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711 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
are x-rays and gamma rays directly or indirectly ionizing? Directly or indirectly acting?
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indirectly ionizing and indirectly acting (2/3rd)
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are neutrons directly or indirectly ionizing? Directly or indirectly acting?
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indirectly ionizing but directly acting
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What is the lifetime (in seconds) of OH radical and subsequent DNA radical
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10^-9 seconds and 10^-5 seconds
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what is the speed of light in (m/s) and its relationship with wavelength and frequency
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c (3x10^8 m/s) = wavelength (lambda) x frequency (v)
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order the following in terms of increasing energy? Wavelength? And frequency? (microwave, visible light, UV, x-rays, infrared, and radiowaves)
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RMIVUX (increasing energy)
XUVIMR (increasing wavelength) RMIVUX (increasing frequency) |
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relationship btw energy and plank's constant
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energy = planks constant (h) x frequency
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relationship btw wavelength in (angstroms) and energy (in keV)? How much is 1 angstrom in meters?
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lambda (angstroms) = 12.4/energy (keV)
1 angstrom = 10^-10 m |
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in photoelectric interactions what is the energy of the ejected orbital electron
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Kinetic energy = hv (energy of incident photon) - binding energy of electron (Eb)
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directly or indirectly ionizing: alpha particles, electrons, gamma rays, neutrons, x-rays
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directly - charged particles (alpha, electron, protons)
indirect - uncharged (x and gamma, neutrons) |
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how is compton process related to atomic number
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it is INDEPENDENT OF ATOMIC NUMBER
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what type of aberration occurs in prereplication (G1): chromosome or chromotid?
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chromosome
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what type of aberration occurs in postreplication (late S or G2): chromosome or chromotid?
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chromotid
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anaphase bridge is what type of aberration: chromosome or chromotid?
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chromotid
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incidence of radiation-induced aberrations is a what type of function of dose
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linear-quadratic
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what lowest dose can be detected with peripheral lymphocytes
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0.25 Gy
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DNA is positive or negative charged?
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negative
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what is D0? Estimated for mammals? Estimated # of base damage, SSB, and DSB per cell?
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dose that induces 1 lethal event per cell (average) resulting in 37% cell survival
mammals = 1-2 Gy Base > 1000, SSB 1000, and DSB 40 |
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dicentrics and rings are what type of chromosome aberration
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chromosome
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what happens to cell once telomere finished
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senescence
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if I was running a gel electrophoresis what pH would I want the solution to be in if I wanted to study single strand breaks
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alkaline
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order these in terms of increasing ion pairs, energy and damage: blob, track and spur
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spur -> blob -> short track
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telomerase is what type of enzyme
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reverse transcriptase
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how do u calculate survival fraction
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SF = (# of colonies counted)/(# of cells seeded x plating efficiency)
plating efficiency = # of colonies counted/ number of cells seeded in optimal conditions |
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linear quadratic equation of survival fraction
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SF = e^(- alpha*D - beta*D^2)
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what does the alpha/beta ratio signify in one sentence
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the dose at which the linear and quadratic components of cell killing are equal
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which is linear quadratic: mitotic or apoptotic death
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mitotic
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which has a dose-rate effect: mitotic or apoptotic death
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mitotic
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what is the equation of D10 with relation to D0
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D10 = D0 * 2.3
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what does "n" (the extrapolation number) represent? How does it change with the shoulder?
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represents the number of targets in a cell to be damaged to lose clonogenicity
increase shoulder (narrow) - small n (neutrons) increase n - broad shoulder (x -rays) |
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what are the units of alpha/beta
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gray
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how are n, Dq and D0 related
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log n = Dq/D0
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how is D0 and SF related
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SF = e^(-D/D0)
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do cells with significant SLDR capacity have a low or high alpha/beta
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low
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D0 is what relation to e (logarithmic)
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D0 = e^ (- 1)
since Probability = e ^(-n) ; with n representing # of clonogenic tumor cells |
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Fowler estimated that 1 log increas in cell kill increased the cure rate by how much
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15%
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1 cm3 (1 gram) of tumor cells contains how many cells
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10^9
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what part of the cell cycle accounts for cell cycle times between species
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G1
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order the following in terms of most radiosensitive to resistant - last S, early S, G2, M, G1?
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G2/M < G1 < early S < late S
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how does OER vary across cell cycle phases
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lower for cells in G1 than in S
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describe relationship btw dna damage, atm, p53, and p21 and cdks
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dna damage -> ATM -> p53 -> p21/waf1 which inhibits cdks which then prevent phosphorylation and keeping rb hypophosphorylated ( activation rb and e2f)
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does p53 have a role in G2-> M check point
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yes
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what cyclins are synthesized in G1
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D and E
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what cyclins are synthesized in S
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A
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what cyclins are synthesized in G2
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A and B
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what cyclins are synthesized in M
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B
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what does E2F do (clue: something with Rb)
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phosphorylate Rb (which actually places it in inactive - so cell can move through G1)
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cdk 4 is in what check point
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G1-> S
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what happens when Rb is unphosphorylated? What phosphorylates Rb?
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bound to E2F and cyclin A in G1 which inhibits progression. Cyclin D and cdk 4 complex phosphorylates Rb keeping it inactive
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is p16 pro or inhibitory of the cell cycle
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inhibitory; it inhibits cdk4 with then doesn't allow phosphorylation of Rb (which keeps it active)
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cdk1 is in what check point
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G2->M
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in cells with very long G1's whats more radioresistant early G1 or late G1?
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early G1 > late G1
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what are 2 possible explanations for the variation in sensitivity of the cell cycle?
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change in the amount and shape of DNA
varying levels of sulfhydryl compounds (radioprotectors) |
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what form of repair is done at the G1 phase of the cell cycle
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non-homologous recombination
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what form of repair results in immune deficiency if defective: HRR or NHEJ
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NHEJ
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what is the name of the disease that has decreased ATR gene expression
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Seckel's disease
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are patients with ataxia telangiectasia sensitive to ionizing radiation
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YES; autosomal recessive; increased risk of lymphomas;
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artemis is used in which type of repair HRR or NHEJ and if it is defective results in what immune condition
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NHEJ; SCID
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which of the following are radiosensitive: SCID, NIJMEGEN BREAKAGE SYNDROME, FANCONI ANEMIA, ATAXIA TELANGIECTASIA, AND XERODERMA PIG
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all except fanconis (sometimes) and xeropigmentosum (never)
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what is the component of radiation damage that can be modified by manipulation of the postirradiation conditions called
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potentially lethal damage
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does PLDR occur with neutron irradiation
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non-homologous recombination
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what explains the increase in survival if dose rate is reduced
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repair of sublethal damage
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what is the benefit of iridium
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small size and low photon energy (shielding)
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what sites has radiolabeld immunoglobulin used
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hepatoma and hosgkin's lymphoma
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incorrect base (example adenosine with incorrect base) is repaired with what type of repair? What happens when defective (radiosensitivity)?
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base excision; increase in mutation rate but not cellular radiosensitivity;
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what type of repair fixes bulky adducts such as pyrimidine dimers? What happens with defective?
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nucleotide excision repair; no change in radiosensitivity but change in UV sensitivity and alkalating agents; example disease xeroderma pigmentosum
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what are the key players in NHEJ?
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Ku80, DNA-PKc, Artemis? XRCC4
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what is VDJ recombination (what type of repair does it show up) and why is it important
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NHEJ; recombination important in developing antibodies; reason for SCID development
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what are the key players in HRR?
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ATM/ATR, BRCA 1/2, NBS, MRE11, Rad50/51/52, MMS, MU581
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what represents a transitional role btw HRR and NHEJ
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single strand annealing
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sublethal damage repair is actually repairing what
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double strand breaks
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describe how a tissue's capacity for SLDR corresponds to the cell survival curve
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increased SLDR means increased Beta which means low alpha/beta, which means broad shoulder
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what dose rate range is SLDR most pronounced
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1-100 cGy/min
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describe the reason for the inverse dose rate effect
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a lowering of the dose allows cells that were arrested in G1 to proceed but then get caught at G2 (which is a more the more sensitive cycle)
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effective half life equation
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effective half life used in radionuclides; takes into account half life of radioisotope and biologic half life ; 1/te = 1/tp + 1/tb
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continous irradiation would be more effective for long cell cycle cells or short cell cycle
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long cell cycle (reassortment)
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what is the disadvantage of HDR
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less sparing of late normal tissues
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the variation of total dose in comparing different dose rates is larger for late or early tissues
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late
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what are the disadvantages of I131 when compared to yttrium90
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lower tumor and higher total body dose/toxicity since it also emits gamma rays (whereas yttrium only emits beta-ray)
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define OER in words
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ratio of doses administered under hypoxic to aerated conditions needed to achieve the same biological effect (hypoxic/aerated) (usually in the ange of 2-4
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how does the OER for neutrons compare to x-rays
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it is lower for higher LET radiation (1.6)
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how does OER vary across cell cycle phases
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it is lower for more radiosensitive phases (lower OER for G1 than S)
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what is the level of oxygen in percent and mm Hg required for sensitivity halfway btw hypoxia and full oxygenation? What percent do u see flattening?
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0.5% or 3 mm Hg; 3% results in flattening (same level as 100% full oxic cells)
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what are the two types of hypoxia and their etiologies?
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chronic - limited diffusion range of oxygen through respiring tissue
actue - temporary closing of tumor blood vessels |
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what are eppendorf probes used for
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to measure oxygen
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describe the "slow" and "fast" component of reoxygenation
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slow - reoxygenates chronically hypoxic cells as tumor shrinks
fast - reoxygenation from open/close blood vessel |
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what is the diffusion distance approx for oxygen through tissue
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70 micrometers
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what type of agent is used in noninvasive imaging of hypoxic areas?
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2-nitroimdiazole
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what two tumor sites have demonstrated the link of hypoxia and tumor progression
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cervix and sarcoma
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describe the interaction of HIF-1 in response to O2 and anoxic areas (mention hydroxylation and an important downstream target)
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in prescence of oxygen, HIF1 alpha is hydroxylated which causes it to bind VHL (vonhippaulindau protein) this causes ubiquitin degradation of HIF1 alpha
in response to hypoxia -> HIF1alpha is not hydroxylated and binds to its beta subunit and then upregulates genes involved in angiogenesis, erythropoiesis, and tissue remodeling |
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what is the interaction of OER and dose rate (increased dose? Decrease dose rate)
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OER increase with increasing dose
OER decrease with decreasing dose rate |
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what is the average hypoxic fraction
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15%
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describe method for determining the radiation resistant fraction of tumor
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asphyxiation of animal to create 100% hypoxic tumor; survival curve generated for both 100% hypoxic and room air; using difference in surviving fraction btw aerated conditions determines the resitance fraction
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how are apoptosis and hypoxia related
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in response to hypoxia -> p53 is upregulated which induces apoptosis;
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which of the following are pro-angiogenic: angiopoietin, angiostatin, TNF alpha, prostaglandins, TGF beta, interferon alpha, beta, thrombospondin, endostatin?
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angiopoietin, prostaglanding, TGFbeta, TNF alpha, VEGF
antiangiogenic: angiostatin, endostatin, trhombospondin |
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define RBE in words
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dose of 250 kv xrays divided by dose of test radiation to produce the same effect
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how does RBE change with increasing LET
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it increases to a max at 100 kev/micromet then decreases
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how does RBE change with increasing capacity for SLDR
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increases ; in other words with survival curves with large shoulder, u see higher RBEs
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how does OER change with increasing LET
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decreases
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150 MeV protons have an LET of what? 10 MeV ?
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0.5 for high energy; 4.7 for lower energy
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as dose is increased what happens to RBE
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it decreases
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as number of fractions increase what happens to RBE (also can be interpreted as decreasing dose rate)
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RBE increases
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as you increase energy of incident photon/particle, what happens to LET
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it decreases
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as you increase LET what happens to the shoulder
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smaller and steeper
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cerebrovascular syndrome results from what TBI dose and what onset
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100 Gy, death in 24-48 hrs
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gastrointestinal syndrome results from a TBI dose of what and in what timeframe
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10 Gy; death in 5-10 days
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hematopoietic syndrome results from TBI of what dose and what timeframe
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2.5-5 Gy; death in 30-60 days
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what is the LD50 for humans without medical intervention? With medical intervention?
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3-4 Gy; with 6-7 Gy
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what is the dose window over which bone-marrow transplants may be useful
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8-10 Gy
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what is the dose-reduction factor used to evaluate and what is the equation
|
used to evaluate radioprotectors: dose in presence of drug divided by the dose in absence of drug
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describe the mechanism and pharmokinectics of amifostine
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free radical scavenger; acts as prodrug - dephosphorylated by alkaline phosphatase to active form
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what is the dose limiting toxicity of amifostine?
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hypotension
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what type of effect has a threshold dose, and whose severity increases with dose
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deterministic (ex - cataracts)
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what type of effect has a increasing probability with dose, no threshold, and dose not exhibit a dose-severity response
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stochastic (ex - cancer)
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what type of cancer was seen in radium dial painters? Ankylosing spondylitis? Children irradiated for benign cancers, thymus, or H&N? Fluoroscopies in TB patients in nova scotia?
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bone cancers in dial painters
leukemia in anklosing spondylitis thyroid cancer in children breast cancer in Tb patients |
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due radiation induced malignancies tend to appear early, at same time, or later than spontaneous malignancies
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same time
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2 types of risk moels for radiation carcinogenesis: absolute and relative. Which one does BEIR use
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relative risk
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what is the excess cancer mortality per SV for LDR for the working population
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4 x 10^-2 / Sv (5 for whole)
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what is the excess cancer mortality per SV for HDR for the working population
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8 x 10^-2 / Sv (10 for whole)
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the dose response relationship for radiation-induced cancer is what relationship at low dosease and what shape at higher doses
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linear at low, lin-quad at moderate doses
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what type of leukemia's are seen with radiation induced
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AML and CML (NOT CLL)
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what is the genetic mutation doubling rate dose
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1 Sv (1 Gy)
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what response model is preferred for solid cancer? For leukemia?
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solid - linear; leukemia - linear quadratic
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permanent sterility dose in men? Single vs fractionated dose? Females?
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6 gy single; 3 gy fractionated
females: 12 gy prepubertal to 2 Gy premenopausal |
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azoospermia and oligospermia doses
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0.5 Gy and 0.15 Gy
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what is the doublind dose required to double the spontaneous mutation incidence
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1 Gy
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ICRP estimate for hereditary risk of radiation is… (general) and working
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0.2% per SV (0.1 % / SV for workin)
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what is a robertsonian translocation
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fusion of two chrmosomes
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in humans, describe the lengths of preimplantation, organogenesis, and the fetal period
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0-9 days: preimplantation
10 days - 6 weeks: organogenesis 6 - term: fetal period |
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which is permanent growth retardation: irradiation in the organogenesis phase or fetal period
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fetal period
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what results in neonatal death - preimplanation or organogenesis
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organogenesis (death at the time of birth)
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describe the timing of mental retardation and microcephaly: 0-7 weeks, 8-15 weeks, 16-25 weeks
|
microcephaly 0-7
both 8-15 (mental retardation most pronounced during this period) mental retardation 16+ |
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what is the excess absolute risk per gray of childhood cancer in fetus irradiation? What is the lowest dose that can cause an increase (and suggest therapeutic abortion)
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6%, 0.1 Gy (10 cgy)
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once pregnancy declared what is the maximum permissable dose to the fetus per month (NCRP)
|
0.5 mSv
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with increasing dose what happens with the latency period to develop cataracts
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decreases
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how do dead cells get removed in the lens
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they don't (unique feature)
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minimum dose to produce cataract in single dose? Fractionated?
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2 Gy; 10 Gy (fractionated)
|
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what would suggest a cataract that is likely caused by radiation
|
originates from the posterior pole
|
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what type of effect is cataracts: deterministic or stochastic? What happens with increasing dose?
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deterministic; severity increases w/ dose (past threshold)
|
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what are the 3 types of background radiation
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cosmic rays, terrestial radiation, radionuclides present in background
|
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where is cosmic radiation higher at the equator or at the poles
|
poles
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what % of lung cancers are caused by radon?
|
10%
|
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rank the following in terms of effective dose to the brain: CT, x ray, nuclear imaging, cerebral angiography
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x ray, CT, nuclear, angiography
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what parameter of CT's must be adjusted for kids
|
kV and mAs (smaller size)
|
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erythema of the skin occurs at what dose and what etiology
|
permeable capillaries, 2 Gy
|
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the loss of IQ in utero irradiation (points/sv)
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30 points per SV
|
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what is the typical dose (in mCi) for PET
|
10 mCi
|
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what is genetically significant dose (GSD)
|
equivalent dose to gonads weighted for age, gender, & probability of having kids
dose to the gonads x # of children each member expected to have divided by # of people in the population |
|
give Gray in rad and in erg
|
1 Gy = 100 rad (radiation absorbed dose)
1 rad = 100 erg/g |
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radiation weighting factor (Wr) is representative of ? What is the value for photons, electrons, protons, alpha particles, neutrons
|
RBE; photons, electrons 1; protons 2; alpha particles 20; neutrons up to 20
|
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equivalent dose is in what unit (what is the old unit)
|
absorbed dose x weighting factor = Sievert (100 rem (rad equivalent man))
|
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effective dose takes into account what?
|
takes into account tissue weighting factor (Wt); to account for unevenly distributed absorption of dose.
|
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(BM, breast, colon, lung, stomach), (bladder, esophagus, gonads, liver, thyroid), (bone surface, brain, kidneys, salivary glands, skin) - order these groups in decreasing tissue weighting factor
|
(BM, breast, colon, lung, stomach .12) > (bladder, esophagus, gonads, liver, thyroid .05) > (bone surface, brain, kidneys, salivary glands, skin .01)
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what is committed equivalent/effective dose used for
|
intergral over 50 years of equivalent/effective dose after intake of radionuclide
|
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what is collective equivalent/effective dose used for; Units?
|
takes into account group or population; man-sievert or person-sievert
|
|
what is the % increase per seivert for severe mental retardation
|
40%/Sv (at 8-15 weeks)
after 15 weeks - 10% |
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what is the carcinogenesis per Sv for the general population (low doserate)
|
5%/Sv
|
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what is the hereditary effects per Sv fo rhte general population
|
0.2%/Sv
|
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no occupational exposure should be permitted before what age
|
18
|
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under the NCRP what is the worker's lifetime effective dose per year and in lifetime
|
50 mSv per year; age x 10 mSv lifetime
|
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what is the dose limit per year for the lens of the eye and the skin for workers? For gen public?
|
150 mSv and 500 mSv; 50 mSv
|
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in special situations where you have to allow persons less than age 18 to work what is the annual effective dose limit
|
1 mSv
|
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annual effective dose limit for members of the public (frequent) exposure? Infrequent?
|
1 mSv and 5 mSv
|
|
what is the remidial action level of radon by the EPA
|
148 Bq/m^3
|
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what is the neglible individual dose considered
|
.01 mSv (1 mrem)
|
|
what is the average annual equivalent dose to monitored radiation workers
|
2 mSv
|
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how does the ICRP annual dose limit differ from the NCRP? Which allows for more dose at a younger age?
|
the ICRP has a limit of 20 mSv per year over 5 years
the NCRP has a 10 mSv x age lifetimes both have 50 mSv annuale limit |
|
how does the ICRP pregnancy dose limit differ from the NCRP
|
ICRP: 2 mSv to the surface of the woman's abd;
NCRP: monthly limit of 0.5 mSv |
|
enzymes that cleave DNA after recognizing a specific sequence. Those moste useful for constructing recombinant molecules leave a "sticky" end - a single-strand overhang of two-four nucleotides that can pair with a complementary strand
|
restriction endonucleases
|
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autonomously replicating DNA molecule into which foreign DNA fragments are inserted and then propagated in a host cell. Vectors include plasmids, bacteriophage, bacterial artificial chromosomes, and viruses
|
vector
|
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PCR adaptation to analyze RNA expression; amplify RNA w/ reverse transcriptase than add primers and separate on gel electrophoresis
|
reverse transcription PCR
|
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very sensitive PCR technique that enables high-throughput nucleic acid analysis and quantification; amplification nad measurement take place in same vessel using fluorescent oligo specific for gene of interest
|
quantitative real-time PCR
|
|
putting a functional version of a defetive gene into cells to correct the phenotype associated with the defect by hybridization to oligonucleotide probes, microarrays, or sequencing
|
functional complementation
|
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strategy used to clone a gene for which no information is available about its protein product. (ex tumor suppressor); incorporates family inheritance
|
positional cloning
|
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identifies regions of chromosomal duplication or deletion. The genes in the abnormal region can then be analyzed by expression or functional studies to identify candidate genes in the region
tumor DNA harvested and digested w/ restriction enzyme - labeled with red fluorescent and green done to control; hybidize to DNA microarray --> observe increase (amplify) or decrease red (deletion) |
comparative genomic hybridization
|
|
useful platform for studying gene expression changes (RNA), gene aneuploidy (CGH), and DNA-protein interactions (ChIP-chips). The primary advantage is the sheer number of sequences that can be analyzed at one time
|
microarray
|
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structural variations in DNA caused by point mutations, deletions, or insertions can result in restriction fragments of different lengths, which can often be detected by Southern blotting. Can be used as genetic markers to map genes to specific chromosomal locations and identify aberrant genes causing disease
|
restriction fragment length polymorphisms
|
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used to study promoter function in intact cells, either to identify transcription factor interactions with promoters or to dissect mechanisms of regulation. DNA purified by it can be analyzed individually by PCR or by hybridization to promoter microarrays
|
chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP)
|
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subcloning by recombination, functinonal complementation, hybridization, oligonucleotide probe, positional cloning: are all types of ?
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ways to screen a DNA library
|
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what can be used to isolate gene if no info available about gene's protein product ? Linkage analysis can facilitate location, then can used "linked DNA" sequence; useful for tumor suppressor genes
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positional cloning
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used to reduce expression of gene; double strand RNA vectors induce antiviral response and interact w/ RNA-inducing silencing complex --> silecnes the gene (affects gene translation)
|
si-RNA; RNA interference
|
|
used to identify the specific sequence bound by a transciption factor;
short DNA radiolabeled -> incubated with cellular extracts and electrophoresed -> if transcription factor binds, DNA sequence moves slower |
electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA)
|
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"inverse Northern blot"; cellular RNA is reverse transcribed, amplified w/ modified nucleotide that allows fluorescence detection -> hybridized to array of sequences
|
spotted arrays
oligo arrays |
|
what does far western blotting do
|
protein-protein interaction
|
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2D PAGe is used to study what
|
posttranslational modification of proteins - proteins separated by charge and size
|
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order the following vectors in terms of increasing DNA capacity for transfection: cosmids, yeast artificial chromosomes, viruses, plasmids, bacteriophage lambda
|
plasmid, bacteriophage, cosmid, yeast artificial chromosomes, viruses
|
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which polarity does dna move towards: positive or negative
|
positive
|
|
radioactive probe is mixed with cell extract containing the DNA binding proteins (transcription factors) and run on polyacrylamide gel
retardation of the probe indicates binding of protein with this DNA segment |
gel shift assay
|
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gene arrays, cDNA libraries, qPCR all begin with a ____ type of transcript
|
RNA
|
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reporter gene assays, gel mobility shift assay, and chromatin immunoprecipitation have all been used to evaluate ?
|
promoter genes
|
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The protein of interest is isolated with a specific antibody. Interaction partners which stick to this protein are subsequently identified by Western blotting.[1] Interactions detected by this approach are considered to be real. However, this method can only verify interactions between suspected interaction partners. Thus, it is not a screening approach. A note of caution also is that immunoprecipitation experiments reveal direct and indirect interactions. Thus, positive results may indicate that two proteins interact directly or may interact via one or more bridging molecules. This could include bridging proteins, nucleic acids (DNA or RNA), or other molecules.
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Co-immunoprecipitation is considered to be the gold standard assay for protein–protein interactions, especially when it is performed with endogenous (not overexpressed and not tagged) proteins.
|
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The premise behind the test is the activation of downstream reporter gene(s) by the binding of a transcription factor onto an upstream activating sequence (UAS). For the test, the transcription factor is split into two separate fragments, called the binding domain (BD) and activating domain (AD). The BD is the domain responsible for binding to the UAS and the AD is the domain responsible for the activation of transcription.[1][2] The Y2H is thus a protein-fragment complementation assay. only when both hybridize together do u see an outcome.
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two-hybrid screen
|
|
technology typically used to validate protein interactions. It is based on the association of fluorescent protein fragments that are attached to components of the same macromolecular complex. Proteins that are postulated to interact are fused to unfolded complementary fragments of a fluorescent reporter protein and expressed in live cells. Interaction of these proteins will bring the fluorescent fragments within proximity, allowing the reporter protein to reform in its native three-dimensional structure and emit its fluorescent signal
|
Bimolecular fluorescence complementation (also known as BiFC)
|
|
ras, neu, myc, EGFR, and bcr-abl are all examples of what?
|
oncogenes
|
|
NF1,2, ECAD, PTCH, PTEN, APC are all examples of ?
|
tumor suppressors
|
|
WT1
|
wilms - tumor suppressor
|
|
PTEN
|
cowden syndrome - hamartoma - tumor suppressor
|
|
MEN1
|
pituitary, pancreas, parathyroid - tumor suppressor
|
|
Rb is active phosphorylated or hypophosphorylated? When is it bound to E2F)
|
active when hypophosphorylated and bound to E2F
|
|
TGFbeta has what relationship with Rb
|
it keeps Rb active by inhibiting Rb phosphorylation (which keeps Rb in its "active" hypophosphorylated state); does this through the promotion of P21 and P15 INK (which are inhibitors of Rb)
|
|
which caspase is the initiator in the extrinsic pathway? Intrinsic?
|
caspase 8; 9
|
|
which caspases are considered effectors
|
3,6,7
|
|
mdm2 has what effect on p53
|
it inhibits
|
|
does BID inhibit or promote apoptosis
|
promote
|
|
describe the relationship btw VHL and HIF
|
VHL normally inhibits HIF; HIF in response to hypoxia is upregulated causing angiogenesis
|
|
TSP-1 - pro or anti angiogenic
|
antiangiogenic; no p53 -> decreased TSP1
|
|
does radiation increase or decrease ceramide
|
increase (ceramide increases apoptosis)
|
|
p21 has what function - downregulates or upregulates cell cycle
|
downregulates cell cycle (cdk4 and 6)
|
|
how does cdk4 and 6 promote the cell cycle
|
by phosphorylating Rb thereby inactivating it which lets it release E2F which goes to upregulate cyclinE
|
|
which cyclins are in G1?
|
D and E
|
|
which cylins are in S and G2?
|
A
|
|
which cyclins are in G2 and M?
|
B
|
|
chk1 has what affect on the cell cycle
|
it is inhibitory; chk1 promotes phosphorylation of Cdc25A which inhibits cyclin E and A
|
|
when is Ras active - with GTP or GDP
|
GTP; inactivated by GAP (GTPase activiating protein)
|
|
what does p16 do
|
competes with cyclin D for binding to CDK4, thus inhibiting activity of CDK4 (which normally promotes cell cycle)
|
|
Cockayne's syndrome is defective in what repair process
|
NER, increased sensitivity to UV radiation
|
|
are people with ataxia telangiectasia sensitive to UV radiation
|
no
|
|
ATM mutation lacks checkpoint in G1/S or G2/M
|
BOTH
|
|
is MAPK lead to growth or growth arrest
|
arrest (via p53, fos, jun, myc)
|
|
shape of dose and incidence of tumor control and normal tissue damage
|
sigmoidal
|
|
ratio of tumor response to normal-tissue damage is called
|
the therapeutic index
|
|
after irradiation most cells die a _______ death
|
mitotic (also apoptotic but lesser)
|
|
describe spleen colony assay
|
recipient animals (irradiated prior to experiment to sterilize spleen) inoculated with bone marrow from mice that received test dose of radiation. Number of spleen nodules counted
|
|
where are thyroid and mammary cells implanted in cell survival assay
|
mouse fat pads
|
|
how is tolerance of cord related to length irradiated
|
for short lengths (< 1 cm), tolerance dose varies markedly with cord length irradiated; for > few centimeters, virtually independent of cord length
|
|
is looking at rodent skin, breathing rate following lung irradiation, myelopathy: functional end points or cell survival endpoints
|
functional endpoint
|
|
which way on a dose response curve does the curves move if you add a radiosensitizer
|
to the left
|
|
what is the typical orientation of the dose response curves, which is on the left : tumor control or normal tissue damage
|
tumor control
|
|
does overall time versus dose/fx important in spinal cord irradiation
|
overall time not important
|
|
generalized symptoms (those unrelated to cell killing), such as fatigue, nausea, vomiting may be mediated by…
|
radiation-induced inflamm cytokines
|
|
what requires more does to destroy: differentiated cell or dividing cell
|
differentiated cell
|
|
time interval btw irradiation and expression in tissue damage depends on…
|
life span of mature functional cells and the time it takes for a cell born in the stem compartment to mature
|
|
tolerance doses more sensitive to changes in dose per fraction for early or late effects
|
late
|
|
which one: serial or parallel organized? Little or no functional reserve, and risk of developing complication less dependent on volume irradiated ….. Risk of complication influenced by high-dose regions and hot spots
|
serial (spinal cord, etc.)
|
|
early radiation response in skin -- epidermis or dermis? Late response?
|
epidermis --early. Dermis--late
|
|
most sensitve late responding tissue
|
lung
|
|
FSUs in kidney organization
|
parallal
|
|
whats affected first white or gray matter in brain following RT
|
white;
|
|
is spinal cord affected by length of irradiation
|
for very small lengths yes; for lengths greater than few CM tolerance independent of length irradiated
|
|
permanent sterility dose in males (fractionated)
|
2.5-3 Gy (fractionated); sterility - 6 Gy
|
|
is womens libido affected by irradiation to ovaries
|
yes (in men libido preserved)
|
|
rank in terms of radiosensitivits (most to least): kidney, lung, brain, liver and heart; what is the common theme of these organs?
|
lung, kidney, liver, heart, CNS
all late responding tissues |
|
most common radiation induced injury to lung
|
acute pericarditis
|
|
what does SOMA stand for
|
Subjective, Objective, Management, Analytic
|
|
what casarett's classification: differentiating intermitotis cells, which divide regularly but in which there is some differentiation between divisions, and which are variably differentiated?
|
II
I: stem cells of classic self-renewal tissues, which divide regularly III: reverting postmitotic cells, which do not divide regularly but can divide under the appropriate stimulus IV: fixed postmitotic cells which are highly differentiated and appear to have lost the ability to divide |
|
what are the 2 classic early responding tissues
|
GI epithelium and skin
|
|
is the spinal cord structurally defined or undefined
|
undefined (similar to skin, mucosa) meaning clonogenic cells can migrate from 1 FSU to another and allow repop
versus defined - kidney liver and lung |
|
what are the two broad categories (types) that Michalowki described in radiation pathology
|
H-type - or heirarchical cells: stem -> mature partially diff cells -> functional cells
F-type - or flexible cells : rarely divide under nl circumstances but can be triggered tissues are hybrids of above |
|
interleukin's role with regards to radiation
|
radioprotector (increase shoulder and Do of survival curve)
|
|
TGF-beta's role with radiation
|
strong inflamm response; can inhibit interleukin 1 and TNF; linked to fibrosis and vascular changes in late effects
can increase radiation damage |
|
TNF role in radiation
|
mediates inflamm response -> prolif of fibroblasts, inflamm cells, and endothelial cells
protects hemotopoietic cells and sensitizes tumor cells to radiation correlates with RT complications; cachexia |
|
what type of assay: transplated tumor on flank or back is measured daily , grown to specific size and then some are given treatment others are control. Advantage?
Endpoint is TCD50 (? What is this) |
growth delay (single dose) or tumor cure (graded doses)
adv: avoids artifacts involved in disaggregating the tumor TCD dose at which 50% of the tumors are controlled |
|
what type of assay: mice with advanced leukemia irradiated /controls and liver harvested then made into single cell suspension and injected into peritoneal cavity -> number of mice that develop leukemias scored. Relevant is # of cells required to transmit tumor to 50% of mice
|
Dilution assay technique
|
|
what type of assay: tumors irradiated in situ -> irradiated/controls -> made into single cell sups -> ijected -> number of lung colonies counted
|
lung colony assay
|
|
what type of assay: tumor treated in vivo (alive) -> tumor removed and prepared into single cell sups -> plated on petri dish -> counted
|
in vivo/in vitro assay
|
|
what type of assay: transplating from 1 species to another and using congenitaly immune deficient mice to accept human tumors
|
xenograft
|
|
mitotic index is fraction of cells in mitoses; what is the equation?
|
MI = λ Tm / Tc; where lambda is a correction factor to allow for fact that the cells are not distriubted evenly in the cell cycle b/c the # of cells doubles during mitosis
|
|
what is the labeling index? Equation
|
fraction of cells that are in S (marked by those that take up titriated thymidine); LI = λ Ts / Tc; where lambda is a correction factor to allow for fact that the cells are not distriubted evenly in the cell cycle b/c the # of cells doubles during mitosis
|
|
describe the percent labeled mitoses technique? What does it aim to estimate?
|
uses thymidine/bromodeoxyuridine that stain in S phase and chart their time at regular intervals to count percent in mitoses. All the phases of the cell cycle can be approximated with this technique. Ts can be approx by following time of cells to enter mitoses and completely leave (begining or vice versa end); in practice estimated by middle width
|
|
describe the bromodeoxyuridine-DNA assay in flow cytrometry? What is it used for?
|
cells stained simultaneously with two dyes that fluoresce at different wavelengths: one binds in proportion to DNA content to indicate the phase of the cell cycle, and the other binds in proportion to bromodeoxyuridine incorporation to show if cells are synthesizing DNA
can be used for Tpot and to estimate labeling index and Ts |
|
an approximate estimate of cell cycle time with regards to S phase is what?
|
3 times S-phase time
|
|
what is the equation for cell loss factor? What does a value of 100% represent?
|
ф = 1 - Tpot/Td
ratio of rate of cell lost to rate of new cell production; 100% correlates to steady state (ie no growth no regression); estimated to be greater than 50% for all tumors (median 77) |
|
what is the relationship btw Tpot (potential doubling time), labeling index, and S phase cell cycle time
|
Tpot = l Ts/Labeling Index
|
|
what does increased cell loss do to cell doubling time (Td)? Decreased growth fraction?
|
both increase Td (actual cell cycle doubling time)
|
|
as tumor size increases what happens to growth fraction? Rate of cell loss? Tumor growth rate?
|
growth fraction decreases; rate of cell loss increases; tumor growth rate decreases
|
|
proliferating cells / (proliferating + quiescent cells) = ?
|
growth fraction (LI/MI)
|
|
high or low growth fraction assoc with radiosensitivity
|
high
|
|
if I inject titriated thymidine into an animal with a tumor then harvest the tumor and calculate the fraction of cells labeled (LI) and divide by the fraction of mitoses (MI) what would I get
|
growth fraction
|
|
four R's of radiobiology
|
Repair of sublethal damage
Reassortment of cells w/in cell cycle Repopulation Reoxygenation |
|
Strandquist plot/iso effect curve? Do late tissues have a flat or steep curve?
|
relation btw total dose and overall treatment time; "time" includes # of fx; slope of line for skin is around 0.33
late tissues have steep curve reflecting increased repair capacity |
|
prolonging overall time within normal RT affects what type of reactions
|
early
|
|
What type of tissues (early or late) are more sensitive to changes in fractionation pattern
|
late-responding tissues (because of large shoulder)
|
|
triggering of surviving cells to divide more rapidly as a tumor shrinks after irradiation or txt w/ cytotoxic agent
|
accelerated repopulation
|
|
when does accelerated repopulation start in H&N cancers
|
around 4 weeks; about 0.6 Gy needed per day to compensate
|
|
basic aim of hyperfractionation
|
separate early and late effects (decrease late effects)
|
|
basic aim of acceleration
|
to reduce repopulation
|
|
randomized trial has shown what for hyperfractionation
|
increased LC and increased survival; no increase in acute or late effects
|
|
EORTC trial of accelerated txt results? In terms of LC? Survival? Late effects? Early effects?
|
increase in LC; no increase in survival
unexpected increase in late effects (consequential effects from severe early effects and incomplete repair secondary to short time interval btw fxs) |
|
CHART results? In terms of TC? Acute and late effects?
|
same tumor control, worse acute effects, and decreased late effects (because of low dose)
|
|
logic of ARCON (accelerated hyperfractionation radiation therapy while breathing carbogen and with the addition of nicotinamide)
|
acceleration to overcome cell prolif, hyperfractionation to spare late responding tissues, carbogen to overcome chronic hypoxia, and nicotinamide to overcome acute hypoxia
|
|
decrease in local control per day in increasing overall txt time for H&N cancers? Cervix
|
1.4%
0.5% rapid prolif not seen in breast or prostate |
|
BED
|
"biologically effective dose" = nd(1+ d/ (alpha/beta)
|
|
what are eppendorf probes used for
|
measuring oxygen tension in tumors
|
|
if survival fraction following a 2 gy dose was higher for a certain tumor cell line versus another tumor cell line; would you expect its response to treatment to be better or worse? Courtnay assay?
|
worse; shown in head and neck with regards to local control and cervix
courtenay assay - cells grown as spheres or clumps in semisolid agar gel |
|
what is a commonly used parameter to model proliferative potential but has not panned out in studies?
|
Tpot (potential doubling time); if high, tumor has high proliferative potential
|
|
what is meant by SF2? Where has it been shown to be useful
|
SF2 refers to the fraction of cells surviving a dose of 2 Gy; used in identifying tumors that are radiosensitive and resistant (> or < then 0.4)
|
|
neutrons are (directly or indirectly) ionizing
|
indirectly
|
|
how do the biologic properties of neutrons differ from x-rays in terms of OER, sublethal damage repair, and cell cycle sensitivity variation
|
reduced OER, little or no SLDR, and less variation in cell cycle
|
|
what sites have neutrons been clinically proven
|
salivary gland, prostate cancer, and soft-tissue sarcoma
|
|
describe concept of boron neutron capture therapy
|
deliver a drug containing boron and then deliver low-energy thermal neutrons that interact with the boron to produce alpha-particles
|
|
why is boron a good choice for neutron capture therapy
|
large cross setion, emits short range alpha particles, and can be incorporated in wide range of compounds
|
|
comparison of RBE, OER btw protons and x-rays
|
similar
|
|
carbons in comparison to xrays and protons: RBE
|
increased LC and increased survival; no increase in acute or late effects
|
|
unique way carbon ion dose can be visualized
|
PET - carbon strips other carbons neutrons and results in 11C and 10C which are positron emitting isotopes
|
|
halogenated pyrimidines mechanism of action
|
incorporated into DNA by competing with thymidine; must be incorporated into DNA for sensitization to occur. Cells must be grown in presences of analogue for several cell cycles….extent of radiosensitization increases with amount incorporated
|
|
toxicity of bromodeoxyuridine
|
phototoxicity --> rash
|
|
toxicity of misonidazole
|
peripheral neuropathy
|
|
which radiosensitizing hypoxi cell has the least toxicity and was shown to have a benefit for head and neck CA in LC and OS
|
nimorazole
|
|
what class/action is tirapazamine
|
organic nitrooxide -- cytotoxic against hypoxic cells; found use as adjunct to chemo agents
|
|
nitroimidazoles labeled with radionuclide can be used as markers for…
|
hypoxic cells
|
|
how do hypoxic-cell radiosensitizers work?
|
mimics oxygen by "fixing" damage produced by free radicals
|
|
which of the following are bioreductive: misonidazole or mitomycin C
|
mitomycin C;
|
|
tirapazamin is what class of drug? Side effects?
|
hypoxic cytotoxic drug; nausea and severe mm cramping
|
|
please describe the four aspects of ARCON trial (acceleration, carbogen, hyperfractionation, and nicotinomide)
|
carbogen -> chronic hypoxia
nicotinomide -> actue hypoxia acceleration -> prolif hyperfractionation -> spare late tissue |
|
what are 3 ways of radiosensitizing cells
|
hyperbaric oxygen
improve O2 supply to tumors (perfluorocarbons, transfusions) hypoxic cell radiosensitizers |
|
downside to retrovirus
|
only infect dividing cells
|
|
downside to adenoviruses
|
invoke immune response (but infect both dividing and nondividing cells)
|
|
what is suicide gene therapy? examples of suicide gene therapy?
|
transduce cell with gene that converts a prodrug into a cytotoxic agent
cytosine deaminase which converts to 5FU. HSV-tk plus ganciclovir |
|
what is cytotoxic virus
|
kill cells with mutated gene (most work on p53)
preferentially targets cancer cells with a cytotoxic virus and spares normal cells - uses an adenovirus that replicated only in p53 mutant cells, killing them thru cell lysis - early trials show significant growth suppression in animal models and human H&N ca; however, only produce PR |
|
what is molecular immunology (ie cancer vaccines)
|
seeks to provoke a cellular immune response against the cancer by injecting a vaccine genetically engineered to express immune stimulatory molecules or tumor-specific antigents
|
|
what is tumor-suppressor gene therapy
|
replacement, with a correct copy, of the mutated gene that initiates or contributes to the malignant phenotype
|
|
what is linking a radiation-inducible promotor to a cytotoxic agent; the cytotoxic agent is "turned on" only in the carefully delineated radiation field
|
radiation-activated genes or radiogenetic therapy
|
|
why are traditional anticancer drugs toxic to intestinal epithelium and hematopoietic stem cells?
|
because they have a high growth fraction
|
|
MOA of alkylating agents
|
ability to substitute alkyl groups for hydrogen atoms in DNA, include nitrogen mustard derivatives, cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, melphalan, and the nitrosoureas (BCNU and CCNU)
|
|
MOA of antibiotics
|
bind to DNA and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, include dactinomycin, doxorubicin, daunorubicin, and bleomycin
|
|
MOA of antimetabolites
|
analogues of the normal metabolites required for function and replication; include MTX, 5FU, cytarabine, and 5-azacytidine
|
|
dose-response relationship of chemo (in comparison to RT)
|
similar, initial shoulder
|
|
oxygen effect of chemo?
|
varies on drug - some target aerated cells, some hypoxic cells
|
|
development of resistance to one drug results in cross-resistance to other drugs with a different mechanism of action
|
pleiotropic resistance
|
|
are alkylating agents as a class considered cell cycle specific
|
cell-cycle NONspecific
|
|
what are the 3 classes of bioreductive agents? Do they favor hypoxic or oxic conditions?
|
fused-ring benzoquinones (mitomycin C), organic N-oxides (tirapazamine), dual-function nitroheterocyclic (RB6145)
favors hypoxic situations |
|
what is the mdr gene do? (hint - chemo)
|
mdr - multidrug resistance gene; membrane bound protein that pumps drugs out of the tumor cells; reversed by calcium channel blocking drugs
|
|
contrast vinca alkaloids and taxanes
|
vinca inhibit spindle formation; taxolsinhibit disassembly
|
|
Busulfan
|
DNA alylation; myelosuppression; CML and polycythemia vera (and pre BMT)
|
|
carboplatin
|
intra and interstrand crosslinks; myelosuppression (esp thrombocytopenia); multiple cancers
|
|
carmustine
|
alkylating agent cellcycle independent - PENETRATES BLOODBRAIN BARRIER; myelosuppression (esp thrombo); brain, mult myeloma
|
|
chlorambucil
|
alkylating agent cell cycle indepen; meylosuppression; CLL - other leukemias/lymphomas (lowgrade)
|
|
cyclophosphamide
|
alkylating agent cell-cycle indepen; myelosuppression, hemorrhagic cystitis; multiple sites
|
|
dacarbazine
|
alkylating agent methylates guanine bases; myelosuppression - SYNERGY W/ RT; malignant melanoma and hodgkin's
|
|
ifosfamide
|
alkylating agent non-cell cycle dependent; meylosuppression, hem cystitis, CNS tox; recurrent germ cell tumors
|
|
lomustine (CCNU)
|
alkylating agent - cell cycle indep PENETRATES BLOOD BRAIN BARRIER; myelosupp (esp thrombo); brain and hodgkin's
|
|
mechlorethamine
|
alkylating agent - cell cycle indepen; powerful vesicant, secondary leukemia; hematologic malignancies - hodgkin's and topically for t-cell lymphoma
|
|
melphalan
|
alkylating agent - cell cycle indepen; myelosuppression, secondary leukemia; multiple myeloma
|
|
oxaliplatin
|
alkylating agent - disrupts DNA via intra and interstrand cross links; neurotoxicity; metastatic colorectal
|
|
procarbazine
|
alkylating agent - cell cycle indepen PENETRATES BLOOD BRAIN BARRIER; myelosupp; hodgkin's
|
|
temozolomide
|
alkylating agent - PENETRATES BLOOD BRAIN BARRIER; myelosupp; brain tumors
|
|
cisplatin
|
produces intra and interstrand cross links; nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity; INTERM SYNERGY W/ RT; multiple
|
|
bleomycin
|
antibiotics cause DNA strand breaks directyl via creation of hydroxyl radicals; pulmonary toxicity; STRONG SYNERGY W/ RT; germ cell tumors, hodgkin's, SCC
|
|
dactinomycin
|
antibiotics inhibts transcription by complexing w/ DNA; moderate vesicant STRONG SYNERGY WITH RT; wilm's, ewings, rhabdo, many others
|
|
doxorubicin
|
antibiotic intercalating agent; potent vesicant, cardiomyopathy STRONG SYNERGY W/ RT (sever skin reactions); breast and others
|
|
mitomycin C
|
antibiotics inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis; vesicant and myelosuppression STRONG SYNERGY W/ RT; anal
|
|
5FU
|
antimetabolites inhibitor of thymidylate synthase; gi toxicities, dermatitis, and hand-foot syndrome SYNERGY W/ RT; multiple
|
|
capcitibine
|
oral 5FU; myelosuppressin hand foot sydrome INT SYNERGY WITH RT; metastatic breast and colorectal
|
|
cytarabine
|
incorporated into DNA during replication --> strand termination PENETRATES BLOOD-BRAIN BARRIER; myelosupp; AML and ALL
|
|
fludarabine
|
antimetabolite; neutrotoxicity; CLL
|
|
gemcitibine
|
antimetabolite; inhibits ribonucleotide reductase ; STRONG SYNERGY WITH RT myelosupp; pancreatic, bladder
|
|
hydroxyurea
|
inhibitor of ribonucleotide reductase --> inhibition of DNA synthesis
|
|
methotrexate
|
antimetabolite interferes w/ dihydrofolate reductace; encephalopathy with intrathecal, should be admin prior to cranial irradiation; multiple malignancies; toxicity - peripheral neuropathy
|
|
l-asparaginase
|
cleaves the amino acid asparagine which is essential for proliferation; hypersensitivity; ALL
|
|
trastuzumab
|
monoclonal antibody against her2/neu growth factor; cardiotoxicity; breast
|
|
megestrol acetate
|
steroidal progestational agent; hormonal changes; breast and endometrial ca; appetite stimulation
|
|
cetuximab
|
blocks egfr receptor dimerization; acne STRONG SYNERGY W/ RT; colorectal and head and neck ca
|
|
imatinib mesylate
|
specific tyrosine kinace inhibitor which inhibits bcr-abl, ckit; myelosuppression; CML and metastatic GIST
|
|
rituximab
|
directed against CD20; fever, chills; lymphoma
|
|
docetaxel
|
inhibits mitotic spindle apparatus by stabilizing tubulin polymers; myelosuppression; multiple malignacies
|
|
paclitaxel
|
inhibits depolymerization of tubulin in spindle apparatus -> apoptosis; weak synergy with RT - myelosupp, neuromyopathy; multiple malignancies
|
|
etoposide VP16
|
topoisomerase II inhibitor; myelosuppression; germ cell tumors and SCLC
|
|
irinotecan
|
topoisomerase I inhibitor; myelosuppression; metastatic colon
|
|
vinblastine
|
inhibitor of tubulin polymerization; soft tissue vesicant; multiple malignancies Hodgkins
|
|
vincristine
|
inhibitor of tubulin polymerization; vesicant, neurotoxict; nonhodgkins
|
|
vinorelbine (navelbine)
|
inhibitor of tubulin polymerization; mild vesicant, myelosuppression; metastatic breast and NSCLC
|
|
goserelin acetate (zolodex)
|
agonist, inhibits pituitary-gonadal axis function causing steroid hormone withdrawal from prostate and breast cancer cells; endocrine; prostate and met breast
|
|
leuprolide acetate (leupron)
|
agonist, inhibits pituitary-gonadal axis function causing steroid hormone withdrawal from prostate and breast cancer cells; endocrine; prostate and met breast
|
|
bicalutamide (casodex)
|
nonsteroidal antiandrogens; endocrine + constipation; prostate
|
|
tamoxifen
|
nonsteroidal antiandrogens;
|
|
anastrozole
|
nonsteroidal aromatase inhibitors; breast
|
|
amifostine
|
free radical scavavenger; hypotension, n/v, and somnolence; radiation protectant
|
|
describe heat survival curves (y and x axis; contrast from x-rays)
|
y axis - survival; x axis - time at Temperature (T); similar to radiation
|
|
what is the significance of the break point (43 C) with regards to sensitivity
|
below this temp, change in T results in more sensitivity than above this temp
seen on a arrhenius plot for heat inactivation; inverse of D0 (y-axis) and T (x-axis) |
|
is there a difference in sensitivity to heat between normal and malignant cells?
|
no
|
|
what phase of cell cycle is most sensitive to hyperthermia
|
S phase (specificially late S)
|
|
hyperthermia and pH and nutrition
|
cells with low pH and nutritionally deprevied (ie tumors) MORE sensitive to heat
|
|
does hypoxia protect cells from hyperthermia
|
NO
|
|
what damages cells more rapidly - hyperthermia or xrays? Why
|
heat damages tissues more rapidly than x-rays because heat kills differentiated as well as dividing cells and cells die in interphase (contrast from next or subsequent mitosis in xrays)
|
|
what is thermotolerance
|
induced resistance to a second heat exposure by prior heating; complication during fractionated hyperthermia
|
|
what does heat do to vasculature for tumor and normal tissues?
|
heat preferentially damages tumor vasculature; after heating, blood flow goes down in tumors but increases in normal tissues
|
|
what is the most successful noninvasive technique to measure hyperthermia
|
MRI
|
|
thermal dose is expressed in terms of ?
|
CEM43°C - cumulative equivalent minutes at 43 C exceeded by 90% of monitored points w/in tumor
|
|
how does hyperthermia work synergistically with radiation (specifically why does it radiosensitive)
|
hyperthermia inhibits repair
|
|
what is the mechanism of damage for hyperthermia
|
damage to plasma membrane and inactivation of proteins (denaturation)
|
|
what is thermal enhancement ratio
|
radiation dose without heat/radiation dose with heat (increases with increasing temperature) (generally > 1.0)
|
|
how does hyperthermia and chemo interact
|
heat makes chemo more effective
|
|
benefits and contrasts of microwaves and ultrasound in hyperthermia
|
microwaves - good localization at shallow depths; poor at greater depths; ultrasound - deep heating can be achieved but bone and air cavities get in the way
|
|
what types of cells does hyperthermia affect - dividing or differentiated cells?
|
both
|
|
what type of death do heated cells die by - mitotic or apoptotic
|
apoptotic
|
|
what is thermal dose equivalent
|
minutes the tissue has to be held at 43 degrees C to suffer same biological damage as produced by the actual temperature; for lower dosease factor of 1/4th ; for greater factor of 2 (per degree difference)
other words; for every degree above 43 - time is halved and for below 43 time is multiplied by 4-5 |
|
What is a dirty bomb
|
bomb with radioactive materials that when explodes results in spread of that material (cs 137)
|
|
what is a hidden RED
|
hidden radiation exposure device - simply droping a gamma emitting source into a busy location so people are exposed
|
|
what is the goal of decontamination in event of radiologic terroris (w/ regards to backgroun radiation)
|
count less than twice background
|
|
what % of patients present with second cancer
|
10%
|
|
what tolerates retreatment better: early or late responding tissue
|
early-responding tissues
|
|
pair production is related to energy, Z how?
|
independent of energy (but must be greater than 1.02 Mev) and proportional to Z^2
|
|
what changes in coherent scattering
|
only the direction of the incident photon (no energy transfer, no ejected electrons)
|
|
what is specific ionization and its relation to particle velocity
|
ion pairs per unit length (decreases with increasing particle velocity)
|
|
LET can be calculated what two ways? Are they similar for xrays? Neutrons?
|
track average or energy average; same for x rays but different for neutrons; energy avg better for biological effects
|
|
what is the rough LET for neutrons? For high energy protons? For 250kv xrays?
|
100, 0.5, 2
|
|
how is LET related to mass? Charge? Velocity/energy?
|
increases with mass and square of charge; decreases with increasing velocity and energy
|
|
DNA strand breaks are to the bases or sugars
|
sugars
|
|
what does UV light cause in DNA
|
pyrimidine dimers - type of bulkly DNA lesion
|
|
what is H2Ax and its significance? How do u interpret if its phosphorylated?
|
H2Ax is a histone that is phosphorylated by ATM in response to DNA damage; can be used a sensitve measure for DNA double strand break
|
|
terminal deletions and sister unions are what type of aberration
|
chromotid
|
|
ATM plays a major role in which cell cycle check point
|
G2/M
|
|
size of proton
|
1.6 x 10 ^ -15
|
|
how far can hydroxyl radical diffuse
|
double the distance of double helix ( 4 nm )
|
|
spurs and blobs are most associated with what kind of damage
|
locally mulstiply damaged sites
|
|
spur vs blob in terms of energy; type of radiation that causes them
|
“spur” –
contains up to 100 eV of energy (e- transfers an average of 60 eV to water & cellular molecules per event) contains ~ 3 ions pairs (ie. 33 eV produces 1 ion pair) diameter ~ 4 nm (diameter of DNA = 2 nm) for x-rays and -rays, 95% of the energy deposition events are spurs “blob” – contains 100-500 eV of energy contains ~ 12 ion pairs diameter ~ 7 nm damage produced is much more difficult to repair common for neutrons and -particles (ie. damage produced is qualitatively different than x-rays) |
|
what is adaptive response
|
cells irradiated with a lose dose may be more resistant to a subsequent higher dose
|
|
how do u solve for an equivalent doses when comparing multifraction vs single dose using Dq?
|
acute dose - Dq = each fraction - Dq
in 2 fx example: acute dose = fx x 2 - Dq |
|
as a general rule how much larger is D0 in hypoxic conditions
|
3 x D0 for hypoxic conditions compared to aerobic
|
|
when n (extrapolation number) is equal to 1 what does this signy with regards to the survival curve
|
Beta = 0 or there is no shoulder
|
|
what is flexure dose?
|
0.1 x alpha/beta ratio ; defined as the point when curve bends signifincatly; to fully exploit sparing, doses per fraction should be as low as this
|
|
what is tissue rescue unit
|
Minimum number of FSU's to maintain tissue fx
|
|
what is the cell loss factor for most tumors
|
> 50%
|
|
is PTEN a tumor suppressor or oncogene
|
tumor suppressor (assoc with cowden syndrome - hamartomas)
|
|
total cell cycle time is approximately how much longer than S-phase cycle time
|
3 x Ts
|
|
are cells killed when exposed to hydroxyurea
|
s phase cells killed and block introduced
|
|
what are the layers of a spheroid
|
asynchronous/aerobic in outer layer, noncycling G1-like in middle, central zone of G1-like hypoxic cells
|
|
dilution assay, lung colony system and in vivo/in vitro techniques are all examples of ….
|
clonogenic assays
|
|
bloom syndrome is a result of what deficiency
|
ligase deficiency
|
|
what is on the axes of an isoeffect curve? What do late responding tissues look like (steep or flat)?
|
effective single does plotted as function of overall txt time; late responding tissues have steeper slope (reflects increased repair capacity)
|
|
which of the 4 Rs spares normal tissues and which of them kills tumor
|
repair and repopulation spares normal tissues, while reassortment and reoxygenation kills tumor
|
|
Know the OERs of X-rays, alpha particles and neutrons
|
X-rays 2.5, Neutrons 1.6, Alpha 1.0
|
|
these are all used for what: 2-Nitroimidazole Markers (pimonidazole and EF5), Endogenous Markers (Carbonic Anhydrase 9, HIF), Comet Assay (requires rapid sampling of irradiated tumor), Noninvasive Imaging (PET, SPECT with various labeling agents, etc)
|
to measure hypoxia
|
|
how do u get the fraction of hypoxia cells via an experiment
|
ratio of aerated SF / Hypoxic SF
|
|
how long does S, G2, and M last in hours
|
S is around 8 hours, G2 is around 4 hours, and M is around 1
|
|
when does radiosensitivity is halfway and saturated in terms of Oxygen tension
|
3 mm Hg or 0.5% O2 causes halfway
30 mm Hg or 3 % O2 saturation |
|
What will distinguish the tumors cells lining the vessels from those farther away? (with regards to labeling index)
|
higher labeling index
|
|
Does LET increase with increasing energy?
|
No, it decreases, as less energy is deposited in tissue.
|
|
What are the units of LET?
|
KeV / um
|
|
what happens to RBE with increasing alpha/beta ratio (no shoulder)
|
decreased RBE
|
|
at what LET does OER go to 1
|
160 KeV/um
|
|
what is the LET for protons (150 Mev)? 250 kvp photons? 14 MeV Neutrons? 2.5 MeV alpha particles?
|
Protons - 0.5
250 kvp photons - 4.7 neutrons - 12 (track); 100 (energy) alpha - 166 |
|
do neutrons have a bragg peak?
|
no
|
|
who is more radioresistant - a human or a mouse?
|
mouse
|
|
They asked what was the major organ limiting toxicity of TBI?
|
Bone marrow suppression
|
|
What is the most likely effect seen after 1.5 Gy of total body irradiation?
|
lymphopenia/neutropenia
|
|
What is the defination of DRF Dose reduction factor?
|
Ratio of dose in presence of drug/dose in absence of drug to produce a given level of lethality
|
|
what are thiols and how do they work?
|
radioprotectors; They work by free radical scavenging by the SH- group AND by donating hydrogen atom to facilitate direct chemical repair at sites of DNA damage
|
|
If the drug had a dose enhancement ratio of 1.1 and patient can tolerate 45 Gy without drug, what dose can now be given?
• 40.5 Gy • 49.5 Gy. |
40.5 Gy
|
|
Had to know the exact definition of dose reduction factor:,
|
for radioprotectors
• radiation dose in the presence of drug, divided by radiation dose in the absence of drug. |
|
how do nitro-imadazole drugs work? Sensitize or protect?
|
sensitizers; taken up by hypoxic cells and substitute for oxygen to fix radiation damage
|
|
difference in latency period btw solid tumors and leukemia
|
leukemia has shortest latency - peak by 10 years versus solid tumors with longer latency on order of 10-50 years
|
|
after chernobyl accident there was an increased risk of what type of malignancy
|
thyroid cancer
|
|
What tumors are seen after tx of cervix cancer?
|
Bladder most common, followed by rectal and vaginal.
|
|
Type of cancers seen:
Early radiologists ______ cancer Thorotrast ______ cancer Radium dial painter _____ cancer Uranium miner ______ cancer Tinea capitis tx ______ cancer |
Early radiologists Skin cancer
Thorotrast Liver cancer Radium dial painter Bone cancer Uranium miner Lung cancer Tinea capitis tx Thyroid cancer |
|
what is the ratio of solid tumor to leukemia
|
5 to 1
|
|
how many ergs/gram is equal to 1 rad
|
100 erg/g
|
|
what are the major organs at risk for carcinogenesis (ie highest tissue weighting factor)
|
bone marrow, breast, colon, stomach
|
|
what is the units of integral dose
|
joules (given by Gray x kg of tissue)
|
|
describe the difference in interaction with neutron for low (< 6 MeV) and high energy
|
at lower energies - dominant process is elastic scattering (interaction with hydrogen atoms) - recoil protons
at higher energies - inelastic scattering - spalliation products |
|
what form is ATM active (monomer or dimer)
|
monomer (inactive dimer autophosphorylates)
|
|
D0 = D37 in what scenario
|
when n = 1
|
|
what is the tunel assay (dUTP nick end labeling) used for
|
to detect apoptosis (as well as DNA ladder, and Annexin V)
|
|
conversion of sphingomyelein to ceramide occurs at what part of the cell
|
cell membrane (involved with apoptosis (intrinsic pathway))
|
|
How does RBE change with low dose rate, with hypoxia, with more fractionation, with low alpha/beta
|
RBE increases (need more x-rays for same effect)
|
|
male: sterility dose for single dose and fractionated? Temporary sterility?
|
4-6 Gy (single dose) or 2 Gy fractionated
temporary: 15 cGy in 1 fx or 40 cGy fractionated (decreases 2 months later and recovers 6-1 year) |
|
women: sterility dose for single and fractionated
|
3 Gy in 1 fx vs 20 Gy fractionated
prepuberity - higher 12 Gy |
|
absolute mutation rate for humans estimated at…
|
0.2 % per SV
|
|
brca2 can be mutated in what condition
|
fanconi's anemia
|
|
dose limiting toxicity of misonidazole (hypoxic cell radiosensitizers)
|
peripheral neuropathy
|
|
what is the RBE for neutrons for cataract formation
|
20-50
|
|
whats the radiation dose flying transcontinetal
|
5 mrem
|
|
what are the sources of natural background radiation
|
cosmic radiation
terrestrial radionuclides |
|
diagnostic x-rays take up how much of 6 mSv/year total? Nuclear medicine? Radon? Natural back ground ( minus radon)
|
3 mSv; nuclear medicine 0.14 mSv
radon 2 mSv + 1 mSv (natural background) |
|
types of cell loss include
|
death from inadequate nutrition
apoptosis death from immunologic attack metastasis exfoliation |
|
in hydroxyurea technique to produce synchronously dividing cell population where is the block and does it kill cells?
|
block introduced at end of G1 and S-phase cells killed
|
|
what does the nominal standard dose system used for? Can it be used for late effects?
|
total dose for connective tissue related to number of fractions and overall txt time; only applicable to early tissues because based on skin data
|
|
cells plated into 96 well then treated with radiation or chemo and allowed to grow; stained --> only taken by surviving cells;
cell growth quantitated by measuring density of stain in well by a spectrophotometer can only be used for screening for activity |
colorimetric assay
|
|
petri dish coated with mixture of fibronectin and fibrinopeptides
known # of tumor cells plated into 24 well plates then grown for 2 weeks and stained cell growth quantified by measuring density of stain (DOES NOT MEASURE REPRODUCTIVE INTEGRITY) |
cell adhesive matris (CAM) assay
|
|
which cells are affected in radiation pneumonitis
|
type II pneumocytes
|
|
what is the neglibible individual dose (annual) as defined by NCRP
|
.01 mSV (1 mrem)
|
|
How can you measure levels of a specific RNA sequence under various cellular conditions?
|
northern blot (by intensity of the band)
|
|
proteins made and released by host cells in response to the presence of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, parasites or tumor cells. They allow for communication between cells to trigger the protective defenses of the immune system that eradicate pathogens or tumors.
|
interferons
|
|
these allow for detection of changes in gene expression levels, genomic gains and losses, as well as detection of mutation in DNA (single nucleotide polymorphism)
|
DNA microarrays
|
|
this strategy relies upon the production of the gene product (protein) within the cell allowing for a detectable/measurable phenotype. Therefore, requires the whole coding region!
Example: screening for a DNA repair gene that confers Resistance to radiation or chemical treatment. |
functional complementation
|
|
This method allows for the identification of regulatory sequences within a promoter that can be bound by transcription factors. Also allows one to measure activation/reduction in transcription factor binding.
A DNA fragment from a genomic clone or a corresponding synthetic oligonucleotide, which is suspected of containing regulatory sequences, is end-labeled and then mixed with a protein extract/purified protein. The binding of a protein to the DNA fragment reduces its mobility during gel electrophoresis. |
gel mobility shift assay
|
|
2-D Gel electrophoresis is used to analyze dna, rna or protein
|
protein
|
|
1. Clone the region of DNA thought to act as a promoter
2. Sequence the region 3. Digest with appropriate restriction enzymes 4. Ligate to reporter gene so that the reporter can be transcribed in the cells of interest 5. Transform cells of interest with the various promoter:reporter constructs 6. Measure reporter-gene transcription rates by assaying the reporter gene product |
promoter bashing
|
|
transgenic, knockout, scid, and nude mice. What exactly are they and what kinds of experiments they are useful for
|
Nude mouse - xenograft models
Scid mice- defective non-homologous repair (defective DNA-PK), therefore can study repair defects. DNA-PK is also important in V(D)J recombination, which is why Scid mice have immunodeficiency. Transgenic- expression of function Knockout to see loss of function or gain of function |
|
What is the mechanism of action of gleevec
|
Binds BCR-ABL receptors and induces apoptosis
|
|
What is NF-kB?
|
Transcription factor that is one of a number of anti-apoptotic agents. It inhibits caspase activation.
|
|
describe radiation's role in ceramide production
|
radiation --> ASMase activity increases which is responsible for conversion of sphingomyelin to ceramide
cells deficient in asmase can only generate ceramide from ceramide synthase which is negatively regulated by ATM |
|
APC - tumor supressor or oncogene
|
supressor
|
|
what's more sensitive arteries or veins
|
arteries
|
|
What is the role of basic fibroblast growth factor?
|
induces endothelial growth; Protects against microvascular damage after RT; inhibits RT induced apoptosis
|
|
does IL1 act as a radiosensitizer or protectant?
|
increasing both shoulder and D0 of survival curve - protectant
|
|
PDGF Beta decreases or increases damage as result of radiation
|
increases damage to vascular tissue
|
|
Lhermitte’s sign:
|
demyelinating injury several months after treatment, persists for a few months to a year, but reversible, threshold 35 Gy, does not predict myelitis
|
|
Which is not seen following liver irradiation? VOD, hepatitis, hepatomegaly, acities,
|
VOD and Hepatitis are part of Radiation Induced Liver Disease. Ascites can be seen as a consequence of VOD. Hepatomegaly generally is not seen.
|
|
does hyperbaric oxygen improve hypoxia?
|
yes by increasing distance oxygen can diffuse
|
|
mechanism of action for hypoxic cell sensitizers (nitroimidazoles)
|
can penetrate/diffuse further than O2 to reach hypoxic areas
- differential effect is based on the premise that while tumors contain hypoxic cells, normal tissues do not - nitroimidazoles act as both radiosensitizers and chemopotentiators for alkylating agents - mechanism of action = substitution for oxygen in radiation-induced free radical reactions (“oxygen mimic”) - only needs to be present in hypoxic regions of the tumor at the time of irradiation - results in an increase in the slope of the hypoxic cell survival curve |
|
what is spatial cooperation
|
radiation treats primary while chemotherapy treats metastases
|
|
MOA: amsacrine
|
topo II inhibitor
|
|
MOA: bleomycin
|
radiation-mimetic agent, more toxic to aerated cells since greater amount of damage
|
|
MOA: dactinomycin
|
inhibits RNA synthesis
|
|
MOA: doxorubicin
|
inhibits DNA synthesis and topo II
|
|
MOA: etoposide
|
topo II inhibitor
|
|
MOA: MTX, 5 FU
|
MTX - folic acid analog competes for DHFR
5FU - inhibits thmidylate synthetase |
|
MOA: topotecan, irinotecan, camptothecin
|
topo I inhibitor
|
|
generally are alkylating agents, antibiotics, and cisplatin cell-cycle specific or nonspecific
|
nonspecific
|
|
what type of chemo agen has a concave upward doseresponse curve
|
antibiotics ( - mycin's)
|
|
are taxanes and vinca alkaloids cell cycle specifice or nonspecific? Cytarabine and 5-azacytidine? Hydroxurea?
|
all cell cycle specific
|
|
what's defective in fanconi's anemia
|
HRR BRCA2
|
|
do u see less thermotolerance with low or high temp? Thermotolerance assoc with step up (progressive higher temps) or step down (start high and go to lower temp)?
|
high
step up |
|
most common side-effect of TBI? Dose limiting toxicity?
|
cataracts most common; pulmonary and kidney toxicity dose limiting
|
|
what is the range of neutron and RBE for lower energy and high energy
|
for low energy RBE ~ 10 (5-15); for high energy ~2
|
|
what causes obstruction of intestinal tract following irradiation
|
fibrosis
|
|
is basic fibroblastic growth factor anti or pro apoptotic
|
anti-apoptotic
|
|
what cells have pro-apototic tendency
|
serous acinar cells, oocytes, crypt cell and lymphocytes
|
|
egfr activation - pro or anti apoptotic
|
anti-apoptotic
|
|
PI-3K - pro or anti apoptotic
|
pro-apoptotic
|
|
TNFR-1, Fas/CD95, TRAIL receptors
|
extrinistic pathway for apoptosis;
|
|
DNA-PK, ATM, ATR, mTOR are all part of what family
|
PIKK family
|
|
farnyltransferase has what relation to RAS
|
stimulate (so there is a push for farnyltransferase inhibitors which inhibits ras)
|
|
is ras involved in ATM activation
|
NO
|
|
ras is pro or anti cell cycle
|
PRO; via Raf-Mek-MapK/erk pathway (leads to more cyclin D1 expresion);
Ral GDS (inhibits apoptosis) JND (inhibits p53) |
|
mTOR - pro or anti cell survival
|
pro survival
use inhibitors to radiosensitize and slow growth (- limus) |
|
MDM2, COP1, PIRH2, JNK
|
all down regulate p53
|
|
14-3-3σ and GADD45
|
inhibit CDK1 - cyclin B --> G2 arrest (both are activated by p53)
|
|
cdc25c
|
activates CDK1-cyclin B
|
|
chk1/chk2
|
activates p53; also inhibits cdc25A
|
|
tumor suppressor or oncogene: PTCH
|
tumor suppressor (gorlin - skin, medullo)
|
|
tumor suppressor or oncogene: CDKN2A
|
tumor suppressor (melanoma)
|
|
tumor suppressor or oncogene: MEN1
|
tumor supp (parathyroid, pituitary, islet)
|
|
tumor suppressor or oncogene: NF2
|
tumor supp (meningioma, acoustic neuroma)
|
|
tumor suppressor or oncogene: MET
|
oncogene
|
|
tumor suppressor or oncogene: ABL
|
oncogene
|
|
tumor suppressor or oncogene: BRAF
|
oncogene
|
|
tumor suppressor or oncogene: myc
|
ONCOGENE
|
|
tumor suppressor or oncogene: MDM2
|
oncogene
|
|
order of decrease for CBC (granulocytes, platelets, erythrocytes, lymphocytes)
|
lymphocytes > granulocytes > thrombocytes > erythrocytes
|
|
what organ is the least tolerant to re-treatment; and show least recovery following RT
|
kidney
|
|
Survival curves with small alpha/beta ratios are expected to have curve shapes best described by
|
Curves will have a flat initial slope followed by a steep terminal slope
|
|
cdc2
|
The cdc2 protein is a kinase that phosphorylates serine and threonine residues in target proteins and combines with cyclin A and B in order to undergo a conformational change to activate the kinase site of the cyclinB-cdc2 complex.
|
|
Which proteins are part of the apoptosome?
|
Apaf-1, cytochrome c, and caspase 9
|
|
bcl-xs - pro or antiapoptotic
|
pro-apoptotic
|
|
relationship btw PARP and apoptosis
|
The overactivation of PARP may deplete the stores of cellular NAD+ and induce a progressive ATP depletion, since glucose oxidation is inhibited, and necrotic cell death. In this regard, PARP is inactivated by caspase-3 cleavage (in a specific domain of the enzyme) during programmed cell death.
PARP is found in the cell’s nucleus. The main role is to detect and signal single-strand DNA breaks (SSB) to the enzymatic machinery involved in the SSB repair. PARP activation is an immediate cellular response to metabolic, chemical, or radiation-induced DNA SSB damage. incresing PARP activity correlates with increas apoptosis |
|
p14
|
The gene product p14 binds to mdm2 protein and prevents ubiquitination of p53 protein. The result is the stabilization of p53 protein and ultimately an increase in its concentration. Therefore, p14 functions as a tumor suppressor by inhibiting the inhibitor of p53.
|
|
what is the expected cell loss factor for a slow recovery tissue versus a high growth tumor
|
slow recovery - high cell loss factor (approximates to 1)
high rate of growth - low cell loss factor |
|
with acute hyperthermia > 45 degrees do you see a change to the shoulder? What about with 40-43 degrees?
|
steepening of xray survival curve; no change to shoulder
with lower temperature: removal of shoulder |
|
Electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA)
|
feed in fragments of DNA that resemble promotor and then radioactive labeled then mix with cell lysate (bunch of protein) then run on gel; then if protein attaches then can see shift in gel runing;
monitors protein that binds to DNA |
|
Rnase protection assay
|
assess binding of proteins to RNA to prevent nuclease cleavage
|
|
can RT-PCR be used to assess gene expression
|
yes
|
|
two-hybrid screen looks at what
|
protein protein interaction
|
|
which can u use the whole genome for : RT PCR or expression array
|
expression array
|
|
2D gel electrophoresis - dna or protein
|
protein
|
|
bind to and inhibit the transcription of specific genes and/or they can silence cytoplasmic mRNAs by inhibiting translation ; sized 25 nucleotide
|
siRNAs and miRNAs
|
|
whats denser polyactrylamide gels versus agarose gels? Which is used for small DNA?
|
polyacrylamide (used for fine separation)
|
|
ELISA
|
well plates; want to measure cytokines or other proteins - antibody in the well plates put in the serum of patient
another antibody will be added that binds if there is a primary antibody-protein interaction |
|
subtractive hybridization input
|
compares amounts of mRNA in different samples
|
|
is the RNA transcribed from DNA translated directly on the ribosome
|
no it undergoes the first step to go from RNA of whole genome to post processing to remove introns
|
|
Dnase I footprinting
|
assess binding of proteins to DNA to prevent nuclease cleavage
|
|
transfer of a genet to a mutant cell in order to determine whether doing so restores the normal phenotype
|
functional complementation
|
|
what interaction does phage display
|
protein-protein
|
|
what wavelength is considered ionizing
|
10^-7 (less than 10^-6)
|
|
which of the following are sensitive to XRT: XP, Cockaynes, Werners, Blooms, HNPCC
|
trick; none
|
|
if 2 cell lines with difference alpha/beta ratios have the same D10 for a single dose. What would you expect the change in D10 if you fractionated it (assuming alpha beta was low for 1 and high for the other)?
|
the low alpha beta D10's would increase
the high alpha beta would not change |
|
how does OER change for high doses? For low dose rate?
|
for high doses - OER increases (oxygen more effective for high doses - ie more resistant part of curve)
for low dose rate - OER decreases (on the alpha portion of the curve - oxygen not doing much) |
|
how do u calculate the % hypoxic cells in a tumor using animals
|
SF of air breathing animals / SF of nitrogen breathing animals
|
|
what does hypoxia do to p53?
|
apoptosis of p53 wild type cells, gene amplification, genomic instability in p5# mutated cells and increased metastatic potentials (increas in p53 mutant cell pop w/ hypoxia because wild type die via apoptosis
|
|
which of the following is a pure beta emitter : I-131 or Y-90
|
Y-90 (zeralin)
|
|
in the dilution assay how do you calculate the survival faction of the irradiated cells using the TD50 (total dose/# of cells to infect 50% of the recipient animals)
|
TD50 control / TD 50 irradiated
|
|
epo trials demonstrated what affect on cancer patients survival
|
deleterious
|
|
18F perfluorocarbon emulsion is used to assay what?
|
tumor blood flow
|
|
if growth fraction = 1 then what does Tpot equal to? If GF = 0?
|
GF = 1 (Tpot = Tc)
GF = 0 (Tpot = infinity) |
|
are mTOR inhibitors radiosensitizers
|
yes
|
|
ATM's control of check points through what mediators: G1/S, G2/M, and S phase
|
G1/S - inhibition of MDM2, activation of p53 and Chk2/1
G2/M - activation of Chk2/Chk1, p53 and inhibition of MDM2 S phase - Nbs1 and SMC1 BRCA1 is a substrate as well |
|
most radiosensitive cell class in Casarett system? Rubin
|
Casarett
vegetative intermitotic -> diff intermit -> rever post-mitotic -> fixed post-mitotic Rubin undiff stem -> stem -> reverting mature -> fixed/functional mature |
|
CNS changes post radiation affect gray or white matter
|
white; demyelination, vasculopathies, necrosis
|
|
when is radiation pneumonitis seen? Fibrosis?
|
1-6 months for pneumonitis; 6 months for fibrosis
|
|
when boron is irradiated with neutron what are the products
|
lithium and alpha particles
|
|
amsacrine - topo I or II
|
II (just like etoposide)
|
|
in a isobologram analysis what does the straight line represent
|
additive; below represents synergism; above reflect anatgonism
|
|
use of pentoxyfylline
|
prevent radiation induced fibrosis
|
|
most common cancer seen in chernobyl? Japanese A-bomb? Marshall islands? Tonsils?
|
chernobyl thyroid
japan - bladder? marshall island - thyroid tonsil: thyroid |
|
leukema vs solid - which follwos the linear quadratic absolute risk
|
leukemia ; (solid - linear relative risk model - base rate multiplied by relative risk)
|
|
at what age does the fetus take up iodine
|
10 weeks
|
|
how much (%) does radon take of annual effective dose? Nuclear medicine? Natural background (minus radon)?
|
radon 30%; nuclear 0.14 mSv; natural (- radon) : 1 mSv
diagnostic 3 mSV |
|
for emergency dose should not exceed
|
500 mSv
|
|
LET value for neutrons (energy average)? LET for 250 kv x-rays? 150 Mev protons?
|
100 neutrons; 2 (250 kvp x-rays; 0.5 (protons)
units: keV/micrometer |
|
the tunel assay is used for detecting what?
|
apoptosis (specifically DNA fragmentation) - deoxynucleotidyl transferease mediated deoxyuridine triphosphate nick end labeling
|
|
what does BOLD MRI imaging detect
|
changes in paramagnetic deoxyhemoglobin which represents a very noninvasive measurement of hypoxia (BOLD - blood oxygen level dependent)
|
|
tissues with high capacity for clonogen migration from outside the irradiation field tend to be those that have FSUs arrange in _____( series or parallel) or those structurally ____ (defined or undefined)
|
series (intestinal epithelim, spinal cord)
undefined (skin) |
|
whats the diff btw ion pair and free radical
|
ion pair represents electron and free radical whereas free radical is the unpaired electron molecule alone
|
|
with increasing dose of radiation the formation of DSBs becomes more linear or linear quadratic
|
with high enough dose becomes linear
|
|
when are chromosome/chromotid abnormalities observed? What's one example of an abnormality that could be observed in interphase?
|
majority seen in mitosis; exception is micronuclei which result from acentric fragment that cell forms nuclei
|
|
with a cell line with a large "n" what would happen to D0 if I increase fraction size
|
it would decrease
|
|
is mental retardation induction deterministic or stochastic
|
deterministic
|
|
if deficient in MRE11 what disease? BLM helicase? WRN helicase? A-G mismatch/BRCA2? Artemis?
|
MRE11 - ataxia-telangiectasia-like disorder
BLM - bloom's WRN - werner's A-G mismatch/BRCA2 - fanconi's Artemis - SCID |
|
in regions of hypoxia describe what happnes to functional lymphatics and interstitial fluid pressure
|
decreased lymphatics
increased interstitial fluid pressure |
|
in absence of angiogenesis tumors would be expected to only reach a diameter of …
|
2 mm
|
|
hypoxia has what affect on BRCA1
|
repressed (leads to less DNA repair HRR); still hypoxia activates RAD51
|
|
what happens to the cell loss factor after the start of radiotherapy
|
appears to decreas --> slowing tumor regression
|
|
MAPK and PI3K are both dounstream targets of what
|
RAS signaling; results in cell viability
|
|
would RFLP be useful in gene expression?
|
no because only measures change in DNA base sequence
|
|
RAF, MEK, JNK, RAC/RHO, PLC and Pi3k/AKT
|
Ras targets
|
|
wortmanin is a ____ inhibitor
|
PI3K
|
|
what do I have to take a tumor down to with regards to clonogenic cells to have the chance of cure to be 37%
|
10^0 = 1
|
|
are patients with deficient NER characterized by cancer proneness? What are the 2 prototype diseases?
|
NO; XP and cockaynes
|
|
viruses that can inactivate p53 include…
|
HPV, SV40, and adenovirus ( NOT EBV)
|
|
how is p53 activated in response to DNA damage
|
phosphorylation or acetylation
|
|
what is the threshold for the emeitc response of RT? Detectable change in blood count?
|
1 Gy
|
|
onset of vomiting can be used as a indicator of life-threatening whole body RT; what time frame do u use?
|
within 4 hours indicates life threatening dose
|
|
who is more sensitive to induction of radiation induced sterility - younger or older women
|
older women.
|
|
the most radiosensitive cells in the heart are…
|
the vascular endothelial cells
|
|
order these in terms of dose (and time to onset) - temp erythema, moist desquamtion, dry desquamation, temporary and permanent epilation
|
2 Gy - 1 day - temporary erythema
3 Gy - 3 weeks - temp epilation 7 Gy - 3 weeks - permanent epilation 14 Gy - 4 weeks - dry desquamation 18 Gy - 4 weeks - wet desquamation |
|
what types of drugs can be used to treat radiation nephropathy
|
ACE inhibitors
|
|
what is the life span of mature spermatids
|
67 days
|
|
TGF beta - has a ____ effect on epithelial cell proliferation
|
inhibitory; but increases prolif of mesenchymal cells and extracellular matrix and involved in radiation fibrosis
|
|
the TD5 of the cspinal cord as a function of length changes how
|
initially decreases with increasing cord length, then remains relatively constant
|
|
in the kidney, the tolerance to retreatment ______ (increases or decreases) with time; with treatment how does kidney differ from other tissues with regards to inflammation
|
decreases (which indicates continous progression of renal injury)
does not experience increase in inflammatory cells |
|
how does photodynamic therapy work? Is it toxic to hypoxic cells?
|
photosensitizing agent, oxygen and light ; agent - hemotoprophyrin; light wavelength is 600-900 nm
not efficacious to hypoxic cells |
|
what drug class mediates synthesis of eiconsanoids from arachidonic acid
|
COX-2 inhibitors
|
|
tipifarnib mechanism of action
|
inhibitor of farnesyl transferase
|
|
why is bleomycin more toxic to oxygenated cells than to hypoxic cells
|
role of molecular oxygen; redox reactions involving metas and O2
|
|
whats a pro drug (versus bioreductive drugs)
|
hypoxic cell sensitizers are bioreductive meaning they get converted in hypoxic cells
prodrugs get converted in the liver (amifostine) |
|
what drug has been used to reduce the incidence and severity of oral mucositis?
|
palifermin (keratinocyte growth factor); amifostine has shown to reduce the incidence xerostomia (not oral mucositis)
|
|
overgaards metaanalysis of hypoxic cell radiosensitizers or oxygen showed what
|
improvement of survival and tumor control
|
|
what phase does hydroxurea work in
|
s phase
|
|
estimated risk for a mutation being produced in the child of an irradiated individual is…
|
0.2 % per SV
|
|
CGH arrays are used for genome-wide detection of chromosomal gains or losses
|
….
|
|
genomic DNA arrays can be used to study epigenetic changes; low abundance RNAs cannot be used because of high background signals; expression profiles btw cancer and normal cells differ by a lot; they are subject ot inconsistencies
|
….
|
|
1 Gy of irradiation to the testis results in a nadir of sperm count at ___ months
|
2
|
|
G2 block is what minute per cGy
|
1 min / cGy
|
|
Dicentrics
- dose for low LET radiations delivered at a high dose rate - dose for low LET radiations at low dose rate |
linear-quadratic - low LET deliverate at a high dose rate
linear - low LET at low dose rate |
|
as age increases active bone marrow is increasingly located in the ______ (axial or appendicular)
|
axial
|
|
nimarozle best for single or mult fraction
|
single - reoxygenation leaves drug useless
|
|
hierarchical tissue - what accounts for most acute RT effects
|
stem cell depletion
|
|
minium dose at 2 Gy/fx causes late kidney toxicity (nephropathy)
|
25-30 Gy
|
|
wither's head and neck extra dose to combat repopulation in H&N
|
0.6 Gy (60 cGy/day)
|
|
the single-hit, multitarget model does not provide a good fit for (low or high) radiation doses
|
high doses (overestimates)
|
|
exposing post irradiation cells to saline versus drug that prevents cell cycling does what to PLD
|
fixation of PLD in the drug treated cells which results in lower SF
|
|
bleomycin works in hpoxic or oxgenated cells
|
increases damage fixation in presence of oxygen
|
|
clonogenic cell survival is defined as the ability of cells to form colonies of at lease ___ cells
|
50
|
|
proton therapy has higher or lower integral dose
|
lower integral dose
|
|
mechanism of action for tirapazamine
|
hypoxic cells reduce TPZ -> free radicals
generation of DNA DSB interference with DNA replication poisinging of topo II |
|
annual total effective dose limit to an individual member of the general public is…
|
1 mSv
|
|
gemcitabine mechanims of action
|
cytidine analogue competes for uptake (inhibits DNA polymerase and ribonucleoside reductase)
when mismatch genes inactive - abolishes cytotoxic and radiosensitizing effect of gem |
|
dose rate effect is most pronounced at what dose range
|
.01 - 1 Gy / min
1 - 100 cGy / min |
|
dirty bomb in large city uses what estimate for fatal cancers
|
5.0 x 10^-2 cancer/SV
|
|
survival curve of population of cells with hypoxic sells demonstrates a break in the curve; the curve demonstrates a shallow or steeper slope and a lower or higher D0
|
Do is higher reflecting increased resistance and the slope is shallower
|
|
annual effective dose from radon gas
|
2 mSv
|
|
how do PARP inhibitors work
|
PARP1 is a protein that is important for repairing single-strand breaks ('nicks' in the DNA). If such nicks persist unrepaired until DNA is replicated (which must precede cell division), then the replication itself will cause double strand breaks to form.[citation needed]
classic cleaved target apoptosis Drugs that inhibit PARP1 cause multiple double strand breaks to form in this way, and in tumours with BRCA1, BRCA2 or PALB2 [6] mutations these double strand breaks cannot be efficiently repaired, leading to the death of the cells. Normal cells that don't replicate their DNA as often as cancer cells, and that lacks any mutated BRCA1 or BRCA2 still have homologous repair operating, which allows them to survive the inhibition of PARP.[7][8] Some cancer cells that lack the tumor suppressor PTEN may be sensitive to PARP inhibitors because of downregulation of Rad51, a critical homologous recombination component, although other data suggest PTEN may not regulate Rad51.[3][9] Hence PARP inhibitors may be effective against many PTEN-defective tumours[4] (e.g. some aggressive prostate cancers). |
|
whats a weaker carcinogen radiation or chemo
|
generally radiation
|
|
late-responding normal tissues have shallower initial slopes than for early-responding tissues
|
…
|
|
what is mitotis promoting factor
|
cylin B/cdk1
|
|
where is ras located and what happens after farnelystransferase gets hold of it
|
ras located in cytoplasm; following farnelysation --> goes to cell membrane
|
|
OER in low dose rate vs high dose rate
|
2 vs 3 Gy
|
|
cachexia is assoc with what cytokine
|
TNF- alpha
|
|
the higher the LET what is more likely spurs , blobs, or short track
|
track
|
|
when spurs, blobs and short tracks overlap, this results in…
|
multiply damaged sites (clustered lesions)
|
|
minimum dose detected by dicentrincs in lymphocytes is
|
25 cGy
|
|
how can acentric fragments be used to estimate dose
|
by looking for micronuclei
|
|
in HRR what complex causes the initial incision and removal to create a single-stranded region
|
rad50-mre11-nbs1 complex
|
|
in NHEJ what binds to the broken DNA ends
|
KU70/80
|
|
in NHEJ what has endo/exo nuclease activity to pair away regions of mismatch in the microhomology hydrogen bonding that leaves some single stranded ends
|
artemis
|
|
PARP, DNA glycosylase, AP endonuclease, DNA plymerase Beta, ligase III, and XRCC1 are involved in what
|
Base Excision Repair
|
|
Lig 4, ATR-Sekel, RS-SCID and AT-like disorder (MRE 11) are syndromes in which individuals are radio _____ (sensitive vs resistant)
|
sensitive
|
|
what is the predominant process for DSB repair in human cells?
|
NHEJ
|
|
what corrects interstrand crosslinks
|
recombinational repair (HRR, or NHEJ)
|
|
what corrects AG/TC mismatch, insertion, deletion
|
mismatch
|
|
when does D0 = D37
|
when there is no shoulder or n=1; survival follows single hit kinetics
|
|
what phase does apoptosis often occur in
|
interphase (G0)
|
|
which pathway results in release of cytochrome C from the mitochondria
|
intrinisic pathway -- cyt C then combines with pro-caspase 9 and ATP in the apoptosome resulting in the formation of active caspase 9
|
|
paired survival curve in which animals are irradiated eitehr while breathing air or under hypoxic conditions looks like what
|
y axis - logarithmic fx of cells; x axis - dose
steep portion initially (aerobic cells dead) then a break where there is a shallow portion that reflects the hypoxic cells by extrapolating back to the y-axis can estimate the percent hypoxic cells |
|
which is a pure beta emitter: 90Y or 131I
|
90Y (Zevalin)
|
|
in the percent labeled mitoses approach with time to 50% point represents what?
|
G2 + 0.5M
TG2 + 0.5 Tm |
|
(ln2)(Tc) / ln(1+GF)
|
Tpot
|
|
what does Tpot assume cell loss factor to be
|
Missing Answer
|
|
what viruses can result in inhibition of p53
|
SV40 large T antigen, papillomavirus E6 protein and adenovirus E1B
|
|
TRK - oncogene/tumorsupressor
|
oncogene
|
|
MDM2 - oncogene/tumor supressor
|
oncogene
|
|
VHL, PTCH, CDH1, APC, CKDN2A (p16INK4A and P14ARF), MEN1, SMAD 4, and NF2 - all share what
|
tumor supressors
|
|
are oncogenes inherited in a pedigree
|
rarely since generally lethal (mutation dominant though)
|
|
BRAF oncogene is assoc with what type of cancer
|
melanoma
|
|
epigenetic regulation via DNA methylation, histone deacetylation and gene silencing through miRNA is important for…
|
silensing genes (tumor supressors ; NOT oncogenes)
|
|
p16INK4a and p14ARF function by promotin what
|
retinoblastoma (RB) and p53 transcription factor respectively
p16INK4a inhibits cyclin D dependent kinases - CDK 4 and 6 p14ARF antagonizes the function of p53 negative regulator, MDM 2 |
|
SMC1 - is it pro or anti cell cycle
|
anti cell cycle stimulated by ATM via Nbs1
|
|
prodromal TBI reflect 0.5-1Gy dose
easy fatigability, anorexia, nausea and vomiting vs fever, hypotension, immediate diarrhea |
low vs high doses
|
|
what happens to latent period if u increase dose
|
decrease latent period
|
|
what type of tissue is sensitive to large dose to a small volume: serial or parallel
|
serial
|
|
edema in the alveolar wall, infiltration by mononuclear cells and macrophages, and desquamation of the alveolar epithelium all characterize what
|
lung fibrosis (occurs > 6 months)
|
|
anemia, azotemia and increased blood pressure characterize what
|
radiation nephropathy ()
|
|
what is the main way to spare the parotid
|
decrease the volume irradiatied (since fractionation results in relatively little sparing)
|
|
spinal cord myelopathy involves what cells
|
endothelial cells, oligodendrocytes and macrophages
|
|
gonadal endocrine function of the testes occurs at what dose range
|
20-30 Gy
|
|
the radiobiological target of the testes is identified as what
|
type B spermatogonia
|
|
BED tumor experimental / BED tumor standard // BED complications experimental / BED complications standard
|
therapeutic ratio
|
|
actinomycin D concurrent with radiation - causes toxicity of what organ
|
lung
|
|
what drug is used to prevent radiation-induced fibrosis
|
pentoxifylline
|
|
contrast the toxicity of hypoxic cell radiosensitizers vs halogenated pyrimidines
|
hypoxic cell radiosensitizers - peripheral neuropathy (-azoles)
halogenated pyrimidines - photosensitivity (- deoxyuridine) |
|
drugs ending in -nib versus -mab
|
nib - small TKI
mab - monoclonal antibody |
|
ixabepilone works by what
|
binds to tubulin and promotes tubulin polymerization and microtubule stabilization, theraby arresting cells in the G2-M phase of the cell cycle
|
|
nelarabine works by how
|
antimetabolite - ara-G; disrupts DNA synthesis and induces apoptosis
clofarabine - inhibits ribonucleotide reductase |
|
romidepsin is an examble of what type of drug? Mechanism of action?
|
histone deacetylase inhibitor; results in hyperacetylation of histones which affects gene expression (since for expression cell must control the coiling and uncoiling of DNA around histones)
|
|
fulvestrant works how?
|
targets and degrades the estrogen receptors present in breast cancer cells (faslodex)
|
|
abarelix works how?
|
inhibits gonadotropin and related androgen production by directly and competitievely blocking receptors in the pituitary gland. Directly suppresses luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulatin hormone secretion and thereby reduces tesosterone
|
|
transducing tumors cells with cDNA with TNF and promoter for EGR which is turned on by the active oxygen species produced by radiation
|
radiogenetic therapy - radiation-inducible gene linked to a cytotoxic agent
|
|
cut offs used for 4-5% per SV versus 8-10% in risk of radiation-induced cancer
|
< 0.2 Sv or dose rate less than 0.1 SV/hr
|
|
txt of ankylosing spondylitis resulted in what type of cancer
|
leukeumia (NOT CLL)
|
|
does treatment with radioactive iodine cause increase in 2nd malignancies
|
no; has not been seen
|
|
when leukemias and solid tumors appear following irradiation in comparison to the general population
|
leukeumas appeared few years after irradiaiton but solid tumors appeared at same age as occurs spontaneously
|
|
are humans more sensitive to radiation than mice
|
no
|
|
was there an increase in genetic effects in children of A-bomb survivors
|
no
|
|
fetus begins to take up iodine at what age
|
10 weeks
|
|
what relation does thalidomide and angiogenesis have?
|
thalidomide is inhibitor of angiogenesis
|
|
what pathway does CAK have to do with
|
p53 pathway -> p21 -| CAK (CAK normal stimulates cdc2 and cyclin B)
|
|
when does the effective dose equal the equivalent dose
|
under conditions where the whole body is irradiated
|
|
does background radiation increase or decrease with altitude
|
increase with increasing altitude
|
|
if I increase initial heat dose will I get more or less thermotolerance
|
more
|
|
from the Japan population what is the estimated risk of fatal cancer
|
8% per SV
|
|
what is SDS detergent used for
|
to denature proteins
|