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136 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following laboratory values should be addressed first?
A. INR of 3.0 for a client receiving \Coumadin
B. White blood cell count of 500/µl for a client with a history of splenectomy
C. Platelet count of 150,000 for a client with a history of hemophilia and pneumonia
D. Hemoglobin of 15 for a client receiving heparin
B. This client is neutropenic and at risk for infection if proper preventive measures are not taken. All other laboratory values are considered normal. INR of 3.0 on a client receiving Coumadin is within normal limits.
In reviewing laboratory data in a client, the nurse recognizes which hematologic change associated with aging?
A. Decreased red blood cells
B. Decreased platelets
C. Increased hemoglobin
D. Increased white blood cells
A
In which of the following situations would the nurse expect to find an elevated reticulocyte count?
A. Infectious process
B. Transfusion reaction
C. Sickle cell disease
D. Slow blood loss
D
The nurse implements anticoagulant therapy in order to:
A. Dissolve blood clots
B. Decrease the inflammatory process
C. Prevent formation of new clots
D. Reduce platelet production
C
The nurse recognizes that the trigger for erythropoiesis is _____________________.
A. Iron
B. Hematocrit
C. Tissue oxygen
D. Hemoglobin
C
The nurse understands that hemostasis starts with:
A. Clot formation
B. Leukocytosis
C. Vasoconstriction in area of bleeding
D. Platelet aggregation
D
The hematologic system is concerned with blood formation and storage. Identify the 3 parts that compose the system.
Blood, blood cells, lymph system
Define: hemtopoietic
Blood-forming organ; bone marrow
Define: RBC (erythrocyte)
Red blood cells; transports oxygen
Define: WBC (leukocyte)
Perform actions critical to inflammation and immunity
Define: Stem cells
Bone marrow produces these, which can form a WBC, RBC or platelet, depending on the body's needs
Define: Erythropoietin
Produced by kidneys to stimulate RBC production
Define: Oxygen dissociation
Occurs when there is a drop in the oxygen in tissues. There is a greater increase in the transfer of oxygen from hemolobin to tissues.
Define: Hypoxia
Decrease in tissue oxygenation
Define: Aggregation
Clumping of platelets
Define: Macrocytic
Larger than normal RBCs
Define: Microcytic
Smaller than normal RBCs
Define: Hyperchromic
Higher concentration of hemoglobin in RBCs
Define: Hypochromic
Lower concentration of hemoglobin in RBCs
Identify the hematopoietic organ that is also involved in the immune response.
Bone marrow
Identify the types of cells produced by the bone marrow.
RBCs, WBCs, platelets
Where does the fetus develop cells until the last trimester of gestation?
Liver and spleen
The bone marrow in which bones produce blood cells?
All bones
Which portion of the long bones producce blood cells after 18 years of age?
The ends
Bone marrow produces a stem cell. What happens to the stem cell next?
It becomes committed
What are the 3 plasma proteins?
Albumin, globulin, fibrinogen
Describe the special features of a RBC:
bioconcave disk allows it to change shape without breaking. Synthesizes hemoglobin
What is the normal range for RBC's in an adult?
M: 4.6-6.1 million/cubic mm
F: 4.0-5.4 million/cubic mm
What stimulates production of platelets?
Thrombopoietin
What do he nodes of the lymphatic system do in relation to the hematologic system?
Filter and clean blood
If edema occurs, what does the lymph system do?
Pulls the fluid out and back to the vascular space.
What is hemolysis?
Splitting of cells; "lysis"
Where are macrophages located in the mononuclear phagocyte system?
Either circulating in the blood or fixed.
Where are Kupffer's cells located?
Liver and spleen
What is left when hemoglobin splits?
An iron subtance and bilirubin.
If there is an incident and several cells hemolyze, what visible manifestation may we see?
Jaundice
Define: poikilocytosis
Altered cell shape (such as in sickle cell anemia)
Define: anisocytosis
Altered cell size
What may stimulate the production of RBCs?
Decreased number of RBCs or increased need for RBC
All disorders that end in -penia indicate:
A decreased amount in something
What is a dyscrasia?
A disease of the blood
What does pancytopenia mean?
All of the marrow is not producing orrectly. Decreased RBCs, WBCs and platelets
What is an anemia?
A decrease in RBCs
What is purpura?
A small amount of blood found under the skin. It looks purple
What is petechaie?
Small, pinpoint lesions of blood found under the skin
Hypochromic cells have a decreased amount of:
iron
What is the normal level of hemoglobin found in the blood?
M: 14-18 g/dl
F: 12-16 g/dl
What is the normal hematocrit of the blood?
M: 42-52%
F: 37-47%
What does the hematocrit measure?
The percentages of RBCs in the blood
The RBC count in newborns is usually very:
high
What is the lifespan of a RBC?
120 days
In the formation of platelets, what is the role of the megakaryocyte?
It breaks into pieces called platelets
What is the main function of platelets in coagulation?
Sticks to blood vessel walls and forms platelet plugs to stop leakage at site of injury
Where are platelets stored?
Spleen
The liver produces ____ ____, which are critical to vitamin K production.
Bile salts
Explain why platelets do not normally stick together.
They must be stimulated before they aggregate.
What is the difference between a platelet plug and a blood clot?
Platelet plugs stimulate coagulation. They start the cascade leading to a blood clot, which can end bleeding. Platelet plugs are temporary.
Platelets aggregate in response to extrinsic factors, such as which of the following:
a) trauma
b) bacteria
c) WBCs
d) antibody-antigen reactions
A
What is a reticulocyte?
Immature RBC
What percentage of RBCs should be reticulocytes?
0.5-2.0%
When might the reticulocyte count be higher?
After an increased need for RBCs, such as bleeding or lysis of cells
If there are an increased number of reticulocytes, what test might show this?
RDW (relative distribution of width)
What does the MCV measure?
The average size of the RBCs(mean corpuscular volume)
What is the average size of Rbcs?
80-95 micrometers cubed
What does the MCHC measure?
How much hemoglobin is in the RBC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration)
What is the average MCHC level?
32-36%
What is the average RDW?
11-14.5%
What is the average number of platelets in the blood?
150,000-400,000/cubic mm
What is the name of the older test that measures how long it takes for blood to clot? What is the average amount of time?
The Ivy bleeding time
1-9 minutes
What is platelet antibody detection?
It checks to see if there are any antibodies in the blood that fight against your own platelets
What does APTT stand for?
Activated partial thromboplastin time
Whhat is the average APTT?
25-35 seonds
What does the APTT measure?
How clotting factors are working together to form a clot
What is the antedote to heparin?
Protamine sulfate IV
What test is the same as the APTT?
PTT
What is the normal PT (prothrombin time) level?
10-13 seconds
What does INR stand for?
International Normalized Ratio
The normal level for INR is:
0.7-1.8
How can Vitamin K be administered?
PO
SQ
IV
What is the antedote for Coumadin overdose?
Vitamin K
What three problems can cause an increased PT and INR?
Liver disease
Vitamin K deficiency
DIC
Why may PT and INR be increased in a person with liver disease?
Because the liver cannot synthesize the Vitamin K clotting factors
Why may PT and INR be increased in a person with a Vitamin K deficiency?
Because the clotting factors are not being made
What does the fibrinolytic system activity indicate?
How a body breaks down a clot
What does FDP/FSP stand for?
Fibrin split/degradation products
What is the normal level for FDP/FSP?
<10 mg/L
What does a coagulation factor assay look at?
It pulls the plasma from the blood to see which factors may be deficient
What does a hemoglobin electrophoresis test look at?
Types of hemoglobin in the blood
Which type of hemoglobin is normal in the human body?
A
What percentage of hemoglobin is normally type A?
96-98%
What percentage of hemoglobin is normally type A2?
2-3%
What percentage of hemoglobin is normally type F?
About 1%
If a person has type S hemoglobin, which disease do they suffer from?
Sickle cell anemia
If a person has type C hemoglobin, which type of disease do they suffer from?
Some type of hemolytic anemia
In performing a client examination, the nurse requests a urine specimen. The client asks why this specimen is being collected. What would the nurse explain to answer this question?
RBCs may appear in the urine and hematuria can help determine a reason for anemia
Describe abdominal organs the nurse would assess, and explain why this is important in determining a diagnosis of a hematologic disorder.
Liver and spleen; may become inlarged in hematologic disorders
An increased MCV may indicate a __________ anemia.
macrocytic or megaloblastic anemia
Which drugs are monitored by PT levels?
Coumadin and warfarin
What does the ferritin test measure?
Total body iron stores
If the body had a serum iron level of 55%, what would the TIBC be?
45%
The direct coombs' test detects the presence of:
antibodies against RBCs attached to RBCs
The indirect Coombs' test detects the presence of:
circulating antibodies against RBCs
The direct Coombs' test is used to detect:
hemolytic anemia
The indirect Coombs' test is used before a:
Blood transfusion
Hemoglobin electrophoresis is used to identify which 2 diseases?
Thalassemia
Sickle cell disease
Bone marrow aspiration is used when:
Other tests show persistent abnormal findings
What is the difference between a bone marrow aspiration and a bone marrow biopsy?
Aspiration involves cells and fluids suctioned through a needle. Biopsy involves removal of a piece of solid tissue obtained by coring out an area of bone marrow with a large-bore needle.
What is the most common area for bone marrow aspiration?
posterior iliac crest
Is bone marrow aspiration a clean or sterile procedure?
Sterile
What is used to stop the bleeding after a bone marrow aspiration or biopsy?
A sandbag or pressure dressing
With anemia in general, is there usually an increase or decrease in blood volume?
Decrease
Other than an increased destruction, decreased production, or blood loss, what may cause anemia?
Defective hemoglobin
What are the general symptoms of any anemia?
Fatigue. Exertional dyspnea. Pallor. Tachycardia. Irritability. Numbness/tingling.
What are the 3 major items a nurse will monitor with any type of anemia?
HR. RR. Peripheral perfusion
Why is a pulse ox inaccurate in clients with anemia?
Because there is a decrease in circulating volume, causing the pulse ox to be skewed.
What lab tests indicate pseudoanemia?
Normal MCH, RDW
Decreased RBC, Hct, Hgb
How much blood can the body lose before seeing any consequences? Why?
About 500 mL. Blood stored in the spleen enters circulation to restore loss.
In the early stages of anemia of blood loss, what symptoms do we see?
weakness and vital sign changes
In the later stages of anemia of blood loss, what symptoms do we see?
Decreased Hgb and Hct, shock.
What shape are cells in anemia of blood loss?
Normocytic
Is there a change in hemoglobin in anemia of blood loss?
No. Normochromic.
What may be some causes of chronic anemia of blood loss?
malagnancies, ulces, hemorrhoids, menorrhagia
What may we see in the labs of a client suffering from chronic anemia of blood loss?
Decreased hemoglobin, hematocrit, RBC count. Increased RDW and reticulocyte count.
What are the shape of cells in chronic anemia of blood loss?
Microcytic
What happens to the hemoglobin in cells in chronic anemia of blood loss?
Hypochromic (deccreased Hgb)
What is the most logical treatment of chronic and acute anemia of blood loss?
Transfusion
With most types of anemias that don't deplete WBCs or platelets, what type of transfusion is used?
Packed RBCs
What supplement may be necessary for a person suffering from acute or chronic anemia of blood loss? Why?
Iron, because the blood is being lost and the iron cannot be recycled.
How often is iron-deficiency anemia caused by low nutritional intake of iron in adults?
Rarely
What other things may cause iron-deficiency anemia?
GI bleeding or menorrhea
How common is iron-deficiency anemia?
Most common type of anemia
In severe iron-deficiency anemia, what three symptoms are present in addition to the normal anemia signs?
Brittle, spoon-shaped nails, usually with ridges. Tongue is bright red, smooth and shiny. Cheilosis.
What is the main cause of iron-deficiency anemia in pediatrics? Why?
Nutritional deficiency. Increased need for iron because of growth spurts.
If iron-deficiency anemia in a pediatric patient is not treated, what 3 things may occur?
Growth retardation.
Developmental delays.
Systolic murmur.
What size are RBCs in iron-deficiency anemia?
microcytic
What is the color of RBCs in iron-deficiency anemia?
Hypochromic