isotonic
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What type of solution is D5W
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Isotonic
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What are isotonic solutions used for?
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To expand the intravascular space
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What are hypotonic solutions used for?
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To move fluid from ECF to ICF
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What type of solution is 0.45% normal saline?
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hypotonic
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What type of solution is 2.5% dextrose in 0.45% saline?
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hypotonic
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What do hypertonic solutions do?
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Pull fluid out of the intracellular space
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What type of solution is 5% dextrose in lactated ringers?
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Hypertonic
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What type of solution is 5% dextrose in 0.45% saline?
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Hypertonic
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What type of solution is 5% dextrose in 0.9% saline?
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Hypertonic
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How often should IV tubing and dressing be changed?
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Every 72 hours
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When an IV is discontinued, pressure should be applied to the site for
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1-3 minutes
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Administration sets should be changed every
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72 hours
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Primary IV solution bags should not hang for over (what period of time?)
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24 hours
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Don't start an IV on a lower extremity
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This isn't a question, don't do it.
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To help prevent phlebitis, a cannulation site should never be placed over
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a joint
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A normal pH ratio is x parts carbonic acid to x parts bicarbonate
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1 carbonic acid : 20 bicarb
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What is the normal range of carbon dioxide (pCO2)?
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35-45 mmHg
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What is the normal range for bicarbonate (HCO3)?
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22-26
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The standard ECG contains how many leads?
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12
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On an ECG, what does the P wave represent?
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atrial systole; depolarization of the atrial muscle.
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On an ECG, what does the QRS complex represent?
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ventricular systole' depolarization of the ventricular muscle
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On an ECG, what does the T wave represent?
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ventricular diastole' repolarization of the ventricular muscle
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On an ECG, what does the ST segment represent?
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early ventricular repolarization
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On an ECG, what does the PR interval represent?
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The time required for the impose to travel through the atria (SA node), through the A-V node, to the Purkinje fibers.
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On an ECG, what does the U wave represent?
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Not always present but if seen may indicate hypokalemia
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On an ECG, what does the QT interval represent?
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The time required to completely depolarize and repolarize ventricles
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On an ECG, what does the R - R interval represent?
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The regularity of the heart rhythm. Measured from one QRS to the next.
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What are the two main fluid status's that provide increased risk factors for surgery?
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Dehydration and hypovolemia.
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What is an LPN's primary focus for preoperative care of a patient?
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Education about postoperative care, NPO, and assistance with meeting family needs.
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What is an LPN's primary focus for the operative phase of patient care?
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Assessment, management of the operative suite.
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What is an LPN's primary focus for the postanesthesia phase of patient care?
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Pain management, postanesthesia precautions
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What is an LPN's primary focus for the postoperative phase of patient care?
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Prevent and assess for complications, pain management, dietary restrictions, activity.
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The postoperative complication of urinary retention usually manifests in what time frame?
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8-12 hours postop
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The postoperative complication of pulmonary problems (atelectasis, pneumonia, embolus) usually manifests in what time frame?
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1-2 days post op
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The postoperative complication of wound-healing problems usually manifests in what time frame?
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5-6 days post op
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The postoperative complication of UTI's generally manifests in what time frame?
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5-8 days post op
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The postoperative complication of Thrombophlebitis usually manifests in what time frame?
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6-14 days post op
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The postoperative complication of decreased GI peristalsis usually manifests in what time frame?
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2-4 days post op
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What nursing interventions are performed for a post op client to reduce the risk of urinary retention?
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Monitor hydration status, offer bedpan or assistance to commode, catheterize as needed per prescription
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What nursing interventions are performed for a post op client to reduce the risk of pulmonary problems (atelectasis, pneumonia, embolus)
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Assist client to turn, cough, deep breathe q2 hours, keep client hydrated, early ambulation and early incentive spirometer.
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What nursing interventions are performed for a post op client to reduce the risk of wound-healing problems?
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Splint incision when client coughs, monitor for signs of infection/malnutrition/dehydration, high-protein diet and keep wound clean and dry.
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What nursing interventions are performed for a post op client to reduce the risk of UTI's?
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Emptying of bladder q4-q6 hours, avoid catheters if possible.
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What nursing interventions are performed for a post op client to reduce the risk of thrombophlebitis?
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Leg exercises q2 hrs while in bed, early ambulation, apply antiembolus (TED) stockings, low dose heparin may be used prophylactically.
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What nursing interventions are performed for a post op client to reduce the risk of decreased GI peristalsis?
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NG tubing to decompress GI tract, encourage early ambulation, limit use of narcotic analgesics that decrease peristalsis.
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AIDS targets which cell (specifically) to reproduce?
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CD4 T-cell
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How long does it take for symptoms of HIV to manifest after being exposed?
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3 weeks but then person becomes asymptomatic.
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What test is used to confirm HIV?
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Western Blot test
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What are the S/S of HIV?
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Loss of appetite / extreme weight loss. Unexplained fever lasting longer than a week. Night sweats. White spots on mouth and throat. Painless purple-blue lesions on the skin.
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What are the S/S of Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia (PCP)?
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Fever, dry cough, dyspnea at rest, chills
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What are the S/S of Kaposi's sarcoma?
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Purple-blue lesions on skin (usually arms/legs)
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What are the S/S of Cryptosporidiosis?
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Severe, watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, nausea and malaise
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What are the S/S of Candidiasis of the oral cavity?
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Thick-white exudate, unusual taste to food, oral ulcers
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What are the S/S of cryptococcal meningitis?
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Headache, changes in level of consciousness, stiff neck, diplopia, n/v
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What are the S/S of cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis?
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Impaired vision in one or both eyes. Can lead to blindness
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What are the S/S of cytomegalovirus (CMV) colitis?
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Diarrhea, weight loss, malabsorption of nutrients
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What are the S/S of Disseminated cytomegalovirus (CMV)?
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Malaise, fever, pancytopenia, weight loss, positive cultures from blood, urine or throat.
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What are the S/S of Perirectal Mucocutaneous herpes simplex viral infections?
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Severe pain, bleeding, rectal discharge, ulceration in the rectal area
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What are the S/S of lymphomas of the CNS?
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Change in mental status, apathy, psychomotor slowing, seizures
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What are the S/S of HIV Encephalopathy?
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Memory loss, impaired concentration, apathy/depression, psychomotor slowing (most prominent symptom), incontinence.
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If a mother has HIV what is the % that the child has of being infected with HIV as well?
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30-50%
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What is the drug given to HIV positive mothers that reduces the neonates chance of acquiring HIV?
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Zidovudine (Retrovier)
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If a mother has HIV and is taking Zidovudine (retrovier) what is the % that the child has of being infected with HIV as well?
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4-8%
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What are the physical S/S of acute pain?
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Increased heart rate and CO, increased BP, pupillary dilation, palmar sweating, hyperventilation.
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What are the physical S/S of chronic pain?
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Sleep disturbances, irritability, appetite disturbances, pain intolerance, depression, social withdrawal.
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What is the Gate control theory?
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It is thought that stimulation of large, fast-conducting sensory fibers oppose input from small pain fibers, thus blocking pain perception.
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What is the Endorphin theory?
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Endorphins are naturally occuring neurotransmitters that bind with opiate receptors in the CNS and modulate pain.
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What is the preferred method of administering analgesics?
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Oral
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What is the preferred narcotic for pain relief? What is the most significant side effect to remember?
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Morphine. It causes respiratory depression.
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What are the 5 stages of grief?
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Denial -> Anger -> Bargaining -> Depression -> Acceptance
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When a patient is dying, what is the last sense to go?
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Hearing
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What are Cheyne-Stokes respirations?
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Periods of apnea lasting 10-60 seconds followed by increasing depth and frequency of respiration's. Usually seen in patients near death.
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What is Rigor mortis?
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Muscles begin to stiffen 3-4 hours after death reaching peak rigidity at 12 hours. It gradually dissipates over the next 48-60 hours.
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What is pneumonia?
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Inflammation of the lower respiratory tract. Can be bacterial, viral, fungal (rare) or chemical.
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What are the S/S of pneumonia?
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Tachypnea, abrupt onset of fever with shaking/chills, productive cough with pleuritic pain, rapid/bounding pulse, crackles.
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What position would you place a client with pneumonia in when assisting them to eat?
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Raise head of the bed and position on the side, not on the back.
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Irritability and restlessness are early signs of
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cerebral hypoxia
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What is the normal ABG value of oxygen (pO)?
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80-100 mmHg
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A barrel chest indicates that the client most likely has
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emphysema
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What is clubbing associated with?
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hypoxia
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Oxygen administration needs to be hydrated if given at what rate?
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more than 4 L/min
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What age is cancer of the larynx usually diagnosed? Is it more common in men or women?
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55-70 years old. Men are affected 8 times more than women.
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What are the S/S of cancer of the larynx?
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Hoarseness for greater than 2 weeks. Color changes in mouth or tongue. Later changes include: dysphagia, dyspnea, hemoptysis, neck pain radiating to the ear, weight loss, halitosis.
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What are the S/S of tuberculosis?
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Fever with night sweats, anorexia/weight loss, malaise/fatigue, hemoptysis, pleuritic chest pain on inspiration.
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What is the leading cause of cancer related deaths in the US?
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Lung Cancer. Smoking is responsible for 80-90% of all lung cancers.
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What are the S/S of lung cancer?
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Dry, hacking cough, hoarseness, hemoptysis (rust colored sputum), pain in the chest area.
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What are the three types of acute renal failure?
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Prerenal, intrarenal, postrenal.
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What are the S/S of fluid volume excess?
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Dyspnea
Tachypnea Jugular vein distension peripheral edema pulmonary edema |
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What are the S/S of fluid volume deficit?
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Decreased urine output
reduction in body weight decreased skin turgor/dry mucous membranes hypotension tachycardia |
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What are the S/S of chronic renal failure (end stage renal disease)
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Edema
Pulmonary edema Jaundice Oliguric/Anuric/Cloudy urine Neurologic impairment (weakness,drowsiness) Ammonia breath/metallic taste in mouth |
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What dietary restriction would be placed on someone with end stage renal disease / chronic renal failure?
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Low-protein
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What is the most common infectious agent that results in UTI?
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Escherichia coli
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At what age are men most at risk for benign prostatic hyperplasia?
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over 40
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What are the S/S of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia?
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Increased frequency with a decrease in amount of each voiding.
Nocturia Hesitancy Terminal dribbling Decrease in size and force of stream |
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What is the relationship of the kidnesy to the cardiovascular system?
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Kidneys filter about a liter of blood per minute. If CO is decreased, the amount of blood going through the kidneys is decreased causing urinary output to decrease. A decreased urinary output may be a sign of cardiac problems.
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What is Angina?
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Chest discomfort/pain occurring when myocardial oxygen demands exceed supply causing temporary ischemia.
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What are the most common causes of Angina?
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Hypertension, atherosclerosis, coronary artery spasm, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
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What are the S/S of Angina?
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Substernal pain raidiating to the shoulder/jaw. Often precipitated by exercise, exposure to cold, heavy meal, sex. Relieved by rest and/or nitroglycerine.
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If a patient with a history of Angina experiences chest pain, what should they do before calling 911?
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Take a dose of nitroglycerine every 5 minutes. If pain still presents after 15 minutes call 911.
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What is Myocardial Infarction?
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Disruption or deficiency of coronary artery blood supply resulting in necrosis of myocardial tissue.
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What are the main causes of Myocardial Infarction?
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Thrombus, shock, hemorrhage.
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What is hypertension? What causes it?
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Persistent blood pressure levels greater than 140/90. No known etiology.
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What is Peripheral Vscular Disease (PVD)?
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PVD involves circulatory problems that can be due to either arterial or venous pathology. 95% of cases are caused by atherosclerosis.
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What is an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)?
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Dilation of the abdominal aorta caused by an alteration in the integrity of the wall. Most common cause is atherosclerosis.
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What are the S/S of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)?
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Asymptomatic.
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What is Thrombophlebitis?
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Inflammation of the venous walls with the formation of a clot. Also known as deep vein thrombosis.
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What are the S/S of Thrombophlebitis?
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Calf or groin pain. Functional impairment of extremity. Edema/warmth in extremeity.
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