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389 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Type of headache that tends to be supraorbital, retroorbital, or frontotemporal?
Migraine (Vascular)
Type of headache that tends to be either occipital or frontal, with bandlike tightness?
Tension
Other terms for cerebrovascular accident
*Brain Attack
*Stroke
*CVA
Difficulty swallowing
Dysphagia
Enlarged head for age
Macroencephaly
Literally means "hard skin" and is characterized by chronic hardening and shrinking of connective tissue
Scleroderma
While experiencing ______, and objective person perceives that the room spins; a subjective person perceives that he or she is spinning.
Vertigo
Lightheaded, swimming sensation, or a feeling of falling
Dizziness
Enlargement of the lymph nodes (greater than 1 cm)
Lymphadenopathy
Caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone from the pituitary gland after puberty, which creates an enlarged skull and thickened cranial bones
Acromegaly
Occurs because of excessive secretion of ACTH and chronic steroid use.
Cushing's Syndrome
Characterized by a rounded "moonlike" face, red cheeks, and hirsuitism
Cushing's Syndrome
Increase in the size of the thyroid gland and occurs with hyperthyroidism
Goiter
Cephalhematoma in a newborn is the result of _____
Birth Trauma
A large atalectasis will cause the trachea to shift _____ the affected side.
Toward
Collapse of the lung
Atalectasis
Tumor or pneumothorax will cause the trachea to shift ____ the affected side.
Away from
Lens opacity
Cataract
The ___ _____ is caused by the reflection of the examination light off the inner retina.
Red Reflex
Dilated and fixed pupils
Mydriasis
Occurs because of excessive secretion of ACTH and chronic steroid use.
Cushing's Syndrome
Characterized by a rounded "moonlike" face, red cheeks, and hirsuitism
Cushing's Syndrome
Increase in the size of the thyroid gland and occurs with hyperthyroidism
Goiter
Cephalhematoma in a newborn is the result of _____
Birth Trauma
A large atalectasis will cause the trachea to shift _____ the affected side.
Toward
Collapse of the lung
Atalectasis
Tumor or pneumothorax will cause the trachea to shift ____ the affected side.
Away from
Lens opacity
Cataract
The ___ _____ is caused by the reflection of the examination light off the inner retina.
Red Reflex
Dilated and fixed pupils
Mydriasis
Most common cause of blindness, loss of central vision
Macular Degeneration
Drooping of the upper eyelid
Ptosis
Inflammation of the eyelids
Blepharitis
Reduced near vision caused by loss of lens elasticity due to aging
Presbyopia
Increased ocular pressure
Glaucoma
"Pink eye"
Conjunctivitis
A wisp of cotton is used to test the reflex of this eye strcture
Cornea
Perception of two images of a single object
Diplopia
Mnemonic for recording normal responses to a pupillary examination
PERRLA - pupils equal round react to light and accomodation
Constricted and fixed pupils
Miosis
Most common cause of blindness, loss of central vision
Macular Degeneration
Drooping of the upper eyelid
Ptosis
Inflammation of the eyelids
Blepharitis
Reduced near vision caused by loss of lens elasticity due to aging
Presbyopia
Increased ocular pressure
Glaucoma
"Pink eye"
Conjunctivitis
A wisp of cotton is used to test the reflex of this eye strcture
Cornea
Perception of two images of a single object
Diplopia
Mnemonic for recording normal responses to a pupillary examination
PERRLA - pupils equal round react to light and accomodation
Constricted and fixed pupils
Miosis
Inability to tolerate light
Photophobia
Earwax
Cerumen
Ear pain
Otalgia
Sensorineural hearing loss that occurs with aging
Presbycusis
Portion of the ear that contains the sensory organs for equilibrium and hearing
Inner ear
Portion of the ear that contains the three tiny ear bones
Middle Ear
The three tiny ear bones
Malleus, Incus, Stapes
Which ear bone sits above the oval window?
Stapes
Ringing, crackling, or buzzing in the ears
Tinnitus
Also known as "swimmer's ear"
Otitis Externa
This test is normal when sound is heard twice as long by air conduction as by bone conduction
Rinne Test
Middle ear infection, common childhood illness
Otitis Media
This test is normal when sound is equally loud in both ears
Weber
Runny Nose
Rhinorrhea
Bloody nose
Epistaxis
Dry Mouth
Xerostomia
Chalky, white, thick, raised patch with well-defined borders
Leukoplakia
"Cold Sores"
Herpes Simplex 1
"Canker Sores"
Aphthous Ulcers
Smooth, pale gray nodules that are overgrowths of mucosa
Polyps
Grinding teeth, especially at night
Bruxism
Called thrush in a newborn
Candidiasis
Oral form of this lesion is most common early lesion seen in people with AIDS
Kaposi's Sarcoma
Cracking, erythema, and painful fissures at the corners of the mouth that occur with excess salivation
Cheilitis
Gum margins are red, swollen, and bleed easily, usually due to poor hygiene or vitamin C deficiency
Gingivitis
Painless enlargement of the gums, sometimes overreaching the teeth
Gingival Hyperplasia
Smooth, glossy tongue that occurs with pernicious anemia
Atrophic Glossitis
Fungal infection of the tongue
Black, hairy tongue
The facial bone that articulates at a joint instead of a suture
Mandible
Blood vessel that runs diagonally across the sternomastoid muscle
External Jugular Vein
Isthmus of the thyroid gland lies just below this.
Cricoid Cartilage
This type of headache may be precipitated by alcohol and daytime napping
Cluster
The symptom that is least likely to indicate a possible malignancy (in lymph nodes)
Tenderness
Providing resistance while the patient shrugs the shoulders is a test of the status of crainal nerve ____
XI
Upon examination, how should the fontanels feel?
Firm, slightly concave, well defined
What should you do if the thyroid gland is enlarged bilaterally?
Listen for a bruit over the thyroid lobes
Three characteristics of lymph nodes in the neck of a healthy person
mobile, soft, nontender
Subperiosteal hemorrhage is associated with ______
Cephalhematoma
What size are normal cervical lymph nodes?
Smaller than 1 cm
Type of headache that has throbbing, unilateral pain, nausea, vomiting, and photophobia
Migraine
Lymph node in front of the ear
Preauricular
Lymph node superficial to the mastoid process
Posterior Auricular
Lymph node at the base of the skull
Occipital
Lymph node behind the tip of the mandible
Submental
Lymph node halfway between the angle and the tip of the mandible
Submandibular
Lymph node under the angle of the mandible
Jugulodigastric
Lymph node overlying the sternomastoid muscle
Superficial Cervical
Lymph node deep under the sternomastoid muscle
Deep Cervical (Chain)
Lymph node in the posterior triangle along the edge of the trapezius muscle
Posterior Cervical
Lymph node above and behind the clavicle
Supraclavicular
Blowing, swooshing sound heard through the stethoscope over an area of abnormal blood flow
Bruit
Enlargement of the lymp nodes due to infection, allergy, or neoplasm
Lymphadeopathy
Abnormally small head
Microcephaly
Round, symmetric skull that is appropriately related to body size
Normocephalic
Head tile due to shortening or spasm of one sternomastoid muscle
Torticollis (Wryneck)
Adaptation of the eye for near vision by increasing the curvature of the lens
Accomodation
Unequal pupil size
Anisocoria
Gray-white arc or circle around the limbus of the iris that is common with aging
Arcus Senilis
Pupil doesn't react to light, does constrict with accomodation
Argyll Robertson pupil
Refractive error of vision due to differences in curvature in refractive surfaces of the eye (cornea and lens)
Astigmatism
Crossing paths of an artery and vein in the ocular fundus
A-V Crossing
Loss of both temporal visual fields
Bitemporal Hemianopsia
Inflammation of the glands and eyelash follicles along the margin of the eyelids
Blepharitis
Opacity of the lens of the eye that develops slowly with aging and gradually obstructs vision
Cataract
Infection or retention cyst of a meibomian gland, showing as a beady nodule on the eyelid (usually lower lid)
Chalazion
Infection of the conjunctiva
Conjunctivitis
Abnormal soft exudates visible as gray-white areas on the ocular fundus
Cotton-wool area
Ratio of the width of the physiologic cup to the width of the optic disc, normally half or less
Cup-disc ratio
Unit of strength of the lens settings on the ophthalmoscope that changes focus on the eye strctures
Diopter
Double vision
Diplopia
Benign deposits on the ocular fundus that show as round yellow dots and occur commonly with aging
Drusen
Lower eyelid loose and rolling outward
Ectropion
Lower eyelid rolling inward
Entropion
Protruding eyeballs
Exophthalmos
Area of keenest vision at the center of the macula on the ocular fundus
Fovea (Fovea Centralis)
Red, painful pustule that is a localized infection of hair follicle at eyelid margin
Hordeolum (Stye)
Abnormal white rim of sclera visible between upper eyelid and the iris when a person moves the eyes downward
Lid Lag
Round darker area of ocular fundus that mediates vision only from the central visual field
Macula
Abnormal finding of round red dots on the ocular funds that are localized dilations of small vessels
Microaneurysm
"Nearsighted", refractive error in which near vision is better than far vision
Myopia
Involuntary, rapid, rhythmic movement of the eyeball
Nystagmus
Right eye
OD (oculus dexter)
Pallor of the optic disc due to partial or complete death of optic nerve
Optic atrophy
Area of ocular fundus in which blod vessels exit and enter
Optic Disc
Left eye
OS (oculus sinister)
Stasis of blood flow of the ocular fundus; sign of increased intracranial pressure
Papilledema
Decrease in power of accomodation that occurs with aging
Presbyopia
Triangular opaque tissue on the nasal side of the conjunctiva that grows toward the center of the cornea
Pterygium
Drooping of upper eyelid over the iris and possibly covering pupil
Ptosis
Disparity of the eye axes, squint, crossed eye
Strabismus
Soft, raised yellow plaques occurring on teh skin at the corners of the eyes
Xanthelasma
The major neck muscles
*Sternomastoid
*Trapezius
Characteristics of lymph nodes that are associated with acute infection
*Bilateral
*Enlarged
*Warm
*Tender
*Firm but freely moveable
Characteristics of lymph nodes that are associated with chronic inflammation
*Clumped
Illness that is associated with chronic inflammation of the lymph nodes
Tuberculosis
Characteristics of lymph nodes that are associated with cancer
*Hard
*Unilateral
*Nontender
*Fixed
Characteristics of lymph nodes that are associated with HIV
*Enlarged
*Firm
*Nontender
*Mobile
What lymph nodes commonly enlarge with HIV?
Occipital
What node would indicate neoplasm in thorax or abdomen if single, enlarged, nontender, and hard?
Left Supraclavicular Node (Virchow's Node)
What are the characteristics of lymph nodes that are associated with Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
*Painless
*Rubbery
*Discrete
*Appear gradually
What conditions are associated with parotid gland enlargement?
*Mumps
*Blocked duct
*Abscess
*Tumor
*AIDS
What can cause Stensen Duct Obstruction in aging adults?
Dehydration from diuretics or anticholinergics
List all 6 extraocular muscles and the cranial nerves they are innervated by:
Cranial Nerve III: Superior Rectus, Medial Rectus, Inferior Rectus, Inferior Oblique

Cranial Nerve IV: Superior Oblique

Cranian Nerve VI: Lateral Rectus
Which extraocular muscles are innervated by cranial nerve III?
Superior, Medial, and Inferior Rectus, Inferior Oblique
What cranial nerve innervates the Lateral Rectus Muscle?
Cranial Nerve VI
What cranial nerve innervates the Superior Oblique Muscle?
Cranial Nerve IV
What are the three concentric coats of the eyeball? (from outside to inside)
*Sclera
*Choroid
*Retina
How does an image formed on the retina compare with its actual appearance in the outside world?
It's upside-down and reversed
Describe the method for testing presbyopia
Jaeger card to test for near vision, hold card 14 inches away, normal vision is 14/14
When testing for accomodation, you would expect pupils to ____ and the axes of the eyes to _____.
Constrict, Converge
Of Pinguecula and Pterygium, which is normal and which is abnormal?
Pinguecula is normal
Pterygium is abnormal
The open space between the eyelids
Palpebral Fissure
Which cranial nerves mediate the corneal reflex?
V, VII
Which retinal structures can be viewed through the ophthalmoscope?
*Optic Disc
*Retinal Vessels
*General Background
*Macula
Simultaneous constriction of the other pupil when one eye is exposed to bright light
Positive Consensual Light Reflex
The thickening and yellowing of the lens that happens with aging
Senile Cataract
A symptom that may constitute an eye emergency
Sudden Onset of Vision Change (refer patient immediately)
What test is used to assess visual acuity?
Snellen Eye Chart
What does the cover test assess for?
Muscle Weakness
The six muscles that control eye movement are innervated by which cranial nerves?
III, IV, VI
What characteristics is conjunctivitis always associated with?
Reddened conjunctiva
Confrontation test: which angle would you expect a person with normal vision to see your moving finger temporally?
90 Degrees
Confrontation test: which angle would you expect a person with normal vision to see your moving finger from above?
50 Degrees
Confrontation test: which angle would you expect a person with normal vision to see your moving finger From below?
70 Degrees
Confrontation test: which angle would you expect a person with normal vision to see your moving finger nasally?
60 Degrees
A person is known to be blind in the left eye. What happens to the pupils when the right eye is illuminated by a penlight beam?
Both pupils constrict
An interruption in the red reflex occurs when?
There is an opacity in the cornea or lens
Outer fibrous rim encircling the eardrum
Annulus
Congenital absence or closure of ear canal
Atresia
Yellow waxy material that lubricates and protects th ear canal
Cerumen
Inner ear structure containing the central hearing apparatus
Cochlea
Connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx and allows passage of air
Eustachian Tube
Superior, posterior free rim of the pinna
Helix
"Anvil", middle of the 3 ossicles of the middle ear
Incus
"Hammer", first of the 3 ossicles of the middle ear
Malleus
Bony prominence of the skull located just behind the ear
Mastoid
Sensory organ of hearing
Organ of Corti
Inflammation of the outer ear and ear canal
Otitis Externa
Inflammation of the middle ear and tympanic membrane
Otitis Media
Discharge from the ear
Otorrhea
Small, slack, superior section of tympanic membrane
Pars Flaccida
Thick, taut, central/inferior section of tympanic membrane
Pars Tensa
Auricle, or outer ear
Pinna
"Stirrup", inner of the 3 ossicles of the middle ear
Stapes
Eardrum
Tympanic Membrane
Thin, translucent, oval membrane that stretches across the ear canal and separates the middle ear from the outer ear
Tympanic Membrane
Knof the the malleus that shows through the tympanic membrane
Umbo
Spinning, twirling sensation
Vertigo
Number of cranial bones
Number of facial bones
8
14
What nerve controls facial expressions?
VII
What nerve controls pain, pressure/sensation in the face?
V (Trigeminal)
Three functions of the middle ear
1. Conducts sound vibrations from outer ear to central hearing apparatus in inner ear
2. Protects inner ear by reducing amplitude of loud sounds
3. Eustachian tube allows equalization of air pressure on each side of tympanic membrane (to prevent rupture)
Air conduction is heard ____ as long as bone conduction in a person with normal hearing.
twice
Three types of hearing loss
*Conductive - mechanical dysfunction of external or middle ear
*Sensorineural (perceptive) - pathology of inner ear, cranial nerve VIII, or auditory areas of cerebral cortex
*Mixed - combo of conductive and sensorineural in the same ear
Why are infants at a greater risk for middle ear infections than adults?
Eustachian tube is horizontal in infants whereas eustachian tube in adults is sloped
How would you orient the ear lobe in a child vs an adult?
Child: Pull down
Adult: Pull up and back
The color of a normal membrane on the tympanic membrane is ____
Pearly Gray
Gradual nerve degeneration would be related to which type of hearing loss?
Sensorineural
Which parts of the ear should be palpated for tenderness before using the otoscope?
Pinna, Tragus, Mastoid Process
The eardrum should ____ while the patient holds the nose and swallows
flutter
Which test would be used to differentiate between air conduction and bone conduction?
Rinne Test
Congenital, painless nodule at the helix
Darwin's Tubercle
How should a patient's head be oriented while the ear is being examined with an otoscope?
Tilted away from the examiner
Where are the hearing receptors located?
Cochlea
Where would pathology be located that causes the sensation of vertigo?
Semicircular Canals
Impacted cerumen is a common cause of what type of hearing loss?
Conductive
What condition would be suspected when there is absent light reflex, reddened and bulging ear drum?
Infection of Acute Purulent Otitis Media
A young adult woman's tympanic membrane is yellow in color. Why?
Serum in Middle Ear
Eliminating smoking in the house and car would reduce the risk for what condition?
Acute Otitis Media
Small, painful, round ulcers in the oral mucosa of unknown cause
Aphthous Ulcers
Pertaining to the cheek
Buccal
White, cheesy, curdlike patch on buccal mucosa and tongue due to superficial fungal infection, Moniliasis
Candidiasis
Decay in the teeth
Caries
Indentations on surface of tonsils
Crypts
Closure of nasal cavity due to congenital septum between nasal cavity and pharynx
Choanal Atresia
Nosebleed, usually from anterior septum
Epistaxis
Nontender, fibrous nodule of the gum
Epulis
Small, isolated, white or yellow papules on oral mucosa
Fordyce's Granules
Clear vesicles with red base that evolve into pustules, usually at lip-skin junction
Herpes Simplex
Small, blue-white spots with red halo over oral mucosa; early sign of measles
Koplik's Spots
Upper or lower dental arches out of alignment
Malocclusion
Rough bumpy elevation on dorsal surface of tongue
Papillae
Pair of salivaryglands in the cheeks in front of the ears
Parotid Glands
Inflammation of the throat
Pharyngitis
Soft whitish debris on teeth
Plaque
Smooth, pale gray nodules in nasal cavity due to chronic allergic rhinitis
Polyp
Red swollen inflammation of nasal mucosa
Rhinitis
Oral candidiasis in the newborn
Thrush
One of 3 bony projections into nasal cavity
Turbinates
Free projection hanging down from the middle of the soft palate
Uvula
Most common site of nosebleeds
Kiesselbach's Plexus
Sinuses that are assessible to examination
Frontal, Maxillary
The midline fold of tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth
Frenulum
Where is the largest salivary gland located?
Within the cheeks in front of the ear (the parotid gland)
A 70 yr old woman complains of dry mouth. The most frequent case of the problem is:
Related to medications she may be taking
The findings of transillumination in a healthy individual would be:
A diffuse red glow
What should be done if a deviated septum is noted during an inspection of the nares?
Document the deviation in the medical record in case the person needs to be suctioned
Where are oral malignancies most likely to develop?
Under the tongue
If tonsils are graded at 3+, they would be ______.
Touching the uvula
The function of the nasal turbinates is to:
Warm the inhaled air
Where is the opening of an adult's parotid gland (Stensen's Duct)?
Opposite the upper 2nd molar
True or false: A nasal polyp is highly vascular.
FALSE!
This suture crowns the head from ear to ear at the union of the frontal and parietal bones
Coronal
This suture separates the head lengthwise between the two parietal bones
Sagittal
This suture separates the parietal bones crosswise from the occipital bone
Lambdoid
Which vertebra support the cranium?
C1 (atlas), C2 (axis) all the way to C7

C7 has a long spinous process that is palpable when head is flexed (vertebra prominens)
The facial expressions are formed by facial muscles that are mediated by which cranial nerve?
VII (Facial Nerve)
What are the 8 cranial bones?
1 x Ethmoid Bone
1 x Frontal Bone
1 x Occipital Bone
2 x Parietal Bones
1 x Sphenoid Bone
2 x Temporal Bones
What happens to the thyroid gland during pregnancy?
Enlarges slightly as a result of hyperplasia of the tissue and increased vascularity
Frequency and duration of migraines
Occur about two per month each lasting 1 to 3 days
Frequency and duration of cluster headaches
One to two occur per day each lasting 1/2 to 2 hours for 1 or 2 months (then complete remission may last for months or years)
What activities/situations precipitate cluster headaches?
*Alcohol ingestion
*Daytime napping
What activities/situations precipitate migraine headaches?
*Alcohol
*Letdown after stress
*Menstruation
*Eating chocolate or cheese
Nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances are characteristics of which type of headache?
Migraines
Eye reddening, tearing, eyelid drooping, rhinorrhea, and nasal congestion are associated with what type of headache?
Cluster headaches
Anxiety and stress are associated with what type of headache?
Tension headaches
What are some illnesses that can produce headaches?
*Hypertension
*Fever
*Hypothyroidism
*Vasculitis
What medications are associated with headaches?
*Oral contraceptives
*Bronchodilators
*Alcohol
*Nitrates
*Carbon Monoxide inhalation
Acute onset of stiffness with headache and fever occurs with what condition?
Meningeal inflammation (meningitis)
What does tenderness suggest (when evaluating lumps or swelling in the neck)?
Acute Infection
What order should you palpate the lymph nodes?
1. Preauricular
2. Posterior Auricular
3. Occipital
4. Submental
5. Submandibular
6. Jugulodigastric
7. Superficial Cervical
8. Deep Cervical Chain
9. Posterior Cervical
10. Supraclavicular
When palpating the deep cervical chain, how should you orient the head? Why?
Tip pt's head toward side being examined to relax the ipsilateral muscle
During the second trimester of pregnancy, this may show up on the face. Blotchy, hyperpigmented area over the cheeks and forehead that fades after delivery.
Chloasma
Mild rhythmic tremor of the head, benign, include head nodding and tongue protrusion, may be normal
Senile Tremors
Localized bone disease of unknown etiology that softens, thickens, and deforms bone
Paget's Disease of Bone (Osteitis Deformans)
Characteristics of Paget's Disease
*Bowed Long Bones
*Sudden Fractures
*Frontal Bossing
*Enlarging skull bones that form an acorn-shaped cranium
Excessive secretion of growth hormone from pituitary after puberty, enlarged skull, thickened cranial bones
Acromegaly
Smooth, firm, fluctuant swelling on the scalp, tense pressure of contents causes overlying skin to be shiny and taut, benign
Pilar Cyst (Wen)
Deficiency of NT dopamine and degeneration of basal ganglia in brain. Immobility of features (flat affect, "masklike", elevated eyebrows, staring gaze, oily skin, drooling)
Parkinson's Syndrome
Excessive secretion of corticotropin hormone (ACTH) and chronic steroid use, develops rounded "moonlike" face, prominent jowls, red cheeks, hirsutism on uper lip, lower cheeks, chin, acneiform rash on chest
Cushing's Syndrome
Most common cause of hyperthyroidism
Graves' Disease
Goiter, Exophthalmos (bulging eyeballs), nervousness, fatigue, weight loss, muscle cramps, heat intolerance
Hyperthyroidism
Caused by deficiency in thyroid hormone, puffy edematous face (esp around eyes), dry skin, dry hair
Myxedema (Hypothyroidism)
Lower motor neuron lesion (peripheral) producing cranial nerve VII paralysis, almost always unilateral
Bell's Palsy (Right Side)
Upper motor neuron lesion (central) caused by obstruction or rupture of cerebral vessel. Upper half of face not affected.
CVA/Brain Attack/Stroke
"Hard skin", hard, shiny skin, thin, pursed lips, absent skinfolds, absence of expression
Scleroderma
Presence of narrowed palpebral fissures in non-Asian individuals may be diagnostic of what serious congenital anomaly?
Down's Syndrome
Individuals with light retinas generally have what two qualities?
*Better Night Vision
*Pain in environment with too much light
Primary open-angle glaucoma in blacks vs whites
Blacks: 3-6 times more often, 6 times more likely to cause blindness
Leading causes of blindness in white, black, Hispanic
White: Age-related Macular Degeneration, Cataracts
Black: Cataracts, Open-Angle Glaucoma
Hispanic: Open-Angle Glaucoma
Type of floaters seen with retinal detachment
"Shade" or "Cobwebs", acute onset
True or False: Floaters are common with myopia or after middle age.
True!
Halos around lights occur with what type of glaucoma?
Acute Narrow-Angle Glaucoma
Blind spot in the visual field surrounded by an area of normal to decreased vision
Scotoma
Tearing (normal amount)
Lacrimation
Excessive Tearing
Epiphora
What the numerator and denominator mean in terms of vision
Numerator: Distance a person is standing from the chart
Denominator: Distance at which a normal eye could have read a particular line
Test used for near vision
Jaeger Card, hold 14 inches from the eye, normal vision is 14/14
Mild weakness in eye muscle noted only when fusion is blocked
Phoria
Constant misalignment of the eyes, more severe than phoria
Tropia
Protruding eyes
Exophthalmos
Sunken eyes
Enophthalmos
Even yellowing of sclera extending up to the cornea indicating jaundice
Scleral Icterus
On the ophthalmoscope, use the positive numbers for _____ and the negative numbers for ______
Farsightedness, Nearsightedness
Epicanthal folds give a false appearance of malalignment yet the corneal light reflex is normal
Pseudostrabismus
Lower lid dropping away
Ectropion
Lower lid turning in
Entropion
Yellowish elevated nodules due to a thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva from prolonged exposure to sund, wind, dust, normal
Pingueculae
Opacity on the bulbar conjunctiva that grows over cornea, abnormal!
Pterygium
Narrow palpebral fissures, epicanthal folds, and midfacial hypoplasia is characteristic of:
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Kyphosis of the spine is common with aging. To compensate, older adults will:
Extend head and jaws forward
A slight protrusion of the eyeballs may be noted when examining individuals who come from which ethnic/cultural group?
African American
The location in the brain where optic nerve fibers from the temporal fields of vision cross over is identified as the:
Optic Chiasm
True or False: The lens of the eye functions as a refracting medium.
TRUE
Small brown macules on the sclera would be normal in which group of people?
African American
Normal color of the optic disc:
creamy yellow-orange to pink.
A unilateral small regular pupil that reacts to light and accommodation
Horner's Syndrome
What is responsible for identification and location of the direction of the sound
Binaural interaction at the level of the brain stem
When an otoscope examination is performed on an elderly client, the tympanic membrane may be observed to be:
Whiter than expected
What is the limitation of the hearing tests we learned about?
They are able to document the presence of a hearing loss but not the degree of loss
The Weber test is generally performed on an individual who complains of:
Hearing better in one ear than the other
The position of the tympanic membrane in the infant is more _____, making it more difficult to visualize with the otoscope.
Horizontal
Inspection of the nasal mucosa of an individual with rhinitis would demonstrate mucosa that is:
Bright red and swollen
A fine tremor of the tongue when it is sticking out accompanies which condition?
Hyperthyroidism
Bifid uvula is normal in:
American Indians
Which pair of sinuses is absent at birth, is fairly well developed between 7 and 8 years of age, and is fully developed after puberty?
Frontal
Inward turn of the eye
Esotropia
Outward turn of the eye
Exotropia
Nasal (inward) drift of the eye
Esophoria
Temporal (outward) drift of the eye
Exophoria
Deep dull red halo around iris and cornea
Iritis (Circumcorneal Redness)
Gradual hardening that causes foot plate of stapes to become fixed in oval window impeding transmission fo sound and causing progressive deafness, common cause of conductive hearing loss in young adults 20-40 yrs old
Otosclerosis
Inward turn of the eye
Esotropia
Cultures with higher incidence and severity of otitis media
American Indians, Alaskan and Canadian Inuits, Hispanics
Outward turn of the eye
Exotropia
Two types of cerumen
1. Dry cerumen, gray, flaky, frequently forms thin mass in ear canal - Asians and American Indians
2. Wet cerumen, honey brown to dark brown, moist, Whites
Nasal (inward) drift of the eye
Esophoria
Dirty yellow/gray discharge from ear, foul odor
Cholesteatoma
Temporal (outward) drift of the eye
Exophoria
Inward turn of the eye
Esotropia
Purulent, sangineous, or watery discharge from ear
External Otitis
Deep dull red halo around iris and cornea
Iritis (Circumcorneal Redness)
Outward turn of the eye
Exotropia
Nasal (inward) drift of the eye
Esophoria
Gradual hardening that causes foot plate of stapes to become fixed in oval window impeding transmission fo sound and causing progressive deafness, common cause of conductive hearing loss in young adults 20-40 yrs old
Otosclerosis
Temporal (outward) drift of the eye
Exophoria
Cultures with higher incidence and severity of otitis media
American Indians, Alaskan and Canadian Inuits, Hispanics
Two types of cerumen
1. Dry cerumen, gray, flaky, frequently forms thin mass in ear canal - Asians and American Indians
2. Wet cerumen, honey brown to dark brown, moist, Whites
Deep dull red halo around iris and cornea
Iritis (Circumcorneal Redness)
Dirty yellow/gray disrcharge from ear, foul odor
Cholesteatoma
Gradual hardening that causes foot plate of stapes to become fixed in oval window impeding transmission fo sound and causing progressive deafness, common cause of conductive hearing loss in young adults 20-40 yrs old
Otosclerosis
Purulent, sangineous, or watery discharge from ear
External Otitis
Cultures with higher incidence and severity of otitis media
American Indians, Alaskan and Canadian Inuits, Hispanics
Two types of cerumen
1. Dry cerumen, gray, flaky, frequently forms thin mass in ear canal - Asians and American Indians
2. Wet cerumen, honey brown to dark brown, moist, Whites
Dirty yellow/gray disrcharge from ear, foul odor
Cholesteatoma
Purulent, sangineous, or watery discharge from ear
External Otitis
What type of otorrhea would you get with acute otitis media with perforation?
Purulent
Ears smaller than 4 cm vertically
Microtia
Ears larger than 10 cm vertically
Macrotia
Absence or closure of the ear canal
Atresia
Common cause of conductive hearing loss
Impacted cerumen
Yellow-amber drum color occurs with:
Otitis Media with Effusion (Serous)
Red color of tympanic membrane occurs with:
Acute Otitis Media
Air/Fluid level or air bubbles behind drum indicate:
Otitis Media with Effusion
What should the eardrum do during the Valsalva maneuver or when pt holds nose and swallows (insufflation)?
Flutter
Small, whitish-yellow, hard, nontender nodules in or near helix or antihelix; contain greasy, chalky material of uric acid crystals, sign of gout
Tophi
Overgrowth of scar tissue which invades original site of trauma, more common in dark-skinned people although it also occurs in whtes
Keloid
Exquisitely painful, red, infected hair follicle, often accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy
Furuncle
Weber test: what happens with conductive and sensorineural loss?
Conductive: Sound lateralizes to poorer ear
Sensorineural: Sound lateralizes to better/unaffected ear
Rinne test: what happens with conductive and sensorineural loss?
Conductive: bone is heard as long or longer than air
Sensorineural: normal ratio intact but is reduced overall. Person hears poorly both ways.
Number of teeth: Adults, Children
Adults: 32 teeth
Children: 20 teeth (deciduous/temporary)
Cleft lip and palate are most common in:
Asians and Native Americans (least common in blacks)
Torus palatinus more common in:
Native Americans, Inuits, Asians
Leukoedema (grayish-white benign lesion on buccal mucosa) most common in:
Blacks (68-90%), only 43% whites
Oral hyperpigmentation most common in:
Blacks
Groups whose babies are more likely born with teeth:
Tlingit Indians, Canadian Inuits
Size of teeth (smallest to largest)
Whites, Blacks, Asians, Native Americans, Inuits and Australian aborigines
Who has more tooth decay - whites or blacks?
Whites (blacks have harder and denser tooth enamel)
Poorest oral health:
Blacks, Hispanics, Native Americans, Alaska Natives
Seasonal rhinitis is due to ______, Perennial rhinitis is due to ______.
Pollen
Dust
Tonsil Grading
1+ Visible
2+ Halfway between tonsillar pillars and uvula
3+ Touching uvula
4+ Touching each other

1+ or 2+ normal in healthy people
Small blue-white spots w/irregular red halo scattered over mucosa opposite molars. Early sign and pathognmonic of measles
Koplik's Spots
Tongue-Tie, short lingual frenulum
Ankyloglossia
Tonsil Grading
1+ Visible
2+ Halfway between tonsillar pillars and uvula
3+ Touching uvula
4+ Touching each other

1+ or 2+ normal in healthy people
Small blue-white spots w/irregular red halo scattered over mucosa opposite molars. Early sign and pathognmonic of measles
Koplik's Spots
Tongue-Tie, short lingual frenulum
Ankyloglossia
What cranial nerve is tested when patient says "ahhh"?
X Vagus Nerve
What cranial nerves are tested when the gag reflex is elicited?
IX Glossopharyngeal
X Vagus
What cranial nerve is being tested when pt sticks out the tongue?
XII Hypoglossal Nerve