Hematology And Coagulation Review (Cls499)

Front 1

Which of the following cells is not produced in the bone marrow of normal adults?

Back 1

Lymphocyte

Front 2

In myelopoiesis, which is the first developmental stage to present with primary granules?

Back 2

Promyelocyte

Front 3

Of the following cells, which is never found in the peripheral circulation in its mature form?

Back 3

Megakaryocyte

Front 4

Normally, what is the largest white blood cell found in the peripheral blood?

Back 4

Monocyte

Front 5

What is the major phagocytic cell involved in the initial defense against pathogens such as bacteria?

Back 5

Neutrophil

Front 6

What is the growth factor primarily responsible for regulating granulocyte and monocyte production?

Back 6

GM-CSF

Front 7

A "shift to the left" when used to describe a cell population refers to:

Back 7

Increase in immature blood cells following release of bone marrow pools

Front 8

T lymphocytes are characterized by all the following except

Back 8

Synthesize antibody

Front 9

An adult has a total WBC count of 4.0X10^9/L. The differential count is as follows: PMN 25%, Bands 5%, Lymphs 65%, and Monos 5%. Which of the following statements is true:

Back 9

There is relative lymphocytosis

Front 10

Which of the following statements is correct?

Back 10

Auer rods are composed of fused primary granuals.

Front 11

With which of the following is an absolute neutrophil count of 1.0x10^9/L associated?

Back 11

Risk of infection

Front 12

What is the most mature cell that can undergo mitosis?

Back 12

Myeloblast

Front 13

Production of primary granules ceases and production of secondary granules commences with what cell stage?

Back 13

Myelocyte

Front 14

Which of the following are indicators of a neutrophilic response to tissue damage or inflammatory stimuli?

Back 14

Toxic granules and Dohle bodies in the neutrophils.

Front 15

What is the term for cell movement through blood vessels to a tissue site?

Back 15

Diapedesis

Front 16

Cells that produce immunoglobulins in response to antigenic stimulation are designated:

Back 16

Plasma cells

Front 17

Which of the following is characteristic of metamyelocytes?

Back 17

Indentation of nucleus

Front 18

Lymphocyte concentrations in the peripheral blood are greatest during what age interval?

Back 18

Young child (1-4)

Front 19

Which of the following statements about hairy cell leukemia is true?

Back 19

Hairy cells contain tartrate resistant acid phosphatase

Front 20

The presence of both immature neutrophils and nucleated erythrocytes in the peripheral blood is most accurately called a:

Back 20

Leukoerythroblastic reaction

Front 21

In which anomaly is a failure of granulocytes to divide beyond the band or two-lobed stage observed?

Back 21

Pelger-Huet

Front 22

Eosinophils are increased in all the following except:

Back 22

Cushing's disease

Front 23

A patient with normal hemoglobin and WBC values, a persistently elevated platelet count (>1000x10^9/L), increased marrow megakaryocytes, and a history of frequent bleeding and clotting episodes most likely has:

Back 23

Essential thrombocythemia

Front 24

An adult patient with massive splenomegaly has a mild anemia, a slightly elevated WBC count, and an LAP score of 170. The blood smear shows teardrop erythrocytes and leukoerythroblastosis. In addition, the bone marrow aspirate was a "dry tap". These findings are most consistent with

Back 24

Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia

Front 25

Which of the following is increased in Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia?

Back 25

IgM

Front 26

A leukemoid reaction is an increase in peripheral blood cells associated with

Back 26

An extreme infectious response

Front 27

A Gaucher's cell is best described as a macrophage with

Back 27

Wrinkled cytoplasm due to an accumulation of glucocerebroside

Front 28

Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease rather than other lymphoproliferative disorders?

Back 28

Presence of giant Reed-Sternberg cells binucleated with prominent nucleoli

Front 29

The FAB type of AML most often associated with DIC is

Back 29

M3

Front 30

The patient who has large cells that have basophilic cytoplasm and nucleoli present, most likely has an

Back 30

Acute leukemia

Front 31

Multiple myeloma is characterized by the presence in urine of large amounts of:

Back 31

IgG light chains

Front 32

Which of the following is not usually classified as a myeloproliferative disorder

Back 32

Multiple myeloma.

Front 33

The Philadelphia chromosome is present in approximately 90% of patients with

Back 33

CML

Front 34

The cytoplasmic inclusion that is made of fused primary granules

Back 34

Stains positive with myeloperoxidase

Front 35

In what condition would a LAP score of 10 most likely be found?

Back 35

Chronic myelocytic leukemia

Front 36

Coarse PAS positivity is found most often in the leukemic cells of

Back 36

ALL, L1

Front 37

Naphthol AS-D chloracetate esterase (specific) is usually positive in ____Cells and alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase (nonspecific) is useful for identifying blast cells of ____lineage.

Back 37

Granulocytic, monocytic

Front 38

The familial disorder featuring pseudo-Dohle bodies, thrombocytopenia, and large platelets is called:

Back 38

May-hegglin anomaly

Front 39

Alder-Reilly anomaly is an abnormality of

Back 39

Mucopolysaccharide metabolism

Front 40

The blast cells are CD14 and CD33 positive, Sudan Black B positive, specific esterase positive, and nonspecific esterase positive. Which FAB classification of acute leukemia is most consistent with these results?

Back 40

M4

Front 41

A 60-year-old patient presents with extreme fatigue. Her blood and bone marrow findings are as follows: severe anemia with a dual RBC population, 3% marrow blasts, and numerous ringed sideroblasts. This information is mostly consistent with

Back 41

RARS

Front 42

Usual findings in Polycythemia Vera include all the following except:

Back 42

Increased erythropoietin

Front 43

Di Guglielmo's syndrome or FAB acute leukemia type M6 is characterized by increased

Back 43

Marrow erythroblasts and multinucleated red cells

Front 44

The Sudan Black B stain is a stain for:

Back 44

Lipids

Front 45

The following numbers were obtained in evaluating LAP activity in neutrophils. What is the score?

0 1 2 3 4

32 24 21 15 8

Back 45

143

Front 46

Right-angle scatter in a laser-based cell counting system is used to measure

Back 46

Cytoplasmic granularity

Front 47

What is the basis for the COulter principle of electronic particle counting

Back 47

Impedance of an electrical current by the particles

Front 48

To evaluate normal platelet numbers in an appropriate area of a blood smear, approximately how many platelets should be observed per oil immersion field?

Back 48

8-20

Front 49

Which stain should be used to differentiate a neutrophilic leukemoid reaction from chronic myelogenous leukemia?

Back 49

Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

Front 50

The presence of CD2, CD5, CD7 and the absence of CD10 (Calla) are associated with:

Back 50

T-Cell acute lymphocytic leukemia

Front 51

Terminal deoxyribonucleotidyl transferase (TdT) is found in 90% of the cases of

Back 51

ALL

Front 52

Thrombocytopenia may be caused by all of the following except:

Back 52

Post-splenectomy

Front 53

A 4-year-old child is seen in the ER with petechiae and a platelet count of 15x10^9/L. She has no previous history of bleeding problems. 3 weeks earlier she had chicken pox. The physician advises the parents to keep the child off the playground to avoid injury and the child will recover within several weeks to a month with no further treatment. What condition does this child most likely have?

Back 53

ITP

Front 54

During the hemostatic process, platelets interacting with and binding to other platelets is reffered to as

Back 54

Aggregation

Front 55

Which therapeutic agent affects platelet function

Back 55

Aspirin

Front 56

What is the approximate normal mean platelet volume (MPV) expressed in femtoliters (fL)?

Back 56

10

Front 57

All the following are normal maturation stages of platelets except

Back 57

Micromegakaryocyte

Front 58

What is the specimen of choice for routine coagulation testing

Back 58

Sodium citrate

Front 59

The ratio of anticoagulant to blood for coagulation procedures should be 1 to ?

Back 59

9.0

Front 60

When thrombin binds with thrombomodulin on the endothelial cell surface, thrombin can

Back 60

Activate protein C

Front 61

What is the coagulation factor that has a sex linked recessive inheritance pattern?

Back 61

Factor IX

Front 62

The thrombin time will be prolonged in the presence of all the following except

Back 62

Factor II deficiency

Front 63

What would be the expected screening test results for a patient with a fibrin stabilizing factor deficiency?

Back 63

PT and APTT normal

Front 64

Fibrin strands are cross linked and the fibrin clot stabilized by the activity of

Back 64

Factor XIIIa

Front 65

Which of the following enzymatically degrades the stabilized fibrin clot?

Back 65

Plasmin

Front 66

The activity of the lupus anticoagulant appears to be directed against

Back 66

Phospholipid

Front 67

Measurement of time required for fibrin formation when thrombin is added to plasma evaluates the

Back 67

Fibrinogen concentration

Front 68

All the following are true of the INR except

Back 68

INR is dependent on reagents and instrumentation used

Front 69

A prolonged APTT is obtained on a patient diagnosis as having acute DIC. The patient has not yet been treated for this syndrome. How can the proloned APTT be explained?

Back 69

Continuous activation of the coagulation system uses some factors more rapidly than the liver can make them.

Front 70

All the following test results are characteristic of DIC except

Back 70

Negative test for degradation products

Front 71

Thrombocytosis is a characteristic of

Back 71

PV

Front 72

Which of the following is a component of platelet alpha granules?

Back 72

Von Willebrand's factor

Front 73

Which may be the cause of defective clotretraction>

Back 73

Lack of platelet receptor GP IIb/IIIa for fibrinogen

Front 74

Abnormal platelet function is the suspected cause of the bleeding problem in a patient who has a normal platelet count. Which of the following laboratory procedures gives information with regard to platelet function and, therefore, could provide information as to the cause of the bleeding problem?

Back 74

BT

Front 75

Which coagulation factors are referred to as "vitamin K dependent"?

Back 75

II, VII, IX, X

Front 76

Which factors are consumed in clotting, and are therefore absent in serum?

Back 76

I<, II, V, VIII, XIII

Front 77

A severe vitamin K deficiency will affect all the following except

Back 77

fibrinogen

Front 78

All the following are associated with thrombosis except

Back 78

Hypofibrinogenemia

Front 79

Fitzgerald factor is another name for

Back 79

HMWK

Front 80

The prothrombin time will detect deficiencies in the _____Pathway (s) when calcium and an extract of tissue such as brain are added to plasma

Back 80

Extrinsic and common

Front 81

Which of the following is a characteristic of acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?

Back 81

Spontaneous remission within a few weeks

Front 82

TTP differs from DIC in that:

Back 82

APTT is normal in TTP but prolonged in DIC

Front 83

Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is associated with:

Back 83

Escherichia coli 0157:H7

Front 84

Neurological findings may be commonly associated with which of the following disorders

Back 84

TTP

Front 85

The coagulation factor associated with hemophilia A is:

Back 85

VIII

Front 86

Bernard-Soulier syndrome is associated with:

Back 86

Thrombocytopenia and giant platelets

Front 87

When performing platelet aggregation studies, which set of platelet aggregation results would most likely be associated with Bernard-Soulier syndrome?

Back 87

Normal platelet aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine; decreased aggregation to ristocetin

Front 88

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is a disorder of:

Back 88

Connective tissue

Front 89

Which defect characterizes Gray's syndrome?

Back 89

Alpha granule defect