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261 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

A hard boot takes more time than a soft boot. T/F?

True

The Advanced Boot Options menu appears when a user presses F8 as Windows is loading. T/F?

True

There is no option for networking access when using Safe Mode. T/F?

False

A Windows 7 system repair disc can be created using the Backup and Restore utility. T/F?

True

As you work to solve a Windows problem, always choose the method that makes the most changes to the system as possible in order to rejuvenate the machine. T/F?

False

What is responsible for getting a system up and going and finding an OS to load?


A. Windows Boot Loader


B. Startup BIOS


C. Setup BIOS


D. BootMgr

Startup BIOS

What is the name of the program that reads the settings in the Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file and manages the initial startup of the OS?


A. Windows Boot Loader


B. Session Manager program


C. MBR program


D. Windows Boot Manager

Windows Boot Manager

What program is used to start the part of the Win32 subsystem that displays graphics?


1) Smss.exe


2) Lsass.exe


3) Ntoskrnl.exe


4) Winlogon.exe

Smss.exe

Under the Advanced Options screen, what startup option should be enabled in order to view what did and did not load during the bootup?


1) Event Viewer


2) Windows Boot Manager


3) Boot Logging


4) Safe Mode with Networking

Boot Logging

In Windows 7, what startup option can be used to restore the registry settings from the previous login?


1) Safe Recovery


2) Debugging Mode


3) Last Known Good Configuration


4) System Restore

Last Known Good Configuration

What command can be used to manage hard drives, partitions, and volumes?


1) wpeinit


2) bdcedit


3) diskpart


4) bootrec

diskpart

In order to remove any partition or volume information from a selected disk, what diskpart command should be used?


1) create partition primary


2) clean


3) format


4) select partition

clean

What command can be used to scan for Windows installations not stored in the BCD?


1) bcdedit


2) bootrec /fixmbr


3) bootrec /fixboot


4) bootrec /scanOS

bootrec /scanOS

The Advanced Boot Options screen can be displayed by pressing what key during the boot sequence?


1) F10


2) F8


3) F12


4) F4

F8

What key will cause the Windows Boot Manager to appear as long as it is pressed during the Windows startup process?


1) F8


2) Enter


3) F5


4) spacebar

spacebar

What command can be used to check for file system errors?


1) System Restore


2) MSconfig


3) chkdsk /r


4) sfc /scannow

chkdsk /r

What is a typical symptom that might indicate the MBR record is damaged?


1) Invalid partition table error


2) loud clicking noise


3) Invalid boot disk error


4) RAID not found error message

Invalid partition table error

If you suspect corrupted system files are causing issues, what command can be run to search for and replace the corrupted files?


1) chkdsk /r


2) sfc /scannow


3) sfc /r


4) chkdsk /scannow

sfc /scannow

What is the file name given to the Windows kernel?


1) Kern.sys


2) Hal.dll


3) Winkernel.exe


4) Ntoskrnl.exe

Ntoskrnl.exe

Where is the Windows system registry hive?


1) C:\Windows\reg


2) C:\Windows\etc\hive


3) C:\Windows\settings\config


4) C:\Windows\System32\Config

C:\Windows\System32\Config

What command can be used to repair a dual boot system?


1) bcdedit


2) bootsect


3) bootrep


4) bootrec

bootsect

What dynamic link library handles low-level hardware details?


1) Winlogon.exe


2) Smss.exe


3) Ntoskrnl.exe


4) Hal.dll

Hal.dll

Registry files, if deleted, can be restored from those saved in what folder?


1) C:\Windows\RegBack


2) C:\Windows\System32\WinBackup


3) C:\Windows\System32\Config\RegBack


4) C:\Windows\System32\Config\Hive

C:\Windows\System32\Config\RegBack

What command can be issued within Windows RE to enable networking?


1) netsh if up


2) wpeinit


3) ifconfig start


4) netconf load

wpeinit

What Windows process is responsible for authenticating users?


1) Ntoskrnl.exe


2) Lsass.exe


3) Smss.exe


4) Csrss.exe

Lsass.exe

What two programs are utilized when Windows resumes from hibernation, depending on the motherboard's BIOS/UEFI?


1) winwake.efi


2) winresume.exe


3) winresume.efi


4) winload.exe

winresume.exe


winresume.efi

What error messages indicate that the MBR sector is damaged, or the active partition is corrupt or missing? (Choose all that apply.)


1) Error loading operating system


2) Missing operating system


3) No boot device found


4) Invalid partition table

Error loading operating system


Missing operating system


Invalid partition table

What events can occur during BootMgr's role in startup? (Choose all that apply.)


1) MBR program searches for partition table


2) POST is performed


3) Dual-boot menu is displayed


4) the settings in the BCD are read

Dual-boot menu is displayed


the settings in the BCD are read

What are some of the responsibilities of the kernel during the startup process? (Choose all that apply.)


1) Activates the HAL


2) Starts the Session Manager


3) Loads system registry hive


4) starts critical services

Activates the HAL


Starts the Session Manager


starts critical services

Which of the following text error messages can indicate that BIOS could not find a hard drive? (Choose all that apply).


1) A disk read error occurred


2) No boot device found


3) Drive not recognized


4) Hard drive not found

No boot device found


Hard drive not found

A command to manage hard drives, partitions, and volumes.

diskpart

In Windows 8/7/Vista, the program responsible for loading Windows.

Windows Boot Manager (BootMgr)

Registry settings and device drivers that were in effect when the computer was last logged into successfully

Last Known Good Configuration

Restarts the computer by turning off the power or by pressing the Reset button

cold boot

to restart a PC without turning off the power

soft boot

A Windows 7/Vista command option that repairs the boot sector of the system partition.

fixboot

a self-diagnostic program used to perform a simple test of the CPU, RAM, and various I/O devices

POST (power-on self test)

a lean operating system that can be used to troubleshoot problems when Windows refuses to start

Windows Recovery Environment (RE)

for a GPT hard drive, the bootable partition used to boot the OS and contains the boot manager program for the OS

EFI System Parition (ESP)

a small Windows database structured the same as a registry file and contains configuration information about how Windows is started

Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store

The Telnet protocol encrypts transmitted data, which therefore cannot be read by others on the network. T/F?

False

When using static IP addressing, software automatically configures the network connection on each device. T/F?

False

A problem with virtual networks is that data transmitting through them cannot be encrypted and therefore is not secure. T/F?

False

The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) guarantees delivery of data to its destination. T/F?

False

The current release of SMB is CIFS, also called SMB2. T/F?

True

What is the name of the 32-bit or 128-bit number that is used to identify a device on a network?


1) IP version


2) protocol number


3) port number


4) IP address

IP address

How are IP addresses available to the Internet classified?


1) non-routable


2) private


3) standard


4) public

public

What type of IP address is configured by a server when a device first initiates a connection to the network?


1) default


2) static


3) dynamic


4) configured

dynamic

How is the network portion and the host portion of an IP address identified?


1) DHCP address


2) default gateway


3) dynamic address


4) subnet mask

subnet mask

What command can be used to display IP addresses assigned to all network connections on a system?


1) netcfg32


2) netstat


3) ipconfig


4) msconfig

ipconfig

Packets are delivered to a single node on a network when using what type of IPv6 address?


1) anycast address


2) unicast address


3) default gateway address


4) multicast address

unicast address

What protocol makes a connection, checks whether the data is received, and resends it if it is not?


1) IP


2) TCP


3) UDP


4) DNS

TCP

The solution for securing private data traveling over a public network, such as the Internet, is the use of what type of network?


1) public encrypted network


2) private encrypted network


3) virtual prevention network


4) virtual private network

virtual private network

Originally developed by IBM, what protocol is used by Windows to share files and printers on a network?


1) Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)


2) File Transfer Protocol (FTP)


3) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)


4) Server Message Block (SMB)

Server Message Block (SMB)

If the computer you are using is a laptop that moves from one network to another, what tab can be used to configure a secondary configuration, such as a static IP if a DHCP server cannot be reached?


1) Fallback Configuration


2) General Configuration


3) Alternate Configuration


4) Secondary Configuration

Alternate Configuration

What functions as the name of a wireless network?


1) MAC address


2) secure key


3) Network ID


4) SSID

SSID

What type of device can be used to block unwanted traffic initiated from the Internet and can also restrict Internet access from an internal network?


1) firewall


2) VPN


3) hub


4) switch

firewall

What wireless networking radio frequency yields faster speeds but offers shorter range?


1) 11 GHz


2) 7 GHz


3) 2.4 GHz


4) 5 GHz

5 GHz

What command can be used to flush the local DNS cache on a Windows computer?


1) ipconfig /flushdns


2) service dnscache restart


3) dns dump


4) nslookup -f

ipconfig /flushdns

What TCP port is utilized by an SSH server listening for connections?


1) 20


2) 22


3) 23


4) 21

22

The Remote Desktop and Remote Assistance applications utilize what port for remote access?


1) 23


2) 22


3) 3389


4) 110

3389

What cell phone technology is the most popular in the United States?


1) GSM


2) CDMA


3) SIM


4) EDGE

CDMA

What device handles access to another network for a client computer if it does not have a better option?


1) firewall


2) network switch


3) default gateway


4) network hub

default gateway

If a device does not receive an IP address from a DHCP server, the device may resort to what kind of IP address?


1) dynamic IP address


2) APIPA


3) public IP address


4) random IP address

APIPA

The ability to send and receive transmissions at the same time on an Ethernet cable is referred to by what term?


1) simplex mode


2) half duplex


3) auto transmit


4) full duplex

full duplex

Unicast addresses include what types of addresses? (Choose all that apply).


1) multicast address


2) link-local address


3) global address


4) anycast address

link-local address


global address

What functions might be provided by a SOHO router besides the normal duty of routing packets between networks? (Choose all that apply).


1) Email server


2) directory server


3) firewall


4) wireless access point

firewall


wireless access point

What two protocols are used to deliver mail messages?


1) SNMP


2) POP3


3) SMTP


4) IMAP4

POP3


IMAP4

What two terms are used to describe the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)?


1) reliable protocol


2) best effort protocol


3) connectionless protocol


4) connection oriented protocol

best effort protocol


connectionless protocol

What two protocols are used for remote access to a server, using unencrypted and encrypted transmissions respectively?


1) telnet


2) AFP


3) SSH


4) SNMP

telnet


SSH

a command that can be used to display the TCP/IP configuration

ipconfig

designed to make it easier for users to connect their computers to a wireless network when a hard-to-remember SSID and security key are used

Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS)

a protocol used by various client applications when the application needs to query a database

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

protects data by encrypting it from the time it leaves a remote computer until it reaches a server on a corporate network, using a technique called tunneling.

virtual private network

assigns an IP address to a computer when it first attempts to initiate a connection to the network

DHCP Server

a technique designed to conserve the number of public IP addresses needed by a network

Network Address Translation (NAT)

identifies a computer and the network to which it belongs, such as www.cengage.com

Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)

A group of computers on a peer-to-peer network that are sharing resources

workgroup

commonly used by Linux to pass sign-in information to a remote computer and control that computer over a network

Secure Shell (SSH)

Used by a computer or other device to determine if an IP address of another computer is on its network or another network

subnet mask

A WLAN covers a large geographical area and is made up of many smaller networks. T/F?

False

Phone cords are a type of twisted-pair cable and use an RJ-45 connector. T/F?

False

10Base5 cabling runs at speeds up to 1 Gbps and distances to 500 meters. T/F?

False

A punchdown tool is used to wire twisted-pair cabling to a keystone jack. T/F?

True

Switches are slowly being replaced by hubs, which are newer technology. T/F?

False

What network type covers a large campus or city?


1) WAN


2) MAN


3) PAN


4) WLAN

Man

Which physical topology uses a centralized device to manage traffic on the network?


1) mesh


2) star bus


3) ring


4) bus

star bus

Which of the following is true about cable Internet?


1) provides up to 2.3 Mbps of bandwidth


2) you share the cable infrastructure with your neighbors


3) fiber optic cabling is required


4) you need filters on every phone jack

you share the cable infrastructure with your neighbors

What does a 1000BaseT NIC use to connect to a network cable?


1) RJ-45 port


2) Half duplex port


3) HDMI port


4) 10BaseT port

RJ-45 port

What is the unit of information called when a network adapter adds the source and destination MAC address to the segment of data before it is transmitted on the network?


1) segment


2) frame


3) bit


4) packet

frame

What type of network device keeps a table of the MAC addresses of the devices connected to it?


1) switch


2) NIC


3) router


4) hub

switch

What type of device do you need if you want to connect two network segments together such as a wireless network and a wired network?


1) bridge


2) repeater


3) NAS


4) hub

bridge

What cable system utilizes a fiber-optic cable?


1) 1000BaseFX


2) 10Base2


3) 10Base5


4) 10GBaseT

1000BaseFX

If you're looking to install Gigabit Ethernet, what cabling system would you use?


1) RG-59


2) coaxial


3) thinnet


4) Cat-6

Cat-6

Which statement regarding 10-Gigabit Ethernet is accurate?


1) you can use Cat-5e or Cat-6 cabling


2) it is sometimes called Fast Ethernet


3) it is a good choice for backbone networks


4) coaxial is a good choice for cabling

it is a good choice for backbone networks

Under what circumstance might you use an Ethernet loopback plug?


1) to find the max speed of a connection


2) to test a network cable


3) to capture network packets


4) to test a USB port

to test a network cable

In order to terminate multiple network cables that converge in one location such as an electrical closet or server room, what should you use?


1) loopback port


2) patch panel


3) RJ-45 jack


4) terminal adapter

patch panel

What statement regarding crossover cables is accurate?


1) it can be used to connect two PCs together


2) you use the T568B wiring standard on both ends


3) it's normally used to connect a computer to a hub or switch


4) it is required to connect two Gigabit Ethernet switches together

it can be used to connect two PCs together

Why are there twists in the wires that are used for network cabling?


1) the twists reduce the amount of copper needed


2) the twists increase the cable strength


3) the twists reduce crosstalk


4) the twists make it easier to punchdown the cable

the twists reduce crosstalk

What command will display a list of active and inactive network interfaces on Unix, Linux, and Mac OS X?


1) ifconfig -a


2) ip list network


3) netsh show interfaces


4) ipconfig -a

ifconfig -a

If you are experiencing issues reaching a target destination network, and you need to to display each hop to the destination, what command should you use?


1) ipconfig


2) nslookup


3) ifconfig


4) tracert

tracert

What command manages user accounts on the local system in Windows?


1) net localuser


2) net user


3) useradd


4) netsh user

net user

What version of Ethernet utilizes a fiber-optic cable and has a transmission speed of 100 Mbps?


1) 1000BaseFX


2) 100BaseTX


3) 100BaseFX


4) 100BaseCX

100BaseFX

What statement regarding satellite connections is accurate?


1) It provides higher throughput than other connections


2) It requires line of sight connectivity


3) It is only available in metropolitan areas


4) It provides low latency connection

It requires line of sight connectivity

What DSL technology provides equal bandwidth in both directions?


1) VDSL


2) HDSL


3) SDSL


4) ADSL

SDSL

What two standards have been established for wiring twisted-pair cabling and RJ-45 connectors?


1) TIA/EIA 586


2) T568A


3) T568C


4) T568B

T568A


T568B



What two terms describe the type of network cable that is used for connecting a computer to a switch or other network device?


1) straight-through cable


2) power over Ethernet cable


3) crossover cable


4) patch cable

straight-through cable


patch cable

In the T568B wiring scheme, what two color pairs are used for transmit and receive on a 100BaseT network?


1) White/orange, orange


2) White/brown, brown


3) White/green, green


4) White/blue, blue

White/orange, orange


White/green, green

What two commands are used to display TCP/IP configuration on Windows and Unix / Linux / Mac OS X operating systems, respectively?


1) ifconfig


2) net show


3) ipconfig


4) show ip stat

ifconfig


ipconfig

What two different types of coaxial cable have been used for cable TV?


1) RG-PVC


2) RJ-45


3) RG-59


4) RG-6

RG-59


RG-6

a device that helps to eliminate electromagnetic interference (EMI)

ferrite clamp

uses a covering or shield around wire pairs

STP

a networking technology that carries more than one type of signal

broadband

the average of the actual speed of a network

throughput

uses ordinary copper phone lines and a range of frequencies on the copper wire to provide Internet

DSL

a device that amplifies and retransmits a signal to a wider coverage area

repeater

used to connect a computer to a switch or other network device

patch cable

delays in network transmission

latency

operates at 100 Mbps and uses STP or UTP cabling, rated CAT-5 or higher

fast ethernet

a device that keeps a table of MAC addresses to port mappings

switch

iOS was developed by and continues to be maintained by a consortium of companies. T/F?

False

A setting called airplane mode lowers the output power of the Wi-Fi and Bluetooth antennas allowing these networks to function, but at a reduced range. T/F?

False

Releases of Android are named after animals, such as Lion, Leopard, or Puma. T/F?

False

The act of jailbreaking a phone was once illegal, but was made legal by the U.S. Copyright Office and the Library of Congress.

True

The iOS operating system utilizes a closed-source, or vendor specific / commercial license.

True

hat company acquired Android code in 2005 and has a leadership role in its development?


1) Yahoo


2) Symbian


3) Apple


4) Google

Google

What must you do before using a new iPad or iPod touch?


1) activate it


2) install iOS on it


3) install iTunes on it


4) register it

activate it

What does jailbreaking do?


1) Allows you to download games for free from Google Play


2) give you root privileges to the OS


3) Allows you download music for free from iTunes


4) give you administrative privileges to Google

give you root privileges to the OS

A SIM card is used for which of the following?


1) backing up your data and applications


2) controlling the sensitivity of your touch screen


3) holding your iTunes music information


4) holding data related to your cellular carrier

holding data related to your cellular carrier

What is the accelerometer used for in mobile devices?


1) geotracking


2) synchronizing data


3) adjusting the screen orientation


4) locating the nearest cell tower

adjusting the screen orientation

What component on a smart phone requires pairing with another device?


1) SIM card


2) WiFi


3) Bluetooth


4) GPS

Bluetooth

hat can you do if you want to obtain administrator privileges to an Android device?


1) reboot into recovery mode


2) logon as Admin


3) delete the normal user account


4) root the device

root the device

Outgoing mail is normally sent using what mail delivery protocol?


1) POP3


2) IMAP4


3) SSL


4) SMTP

SMTP

What port is utilized by secure IMAP (IMAPS)?


1) 143


2) 995


3) 110


4) 993

993

What is the more secure alternative to the SMTP mail protocol?


1) SMTP


2) POP


3) IMAP


4) S/MIME

S/MIME

How much storage is offered by iCloud Drive for no cost?


1) 5 GB


2) 100 GB


3) 10 GB


4) 20 GB

5 GB

What identifies a SIM card if the card is used?


1) ICCEI


2) IMEI


3) IMSI


4) ICCID

ICCID

Siri is an example of what technology?


1) virtual assistant


2) virtual container


3) app backup software


4) mobile application wizard

virtual assistant

Applications on the Android OS are mostly written in what programming language?


1) Python


2) Java


3) Objective-C


4) PHP

Java

All parts of an Android application are published as a package of files wrapped into one file utilizing what file extension?


1) .iso


2) .apk


3) .zip


4) .img

.apk

A Bluetooth PIN code requires the entry of a PIN that is how many digits in length?


1) 6


2) 8


3) 4


4) 12

4

What unique number is used to identify each mobile phone or tablet device worldwide?


1) IMSI


2) MAC address


3) ICCID


4) IMEI

IMEI

What name is given to the Windows Phone 8.1 virtual assistant?


1) Chief


2) Spartan


3) John


4) Cortana

Cortana

Where is the Favorites tray on an Android device?


1) above the Action Bar


2) in the Notifications window


3) on the Google Play screen


4) under Chrome settings

above the Action Bar

What mobile operating system is the Fire OS used by Amazon's Kindle Fire devices based on?


1) BlackBerry OS


2) Java Micro EditionC


3) Android


4) Symbian

Android

What software programming languages can be used for an iOS app? (Choose all that apply.)


1) C++


2) Objective-C


3) C


4) Java

C++


Objective-C


C

Which devices utilize an operating system based on the Mac OS X operating system? (Choose all that apply.)


1) iPhone


2) iPod touch


3) Samsung Galaxy


4) iPad

iPhone


iPod touch


iPad

hat two U.S. carriers offer a feature called Wi-Fi calling?


1) ATandT


2) T-Mobile


3) Sprint


4) Verizon

T-Mobile


Sprint

What are the names of the application stores for iOS and Google Android devices respectively?


1) Google Store


2) iOS AppDrive


3) App Store


4) Google Play

App Store


Google Play

Most new (2015/2016) Android devices are shipping with what versions of Android?Check all that apply.


1) KitKat


2) Froyo


3) Lollipop


4) Gingerbread

KitKat


Lollipop

based on Mac OS X and is currently used on the iPhone, iPad, and iPod touch by Apple

iOs

an area where access to Wi-Fi Internet connectivity is made available, such as at a coffee shop, retail store, or airport

hotspot

a unique number that identifies each mobile phone or tablet device worldwide.

IMEI

the process of connecting with another Bluetooth device

pairing

a device that contains a disc that is free to move and can respond to gravity as the device is moved

gyroscope

a unique number that identifies a cellular subscription for a device or subscriber, along with its home country and mobile network

IMSI

allows a task to be started on a device, such as an iPad, and then pick up that task on another device, such as a Mac desktop or laptop

Handoff

a feature that uses Bluetooth to detect nearby compatible devices, then creates a peer-to-peer network using a Wi-Fi signal between the devices

AirDrop

a device used in mobile devices to sense the physical position of the device

Accelerometer

On the IE General tab you can block cookies. T/F?

False

The default value of the security level in IE is Medium-high. T/F?

True

To use Remote Desktop, the computer you access remotely can be running Windows 8 Home Edition or Windows 8.1 Professional. T/F?

False

When a user logs on to a Windows 7 computer using Remote Desktop, users that are logged on locally are unaffected. T/F?

False

If a Windows computer belongs to a domain, all security is managed by the network administrator for the entire network. T/F?

True

What task can't be performed from the IE General tab?


1) change the home page


2) disable file downloads


3) delete browsing history


4) manage the IE cache

disable file downloads

What port is utilized by the Remote Desktop service?


1) 1729


2) 22


3) 23


4) 3389

3389

What kind of a computer intercepts requests that a browser makes of a server and can cache received content?


1) VPN server


2) DNS server


3) Web server


4) proxy server

Proxy server

Which of the following is NOT true about Remote Desktop?


1) Windows firewall can block Remote Desktop connections


2) you can start the remote desktop client using the mstsc command


3) the client can be running any version of Windows 7


4) by default all users can access Remote Desktop

by default all users can access Remote Desktop

If you want to be able to power up a computer remotely, what feature should you use?


1) RDP


2) QoS


3) RemoteApp


4) Wake-on LAN

Wake-on LAN

Regarding the use of Group Policy, what statement is NOT accurate?


1) Group Policy is available in Windows Professional edition


2) policies can be applied to a computer


3) all policies are applied before the logon screen appears


4) you can set the QoS level for an application using Group Policy

all policies are applied before the logon screen appears

What statement about controlling access to folders and files is accurate?


1) account configuration should keep in mind the principle of highest privilege


2) in Windows, accounts have no rights assignments until you configure them


3) rights are assigned to accounts


4) permissions refer to the tasks an account is allowed to do in the system

rights are assigned to accounts

What statement about user accounts and groups is NOT true?


1) by default, standard users accounts belong to the Users group


2) Guest group has limited rights on the system


3) Backup Operators group can restore any files regardless of the group's permissions to those files


4) a user account can belong to only one group at a time

a user account can belong to only one group

When attempting to access a remote computer on which your user name and password do not exist, what user group will you be placed in?


1) Guests


2) Administrators


3) Backup Operators


4) Anonymous users

Anonymous users

To which group does Windows give access to folders that you create which are not part of your user profile? 1) Authenticated Users


2) Power Users


3) Guests


4) Anonymous Users

Authenticated Users

When all users on a network require the same access to all resources, what type of network model should you use?


1) Domain


2) Workgroup


3) Guestgroup


4) Homegroup

Homegroup

When working with a workgroup, what statement is accurate regarding which folders to use to hold shared data?


1) C:\Users\Public should only be used by the Guest account


2) private data for each user should be kept in their C:\Users folder


3) Only Administrators and Guest have access to C:\Users\Public


4) all users have access to the folders in the C:\Users folder

private data for each user should be kept in their C:\Users folder

What type of permission should you set to control access to files and folders by local and network users?


1) Sharing on FAT32 volumes only


2) NTFS on exFAT or NTFS volumes


3) NTFS on NTFS volumes only


4) Sharing on NTFS or exFAT volumes

NTFS on NTFS volumes only

What command launches the Remote Desktop client for Windows?


1) rdesktop


2) rdp


3) vnc


4) mstsc

mstsc

When utilizing both share and NTFS permissions, what statement is inaccurate?


1) inherited permissions pass from parent folder to child file or folder


2) when you copy a file, the file takes on the permissions of the destination folder


3) if both permissions are used, the least restrictive permission between the two applies


4) if NTFS permissions conflict between a user and group the least restrictive permission applies

if both permissions are used, the least restrictive permission between the two applies

When mapping a drive, you can type in the path to the shared folder on the host computer. What is the syntax for the path?


1) \\sharedfolder\server


2) \server\sharedfolder


3) /sharedfolder/server


4) \\server\sharedfolder

\\server\sharedfolder

What is a valid reason for wanting to configure a proxy server in Internet Explorer?


1) to improve website performance


2) to connect to secured websites on a corporate network VPN


3) to surf anonymously


4) to increase the security of the connection

to connect to secured websites on a corporate network VPN

Windows 10 features what new web browser, which is designed to replace Internet Explorer?


1) Microsoft Spartan


2) Microsoft Plus


3) Microsoft Edge


4) Microsoft Slim

Microsoft Edge

What protocol must be supported by routers in order to utilize Remote Assistance Easy Connect?


1) LDAP


2) SMTP


3) SNMP


4) PNRP

PNRP

User accounts that are issued a temporary user profile that is deleted when the user signs out are members of what group?


1) Backup Operators group


2) Administrators group


3) Power Users group


4) Guests group

Guests group

What two applications are an example of a mail server and a mail client application, respectively?


1) Maverick


2) Exchange


3) Firefox


4) Outlook

Exchange


Outlook

What NTFS permissions should you assign if the user should be able to create folders and files and open files to read data, but not delete files? (Choose all that apply.)


1) execute


2) Read


3) Write


4) Full control

Read


Write

When using Group Policy to configure QoS, what options are available? (Choose all that apply.)


1) you can choose the protocol (either IP or ICMP) for the policy


2) the priority is a number from 0 and 63


3) you must choose a specific application to apply the policy


4) outbound traffic can be throttled

the priority is a number from 0 and 63


outbound traffic can be throttled

Which of the following are true about NTFS permissions? (Choose all that apply.)


1) when a subfolder is created, it is assigned the permissions of its parent folder


2) if NTFS permissions conflict locally, the more liberal permission applies


3) it is not possible to change the owner of a file


4) inherited permissions override explicit permissions

when a subfolder is created, it is assigned the permissions of its parent folder




if NTFS permissions conflict locally, the more liberal permission applies

What are the two most popular web server applications?


1) Apache


2) IIS


3) Nginx


4) Tomcat

Apache


IIS

the folders that are shared by default on a network domain that administrator accounts can access

administrative shares

configuring a computer so that it will respond to network activity when the computer is in a sleep state

Wake on LAN

a method to control access to a shared folder and can be assigned to NTFS or FAT volumes

share permissions

a console available only in Windows Professional and business editions that is used to control what users can do and how the system can be used

gpedit.msc

a small app or add-on that can be downloaded from a website along with a webpage and is executed by IE to enhance the webpage

ActiveX control

a group that can back up and restore any files on a Windows system regardless of access permissions to these files

Backup operators

permissions assigned by Windows that are attained from a parent object

inherited permissions

a method to control access to a folder or file and can apply to local users and network users

NTFS permissions

gives a user access to a Windows desktop from anywhere on the Internet

Remote desktop connection

a group that exists on Windows 8/7/Vista for backwards compatibility purposes with Windows XP

Power users

On a peer-to-peer network, authentication is the responsibility of the domain. T/F?

False

Requiring users to press Ctrl+Alt+Delete to get a logon window is more secure than the welcome screen. T/F?

True

After initially installing Windows 7, you need to disable the Guest account so nobody can use it. T/F?

False

Using Group Policy, you can set security policies to help secure a workstation. T/F?

True

A root certificate is the original certificate issued by the CA. T/F?

True

What keystroke should you press to get a logon window if you don't use the welcome screen?


1) Alt+F1


2) Ctrl+Ins+Home


3) Alt+F5+End


4) Ctrl+Alt+Delete

Ctrl+Alt+Delete

What statement is true regarding the Guest account in Windows 7?


1) you cannot rename it


2) it is disabled by default


3) it has administrative access


4) it automatically has a complex password

it is disabled by default

What statement regarding passwords on Windows is accurate?


1) passwords cannot be longer than 14 characters


2) letters and numbers are allowed, but no symbols such as ‘@' or ‘!'


3) it's best to write your password down so you don't get locked out of your computer


4) by default, accounts with a blank password cannot logon remotely

by default, accounts with a blank password cannot logon remotely

When using the Windows Encrypted File System, what statement is accurate?


1) an encrypted file moved to an unencrypted folder remains encrypted


2) EFS only works on NTFS and FAT32


3) you need to download special software to use EFS


4) files can be marked for encryption, but not folders

an encrypted file moved to an unencrypted folder remains encrypted

If you want your computer to be protected by BitLocker Encryption using computer authentication, what feature must your computer have?


1) a TPM chip on the motherboard


2) an authentication key on the hard drive


3) a PIN on the BIOS


4) a USB port

a TPM chip on the motherboard

If you don't want to use BitLocker to protect your computer, you can still configure a power-on password using which of the following?


1) the BIOS


2) Windows POP technology


3) your USB keyboard


4) a feature available on some DVD drives

the BIOS

One way to authenticate users on a computer is to use a small device that contains authentication information. What is this device called?


1) LoJack token


2) smart card


3) TPM


4) retinal scanner

Smart card

What device provides a strong magnetic field used to completely erase data on a hard drive or tape drive?


1) ATA Secure Erase


2) degausser


3) magnetic data filter


4) low-level format

degausser

You should beware of a person attempting to use your computer after you step away from it, a term referred to as which of the following?


1) social engineering


2) shoulder surfing 3


) session hijacking


4) tailgating

tailgating

What type of malware can hijack internal Windows components and often goes undetected because it is already loaded when the antivirus software loads?


1) Trojan horse


2) rootkit


3) worm


4) adware

rootlet

When an attacker presents a program or himself as someone else to obtain private information and pretends to be a legitimate website, network, FTP site, or person in a chat session, what type of attack is occurring?


1) brute-force


2) man-in-the-middle


3) zombie


4) rootkit

man-in-the-middle

What technology can be used to locate a device such as a laptop after it has been stolen?


1) Multifactor Trace software


2) LoJack


3) Trojan


4) Management software

LoJack

Anti-malware software relies on what sort of update in order to define or detect malware as it gets into the wild?


1) Windows updates


2) rootkits


3) malware signatures


4) static updates

malware signatures

What does the presence of the Cydia app on an iOS device indicate?


1) There is spyware software installed on the device


2) The device is infected with a worm


3) A rootkit has been installed on the device


4) The device has been jailbroken

The device has been jailbroken

What command can be used to take full access of a file?


1) icacls


2) attrib


3) takeown


4) perms

icacls

Using a PIN or password in addition to TPM is an example of what type of authentication?


1) multifactor


2) asymmetric


3) symmetric


4) biometric

multifactor

What is intended to legally protect the intellectual property rights of organizations or individuals to creative works, which include books, images, and software?


1) cease and desist order


2) license


3) copyright


4) user agreement

copyright

CryptoLocker is an example of what type of malware?


1) worm


2) man-in-the-middle


3) ransomware


4) zero-day attack

ransomware

A person that secretly peaks at your monitor screen while you work may be doing what?


1) screen capping


2) shoulder surfing


3) social engineering


4) tailgating

shoulder surfing

Documentation for evidence which includes exactly what, when, and from whom evidence was collected, the condition of this evidence, and how the evidence was secured while it was in your possession, is know by what term?


1) chain of custody


2) evidence security roster


3) item inventory


4) evidence tracking list

chain of custody

What methods exist to lock down a workstation running Windows, such as when stepping away from the screen? (Choose all that apply.)


1) press Windows key + L


2) press Ctrl+End and click Logon Screen


3) press Ctrl+Alt+Delete and click Lock this Computer


4) Press F1 and click Sleep

press Windows key + L


press Ctrl+Alt+Delete and click Lock this Computer

What are some of the ways you can use BitLocker Encryption? (Choose all that apply.)


1) user authentication using a certificate


2) computer and user authentication using a PIN and TPM


3) user authentication using a USB flash drive


4) computer authentication using TPM

computer and user authentication using a PIN and TPM




user authentication using a USB flash drive




computer authentication using TPM

What inputs would be considered to be part of a biometric device? (Choose all that apply.)


1) retina


2) fingerprint


3) keystrokes


4) voice

retina


fingerprint


voice

Which software program(s) is/are an example of password management software? (Choose all that apply.)


1) KeePass


2) LastPass


3) PassLock


4) Dashlane

KeePass


LastPass


Dashlane

When creating a strong password, what are some valid criteria the password should meet? (Choose all that apply.)


1) You should combine uppercase and lower case letters, numbers, and symbols.


2) The password should be at least eight characters long.


3) You should use words from a foreign language to make the password more secure.


4) You should not use adjacent keys on the keyboard, such as asdf.

You should combine uppercase and lower case letters, numbers, and symbols.




The password should be at least eight characters long.




You should not use adjacent keys on the keyboard, such as asdf.

software installed on a computer that produces pop-up ads using your browser

adware

type of spyware that tracks your keystrokes, including passwords

keylogger

A program that is potentially harmful or potentially unwanted

grayware

the practice of tricking people into giving out private information or allowing unsafe programs into the network or computer

social engineering

A type of malware that tricks you into opening it by substituting itself for a legitimate program

Trojan

a code used to identify and authenticate a person or organization sending data over a network

digital certificate

an infestation designed to copy itself repeatedly to memory, on drive space, or on a network

worm

when someone who is unauthorized follows the employee through a secured entrance to a room or building

tailgating

a computer that has been hacked, and the hacker is using the computer to run repetitive software in the background without the user's knowledge

zombie

an attack that can be used to crack a long password by trying words and word combinations

dictionary attack

The Android OS for mobile devices is based on Linux. T/F?

True

On Linux, the root user's home directory is /home/root. T/F?

False

Programs on Mac that launch at startup are called login items. T/F?

False

LILO is the most commonly installed boot loader by the Linux operating system. T/F?

False

What operating system is based on open source code?


1) iOS


2) Windows Phone


3) Android


4) Blackberry

Android

What keypress sequence is used to open the Force Quit window on a Mac?


1) ctrl+option+delete


2) command+option+delete


3) ctrl+alt+delete


4) command+option+esc

command+option+esc

What command below is used to test network connections by sending a request packet to a host?


1) df


2) ping


3) ifconfig


4) ps

ping

A bootable Linux USB flash drive or CD that can be used to repair system issues is known by what term?


1) live CD


2) boot CD


3) repair disk


4) supplemental OS

live CD

What occurs when Linux encounters an error from which it cannot recover?


1) BSOD


2) segmentation fault


3) page fault


4) kernel panic

kernel panic

When using Mac OS X, what gesture can be used to show the Launchpad?


1) slide


2) swipe


3) secondary click


4) pinch

pinch

Swiping up with three fingers on Mac OS X launches what?


1) Mission Control


2) Dashboard


3) System Preferences


4) Spotlight

Mission Control

On Linux, where are the commands required for system administration stored?


1) /bin


2) /opt


3) /sbin


4) /usr

/sbin

What command can be used to copy and convert files, directories, partitions, and even entire DVDs or hard drives?


1) dd


2) cp


3) cat


4) copy

dd

What user account is known as the system administrator or super user account?


1) root


2) sysadmin


3) super


4) admin

root

What is the name of the OS X built-in backup utility?


1) Backup Utility


2) Cloner


3) iBackup


4) Time Machine

Time Machine

What Linux distribution is considered a cutting-edge distribution?


1) Fedora


2) Debian


3) Red Hat Enterprise Linux


4) Ubuntu

Fedora

What command lets you view the contents of a file, but was actually designed for joining multiple files together?


1) view


2) cat


3) rm


4) open

cat

If you need to redirect the output from a command, what symbol should you use?


1) *


2) ?


3) |\


4) >

>

In order to break out of a command or process on a terminal, what keys should you press?


1) alt+del


2) ctrl+c


3) ctrl+alt+del


4) ctrl+space

ctrl+c

What two commands are used to change the permissions and ownership of a file or directory in Linux?


1) chown


2) usermod


3) chmod


4) cacls

chown


chmod

In order to ensure that a Mac has no startup items, what two directories should you check for items?


1) /System/Library/StartupItems


2) /Library/StartupItems


3) /etc


4) ˜/.startup

/System/Library/StartupItems


/Library/StartupItems

Linux utilizes what two different wildcard characters at the command line?


1) |


2) and


3) *


4) ?

*


?