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144 Cards in this Set

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what odoe sthe myeloid lineage include?
eyerhitn except lymphoblasts and NK cells
what is the order of differentiaton from a myeloblast?
promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, stab (band) cell
what % of glucose is used to make energy, what percent for HMP shunt?
90 for ATP
what odoe sthe myeloid lineage include?
eyerhitn except lymphoblasts and NK cells
what is poikilocytosis?
varying shapes
why are reticulocytes blue? do they have a nucleus?
no nucleus
blue cytoplasm are precipitates of ribosomal RNA
what is the order of differentiaton from a myeloblast?
promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, stab (band) cell
what % of glucose is used to make energy, what percent for HMP shunt?
90 for ATP
what is poikilocytosis?
varying shapes
why are reticulocytes blue? do they have a nucleus?
no nucleus
blue cytoplasm are precipitates of ribosomal RNA
what are in dense granules? alpha granules? what is the life span of a platelet?
dense granules = calcium, ADP
alpha = vWF, fibrinogen, PF4
lifespan 8-10 days
what do basophil granules contain?
heparin, histamine, other vasoactive amines, LTD4
mast cell granules stain how on Giemsa? what do they contain? how do they recruit eosinophils? what is a specific marker
stain METACHROMASIA.
contain histamine, heparin, esoniphil chemotactic factors.
typtase is a good marker of mast cell activation
how do eosinophils limit mast cells? what processes develop eosinophilia?
produce histainase, arylsulfatase
Neoplasia
asthma
allerigc processes
collagen vascular disorders
parasites (invasive)
NAACP
what are in neutrophil azurophilic granules?
lysosomes - which contain hydrolytic enzymes, lysozyme, MPO, and lactoferrin
what is the cytoplasm look like in a monocyte? what is the nucleus like
frosted glass
kidney shaped nucleus
how do you distinguish different types of erythrocytosis?
RBC mass (total RBCs in body)
can also look at EPO
what does the plasma cell nucleus look like?
off center nuclues
clock face chromatin distribution in nucleus. lots of RER and golgi
what percentage of lyphocytes are t cells?
80%
why is ABO incompatability in newborn not as bad as Rh? where does kernicterus deposit?
AB antibodies are IgM and do not cross placenta.
kernicterus in basal ganglia, some hippocampus
what is platelet activating factor? what pathway does it use? what does it cause?
uses Gq pathways
causes platelet aggregation and constricts bronchi and vessels
what 5 factors does antithrombin inhibit?
2, 9-12 (activated forms)
what things activate factor 12? what does factor 12 activate?
activatecd by collagen, BM, platelets, and HMWK.
It activates factor 11, prokallikrein to kallikrein
what reactions require calcium and phospholipds? (name 4)
7-->7A
9-->9a (via 11a)
10-->10a (via 7A and 8,9A)
2-->2A (via 10A and 5A)
note this are all the vitamin K dependent factors
what factors does thrombin activate?
13, 5, 8
what 2 pathways does kallikrein activate?
HMWK--> bradykinin (for vasodilation, permeability, and pain)
plasminogen-> plasmin (which itself activates C3 and degrades fibrin plug)
where is factor 8 made? where is it stored?
made in liver, stored in endothelium
what is the chloride shift?
CO2 in veins creates bicarb, which diffuses into cytoplasm of RBC in exchange for chloride, thus venous blood has lots of chloride
name 4 things inside endothelium?
vWF, thromboplastin (tissue factor = factor 3), tPA, PGI2
what does thrombomodulin do?
takes thrombin and makes it a procoagulant by activating protein C
steps in primary hemostasis (no coagulation cascade to cross link fibrinogen)
adhesion, aggregation 9TxSA2), swelling (binding of ADP-->inserts GPIIb/IIIa allowing platelet cohesion, with calcium strengthening the plug)
what does warfarin inhibit?
epoxide reductase to make activated vitamin K
how is protein C activated? on what surface?
activated by protein S and thrombomodulin on enodthelial cells, which cleaves 5 and 8
what diseases do you see acanthocytes in? what are they also called? what cells do they resemble?h
liver disease, abetalipoproteinemia
(spur cells)
resemble ecchinocytes (burr cells)
when do you see macro-ovalocytes?
megaloblastic anemia, marrow failure
what are the causes of schistocytes? what is another name?
TTP/HUS (increased bleeding time with thrombocytopenia), DIC, traumatic hemolysis (valve)
2 diseases with spherocytes?
hereditary spherocytosis, autoimmune hemolysis
target cells?
HbC disease, asplenia, liver disease, thalassemia
target cells have extra membrane in the center
what are burr cells? when do you see them?
short, evenly spaced projections
ecchinocytes
artifact or mechanical damage, uremia, PK deficiency, MAHA
what are heinz bodies composed of? what 2 diseases have them?
denatured hemoglobin that was a result of oxidaito nof iron from ferrous to ferric form. leads to bite cells
seen in G6PD deficiency and alpha thalassemia
Hb barts ahs a tetramer of what? what about HbH disease?
what is clinical manifestation of 2 gene deletion?
Hb Barts = gamm4, drops fetalis
HbH = beta4 tetramer
2 gene deletion = mild anemia
how do you confirm a diagnosis of b-thal minor (heterozygote)
HbA2>3.5%
how does lead poisoning create basophilic stipling?
inhibits degradation of ribosomal RNA
inhibits 5' nucleotidase
how is sideroblastic anemia inherited/ what is the gene defect
what are the iron stores, TIBC, ferritin?
x-linked defect in delta-ALA synthase gene, treated with B6
reversible etiologies = alcohol, lead
increased iron, normal TIBC, increased ferritin
sideroblasts = iron laden mitochondria
what are nonmegaloblastic macrocytic anemia causes? (think 100-110, cause if greater than 110, = folate/B12 deficiency)
liver disease, alcohlism (bone marrow suppression can occur in absence of folate/B12 deficiency), reticulocytosis, metabolic disorders (orotic aciduria), 5-FU, AZT, hydroxyurea.
name 3 causes of intravscaulr hemolytic anemias?
PNH, cold agglutinin autoimmune anemia, mechanical destructions.
will see decreased haptoglobin, hemolgobinuria
what are causes of extravascular hemolysis?
hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency, PK deficiency, sickle cell anemia, HbC defect, warm agglutinin anemia, MAHA
whhat is the key mediator in anemia of chronic disease? is it normocytic or microcytic?
hepcidin is the mediator (an acute phase reactant increased in diseases of inflammation)
it is normocytic, but can be microcytic/hypochromic in long standing dsiease
what are causes of aplastic anemia?
radiationa d drugs (benzene, chlorampheicol, alkylating agents, antimetabolites), viral agents (parvovirus, EBV, HIV), fanconi's anemia (inherited defect in DNA repair), idiopathic (primary stem cell defect, which may follow acute hepatitis)
what is the most common spherocytosis defect? why?
spectrin, because it's the root cause of spherocytosis. ankyrin and band 3.1 contribute to a relative defect in spectrin
sickle cell prevalence? what bone diseases does it cause? why does valine polymerize and in what conditions?
resistant to what orgnaism?
what is special channel associated?
prevlaence = .2% (8% carrier rate)
bone disease = avascular necoris (like SLE, steroids, alcohol) or osteomeylitis from salmonella paratyphi
valine = hydrophobic, depolarizes in deoxygatend, low pH, high 2,3DPG, dehydration
protects against falciparum. Gardos K_+ channel blockers are good therapy to prevent dehydration (calcium-dependent (Gardos) potassium channel. = sickling, cytosolic calcium transiently increases and activates the potassium channel with consequent loss of potassium and water from the cell
Also other channel: K-Cl cotransporter in sickle erythrocytes can induce significant potassium, chloride, and water loss even at a low PO2, as occurs, for example, in the renal medulla
in PNH, what is the gene defect
what do labs shows
defec tin GPI anchor (PIG-A gene) for decay accelerating factor
labs - urine hemosiderin, hemolytic anemia, hypercoaguable state, pancytopneia
2 causes of cold agglutini? what about association so fwarm agglutinin/
cold = mycoplasma, infectious mono
wamr - SLE, CLL, alpha methyldopa
what do you take form patient in direct coombs? what aobu tindirect?
direct - use patients' RBCs
indirect - use their serum
in TTP, what do kids have more? what about adults?
kids = renal fialure
adults = neurologic
what are the lab values of prenancy and OCP use?
no change in serum iron
increased TIBC
no change in ferritin
decreases % saturation = serum iron/TIBC
(serum iron = iron bound to transferrin)
what enzmes does lead inhibit, and what metal does it have?
inhibit ferrochelatase (incorporates iron into protoporphyrin) and ala dehydtase (takes ALA to porphobilinogen) - a zinc containing enzyme
what symptoms doe slead poisoning cause in kids? in adults?
children - mental deterioration
adults - headahce, memory loss, demyelination, abodominal colic, constipation
what enzyme is deficient in AIP? what are 2 other names for it? Why is it worse with alcohol and CYP induces? what are the 5P's?
porphobilinogen deaminase aka hydroxymethyulbilane synthase aka uroporphyrinogen I synthase (cause HMB = uroporyphorinogen)
worse with inducers cause CYP has heme in it
Painful abodmen
pink urine, dark upon standing
polyneuropathy
psychological disturbances
precipitated by drugs
porphyria cutanea tarda enzyme? accumulated substrate?
defect in urophoryinogen decarboxylase, what make coproporphyrinogen III
accumulates uroporphyrin III (tea colored urine). causes blistering photosensitivity, edema, puruitus. most common porphyria.
name the pathway if heme synthesis
which steps are in the mitochondria?
glycine+succinyl coA (B6)-->delta ALA
delta ALA--> porphobilinogen
porphobilinogen--> hydroxymethylbilane
HMB-->uroporphyrinogen III
UPIII--> coproporphyrinogen III
CPIII--> protoporphyrin
protoporphyrin-->heme
in mitochondria = ALA syntehsis (1st step) and protoporphyrin and heme syntehsis (last 2 steps)
what is the rate limitng step in heme syntehsis and what 2 things can inhibit that enzem?
ALA synthase is rate limitng step
heme and glucose inhibit it
what drug for lead poisoning for encephalopathy? 1st line treatment? kids?
encephalopathhy = dimercaprol 9crosses BBB)
EDTA is first line treatment
succimer for kids
also causes anorexia, abdominal colic, lead lines on gingivae and epiphyses of long bones
abnormal ristocetin assay? ADP assay?
ristocetin assay = bernard soulier diseae or vWF
ADP = glanzmann's thromboasthenia
does Bernard-S disease have thrombocytopenia? what about Glanzmann?
only bernard soulier
what is the characteristic blood smear finding of Glanzmann's thrombasthenia?
no platelet clumping
ITP in kids occurs when? awhat is treatment? is there splenomegaly?
in kids occurs after viral infection
no splenomegaly
give steroids
what 2 factors does PTT not check?
7 and 13
if mild hemophilia, what do you give? what about major?
mild = DDAVP to release vWF and 8 from endothelium
if major - give recombinant factor 8 (no risk of HIV)
what does uremia cause in term of paltelets?
platelet defect which increases bleeding time
no deficiency in platelets
if failure of vitamin K to correct PT?
liver disease
what is the PC, BT, PT, PTT in DIC? What is the inciting event?
decreased platelets
increased BT, PT, PTTT
inciting event - tissue factor = factor 3 (TTP starts with platelet activation)
causes of DIC?
Sepsis
Trauma
Obstetric complciations (dead fetus in uterus, abruptio)
Pancreatitis
Malignancy
Nephrotic syndrome
Transfusion
STOP Making New Thrombi
DIC
what are the labs like? what factors are specifically decreased?
decreased factor 5 and 8 (consumed in clot), dereased fibriongen, low platelets
prothrombin gene mutation is located where?
in 3' untranslated region
What is characteristic finding in ATIII deficiency?
no increase in PTT after heparin administration
hodgkins' - extranodal sites? contiguous spread or no? symptoms? how many cases are associated with EBV (is it integrated into genome)
no extranodal sites
contigous spread
pruritus and B symptoms
50% of cases have EBV in episomal form
NHL - associated with what 2 states?
immunocompromised
HIV
what hodkin's has greatest prognosis? which is highest EBV associated? which is associated with male s<35 years old? which is associated with older males and disseminated disease?
best = lympohcyte predominant
mixed celluarity is most associated with EBV
young males = lymphocyte predominat
older males = lymphocyte depleted
Burkitts -
which form is associated with EBV?
in starry sky apperance, what the stars? what is cMyc gene?
all translocation involve what chrom?
African form is EBV associated?
stars = macrophages
Myc = transcription regulatory in nucleus
all involve chrom 8 (8,14) (8,22)
DLBCL - what percentage are kids? What are the neoplastic cells?
20% in kids
may be mature T cell in origin in 20%
mantle cell lymphoma has what CD marker? good or bad prognosis?
bad prognosis
CD5+
follciular lymphoma - what are the cells like? cure rate?
cells are small cleaved cells (centrocytes) and some blasts (centroblasts)
inodlent waxing and waning course
difficult to cure
MM - why lytic lesions?
why constipation?
Russel bodies?
what is most common monoclonal spike?
IL-6 activaets osteoclsats
constipation -= hypercalcemia
usually IgG in 55% with kappa chain (VkCk = variable and constant region kappa)q
Russel bodies - IgG
waldenstrom M spike? how does it cause blindness?
IgM
hypervisocsity syndrome
plasmacytoma located? characteristics?
localize myeloma in lungs, nasopharynx, and inuses
M spike with IgG and plasma cells, but not mets
pure red cell aplasia associations?
bone marrow failure associated with parvovirus and thymoma
in CLL/SLL - what is CD marker? what agent do you use? blood smear?
CD5
chlorambucil (alkylating agent)
spherocytes (warm antibody autoimmune) and smudge cells
what is M6?
M5?
associated with M7?
M5 = monocytic (stain with nonspecific esterase)
M6 - eryhtroid (50% blasts)
M7 = down syndrome associated (megakaryocytic)
What does CD34 indicate?
if cytoplasmic mu-, what does that mean? what is TdT used for?
CD34 = stem cell
mu- = VDJ recombination has not finished yet

TdT - for VDJ arrangement adding nucleotides at end
does CLL produces hypergammaglobulinemia?
no, hypogammablobulinemia
langerhans cell histiocytosis - express what 2 markers?
what do birbeck granules look like?
CD1 and S-100
monocytic lineage
tennis rackets on EM Appearance
in PV - what is the leukiocyte alk phos? what is WBC count an dplatelt count?
increase leuk alk phos
increased WBCs and platelets
myelofibrosis can be a result of what?
PV after bone marrow is spent
what re advatnages of newer LMWH?
act more on 10a
better bioavailability, 2-4 times longer half life
administered subQ without lab monitoring, but not easily reversible
what is HIT?
heparin bnds to platelet factor 4, causing autoantibody production, need to treat with direc tthrombin inhibitor
what are the DTIs
lepirudin, bivalirudin, argatraban
what is first clotting factor to decline? when does protein C decline?
first in factor 7
Protein C is second to fall, so paradoxial thrombosis must occur within first few days
what is structure of heparin v warfarin
heparin - anioninc acidic polymer
warfarin - small lipid soluble molecule
which 2 things reverse thrombolytics?
aminocaproic acid
tranexamic acid
name the thrombolytics
streptokinase
urokinase
tPA (alteplase)
APSAC (anistreplase)
tenectoplase
reteplase, alteplase are recombinant
what is the composition of anistreplase
it's streptokinase with a proactivator
it's antigenic like streptokinase
APSAC = anisoylated plasminogen streptokinase activator complex
what is GP 1a?
It binds platelet to collagen without intervening vWF
in aspirin toxicity, what is first side effect? what are other sigsn?
first is tinnitus. can cause hyperventilation initially, bleeding, swaeating, CV collapse
what is side effect of ticlopidine?
bone marrow toxic (fever, mouth ulcers)
etoposide acts in which 2 phases?
S, G2
how is MTX trapped in cells as? toxicities?
macrovesicular fatty change in liver
mucositis
5FU uses? toxicity? how do you rescue?
use for colon cancers, topical with basal cell carcinoma
rescue with thymidine
6-MP and 6-TG are activated by what enzyme? which can you give with allopurinol?
HGPRT
can give 6-TG with allopurinol
what drugs are good for hairy cell?
purine analogues
cladribien (2-chloro-2deoxyadenosine) is adenosine deaminase resistant
what is mechanicms of dactinomycin? doxorubicin? what drug can reduce toxicity of doxorubin?
dactinomycin - intercalates in DNA
doxorubicin - generates free radicals, so give dexrazoxane (toxic to tissues with extravasation)
cardiotoxicity - sarcoplasmic reticulum swelling and myuofibrillar dropout
how is MTX trapped in cells as? toxicities?
macrovesicular fatty change in liver
mucositis
polyglutamate form
5FU uses? toxicity? how do you rescue?
use for colon cancers, topical with basal cell carcinoma
rescue with thymidine
photosensitivity
6-MP and 6-TG are activated by what enzyme? which can you give with allopurinol?
HGPRT
can give 6-TG with allopurinol
what drugs are good for hairy cell?
purine analogues
cladribien (2-chloro-2deoxyadenosine) is adenosine deaminase resistant
what is mechanicms of dactinomycin? doxorubicin? what drug can reduce toxicity of doxorubin?
dactinomycin - intercalates in DNA
doxorubicin - generates free radicals, so give dexrazoxane (toxic to tissues with extravasation)
cardiotoxicity - sarcoplasmic reticulum swelling and myuofibrillar dropout
how is MTX trapped in cells as? toxicities?
macrovesicular fatty change in liver
mucositis
5FU uses? toxicity? how do you rescue?
use for colon cancers, topical with basal cell carcinoma
rescue with thymidine
SE - phototoxic
6-MP and 6-TG are activated by what enzyme? which can you give with allopurinol?
HGPRT
can give 6-TG with allopurinol
what drugs are good for hairy cell?
purine analogues
cladribien (2-chloro-2deoxyadenosine) is adenosine deaminase resistant
what is mechanicms of dactinomycin? doxorubicin? what drug can reduce toxicity of doxorubin?
dactinomycin - intercalates in DNA
doxorubicin - generates free radicals, so give dexrazoxane (toxic to tissues with extravasation)
cardiotoxicity - sarcoplasmic reticulum swelling and myuofibrillar dropout
how is MTX trapped in cells as? toxicities?
macrovesicular fatty change in liver
mucositis
5FU uses? toxicity? how do you rescue?
use for colon cancers, topical with basal cell carcinoma
rescue with thymidine
6-MP and 6-TG are activated by what enzyme? which can you give with allopurinol?
HGPRT
can give 6-TG with allopurinol
what drugs are good for hairy cell?
purine analogues
cladribien (2-chloro-2deoxyadenosine) is adenosine deaminase resistant
what is mechanicms of dactinomycin? doxorubicin? what drug can reduce toxicity of doxorubin?
dactinomycin - intercalates in DNA
doxorubicin - generates free radicals, so give dexrazoxane (toxic to tissues with extravasation)
cardiotoxicity - sarcoplasmic reticulum swelling and myuofibrillar dropout
how is MTX trapped in cells as? toxicities?
macrovesicular fatty change in liver
mucositis
5FU uses? toxicity? how do you rescue?
use for colon cancers, topical with basal cell carcinoma
rescue with thymidine
6-MP and 6-TG are activated by what enzyme? which can you give with allopurinol?
HGPRT
can give 6-TG with allopurinol
what drugs are good for hairy cell?
purine analogues
cladribien (2-chloro-2deoxyadenosine) is adenosine deaminase resistant
what is mechanicms of dactinomycin? doxorubicin? what drug can reduce toxicity of doxorubin?
dactinomycin - intercalates in DNA
doxorubicin - generates free radicals, so give dexrazoxane (toxic to tissues with extravasation)
cardiotoxicity - sarcoplasmic reticulum swelling and myuofibrillar dropout
bleomycin
phase spcific?
MOA?
toxicity?
G2
produces free radicals which cause breaks in DNA strands
pulmonary fibrosis, skin chagnes (flagellate skin discoloration), minimal myelosuppression
etoposide - Top I or II?
II
cyclophosphade - how is it activated? what does it crosslink?
bioactivated in liver
crosslinks at guanine N7
nitrosoureas?
carmustine, lomustine, semustine, streptozocin
busulfan toxicity?
hyperpigmentation, pulmonary fibrosis
what do you give to prevent cisplatin toxicitity?
amifostine
inhibition of ribonucleotide reductase lowers what?
DNA syntehsis (S phase specific)
why is raloxifen better than tamoxifen?
tamoxifen is an estrogen agonist on endometrial tissue (carcinoma)
toxicity of trastuzumab? what is HER-2?
cardiotoxic
HER-2 is EGFR
toxicity of imatininb?
fluid retention, ascites, pulmonary effusion hepatotoxic
what is megestrol used for?
progestational drug (a progestin) used for increasing appetite
aprepitant?
neurokinin-1/substance P antagonist used to prevent chemo vomting
sorafenib?
TK inhibitor used in RCC and HCC
anti-angiogenic
Multikinase inhibitor; inhibits tumor growth and angiogenesis by inhibiting intracellular Raf kinases (CRAF, BRAF, and mutant BRAF), and cell surface kinase receptors (VEGFR-2, VEGFR-3, PDGFR-beta, cKIT, and FLT-3)