Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
81 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
WBC differential from highest to lowest
|
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes Monocytes Eosinophils Basophils Neutrophils Like Making Everything Better |
|
|
RBC
What 2 structural features allow for a large surface area: volume ratio --> good gas exchange |
anucleate, biconcave
|
|
|
RBC
source of energy |
glucose
90% degraded to lactate 10% degraded by HMP shunt |
|
|
What does the RBC contain in its membrane to allow it to transport CO2 to the lungs
|
chloride-bicarbonate antiporter
|
|
|
WBC differential from highest to lowest
|
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes Monocytes Eosinophils Basophils Neutrophils Like Making Everything Better |
|
|
RBC - survival time
|
120 days
|
|
|
RBC
What 2 structural features allow for a large surface area: volume ratio --> good gas exchange |
anucleate, biconcave
|
|
|
Definition
a. erythrocytosis? b. anisocytoosis c. poikilocytosis d. reticulocyte |
a. polycythemia = increase in number of red cells
b. varying sizes c. varying shapes d. immature RBC |
|
|
RBC
source of energy |
glucose
90% degraded to lactate 10% degraded by HMP shunt |
|
|
Thrombocyte/platelet
derived from where |
Cytoplasmic fragment from megakaryocyte
|
|
|
What does the RBC contain in its membrane to allow it to transport CO2 to the lungs
|
chloride-bicarbonate antiporter
|
|
|
Platelets
a. what are 2 components of dense granules b. what are 2 components of a-granules |
a. ADP, Ca
b. vWF, fibrinogen |
|
|
RBC - survival time
|
120 days
|
|
|
Platelets
a. site of storage b. life span |
a. 1/3 in spleen
b. 8-10 days |
|
|
Definition
a. erythrocytosis? b. anisocytoosis c. poikilocytosis d. reticulocyte |
a. polycythemia = increase in number of red cells
b. varying sizes c. varying shapes d. immature RBC |
|
|
petechiae
what is the cause? |
thrombocytopenia or platelet dysfunction
|
|
|
WBC differential from highest to lowest
|
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes Monocytes Eosinophils Basophils Neutrophils Like Making Everything Better |
|
|
Thrombocyte/platelet
derived from where |
Cytoplasmic fragment from megakaryocyte
|
|
|
RBC
What 2 structural features allow for a large surface area: volume ratio --> good gas exchange |
anucleate, biconcave
|
|
|
RBC
source of energy |
glucose
90% degraded to lactate 10% degraded by HMP shunt |
|
|
Platelets
a. what are 2 components of dense granules b. what are 2 components of a-granules |
a. ADP, Ca
b. vWF, fibrinogen |
|
|
What does the RBC contain in its membrane to allow it to transport CO2 to the lungs
|
chloride-bicarbonate antiporter
|
|
|
Platelets
a. site of storage b. life span |
a. 1/3 in spleen
b. 8-10 days |
|
|
RBC - survival time
|
120 days
|
|
|
petechiae
what is the cause? |
thrombocytopenia or platelet dysfunction
|
|
|
Definition
a. erythrocytosis? b. anisocytoosis c. poikilocytosis d. reticulocyte |
a. polycythemia = increase in number of red cells
b. varying sizes c. varying shapes d. immature RBC |
|
|
Thrombocyte/platelet
derived from where |
Cytoplasmic fragment from megakaryocyte
|
|
|
Platelets
a. what are 2 components of dense granules b. what are 2 components of a-granules |
a. ADP, Ca
b. vWF, fibrinogen |
|
|
Platelets
a. site of storage b. life span |
a. 1/3 in spleen
b. 8-10 days |
|
|
petechiae
what is the cause? |
thrombocytopenia or platelet dysfunction
|
|
|
Platelet
a. vWF receptor b. Fibrinogen receptor |
a. GpIb
b. GpIIb/IIIa |
|
|
3 granulocytes
2 mononuclear cells |
basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils
monocytes, lymphocytes |
|
|
Titer of leukocytes
Job |
4000 - 10,000 per microliter
Protect against infection |
|
|
Cell involved in acute inflammatory response
4 things contained in its granules |
neutrophils
hydrolytic enzymes, lysozyme, myeloperoxidase, lactoferrin |
|
|
% of WBCs taken up by PMNs
|
45-70%
|
|
|
In what condition would you see hypersegmented PMNs
|
vitamin B12/folate deficiency
|
|
|
Monocytes
a. % of leukocytes b. exists where c. differentiates into what in tissues |
a. 2-10
b. blood c. macrophages |
|
|
Phagocytoses cell debris, sensecent RBCs, scavenges damaged cells and tissues, functions as APC via its MHC II
activated by what |
Macrophage
g-IFN |
|
|
Blood component responsible for defense against helminthic infections (major basic protein), phagocytic for Ag-Ab complexes, limits reaction after mast cell degranulation
a. % of WBCs b. what does it contain |
Eosinophil
a. 1-6% b. granules of uniform size --> histaminase and arylsulfatase |
|
|
5 causes of eosinophilia
|
NAACP
Neoplastic Asthma Allergies Collagen vascular disease Parasites (invasive) |
|
|
Blood component that mediates an allergic reaction (blue)
what 3 things does it contain in its granules |
basophil
heparin (anticoag) histamine (vasodilator) + vasoactive amines Leukotrienes (LTD-4) |
|
|
Blood component involved in type I hypersenstivity reactions
what 3 things does it secrete on degranulation what can it bind to allow allergic reaction to occur |
mast cell
histamine, heparin, eosinophil chemotactic factor binds the Fc portion of IgE to membrane |
|
|
Drug used to treat asthma that works by preventing mast cell degranulation
|
cromolyn sodium
|
|
|
Professionl APCs that induce the primary antibody response
what do they express on their surface? what are they called on skin? |
Dendritic cells
MHC II, Fc receptor Langerhan's |
|
|
2 types of lymphocytes and their jobs
|
B - produce Abs
T - CMI, regulate B lymphocytes and macrophages |
|
|
B cells
once they mature, where do they go? when they encounter an antigen, what happens |
peripheral lymphoid tissue (LN follicles, white pulp of spleen, unencapsulated lymphoid tissue)
encounters antigen --> differentiates into plasma cell --> Ab production |
|
|
3 proteins on the membrane of B cells
|
CD19, CD20, MHC II
|
|
|
Off center nucleus, clock-face chromatin, abundant RER, well-developed Golgi
a. what is the blood cell b. what does it produce c. neoplasm is called what |
plasma cell
antibody nultiple myeloma |
|
|
3 things that T cells differentiate into once they have matured
|
Cytotoxic T cells (CD8, MHC I)
hepler T cells (CD4, MHC II) Suppressor T cells (CD4 * MHC = 8) |
|
|
80% of circulating lympocytes are...
|
T cells
|
|
|
Blood groups: A
a. antigen on RBC surface b. Ab in plasma |
a. A
b. B |
|
|
Blood groups: B
a. antigen on RBC surface b. Ab in plasma |
a. B
b. A |
|
|
Blood groups: AB
a. antigen on RBC surface b. Ab in plasma |
a. A and B
b. none "universal recipient" |
|
|
Blood groups: O
a. antigen on RBC surface b. Ab in plasma |
a. none
b. A and B Universal donor |
|
|
Blood groups: Rh
a. antigen on RBC surface b. what is hemolytic disease of newborn (erythroblastis fetalis)? c. treat? |
a. Rh
b. Rh neg mom exposed to Rh+ blood on fetus --> produces anti-Rh IgG, which attacks subsequent preganancies Treat: Rh antigen Ig (rhogam) for mom at first delivery |
|
|
Type of Ig? Cross the placenta?
a. anti-AB b. anti-Rh? |
a. IgM, no
b. IgG, yes |
|
|
Coagulation cascade - extrinsic pathway
|
1. VII --> VIIa (thromboplastin)
2. X --> Xa, joins with Va (activated by IIa) 3. II --> IIa (thrombin) 4. thrombin activates fibrinogen to fibrin, which interacts with Ca and XIIIa --> fibrin mesh |
|
|
4 activators of the intrinsic coagulation pathway
|
Collagen, basement membrane, activated platelets
HMWK |
|
|
Effect of Prokallikrein --> Kallikrein (via XIIa) (2)
|
1. activates HMWK --> bradykinin --> vasodilation, permeability, pain
2. activates plasminogen --> plasmin, which activates C3a (complement cascade) |
|
|
What activates bradykinin?
What inactivates bradykinin? |
kallikrein
ACE |
|
|
Factor VIII deficiency =
|
hemophilia A
|
|
|
Factor IX deficiency
|
Hemophilia B
|
|
|
If Vitamin K deficiency, what 6 components of the coagulation cascade will be missing?
|
Factors II, VII, IX, X, protein C, protein S
|
|
|
Antithrombin
a. inhibits what 5 coagulation factors b. how is it activated |
a. thrombin, IXa, Xa, XIa, XIIa
b. heparin |
|
|
Procoagulation: vitamin K
a. how is it activaated b. what does it cause |
a. epoxide reductase
b. mature II, VII, IX, X, C, S |
|
|
Vitamin K
a. what does warfarin inhibit b. what do neonates lack, needed for vitamin K |
a. inhibits epoxide reductase (can't activate vitamin K)
b. lack enteric bacteria, which produce vitamin K |
|
|
what carries and protects factor VIII?
|
vWF
|
|
|
Anticoagulation
role of antithrombin? (inhibits which factors) how is it activated? |
inactivates factors II, VII, IX, X, XI, XII
heparin |
|
|
Anticoagulation
Protein C a. how is it activated b. role |
a. Protein S; thrombomodulin (endothelial cells)
b. inactivates Va and VIIIa |
|
|
Anticoagulation
Plasminogen how is it activated what does it do |
a. tPA stimulates plasminogen to plasmin (thrombolytic)
b. ceaves fibrin mesh |
|
|
What is the effect of a factor V leiden mutation
|
produces a factor V that is resistant to Activated Protein C's inhibition
|
|
|
Platelet plug formation
a. injury step b. adhesion step c. what happens next |
a. vWF binds to exposed collagen on damaged endothelium
b. platelet adheres to vWF via GPIb receptor c. platelets release ADP and Ca |
|
|
Role of ADP in platelet plug formation
|
1. ADP helps platelets adhere to endothelium
2. induces GpIIb/IIIa expression at platelet surface --> binds fibrinogen, links platelets |
|
|
Pro-aggregation factor released by platelets and effect
|
TXA2 --> low blood flow, high platelet aggregation
|
|
|
Anti-aggregation factors from endothelial cells and what do they do?
|
PGI2 and NO --> increase blood flow, decrease platelet agg
|
|
|
Inhibitors of ADP-induced expression of GPIIb/GPIIIa
Inhibitor of GPIIb/IIIa directly |
Toclopidine and clopidogrel
Abciximab |
|
|
Deficiency of GpIb - syndrome?
|
Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
|
|
|
Syndrome that causes deficiency of vWF?
|
von Willebrand's disease
|
|
|
Syndrome that inhibits GpIIb/IIIa
|
Glanzmann's thrmbasthenia
|
|
|
Drug that inhibits TXA2 synthesis
|
Aspirin (inhibits COX)
|
|
|
4 thrombogenesis factors that are made in vascular endothelial cells
|
vWF
thrmboplastin tPA PGI2 |
