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200 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The failure to provide for a child's basic needs is termed? a) abuse b) punishment c) neglect d) hate
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c) neglect
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Physical injury jue to punching, beating, kicking, biting, burning, shaking, or otherwise harming a person is termed? a) neglect b) sexual abuse c) emotional abuse d) physical abuse
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d) physical abuse
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Fondling genitals, incest, penetration, rape, sodomy, indecent exposure, commerical exploitation through prostitution or the production of pornographic matericals is termed? a) neglect b) sexual abuse c) emotional abuse d) physical abuse
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b) sexual abuse
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Any pattern of behavior that harms a person's emotional development or sense of self-worth including frequent belittling, rejection, threats, and withholding of love and support is termed? a) neglect b) sexual abuse c) emotional abuse
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c) emotional abuse
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True or False: Nurses, physicians and social workers must have proof of abuse before calling an abuse hotline.
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False: They only need reasonable suspision.
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True or False: Women are significantly more likely to be physically or sexually assaulted by a current or former intimate partner than by an acquaintance, family member, friend, or stranger.
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True!
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True or False: Abused women have been found to have significantly more chronic health problems, including neurololgic, gastrointestinal, and gynecologic symptoms and chronic pain.
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True!
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Related to this domestic violence unit, symptoms of dehydration and malnutrition can be indicative of? a) neglect b) abuse c) sexual abuse d) false imprisonment
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a) neglect
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True or False: If an elderly family member is sick but caring for his wife, and she gets bed sores from not being changed and cleaned often enough, he cannot be charged with neglect, because he was doing all he physically could to care for his wife.
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False: His intensions to care for his wife were good; however the wife did experience profound unintentional neglect.
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True or False: Suspected self-neglect does not need to be reported as a person has the right to live autonomously and does not have an societal obligation to care for themself.
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False: Suspected self-neglect is also a mandatory reportable activity to adult protective services
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True or False: Children who are abused are 11 times more likely to be arrested for violent crimes as a juvenile and 2.7 times more likely to be arrested for violent crimes as an adult.
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True!
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What are some messages that need to be conveyed to a suspected abused woman, during her domestic violence screening?
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-abuse is not the woman's fault -you are concerned and that help is possible -health problems can occur as a result of domestic violence
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Why might a woman of 90 not report abuse by her Alzheimer diseased huby? a) she is 90 and is not able to feel pain as much b) she is afraid of her sexual history being revealed during the possible court case c) she fears that he will be institutionalized
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c) She is afraid that her partner might be institutionalized.
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What should be a significant red flag for a nurse? a) an elderly patient with a gastric tube that has a poor appetite b) a 4-year-old child with bruises on her elbows and knees c) a baby that rolled off the bed and acquired a few bruises
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c) You have to consider the developmental level of the person in question; a baby at 3 months old is not able to turn and roll. Any baby with bruises should be further looked into.
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What are the most frequent health problems associated with violence? a) depression b) suicide c) PTSD d) substance abuse e) anxiety f) all of the above
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f) all of the above
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A child of what age is expected to be able to give a heath history at the level of most adults? a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 13 e)18 f)21
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a) believe it or not, 11!
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What is avulsion? a) a wound caused by rubbing the skin or mucous membrane b) a bruise c) and incision d) the tearing away of a structure or part
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d) the tearing away of a structure or part
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Another word for an incision is a? a) abrasion b) cut c) ecchymosis d) lesion
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b) cut
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A minute, pinpoint, nonraised, perfectly round, purplish red spot caused by intradermal or submucous hemorrhage, which later turns blue or yellow is termed a? a) contusion b) lesion c) petechiae d) ecchymosis
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c) petechiae
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Bilberry, garlic, ginger, and ginkgo are amoung the more common supplements linked to increased risk of ______. a) bruising/bleeding complications b) increased blood pressure c) decreased appetite d) increased clotting ability
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a) bruising/bleeding complications
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Any health evaluation for known or suspected elder abuse and neglect should include what? a) A call to the CDC b) an XRAY c) and MRI d) baseline laboratory test
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d) baseline laboratory tests including a CBC, platelet level, BUN, creatinine, protein, albumin, serum liver function tests, coag panel, and urinalysis.
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What finding would indicate further investigation to look for possible abuse? a) bruising on the knees and elbows b) bruising on the buttocks, hands and abdomen c) yellowing bruises on the shins
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b) bruising on the buttocks, hands and abdomen as bruising in these locations is exceedingly rare and should arouse concern
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True or False: Normal bruising on elderly adults tends to be located on the neck, ears, genitalia, buttocks, and soles of the feet, while bruising on the extremities is unusual and should be cause for further investigation.
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False: Vise versa. Normal bruising occurs on the extremities, and NOT on the neck/buttocks/ears/genitalia/soles
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If you made 3 identical bruises on a person, what would you expect in 1-2 days. a) all 3 bruises having the same shade(progressing through the stages of color at the same rate b) 3 bruises of possibly different shades
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b)Bruises of identical age and cause on the same person may not appear as the same color and may not change at the same rate
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When recording a report of domestic violence history, you should do the following. a)write word for word what the patient says b) write what the person says, but omit swears and inappropriate language / terminology
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a)Verbatim documentation of the reported perpetrators threats interlaced with curses and expletives can be extremely useful in future court proceedings.
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True of False: Even if abuse is suspected, in an unconscious or cognitively impaired person, it is morally and legally wrong to photography them without their permission.
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False: Taking photographs without consent is generally viewed as ethically sound since it is a noninvasive, painless intervention that has high potential to help a suspected abuse victim.
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Women in this country are more often killed by____? a) strangers b) friends c) past or current loved ones d) extended family member
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c) Women in this country are mosre often killed by a husband, boyfriend, or ex-husband than by anyone else.
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What specialized nerve endings are designed to detect painful sensations from the periphery and transmit them to the central nervous system? a) ganglions b) neurons c) somatosomes d) nociceptors
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d) nociceptors
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Which two primary sensory fibers carry carry pain signals to the central nervous system? a) A8 b) B fibers c) C fibers d) Spinocerebrum fibers
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a) A8 and c) C fibers
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_____fibers are myelinated and larger in diameter, and they transmit the pain signal rapidly to the CNS. This results in very localized, short-term, and sharp sensations . a) A8 b) C fibers
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a) A8
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______ are unmyelinated and smaller, and they transmit the signal more slower resulting is diffuse and aching sensations that persist after the initial injury. a) A8 b) C fibers
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b) C fibers
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Put the following 4 phases of Nociception in order: Modulation, Transduction, Perception, Transmission
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1. Transduction 2) Transmission 3) Perception d) Modulation
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Describe transduction. a) pain impulse moves from the spinal cord to the brain b) injured tissues release neurotransmitters that propagate a pain message c) the pain message is inhibited d) the conscious awareness of a painful sensation
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b) injured tissues release neurotransmitters that propagate a pain message
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Transmission involves: a) pain impulse moves from the spinal cord to the brain b) injured tissues release neurotransmitters that propagate a pain message c) the pain message is inhibited d) the conscious awareness of a painful sensation
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a) pain impulse moves from the spinal cord to the brain
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Perception involves: a) pain impulse moves from the spinal cord to the brain b) injured tissues release neurotransmitters that propagate a pain message c) the pain message is inhibited d) the conscious awareness of a painful sensation
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d) the conscious awareness of a painful sensation
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Modulation involves: a) pain impulse moves from the spinal cord to the brain b) injured tissues release neurotransmitters that propagate a pain message c) the pain message is inhibited d) the conscious awareness of a painful sensation
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c) the pain message is inhibited
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Visceral pain originates from: a) blood vessles, joints, tendons, muscles, bones b) subcutaneous tissues and skin c) larger interior organs
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c) larger interior organs
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Deep Somatic pain comes from? a) blood vessles, joints, tendons, muscles, bones b) subcutaneous tissues and skin c) larger interior organs
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a) blood vessles, joints, tendons, muscles, bones
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Cutaneous pain comes from? a) blood vessles, joints, tendons, muscles, bones b) subcutaneous tissues and skin c) larger interior organs
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b) subcutaneous tissues and skin
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Pain the persists for_____is considered chronic pain. a) 2+ weeks b) 6+ weeks c) 2+ months d) 6+ months
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d) 6+ months
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Erica's patient reports that she is always in pain, Erica should tell the patient that: a) pain is a normal part of the aging process b) pain indicates cancer or tumors c) pain indicates pathology or injury d) your HR is not high you cant be in pain
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c) pain indicates pathology or injury: it is not always indicative of cancer or tumors and patients can be in pain without having an increased heart rate (especially if its chronic pain)
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Does a pain gene exits?
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Yes! It helps to explain why some people feel more / less pain even with the same stimulation
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True or False: Pain is objective. Sometimes people will seek to abuse meds and therefore you cannot always trust them if they "say" they are in pain.
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False! Pain is subjective. If a patient tells you they are in pain, you have to beleive them. Period.
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What is more useful for assessing chronic pain? a) standardized overall pain assessment tools b) initial pain assessment c) brief pain inventory d) descriptor scales
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a) standardized overall pain assessment tools
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Which pain assessment asks patients to answer the eight questions concerning location, duration, quality, intensity and aggravating/relieving factors? a) standardized overall pain assessment tools b) initial pain assessment c) brief pain inventory
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b) initial pain assessment
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Which pain assessment tool asks the pt to rate their pain during the last 24hrs with respect to its impact on mood, walking, ability and sleep? a) initial pain assessment b) brief pain inventory c) descriptor scales
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b) the brief pain inventory
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Which pain assessment asks pts to rank a list of descriptors of their intensity and give an overall intensity rating to his or her pain? a) standardized overall pain assessment tools b) initial pain assessment c) short-form McGill Pain questionnaire
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c) short-form McGill Pain questionnaire
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Which type of rating scales do older adults prefer? a) 0-10 numerical b) no pain/mild pain/ moderate pain/ severe pain c) the Wong Baker faces scale
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b) no pain/mild pain/ moderate pain/ severe pain; they find the numberical 0-10 rating abstract and have difficulty responding to it
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For a child that is 2 years old, how would you ask them to report their pain? a) rate it on a scale of 1-10 b) point to the right face on the Wong Baker Scale c) point to where it hurts
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c) point to where it hurts; they cannot rate pain intensity at this developmental level
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At what age can rating scales be introduced? a) 2-3 years of age b) 3-4 years of age c) 4-5 years of age d) 5-6 years of age
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c) 4-5 years of age
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True or False: In order to confirm a pain diagnosis in a patient with chronic pain, the nurse should look for or anticipate the same behaviors as people with acute pain.
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False: Persons with chronic pain typically try to give little indication that they are in pain and therefore are at higher risk for undetection.
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The aging adult may hide signs of pain, what could indicate that they are indeed experiencing pain? a) increase in energy b) wearing larger fitted shoes c) cooking more bland foods d) changes in dressing, walking, and toileting.
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d) changes in dressing, walking, toileting
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Erikson's sixth stage covers the first years of early adulthood, from 20 to 24 years and the major psychologic conflict to be resolved is that of?
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Intimacy versus isolation
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According to Levinson, an adult's life alternates between periods of______and_____. a) transition, floating b) structure building, transition c) floating, transition
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b) structure building, transition
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According to Levingston, the age 30 transition is a time of self-reflection including questions such as: a) Do I want children? b) Should I retire? c) Where am I going/Why am I doing these things? d) Should my parents live with me or in a nrsg home
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c) Where am I going/ Why am I doing these things
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What are the leading caused of death during middle adulthood are? a) cancer,heart disease,injuries b) diabetes, car accidents, drug over-doses c) drug over-doses, diabetes, cancer
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a) cancer,heart disease,injuries
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What stage did Erikson believe to be the most important task for personality development?
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Generativity vs Stagnation
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What is the sandwich generation? a) kids that have both older and younger siblings b) adults that have both older and younger siblings c) adults that have both children and aging parents d) adults with 2 moms or 2 dads(homosexual)
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c) adults that have both children and aging parents
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In general, older adults have: a) a decreased reaction time b) less general knowledge c) less verbal comprehension d) inability to apply their experience
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a) decreased reaction time
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The life review usually occurs during what time period? a) adolescence b) early adulthood c) late adulthood d) old age
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c) late adulthood
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What is Erikson's last stage of development?
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Ego integrity vs despair
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What is the Hassles and Uplifts Scale designed to assess? a) anxiety b) stress c) emotions d) anger
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b) stress
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What 3 things are included in a functional assessment? a) ADL's, IADL's,Mobility b) ADL's IADL's, Cognitive function c) ADL's, Mobility, Cognitive function
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a) ADL's, IADL's,Mobility
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Why would you not use the Katz ADL assessment tool on a patient in a hospital?
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In a hospital setting, a patient will not be able to perform all of the needed activities and overestimation or underestimation of the activities is likely to happen.
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A nurse is looking to assess the degree to which a patient will be able to shop for food and manage her budget at home. What assessment tool might she use? a) Lawton IADL b) Katz ADL c) PADL d) PPT
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a) Lawton IADL assessment tool- scores people in areas of the telephone, shopping, meal preparation, housekeeping, laundry, transportation, self-medication, and management of finances.
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How are ADLs different then IADLs?
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ADLs are activites such as grooming, baithing, and dressing while IADL's are other areas of independent living such as cooking, shopping, cleaning, driving.
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What is one problem with the Lawton IADL assessment? a) it specifically excludes Native Americans b) it can only be used on American adults c) male/female gender role biases d) cognitive/physical assumptions
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c)gender role biases: The females are scored on the telephone, shopping, meal preparation, housekeeping, laundry, transportation, self-medication, and management of finances while the male test omits laundry, housekeeping and preparing food.
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What instrumental ADL test would you use on a patient with dementia? a) KADL b) DAFA c) IADL d) no specific test exists for patients with dementia; one is needed!
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b) DAFA- a 10-item observational instrument for use with patients with dementia
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Altered cognition in older adults is commonly attributed to what 3 disorders? a)Alzheimers, dementia, delirium b) dementia, delirium, depression c) depression, alzheimers, delirium d) none of the above
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a)Alzheimers, dementia, delirium
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Depressed people often complain of? a) foot aches b) increased energy c) memory impairment d) none of the above
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c) memory impairment
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Delirium often presents with? a) chronic changes in cognition b) acute changed in cognition c) hallucinations d) emotional instability
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b) acute changes in cognition such as an infection or medication side effect
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Concerning social domain, what is the difference between formal and informal support?
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Formal- includes programs such as social welfare and other social service and health care deleivery agencies such as home health care. Informal agencies: includes family and close long-time friends and is usually provided free of charge.
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What term is used to describe painful breasts? a) dyspnea b) gynocomastia c) mastalgia d) malignancy
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c) mastalgia
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What sound should you be able to hear when percussing a normal abdomen? a) tympany b) hollow sounds c) resonance
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a) tympany
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Throwing up blood is termed: a) hemoptysis b) hemetemesis c) hemiuria d) hemaglobin
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b) hemetemeis
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Coughing up blood is termed: a) hemoptysis b) hemetemesis c) hemiuria d) hemaglobin
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a) hemoptysis
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Nancy is not able to hear bowel sounds in her 2 hour postoperative patient. What should she do? a) give the pt clear liquids b) call the doctor c) do nothing, this is normal d) speak with the surgeon, he may have a stomach ulcer
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c) do nothing, this is normal! Generally it takes 24 hours for the body to resume normal bowel activity.
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What should you do prior to an abdominal assessment? a) have the patient remove all their clothes b) dim the lights c) have the pt void d) ask the patient to drink a full glass of water
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c) have the patient void
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What would you suggest for a patient who has Raynauds disease? a) take cold showers b) wear gloves outside c) wear a helmit at all times d) cook foods high in Vitamin C
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b) wear gloves outside
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Pain in the calf muscles during activity which is relieved during rest is termed: a) intermittant hypersensitivity b) Restless leg syndrome c) claudication d) peripheral leg spasms
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c) claudication
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When assessing extremities, what does CSM stand for? a) claudication, sensation, movement b) color, sensation, movement c) color, sinitus, mediation
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b) color, sensation, movement
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What is responsible for acting as the pacemaker of the heart? a) Apex b) SA node c) AV node d) S1
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b) SA node(or sinoatrial node)
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Do veins or arteries have valves?
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Veins!
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Where would you find the apical pulse? a) left side-4th intercostal space b) right side-4th intercostal space c) left side-5th intercostal space d) right side- 5th intercostal space
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c) 5th intercostal space on the left side
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What is another name for the apical pulse? a) S1 b) S2 c) S3 d) S4
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a) S1
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What are neuromodulators and what do they do?
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naturally present substances that are morphine like chemical regulators in the spinal cord and brain that lower our perception of pain
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how do enkephalins help to reduce pan?
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they inhibit the release of substance P from the terminals of afferent neurons
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what are 3 substances are capable of stimulating pain?
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bradykinin
prostaglandins substance p |
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the activation of pain receptors is termed:
a.transduction b.transmission c.modulation d.perception |
a
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what are the 3 types of pain response?
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physiologic
behavioral affective |
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Moving away from painful stimuli, grimacing, moaning, and crying, restlessness, protecting painful area are all examples of what pain response?
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b.behavioral
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muscles account for how much of a person's weight?
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40-50%
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Increased bp, muscle tension, rigidity, increased pulse, pupil, pallor are all examples of what type of pain?
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b
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the filling phase is (diastole, systole) and the pumping phase is (diastole, systole)
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diastole systole
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why would a certain pain be termed psychogenic pain?
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a physical cause for the pain has not yet been determined
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Symptoms including sensations of numbness, prickling, or tingling are characteristics of peripheral and autonomic nerve damage termed ______.
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diabetic neuropathy
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Pain following an acute CNS infection is termed
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postherpeutic neuralgia
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MYOPIA
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near sightedness, rosenbaum chart to test
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HYPEROPIA
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farsightedness, tested with snellen chart
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Feelings of lightening-like stabs of intense pain in the mouth, gums, lips, nose, cheek, chin and surface of head is termed
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trigeminal neuralgia
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what is the function of the lymphatic system?
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receives excess fluid from tissue spaces and returns it to the blood stream
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What is the RYBs of wound classification
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red-protect-stage I
yellow-clean-stage II, IV, and III black is debri and stage V |
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How does the NOrton scale assess for skin impairment?
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P-A-M-Y
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what is another word for foreskin?
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prepuce
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When would you perform transillumination? How would you do it?
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perform it if you note a swlling or mass
shine a flashlight behind the scrotal mass. Normal contents do not transilluminate |
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a nurse would use the manual compression test to test what of a varicose vein?
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competence of valves
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the olecranon bursa is located in what area of the body?
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the elbow
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what is the dorsal recumbent position?
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OBGYN position
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the frontal lobe controls?
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thinking, behavior, and emotion
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the parietal lobe controls?
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sensation
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the occipital lobe controls?
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vision
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in what cavity are the heart and great vessels located in?
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mediastinum
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what part of the brain is the major control center for vital functions such as temp, heart rate, BP and sleep?
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hypothalamus
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in synovial joints, opposing bones are covered with________, which is (avascular, vascular.)
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cartilage avascular
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where do the axillary nodes drain?
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breast and upper arm
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what causes the 2nd heart sound S2? and signals the end of systole?
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closing of the SL valves
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What are the SL valves?
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aortic and pulmonic
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What are the AV valves?
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mitral and tricuspid
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what is orthostatic hypotension, who experiences it?
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a sudden drop in BP, common in the aged population
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what does the temporal lobe control?
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auditory
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free fluid in the peritoneal cavity is termed
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ascites
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in what 4 areas of the body are lymph nodes accessible to examination?
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head/neck, arms, axillae, inguinal
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Is a venous hum in a 4 year old normal?
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yes
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what are the 2 types of pathways in the CNS?
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sensory and motor
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what characteristics should you assess if you are able to feel lymph nodes?
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size
shape location delimination (discrete or matted together) |
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Trochlear nerve controls _______.
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downward and inward eye movement
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muscles account for what % of total body weight?
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40-50%
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what is the function of the lymphatic system?
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retrieves excess fluid from the tissue spaces and returns it to the bloodstream
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norton scale...how does it assess for skin impairment?
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Physical condition, Mental condition, Activity, Mobility, Incontinence
PAMAMI |
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braden scale...how does is assess for rick assessment?
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mental status, continence, mobility, activity, nutrition
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what are systematic effects of prolonged heat in response to increased blood flow to that are and decreased blood flow to other areas?
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increase cardiac output, sweating, increased pulse, decreased blood pressure
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what are the 3 types of tissue inside a wound?
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granulation
slough eschar |
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why are scars avascular?
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collagen deposited during wound healing compresses the blood vessels in the healing wound
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the accumulation of _________ causes swelling and pain at the site of injury.
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exudate
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what is proliferation?
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the wound healing phase that lasts for several weeks during which new tissue is built to fill the wound space through the action of fibroblasts
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who is at risk for venous disease?
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sitting standing for long periods of time and bedrest
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what are the 3 types of veins in the legs?
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deep veins
superficial veins perforators |
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What breath sound would have a high pitch and a low amplitude?
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bronchial
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What breath sound has a moderate pitch and a moderate amplitude?
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Bronchovesicular
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nipple discharge is also called?
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galactorrhea
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name the 4 sets of breast lymph nodes?
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central axillary
pectoral subscapular lateral |
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Due to muscular contractions the heart valves ______.
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open
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what are the 3 parts of the sternum?
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manubrium
body xyphoid process |
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what happens during the first day after birth to the infant heart?
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forman ovale and ductus arteriosis close permanently due to pressure changes
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what is the bulge sign test?
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squish one side of the knee see if any fluid raises up on the other side (none should)
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the popliteal artery further divides into what 2 arteries?
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anterior tibial artery and posterior tibial artery
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what are the 4 chambers of the heart starting with the upper left in clockwise motion?
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right atrium, let atrium, right ventricle and left ventricle
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an increase in CO2 is likely to?
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stimulate breathing
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where are nerves located with the CNS?
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outside the CNS!
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what 3 organs aid the lymphatic system?
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spleen
tonsils thymus |
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facial nerve controls
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facial expressions, taste, saliva production
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what are the 4 types of reflexes?
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deep tendon
superficial visceral pathalogic |
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is the spleen normally palpable?
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no! only when it's 3 times its size!
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what is the inability to return the foreskin to its original position is termed:
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paraphimosis
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what are the 2 continuos loops of the cardiovascular?
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pulmonary circulation and systemic circulation
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trigeminal nerve controls _______.
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chewing, sensation, mucous membranes of mouth and nose
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where do the epitrochlear nodes drain?
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hand and lower arm
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where are the lower motor neurons mostly located?
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peripheral nervous system
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where are the upper motor neurons mostly located?
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central nervous system
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what is a cervical eversion and when might it occur?
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the cervix starts turning inside out
may occur normally after vaginal deliveries |
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if someone bruises their left breast what could be a diagnosis?
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mastalgia
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what are the 3 palpable landmarks of the shoulder?
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acromion process, greater tubercle and coracoid process
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what are the 3 palpable landmarks of the elbow?
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medial epicondyle
lateral epicondyle olecranon process |
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the lymphatic system helps with immunity by eating foreign particles in a process called __________.
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phagocytosis
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where is the supernumerary nipple most likely to be located?
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along the milk line
|
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what is the phalens test?
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back of hand against back of hand, testing for carpal tunnels
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In S2 in what order do the semilunar valves close?
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aortic SL pulmonic SL
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The _________ vein and ________ vain empty deoxygenated blood into the SVC.
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internal jugular
external jugular |
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what is lamins term for joints?
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knuckles
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the knee jerk is an examples of what type of reflex?
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deep tendon
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what are the 3 palpable landmarks of the hip?
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anterior superior iliac spine
ischial tuberosity greater trochantar |
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are the upper motor neurons or the lower motor neurons in the direct contact with the muscles?
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lower motor neurons
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the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava send (oxygenated/deoxygenated) blood to the heart.
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deoxygenated
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what is the hepatojugular reflex?
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a person lays down and you put pressure on their abdomen just below the rib cage for 30 seconds, watch for the rise in the size of the jugular vein, for right sided heart failure
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what are the 4 characteristics of heart sounds?
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pitch
intensity duration timing(systolic or diastolic) |
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what age do growth plates close?
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20 y/o
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in the hand, what is the thenar eminence?
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the rounded, squishy mound proximal to the thumb
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what is borborygmus?
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stomach growling due to hyperactive bowel sounds
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what does a pt say during egophany?
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"ee-ee-ee-ee"
"e" for egophony! |
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what muscle controls the size of the scrotum by responding to ambient temperature?
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cremaster muscle
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why does the vagina have thick tranverse folds called ruggae?
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it enables the vagina to dilate widely during childbirth
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at what age does sperm production decrease?
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40
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what is pyrosis?
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heart burn
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there are ______ groups of palpable lymph nodes
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10
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normocephalic is a term used to describe what?
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a round symmetrical skull, that is appropriately related to body size
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what is a set test?
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a person has to name 10 items in each of 4 different categories
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a person's emotional and cognitive functioning is termed ________.
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mental status
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The great and small saphenous are what type of vein?
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superficial
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the connecting veins that join 2 sets of veins are termed _________.
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perforator
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what are the 2 ducts that the lymphatic system drain into? a.pericardial duct
b.thoracic duct c.right lymphatic duct d.left lymphatic duct |
b and c
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Poor lymphatic drainage leads to fluid build up in the interstitial spaces termed ___________.
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edema
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what does the CNS control?
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brain and spinal cord
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why do veins have thinner walls then arteries?
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bc venous pressure is lower and therefore require less thick walls
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what nerve is responsible for talking and swallowing?
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vagus
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Erica is filling a tub with water to bathe a pt, what is the ideal temperature of the water?
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110-115
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what are the 3 parts of the brain stem?
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midbrain
pons medulla |
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what are the 4 functions of the spleen?
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kill old RBCs
store RBCs produce antibodies filter micro-organisms |
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what does the pulmonary artery do?
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carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart to the lungs
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what does the pulmonary vein do?
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carries oxygenated blood towards the heart so that the aorta can send it out to the body
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what causes enlarges lymph nodes?
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infection, allergy, neoplasm
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