Hemolymph Cvt Xv Sc 2

Front 1

This drug is a purine analog that has a greater affinity for humoral immunity than on cell-mediated immunity and can cause bone marrow suppression, acute pancreatitis, and hepatotoxicity

Back 1

a. Azathioprine
58

Front 2

This drug causes alkylation of DNA during the S phase, is myelsuppressive, and causes gastroenteritis, alopecia and hemorrhagic cystitis, is not cytotoxic or myelotoxic, specific for lymphocytes and produces T and B cell lymphopenia and suppresses both T-cell activity and antibody production

Back 2

a. Cyclophosphamide
59

Front 3

This drug competitively inhibits folic acid reductase and affects production of purines and pyrimidines as well as having a majority of its effects during the S phase- therefore used against many different cancers

Back 3

a. Methotrexate
60

Front 4

This drug is used for inhibiting destructive enzymes in allogenic tissues, inhibits relase of Arachadonic acid from membrane phospholipids, prevents synthesis of prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes, redistributes monocytes and lymphocytes from peripheral circulation to lymphatics and bone marrow, stabilizes cell membranes and inhibits local chemotactic factors

Back 4

a. Prednisone
61

Front 5

This drug is bound in the cytosol of lymphocytes by cyclophilins (thereby inhibiting calcineurin-calmodulin complexes), inhibits T cell activation and prevents cytokine production such as IL-2, can promote development of neoplasias and gingival hyperplasia, and is bound in the cytosol of lymphocytes by cyclophilins

Back 5

a. Cyclosporine
62

Front 6

This medication decreased liver damage associated with ischemia-reperfusion injury, stimulates hepatic regeneration, binds to the cytosol of lymphocytes with an immunophilin- FK binding protein, and inhibits de novo expression of nuclear regulatory proteins and t-cell activation genes. Suppresses IL-2, IL-3, IL-4, IL-5, interferon y, TNF alpha, GM-CSF for lymphocyte activation

Back 6

a. Tacrolimus
63

Front 7

This macrocyclic antibiotic binds to FKBP in cytosol and blocks activation of mTOR, drug blocks T-cell activation by IL-2, IL-4, and IL-6 and stimulation of B cell proliferation by lipopolysaccharide. Side effects include hyperlipidemia, thrombocytopenia, mouth ulcers, pneumonitis, nephrotoxicity, interstitial lung disease

Back 7

a. Sirolimus
64

Front 8

This drug is cytostatic for lymphocytes, a relatively selective inhibitor of T and B cell proliferation during S phase and prevents purine biosynthesis. It’s main side effects include anemia, weight loss, leukopenia, diarrhea, anorexia, vasculitis, and GI hemorrhage

Back 8

a. Mycophenolate
65

Front 9

This drug is metabolized to its active form by the intestines, antiproliferative in the S phase, and inhibits diydroorotrate dehydrogenase with inhibits pyrimidine biosynthesis. GI side effects occur from an accumulation of trimethylfluoroanaline (TMFA)

Back 9

a. Luflenomide
66

Front 10

This drug alteres lymphocyte tracking, sphingosine-1 phosphate antagonist, sequesters C4+ and C8+ TC and BC in LN and peyers patches and is derived from fungus

Back 10

a. FTY 720
67

Front 11

IMHA is driven by what kind of lymphocyte

Back 11

a. CD4 T-cell
68

Front 12

Which immunoglobulin class is associated with splenic clearance of targed Rbc in IMHA (extravascular)

Back 12

a. IgG
69

Front 13

Which immunoglobulin class is associated with complement mediated removal of RBC’s (intravascular)

Back 13

a. IgM and IgG
70

Front 14

Which inflammatory cytokines are associated with IMHA

Back 14

a. Monocyte chemoattractant protein-1
b. Granulocyte-macrophage- CSF
71

Front 15

How are platelets typically affected in IMHA

Back 15

a. Activated in circulation through up regulation of P-selectin expression
72

Front 16

What is the proposed cause for hypercoagulability in patients with IMHA

Back 16

a. Abnormalities in coagulation parameters, DIC is present at the time of diagnosis in a majority of patients (less likely endothelial damage or blood stasis as thrombi are predominantly venous)
73

Front 17

All of the following are poor prognostic indicators or predictive of poor outcome in IMHA

Back 17

a. Hyperbiliurbinemia, thrombocytopenia, leukocytosis (left shift), increased levels of IL-15, IL-18, GM-CSF, MCP-1 (high risk of death), high serum lactate
b. Less commonly: petechiation, azotemia, hypoalbuminemia
c. NOT associated with degree of anemia or magnitude of spherocytosis or reticulocytosis
74

Front 18

A rare side effect of azathioprine is what

Back 18

a. Hepatotoxicity
75

Front 19

A rare side effect of cyclosporine is what

Back 19

a. Renal toxicity
76

Front 20

Which is more potent, Azathioprine or Mycophenolate

Back 20

a. Mycophenolate is 10 x more potent
77

Front 21

What are some common causes for platelet sequestration

Back 21

a. Splenic congestion, hepatomegaly, neoplasia, endotoxemia, hypothermia
78

Front 22

Which drug is most commonly associated with IMTP

Back 22

a. TMS
79

Front 23

Which two canine infections most commonly cause secondary IMHA

Back 23

a. Ehrlichiosis and RMSF
80

Front 24

Which infectious diseases can be associated with bone marrow suppression

Back 24

a. Felv, FIV, Panleukopenia, parvovirus, chronic monocytic ehrlichiosis
81

Front 25

Which infectious diseases commonly cause DIC

Back 25

a. Gram negative bacterial sepsis, lepto, salmonellosis, babesiosis
82

Front 26

This infectious disease should be suspected with cyclic thrombocytopenia

Back 26

a. Monocytic ehrlichiosis
83

Front 27

Which four dog breeds have increased incidence of primary ITP

Back 27

a. Cocker spaniels, german shepherds, poodle, old English sheepdog
84

Front 28

What is the limitation of assays looking at anti-platelet antibodies

Back 28

a. Cannot tell a primary from a secondary cause
85

Front 29

Indirect testing for anti-platelet antibodies will test for what

Back 29

a. Platelet binding autoantibodies in the serum
86

Front 30

A direct test for anti-platelet antibodies tests for what

Back 30

a. Antibody present on surface of platelets or megakaryocytes (D-MIFA looks for those just targeting megakaryocytes)
87

Front 31

Poor prognostic indicators for IMTP include what

Back 31

a. Melena, elevated BUN, anemia and intracranial hemorrhage are the worst
b. Severity of thrombocytopenia is NOT a poor prognostic indicator
88

Front 32

Which tests are required to assess vWD

Back 32

a. BMBT (will be longer than 6 minutes) or PFA to assess collagen/ADP closure time (over 120 seconds is prolonged)
b. Plasma VWF antigen (VWF:Ag) expressed as a percentage and less than 50% is abnormal
89

Front 33

Vonwillebrand’s disease is inherited how

Back 33

a. Autosomal recessive as carriers are generally not affected
90

Front 34

Which factor deficiencies are x-linked

Back 34

a. Hemophilia A and B
91

Front 35

Which factor deficiencies are autosomal

Back 35

a. Fibrinogen: Borzoi collie, bichon frise, domestic cat
b. Factor VII: Beagle, Deerhounds, Malamutes
c. Favor XI: Kerry Blue Terriers, Springer Spaniels, Domestic cats
d. Factor XII: Seen in cats
92

Front 36

How is cryoprecipitate made

Back 36

a. Slow thawing of FFP, centrifuge the thawed plasma to get large insoluble proteins-> then re-frozen (advantage of giving vWF, VIII, fibrinogen with small volume vs. FFP)
93

Front 37

How is cryosupernate made

Back 37

a. Plasma remaining after the cryoprecipitate is made (has all other clotting factors except vWF, VIII, fibrinogen- used for hemophilia B, factor II, VII, IX, X, XI deficiencies)
94

Front 38

What is the mechanism of action for Desmopressin

Back 38

a. Synthetic analog or arginine vasopressin and promotes hemostasis by inducing endothelial release of vWF stores and enhances platelet function
95

Front 39

How does aminocaproic acid work

Back 39

a. Inhibits fibrinolysis by inhibiting plasmin activation
96

Front 40

Cancer patients can have an increased incidence of DIC because of what compound activating factor X

Back 40

a. Cysteine protease
97

Front 41

What inflammatory cytokines downregulate protein C activity

Back 41

a. IL-1b, TNFa
98

Front 42

What actions does anti-thrombin have

Back 42

a. Binds thrombin and factors IX, X, XI, XII and Tissue Factor VIIa
99

Front 43

Which dog breed misses DAL (DEA 4)

Back 43

a. Dalmations
100

Front 44

Which two interleukins cause mast cell degranulation

Back 44

a. IL-3, IL-9
101

Front 45

Which interleukin helps in eosinophil production

Back 45

a. IL-5
102

Front 46

Which three interleukins stimulate acute phase protein production and are pyrogens

Back 46

a. IL-1, IL-6, TNFa
103

Front 47

Which interleukin stimulates neutrophil chemotaxis

Back 47

a. IL-8
104

Front 48

Which interleukin mediates allergic airway disease

Back 48

a. IL-13
105

Front 49

Which interleukin stimulates both IgE and IgA

Back 49

a. IL-5
106

Front 50

Which interleukin stimulates IgE and enables antibody isotype switching

Back 50

a. IL-4
107

Front 51

Which 7 interleukins cause T cell proliferation and activation

Back 51

a. IL-1, IL-2, IL-4, IL- 7, IL-9, IL-12, TNF alpha
108

Front 52

Which 7 interleukins cause B cell proliferation and differentiation

Back 52

a. IL-1, IL2 + IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-11, TNFalpha
109

Front 53

Which interleukin interferes with viral growth and enhances NK cells and macrophages

Back 53

a. Interferon gamma
110

Front 54

Which interleukin enhances PMN killing, facilitates death and necrosis of certain tumor cells, and inhibits lipoprotein lipase A

Back 54

a. TNF aplpa
111

Front 55

Which interleukin causes proliferation of granulocytes and macrophages

Back 55

a. GM-CSF
112

Front 56

Which interleukin inhibits macrophage function and attracts monocytes and fibroblasts to allow for wound healing by collage synthesis

Back 56

a. TNF-beta