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31 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
AML cells express what CD antigens?
CD13 and CD33
ALL cells express what CD antigens?
CD10 and CD20
Burkitt's Leukemia is characterized by what chromosomal abnormality?
t(8;14)-- c-MYC to IgH
Philadelphia chromosome (t9; 22) leads to expression of what protein?
BCR-ABL, a dysregulated tyrosine kinase. (leading to CML)
Genetic cause of acute promyelocytic leukemia
Retinoic acid receptor alpha (RARa) on chromosome 17 translocates, resultant protein binds to RARa target genes but BLOCKS transcription rather than activates
What drug can be used to treat acute promyelocytic leukemia?
all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA).

RARa binds ATRA and is thus displaced from DNA allowing differentiation to proceed
The Wnt signaling pathway is involved in regulating what cellular property?
self-renewal capacity
The most common hematological cancer is?
Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma, which accounts for 50% of all diagnoses and a third of all deaths
Staining for ___ and ___ distinguishes mantle cell lymphoma
CD5 and Cyclin-D1
Staining for ___ and ___ distinguishes SLL
CD5 and CD23
Staining for ___ and ___ distinguishes marginal zone lymphoma
the ABSENCE of CD5 and CD10
What kind of biopsy is preferred for a suspected lymphoma?
An open excision if possible
What NHL stages are amenable to radiation therapy?
Stages I or II.
Criteria for the International Prognostic Index (IPI)
Age
Performance Status
LDH
Extranodal Sites
Stage
Differences between FL-IPI and IPI
FL-IPI accounts for: Nodal sites > 5 and Hemoglobin < 12

in the place of: Extranodal sites and Performance Status
Components of CHOP
Cyclophosphamide
Doxorubicin
Vincristine
Prednisone

The best because it is the least toxic
This translocation leads to constitutive expression of Cyclin D1 and this disease
t(11;14) --> Mantle Cell Lymphoma
MGUS
• Incidence:
– 2% age >50, 3% age > 70
• Diagnosis:
– serum Ig ≤ 3g/dl
– < 10% plasma cells in marrow
• Prognosis:
– progression 1% / year
Symptoms of Multiple Myeloma
• Bone disease (80%)
• Anemia
• Hypercalcemia
• Infection
• Renal Failure
• Hyperviscosity
• Amyloidosis
• Neurologic
Multiple Myeloma Staging
Durie-Salmon--
I, II, III based on anemia, hyperCa+, bone lesions
A or B (absence or presence of renal failure)

ISS is better.
Standard of care for patients with Multiple Myeloma
high dose melphalan and autologous bone marrow transplant

Thalidomide for newly diagnosed patients
Side Effects of Thalidomide
–Sedation
–peripheral neuropathy
–Venous blood clots
Bortezemib
boron-based agent that stops proteosome disposal
Plasma Cell Leukemia
sub-type of MM

Primary--5% (bias toward IgA)
Secondary--end-state of heavily treated MM, Tx is palliative
Walderstrom's Macroglobulinemia (lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma)
confused with MM. Does not cause bone lesions.

IgM spike, lymphadenopathy, subtype of NHL
Heavy Chain Disease mu-HCD
secrete abnomal Ig lacking light chains and truncated heavy chains (Fc only)

present with: fatigue, weight loss, recurrent Infx, splenomegaly. 75% have , hepatomegaly, 40% have adenopathy and lytic bone lesions
Arthralgia, myalgias and renal disease can be caused by what plasma cell disorder
Type II/III cryoblogulinemia

(immune complexes activate complement leading to inflammation)
Hyperviscosity is associated with what plasma cell d/o
Type I cryoglobulinemia

(which usually has an underlying lymphoproliferative disorder)
HCV is associated with what plasma cell disorder
Type II Cyroglobulinemia

(along with EBV, CMV, and syphilis)
Treatment of cryoglobulinemia
Type I -- treat underlying d/o
Type II-- IFN-a and ribavirin

NSAIDs, steroids
What is the cause of most myeloproliferative disorders?
dysregulated tyrosine kinases