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193 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

A waist to hip ratio of greater than 1 in men and .8 in women =

Andriod (upper body) obesity

Andriod (upper body) obesity

A waist to hip ratio of greater than 1 in men and .8 in women =

A waist circumference of __ in women and __ in men increases risk for what?

>35, >40


Heart disease


DM


Metabolic Syndrome

Best place to do a skin fold test?

Triceps

for skin fold, values more than/less than 10% of normal =

under/over nutrition

___ may produce falsely high skin fold readings

Edema

Mid arm circumfrance estimates what?

Muscle mass and fat stores

Prediabetes =

Fasting plasma glucose levels of 110-125

Hemoglobin test

Iron deficient anemia

Hematocrit Test

cell colume and iron status

Cholesterol Test

Fat metabolism/risk for CVD

Triglyceride Test

Hyperlipidemia or CAD

Good Cholesterol vs bad

HDL


LDL

Serum protein test

Test for serum albumin - visceral protein status

C-reactive protein

Used by liver - monitors metabolic stress

Detectable levels of CRP are indicative of

Increased risk of atherosclerosis


Cardinal features of successful weight loss plan

Exercise 30 mins 4-5x/week


Low cal


Low fat


Monitoring food intake

Obesity =

20% above ideal body weight or 30-40 BMI

Maramus

Protein calorie malnutrition


Starvation

Kwashiorkor

Protein malnutrition - lack of protein in diet


appears well nourished but with edema

Maramus/Kwashiorkor mix =

Prolonged inadequate intke of protein and calories


Emaciated

Pigmented keratotic scaling from niacin deficient

Pellagra

Dry bumpy skin associated with vita A or linoleic acid deficeincy

Follicular hyperkeratosis

Deficiency of vita C - shows in swollen gums

Scorbutic gums

Riboflavin deficiency

Magenta Tongue (tongue turns red)

Vita D and Ca deficeincy in children

Rickets

Foamy plaques of the cornea - sign of vita A def.

Bitots Spots

What sound appears over a distended bladder, fat tissue, fluid or mass?

Dullness

Hyperresonance is present with

Gaseous distention

Large liver span indicates

Hepatomegaly (liver enlargement)

Accumulation of fluid in the gastrointestinal area

Ascites

Ascites occurs with which diseases?

CHF, protal hypertension, cirrhosis, hepatitis, pancreatitis, cancer

Should you palpate an enlarged/tender spleen?

No

Order for GI assessment

Inspect


Auscultate


Palpate/Percuss

Blumberg Sign

Rebound tenderness

Murphy Sign

Inspiratory Arrest


Pain w/ inspiration

Iliopsoas muscle test

Leg at 45 degree angle


If lots of pain = appendix

What test is used for appendix

Iliopsoas test

Enlarged liver occurs with

Fatty infiltration


Portal obstrucion of cirrhosis


Obstruction of inferior vena cava


Lymphocytic leukemia

Enlarged nodular liver occurs with

Late potral cirrhosis


Metastic cancer


Syphillis

Enlarged Gall occurs with

Cholecystitis


Stones

Enlarged Spleen occurs with

Mono

Enlarged kidney occurs with

Hydrophrosis


cyst


neoplasm

Aortic aneurysm hints

Bruit


Decreased femoral pulse

Names of lymphs on head/neck (10)

Preauricular


Posterior Auricular


Occipital


Submental


Submandibular


Jugulodigastric


Superficial Cervical


Deep Cervical


Posterior Cervical


Supraclavicular

Round and symmetric skull

Normocephalic

Abnormally small/large head

Microcephaly


Macrocephaly

Obstruction of drainage of cerebral spinal fluid - enlargement of head

Hydrocephalus

Askeletal disease of increased bone resorption and formation which softens, thickens and defomrs bone

Pagets Disease of Bone

Excessive secretion of growth hormone from the pituitary land - enlarged skull and thickened cranial bones

Acromegaly

A hemotoma in one sternomastoid muscle - tilt to one side and limited ROM

Torticollis (wryneck)

Chronic enlargement of thyroid

Goiter

Smooth, firm fluctuant swelling on the scalp that contain sebum and keratin

Pilar cyst

Rapid painful inflammation of the parotid occurs with mumps

Parotid gland enlargement

Thyroid deficiency at early age - impaired growth and neurologic deficit

Congenital Hypothyroidism

Chromosomal aberration - unslanting eyes, flat nasal bridge, small board and flat nose, protruding thick tongue, low ears, broad neck,

Down syndrome

Children with choronic allergies develop

Atopic Facies


Blue eye shaddows, open mouth breath, pallor

Transverse line on the nose from allergies

Allergic salute and crease

Deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine and degeneration of the basal ganglia in the brain

parkinson's

Excessive secretion of corticotropin hormone ACTH


Round face/moonlike

Cushing syndroms

Most common cause of hyperthyroidism

Grave's diseas - bulging eyeballs

Thyroid hormone deficeincy

Myxedema - puffy eyes

Nerve 7 paralysis disease

Bells Palsy


Assymetrical face

Cachectic appearance =

Chronic wasting disease (skinny0

Hard skin - rare connective tissue disease - hardening and shrinking of skin

Scleroderma

Grey and white area around limbus of eye

Arcus senilis

Soft raised yellow plaques of the eye

xanthelasma

Lids are swollen and puffy

Periorbital edema

Protruding eyes

exophthalmos

Drooping upper lid

Ptosis

Upward eye slant

Upward palpebral slant

Lower lid is loose and rolling out

Ectropin

Lower lid rolls in

Entropion

Inflammation of eyelid

Blepharitis

Beady module prodruding in lid (cystlike)

Chalazion

Sty

Hordeolum

Inflammation of lacrimal sac

Dacrocystitis

Papule with ulcerated center (in the eye)

Basal cell carcinoma

Unequal pupil size

Anisocoria


CNS disease

Dilated and fixed pupils


Mydriasis


CNS, circularoty arrest or recent trauma

no rxn to light in pupils

Argyll Robertson pupil


Brain tumor


alcoholism

Unilateral small regular pupil

Horners syndrome

Constricted and fixed pupils

Miosis


Use of drops, narcotics, damage to pons

Sluggish rxn to light

Tonic pupil


unilateral and large pupil

What does cranial nerve damage 3 look like

Unilateral dilated pupil with no rxn to light

Pink eye

Conjuctivitis

Red patch on sclera

Subconjunctival hemorrhage - broken blood vessels (stress)

Deep red halo around cornea

Iritis


Immediate referral needed

Triangular opaque wing of bulbar conjuctiva overgrows towards eye center

Pterygium


Chronic exposre to hot/dry/sandy

Blood in anterior eye chamber

Hyphema - from herpes zoster or blunt trauma

reddish blue discoloration and swelling of auricle after exposure to extreme cold

Frostbite

Infection of outer ear

Otitis externa aka swimmers ear

Skin tag of cartilage

Branchial remnant and ear deformity

Inflammation of loose, subcutaneous connective tissue - thickening of auricle

Cellulitis

Location behind lobule of ear - blacking and filled with sebacous fluid

sebaceous cyst

small whitish yellow nontender nodule on ear

Tophi

Painful nodules on rim of ear

Nodularis helicus

overgrowth of scar tissue

keloid

Ulcerated crusted nodule with indurated base that fails to heal

Carcinoma (ear)

Which of these statements is true regarding the vertebra prominens? The vertebra prominens is:

A. opposite the interior border of the scapula.
B. usually not palpable in most individuals.
C. located next to the manubrium of the sternum.


D. the spinous process of C7. D. the spinous process of C7.

The nurse is percussing the seventh right intercostal space at the midclavicular line over the liver. Which sound should the nurse expect to hear?

A. Resonance
B. Tympany
C. Hyperresonance
D. Dullness


D. Dullness

Which structure is located in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen?
A. Sigmoid colon
B. Gallbladder
C. Liver
D. Duodenum


A. Sigmoid colon

The nurse suspects that a patient has a distended bladder. How should the nurse assess for this condition?



A. Inspect and palpate in the epigastric region.
B. Auscultate and percuss in the inguinal region.
C. Percuss and palpate the midline area above the suprapubic bone.
D. Percuss and palpate in the lumbar region.


C. Percuss and palpate the midline area above the suprapubic bone.

A 22-year-old man comes to the clinic for an examination after falling off his motorcycle and landing on his left side on the handlebars. The nurse suspects that he may have injured his spleen. Which of these statements is true regarding assessment of the spleen in this situation?

A. If an enlarged spleen is noticed, then the nurse should palpate thoroughly to determine size.
B. The spleen can be enlarged as a result of trauma.
C. An enlarged spleen should not be palpated because it can rupture easily.
D. The spleen is normally felt upon routine palpation.


C. An enlarged spleen should not be palpated because it can rupture easily.

A patient's abdomen is bulging and stretched in appearance. The nurse should describe this finding as:

A. herniated.
B. protuberant.
C. scaphoid.
D. obese.


B. protuberant.

The nurse is describing a scaphoid abdomen. To the horizontal plane, a scaphoid contour of the abdomen depicts a _____ profile.

A. bulging
B. convex
C. concave
D. flat


C. concave

The nurse is watching a new graduate nurse perform auscultation of a patient's abdomen. Which statement by the new graduate shows a correct understanding of the reason auscultation precedes percussion and palpation of the abdomen?

A. "This prevents distortion of vascular sounds such as bruits and hums that might occur after percussion and palpation."
B. "It prevents distortion of bowel sounds that might occur after percussion and palpation."
C. "It allows the patient more time to relax and therefore be more comfortable with the physical examination."
D. "We need to determine areas of tenderness before using percussion and palpation."


B. "It prevents distortion of bowel sounds that might occur after percussion and palpation."

The nurse is assessing the abdomen of a pregnant woman who is complaining of having "acid indigestion" all the time. The nurse knows that esophageal reflux during pregnancy can cause:

A. dysphagia.
B. pyrosis.
C. constipation.
D. diarrhea.


B. pyrosis.

The nurse is performing percussion during an abdominal assessment. Percussion notes heard during the abdominal assessment may include:

A. resonance, hyperresonance, and flatness.
B. resonance, dullness, and tympany.
C. flatness, resonance, and dullness.
D. tympany, hyperresonance, and dullness.


D. tympany, hyperresonance, and dullness.

An older patient has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. The nurse knows that this condition could be related to:

A. increased gastric acid secretion.
B. delayed gastrointestinal emptying time.
C. decreased gastric acid secretion.
D. increased gastrointestinal emptying time.


C. decreased gastric acid secretion.

During an abdominal assessment, the nurse elicits tenderness on light palpation in the right lower quadrant. The nurse interprets that this finding could indicate a disorder of which of these structures?

A. Sigmoid
B. Spleen
C. Gallbladder
D. Appendix


D. Appendix

A mother brings her 2-month-old daughter in for an examination and says, "My daughter rolled over against the wall and now I have noticed that she has this spot that is soft on the top of her head. Is there something terribly wrong?" The nurse's best response would be:

A. "Your baby may have craniosynostosis, a disease of the sutures of the brain."
B. "That 'soft spot' is normal, and actually allows for growth of the brain during the first year of your baby's life."
C. "Perhaps that could be a result of your dietary intake during pregnancy."
D. "That 'soft spot' you are referring to may be an indication of cretinism or congenital hypothyroidism."


B. "That 'soft spot' is normal, and actually allows for growth of the brain during the first year of your baby's life."


When examining a patient's cranial nerve (CN) function, the nurse remembers that the muscles in the neck that are innervated by CN XI are the:

A. trapezius and sternomandibular
B. spinal accessory and omohyoid
C. sternomastoid and trapezius.
D. sternomandibular and spinal accessory.


C. sternomastoid and trapezius.


A patient presents with excruciating headache pain on one side of his head, especially around his eye, forehead, and cheek that lasts about 1/2 to 2 hours, occurring once or twice each day. The nurse should suspect:

A. hypertension
B. cluster headaches
C. tension headaches
D. migraine


B. cluster headaches

A patient has come in for an examination and states, "I have this spot in front of my ear lobe here on my cheek that seems to be getting bigger and is tender. What do you think it is?" The nurse notes swelling below the angle of the jaw and suspects that it could be an inflammation of his:

A. parotid gland
B. submental lymph node
C. occipital lymph node
D. thyroid gland


A. parotid gland

The nurse notices that an infant has a large, soft lump on the side of his head and that his mother is very concerned. She tells the nurse that she noticed the lump about 8 hours after her baby's birth, and that it seems to be getting bigger. One possible explanation for this is:

A. caput succedaneum
B. craniosynostosis
C. cephalhematoma
D. hydrocephalus


C. cephalhematoma

The nurse has just completed a lymph node assessment on a 60-year-old healthy female patient. The nurse knows that most lymph nodes in healthy adults are normally:

A. rubbery, discrete, and mobile.
B. not palpable
C. large, firm, and fixed to the tissue.
D. shotty.


B. not palpable

The nurse is performing an external eye examination. Which statement regarding the outer layer of the eye is true?

A. The outer layer of the eye is very sensitive to touch.
B. The outer layer of the eye is darkly pigmented to prevent light from reflecting internally.
C. The trigeminal (CN V) and the trochlear (CN IV) nerves are stimulated when the outer surface of the eye is stimulated.
D. The visual receptive layer of the eye in which light waves are changed into nerve impulses is located in the outer layer of the eye.


A. The outer layer of the eye is very sensitive to touch.

The nurse is reviewing causes of increased intraocular pressure. Which of these factors determines intraocular pressure?
A. Amount of aqueous produced and resistance to its outflow at the angle of the anterior chamber
B. Posterior chamber as it accommodates an increase in fluid
C. Contraction of the ciliary body in response to the aqueous within the eye
D. Thickness or bulging of the lens


A. Amount of aqueous produced and resistance to its outflow at the angle of the anterior chamber

Which of these assessment findings would the nurse expect to see when examining the eyes of a black patient?
A. A dark retinal background
B. Increased photosensitivity
C. Increased night vision
D. Narrowed palpebral fissures


A. A dark retinal background

When performing the corneal light reflex assessment, the nurse notes that the light is reflected at 2 o'clock in each eye. The nurse should:
A. consider this a normal finding.
B. perform the confrontation test to validate the findings.
C. refer the individual for further evaluation.
D. document this as an asymmetric light reflex.


A. consider this a normal finding.

When assessing the pupillary light reflex, the nurse should use which technique?

A. Ask the patient to follow the penlight in eight directions and observe for bilateral pupil constriction.
B. Shine a penlight from directly in front of the patient and inspect for pupillary constriction.
C. Ask the patient to focus on a distant object. Then ask the patient to follow the penlight to about 7 cm from the nose.
D. Shine a light across the pupil from the side and observe for direct and consensual pupillary constriction.


D. Shine a light across the pupil from the side and observe for direct and consensual pupillary constriction.

In a patient who has anisocoria, the nurse would expect to observe:
A. excessive tearing.
B. pupils of unequal size.
C. dilated pupils.
D. an uneven curvature of the lens.

B. pupils of unequal size.

The nurse is examining a patient's ears and notices cerumen in the external canal. Which of these statements about cerumen is correct?

A. Sticky honey-colored cerumen is a sign of infection.
B. The purpose of cerumen is to protect and lubricate the ear.
C. The presence of cerumen is indicative of poor hygiene.
D. Cerumen is necessary for transmitting sound through the auditory canal.


B. The purpose of cerumen is to protect and lubricate the ear.

During an interview, the patient states he has the sensation that "everything around him is spinning." The nurse recognizes that the portion of the ear responsible for this sensation is:

A. the cochlea.
B. cranial nerve VIII.
C. the labyrinth.
D. the organ of Corti.


C. the labyrinth.

A 31-year-old patient tells the nurse that he has noticed pain in his left ear when people speak loudly to him. The nurse knows that this finding:

A. is a characteristic of recruitment.
B. may indicate a middle ear infection.
C. is normal for people of that age.
D. indicates that the patient has a cerumen impaction.


A. is a characteristic of recruitment.

A colleague is assessing an 80-year-old patient who has ear pain and asks him to hold his nose and swallow. The nurse knows that which of the following is true concerning this technique?

A. This is especially useful in assessing a patient with an upper respiratory infection.
B. This should not be used in an 80-year-old patient.
C. This technique is helpful in assessing for otitis media.
D. This will cause the eardrum to bulge slightly and make landmarks more visible.


B. This should not be used in an 80-year-old patient.

While performing the otoscopic examination of a 3-year-old boy who has been pulling on his left ear, the nurse finds that his left tympanic membrane is bright red and that the light reflex is not visible. The nurse interprets these findings to indicate:
A. acute otitis media.

B. cholesteatoma.

C. perforation of the ear drum.

D. a fungal infection.


A. acute otitis media.

The nurse is performing a middle ear assessment on a 15-year-old patient who has a history of chronic ear infections. When examining the right tympanic membrane, the nurse sees the presence of dense white patches. The tympanic membrane is otherwise unremarkable. It is pearly, with the light reflex at 5 o'clock and landmarks visible. The nurse should:

A. consider that these findings may represent the presence of blood in the middle ear.
B. know that these are scars caused from frequent ear infections.
C. refer the patient for the possibility of a fungal infection.
D. be concerned about the ability to hear because of this abnormality on the tympanic membrane.


B. know that these are scars caused from frequent ear infections.

The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the:

A. septum.
B. meatus.
C. Kiesselbach plexus.
D. turbinates.


D. turbinates.

The nurse is obtaining a history on a 3-month-old infant. During the interview, the mother states, "I think she is getting her first tooth because she has started drooling a lot." The nurse's best response would be:

A. "This could be the sign of a problem with the salivary glands."
B. "She is just starting to salivate and hasn't learned to swallow the saliva."
C. "It would be unusual for a 3 month old to be getting her first tooth."
D. "You're right, drooling is usually a sign of the first tooth.


B. "She is just starting to salivate and hasn't learned to swallow the saliva."

The nurse is doing an assessment on a 21-year-old patient and notices that his nasal mucosa appears pale, gray, and swollen. What would be the most appropriate question to ask the patient?

A. "Have you been having frequent nosebleeds?"
B. "Do you have an elevated temperature?"
C. "Have you had any symptoms of a cold?"
D. "Are you aware of having any allegies?"


D. "Are you aware of having any allegies?"

Which of these techniques best describes the test the nurse should use to assess the function of cranial nerve X?

A. Assess movement of the hard palate and uvula with the gag reflex.
B. Ask the patient to say "ahhh" and watch for movement of the soft palate and uvula.
C. Have the patient stick out the tongue and observe for tremors or pulling to one side.
D. Observe the patient's ability to articulate specific words.


B. Ask the patient to say "ahhh" and watch for movement of the soft palate and uvula.

While performing an assessment of the mouth, the nurse notices that the patient has a 1-cm ulceration that is crusted with an elevated border. It is located on the outer third of the lower lip. What other information would be most important for the nurse to assess?

A. Whether the patient has had a recent cold
B. Whether the patient has had any recent exposure to sick animals
C. When the patient first noticed the lesion
D. Nutritional status


C. When the patient first noticed the lesion

When assessing the tongue of an adult, the nurse knows that an abnormal finding would be:

A. a thin white coating over the tongue.
B. visible venous patterns on the ventral surface.
C. a smooth glossy dorsal surface.
D. raised papillae on the dorsal surface.


C. a smooth glossy dorsal surface.

The wife of a 65-year-old man tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noticed a change in her husband's personality and ability to understand. He also cries and becomes angry very easily. The nurse recalls that the cerebral lobe responsible for these behaviors is the _____ lobe.
A. frontal
B. occipital
C. temporal
D. parietal


A. frontal

While gathering equipment after an injection, a nurse accidentally received a prick from an improperly capped needle. To interpret this sensation, which of these areas must be intact?

A. Corticospinal tract, medulla, and basal ganglia
B. Lateral spinothalamic tract, thalamus, and sensory cortex
C. Anterior spinothalamic tract, basal ganglia, and sensory cortex
D. Pyramidal tract, hypothalamus, and sensory cortex


B. Lateral spinothalamic tract, thalamus, and sensory cortex

The ability that humans have to perform very skilled movements such as writing is controlled by the:

A. basal ganglia.
B. spinothalamic tract.
C. extrapyramidal tract.
D. corticospinal tract.


D. corticospinal tract.

During an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse notices the following: inability to identify vibrations at the ankle and to identify position of big toe, slower and more deliberate gait, and slightly impaired tactile sensation. All other neurologic findings are normal. The nurse should interpret that these findings indicate:
A. normal changes due to aging.
B. cranial nerve dysfunction.
C. lesion in the cerebral cortex.
D. demyelinization of nerves due to a lesion.


A. normal changes due to aging

The nurse is testing the function of cranial nerve XI. Which of these best describes the response the nurse should expect if the nerve is intact? The patient:

A. sticks tongue out midline without tremors or deviation.
B. demonstrates ability to hear normal conversation.
C. moves the head and shoulders against resistance with equal strength.
D. follows an object with eyes without nystagmus or strabismus.


C. moves the head and shoulders against resistance with equal strength.

The nurse places a key in the hand of a patient and he identifies it as a penny. What term would the nurse use to describe this finding?

A. Extinction
B. Astereognosis
C. Graphesthesia
D. Tactile discrimination


B. Astereognosis


Functions of the nose:


Warms, humidifies, and filters inhaled air
Sense of smell


What is the purpose of the three turbinates within the nose?


To increase surface area available to warm, humidify and filter inhaled air

What is a deviated septum?


When the septum of the nose is not completely straight and it deviates to one side or the other

What cranial nerve relates to the nose?

Cranial nerve I, the olfactory nerve. It transmits smell to the temporal lobe of the brain

How do you test cranial nerve I?

Test for scent identification with each nare separately.

Nasal mucosa should appear:

moist and intact

Describe what the nasal mucosa will look like with a respiratory infection or rhinitis.

Swollen and bright red in appearance

How do you test to see if there is a perforation in the septum?

Shine a light up one nare. Insert a scope into the opposite nare and observe for the light to shine through. Generally, this will not be present and the septum will just glow.

What is epistaxis?

Bloody nose

What is the treatment for epistaxis?

Apply pressure to the bridge of the nose, lean forward.`


Cauterization in severe cases.

What sinuses are accessible for examination?


Frontal and maxillary

When palpating the sinuses, the patient should feel:

Firm pressure, but no tenderness or pain.

Functions of the mouth:

First segment of the digestive system
Airway for the respiratory system

What does pallor of the lips possibly indicate?

Shock or anemia

What does cyanosis of the lips possibly indicate?

Hypoxemia or chilling

Cherry bright red lips are noted with what condition(s)?

Carbon monoxide poisoning
Ketoacidosis
Acidosis from aspirin poisoning

What are fluid filled lesions on the lip-skin junction?


Cold sores


Herpes simplex 1 virus

What cranial nerves are associated with the mouth?


Cranial nerve IX--glossopharyngeal nerve
Cranial nerve X--Vagus nerve

What does cranial nerve IX do?

Allows for swallowing

How can you simultaneously test cranial nerves IX and X?

Have the patient say "ahh" and observe as the palate and uvula rise with speaking.

What does cranial nerve X do?

Allows for talking and phonation

What should the buccal mucosa look like?

Pink
Smooth
Moist

What is xerostomia?


Dry mouth

What is the number 1 cause of dry mouth in the older population?

Taking anticholinergic medications

What are the functions of the tongue?

Mastication--chewing
swallowing
Cleansing the teeth

A white, cheesy, curd-like patch on the tongue or buccal mucosa is:

a yeast infection, often called candidiasis or thrush

How many teeth do children have? Adults?

Children: 20
Adults: 32 (including wisdom teeth)

What cranial nerve innervates the tongue?

cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve.

How do you test the function of cranial nerve XII?


Have the patient stick their tongue out. It should be midline and still.

What kind of breath would you expect to smell in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis?

a sweet, fruity scent

When assessing the tonsils, they are graded on what kind of scale?

+1 to +4

What do a "+3" grading of tonsils indicate?

The tonsils are each touching the uvula

What is dysphagia?


Difficulty swallowing

What interventions can be done to help with dysphagia?

Thickened diet


Sit upright while eating
PEG tube or G tube


What color teeth might you see in someone who has excessive fluoride use?

Brown teeth

choanal atresia


bony or membranous septum between the nasal cavity and pharynx of a new born

epistaxis

bleeding from the nose

foreign body

a blockage up the nose; like a toy

perforated septum

a hole in the septum (usually cartilage part) caused from snorting cocaine, chronic infection, trauma of picking crusts or nasal surgery

furnuncle l

a small biol located in the skin or mucous membrane; red and swollen and painfu

allergic rhinitis


itching of the nose and eyes, lacrimation, nasal congestion. Serous edema and swelling of turbinates to fill air space; turbinates are usually pale

acute rhinitis

clear, watery discharge, rhinorrhea, later becomes purlent.

sinusitis

facial pain after upper respiratory infection. Red swollen nas mucosa, swollen turnbinates

nasal polyps

smooth, pale gray nodules (overgrowth of mucosa) from chronic allergic rhinitis

cleft lip

most common congenital deformities of head and neck

angular cheilitis

erythema, scaling and painful fissures at corn of mouth

carcinoma

lesion is round and indurated and becomes crusted with an elevated border

retention "cyst"

a round translucent nodule that may be very small or up to 1-2 cm

turbinates


Bones that protrude into the nasal cavity- they increase surface area for filtering dust and dirt particles by the mucous membrane.

nares

nose opening

rhinorrhea

persistent watery mucus discharge from the nose (as in the common cold)

things to focus on for nose

discharge, frequent colds, sinus pain, trauma, epistaxis, allergies, altered smell