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711 Cards in this Set

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are x-rays and gamma rays directly or indirectly ionizing? Directly or indirectly acting?
indirectly ionizing and indirectly acting (2/3rd)
are neutrons directly or indirectly ionizing? Directly or indirectly acting?
indirectly ionizing but directly acting
What is the lifetime (in seconds) of OH radical and subsequent DNA radical
10^-9 seconds and 10^-5 seconds
what is the speed of light in (m/s) and its relationship with wavelength and frequency
c (3x10^8 m/s) = wavelength (lambda) x frequency (v)
order the following in terms of increasing energy? Wavelength? And frequency? (microwave, visible light, UV, x-rays, infrared, and radiowaves)
RMIVUX (increasing energy)
XUVIMR (increasing wavelength)
RMIVUX (increasing frequency)
relationship btw energy and plank's constant
energy = planks constant (h) x frequency
relationship btw wavelength in (angstroms) and energy (in keV)? How much is 1 angstrom in meters?
lambda (angstroms) = 12.4/energy (keV)
1 angstrom = 10^-10 m
in photoelectric interactions what is the energy of the ejected orbital electron
Kinetic energy = hv (energy of incident photon) - binding energy of electron (Eb)
directly or indirectly ionizing: alpha particles, electrons, gamma rays, neutrons, x-rays
directly - charged particles (alpha, electron, protons)
indirect - uncharged (x and gamma, neutrons)
how is compton process related to atomic number
it is INDEPENDENT OF ATOMIC NUMBER
what type of aberration occurs in prereplication (G1): chromosome or chromotid?
chromosome
what type of aberration occurs in postreplication (late S or G2): chromosome or chromotid?
chromotid
anaphase bridge is what type of aberration: chromosome or chromotid?
chromotid
incidence of radiation-induced aberrations is a what type of function of dose
linear-quadratic
what lowest dose can be detected with peripheral lymphocytes
0.25 Gy
DNA is positive or negative charged?
negative
what is D0? Estimated for mammals? Estimated # of base damage, SSB, and DSB per cell?
dose that induces 1 lethal event per cell (average) resulting in 37% cell survival
mammals = 1-2 Gy
Base > 1000, SSB 1000, and DSB 40
dicentrics and rings are what type of chromosome aberration
chromosome
what happens to cell once telomere finished
senescence
if I was running a gel electrophoresis what pH would I want the solution to be in if I wanted to study single strand breaks
alkaline
order these in terms of increasing ion pairs, energy and damage: blob, track and spur
spur -> blob -> short track
telomerase is what type of enzyme
reverse transcriptase
how do u calculate survival fraction
SF = (# of colonies counted)/(# of cells seeded x plating efficiency)

plating efficiency = # of colonies counted/ number of cells seeded in optimal conditions
linear quadratic equation of survival fraction
SF = e^(- alpha*D - beta*D^2)
what does the alpha/beta ratio signify in one sentence
the dose at which the linear and quadratic components of cell killing are equal
which is linear quadratic: mitotic or apoptotic death
mitotic
which has a dose-rate effect: mitotic or apoptotic death
mitotic
what is the equation of D10 with relation to D0
D10 = D0 * 2.3
what does "n" (the extrapolation number) represent? How does it change with the shoulder?
represents the number of targets in a cell to be damaged to lose clonogenicity
increase shoulder (narrow) - small n (neutrons)
increase n - broad shoulder (x -rays)
what are the units of alpha/beta
gray
how are n, Dq and D0 related
log n = Dq/D0
how is D0 and SF related
SF = e^(-D/D0)
do cells with significant SLDR capacity have a low or high alpha/beta
low
D0 is what relation to e (logarithmic)
D0 = e^ (- 1)

since Probability = e ^(-n) ; with n representing # of clonogenic tumor cells
Fowler estimated that 1 log increas in cell kill increased the cure rate by how much
15%
1 cm3 (1 gram) of tumor cells contains how many cells
10^9
what part of the cell cycle accounts for cell cycle times between species
G1
order the following in terms of most radiosensitive to resistant - last S, early S, G2, M, G1?
G2/M < G1 < early S < late S
how does OER vary across cell cycle phases
lower for cells in G1 than in S
describe relationship btw dna damage, atm, p53, and p21 and cdks
dna damage -> ATM -> p53 -> p21/waf1 which inhibits cdks which then prevent phosphorylation and keeping rb hypophosphorylated ( activation rb and e2f)
does p53 have a role in G2-> M check point
yes
what cyclins are synthesized in G1
D and E
what cyclins are synthesized in S
A
what cyclins are synthesized in G2
A and B
what cyclins are synthesized in M
B
what does E2F do (clue: something with Rb)
phosphorylate Rb (which actually places it in inactive - so cell can move through G1)
cdk 4 is in what check point
G1-> S
what happens when Rb is unphosphorylated? What phosphorylates Rb?
bound to E2F and cyclin A in G1 which inhibits progression. Cyclin D and cdk 4 complex phosphorylates Rb keeping it inactive
is p16 pro or inhibitory of the cell cycle
inhibitory; it inhibits cdk4 with then doesn't allow phosphorylation of Rb (which keeps it active)
cdk1 is in what check point
G2->M
in cells with very long G1's whats more radioresistant early G1 or late G1?
early G1 > late G1
what are 2 possible explanations for the variation in sensitivity of the cell cycle?
change in the amount and shape of DNA
varying levels of sulfhydryl compounds (radioprotectors)
what form of repair is done at the G1 phase of the cell cycle
non-homologous recombination
what form of repair results in immune deficiency if defective: HRR or NHEJ
NHEJ
what is the name of the disease that has decreased ATR gene expression
Seckel's disease
are patients with ataxia telangiectasia sensitive to ionizing radiation
YES; autosomal recessive; increased risk of lymphomas;
artemis is used in which type of repair HRR or NHEJ and if it is defective results in what immune condition
NHEJ; SCID
which of the following are radiosensitive: SCID, NIJMEGEN BREAKAGE SYNDROME, FANCONI ANEMIA, ATAXIA TELANGIECTASIA, AND XERODERMA PIG
all except fanconis (sometimes) and xeropigmentosum (never)
what is the component of radiation damage that can be modified by manipulation of the postirradiation conditions called
potentially lethal damage
does PLDR occur with neutron irradiation
non-homologous recombination
what explains the increase in survival if dose rate is reduced
repair of sublethal damage
what is the benefit of iridium
small size and low photon energy (shielding)
what sites has radiolabeld immunoglobulin used
hepatoma and hosgkin's lymphoma
incorrect base (example adenosine with incorrect base) is repaired with what type of repair? What happens when defective (radiosensitivity)?
base excision; increase in mutation rate but not cellular radiosensitivity;
what type of repair fixes bulky adducts such as pyrimidine dimers? What happens with defective?
nucleotide excision repair; no change in radiosensitivity but change in UV sensitivity and alkalating agents; example disease xeroderma pigmentosum
what are the key players in NHEJ?
Ku80, DNA-PKc, Artemis? XRCC4
what is VDJ recombination (what type of repair does it show up) and why is it important
NHEJ; recombination important in developing antibodies; reason for SCID development
what are the key players in HRR?
ATM/ATR, BRCA 1/2, NBS, MRE11, Rad50/51/52, MMS, MU581
what represents a transitional role btw HRR and NHEJ
single strand annealing
sublethal damage repair is actually repairing what
double strand breaks
describe how a tissue's capacity for SLDR corresponds to the cell survival curve
increased SLDR means increased Beta which means low alpha/beta, which means broad shoulder
what dose rate range is SLDR most pronounced
1-100 cGy/min
describe the reason for the inverse dose rate effect
a lowering of the dose allows cells that were arrested in G1 to proceed but then get caught at G2 (which is a more the more sensitive cycle)
effective half life equation
effective half life used in radionuclides; takes into account half life of radioisotope and biologic half life ; 1/te = 1/tp + 1/tb
continous irradiation would be more effective for long cell cycle cells or short cell cycle
long cell cycle (reassortment)
what is the disadvantage of HDR
less sparing of late normal tissues
the variation of total dose in comparing different dose rates is larger for late or early tissues
late
what are the disadvantages of I131 when compared to yttrium90
lower tumor and higher total body dose/toxicity since it also emits gamma rays (whereas yttrium only emits beta-ray)
define OER in words
ratio of doses administered under hypoxic to aerated conditions needed to achieve the same biological effect (hypoxic/aerated) (usually in the ange of 2-4
how does the OER for neutrons compare to x-rays
it is lower for higher LET radiation (1.6)
how does OER vary across cell cycle phases
it is lower for more radiosensitive phases (lower OER for G1 than S)
what is the level of oxygen in percent and mm Hg required for sensitivity halfway btw hypoxia and full oxygenation? What percent do u see flattening?
0.5% or 3 mm Hg; 3% results in flattening (same level as 100% full oxic cells)
what are the two types of hypoxia and their etiologies?
chronic - limited diffusion range of oxygen through respiring tissue
actue - temporary closing of tumor blood vessels
what are eppendorf probes used for
to measure oxygen
describe the "slow" and "fast" component of reoxygenation
slow - reoxygenates chronically hypoxic cells as tumor shrinks
fast - reoxygenation from open/close blood vessel
what is the diffusion distance approx for oxygen through tissue
70 micrometers
what type of agent is used in noninvasive imaging of hypoxic areas?
2-nitroimdiazole
what two tumor sites have demonstrated the link of hypoxia and tumor progression
cervix and sarcoma
describe the interaction of HIF-1 in response to O2 and anoxic areas (mention hydroxylation and an important downstream target)
in prescence of oxygen, HIF1 alpha is hydroxylated which causes it to bind VHL (vonhippaulindau protein) this causes ubiquitin degradation of HIF1 alpha

in response to hypoxia -> HIF1alpha is not hydroxylated and binds to its beta subunit and then upregulates genes involved in angiogenesis, erythropoiesis, and tissue remodeling
what is the interaction of OER and dose rate (increased dose? Decrease dose rate)
OER increase with increasing dose
OER decrease with decreasing dose rate
what is the average hypoxic fraction
15%
describe method for determining the radiation resistant fraction of tumor
asphyxiation of animal to create 100% hypoxic tumor; survival curve generated for both 100% hypoxic and room air; using difference in surviving fraction btw aerated conditions determines the resitance fraction
how are apoptosis and hypoxia related
in response to hypoxia -> p53 is upregulated which induces apoptosis;
which of the following are pro-angiogenic: angiopoietin, angiostatin, TNF alpha, prostaglandins, TGF beta, interferon alpha, beta, thrombospondin, endostatin?
angiopoietin, prostaglanding, TGFbeta, TNF alpha, VEGF

antiangiogenic: angiostatin, endostatin, trhombospondin
define RBE in words
dose of 250 kv xrays divided by dose of test radiation to produce the same effect
how does RBE change with increasing LET
it increases to a max at 100 kev/micromet then decreases
how does RBE change with increasing capacity for SLDR
increases ; in other words with survival curves with large shoulder, u see higher RBEs
how does OER change with increasing LET
decreases
150 MeV protons have an LET of what? 10 MeV ?
0.5 for high energy; 4.7 for lower energy
as dose is increased what happens to RBE
it decreases
as number of fractions increase what happens to RBE (also can be interpreted as decreasing dose rate)
RBE increases
as you increase energy of incident photon/particle, what happens to LET
it decreases
as you increase LET what happens to the shoulder
smaller and steeper
cerebrovascular syndrome results from what TBI dose and what onset
100 Gy, death in 24-48 hrs
gastrointestinal syndrome results from a TBI dose of what and in what timeframe
10 Gy; death in 5-10 days
hematopoietic syndrome results from TBI of what dose and what timeframe
2.5-5 Gy; death in 30-60 days
what is the LD50 for humans without medical intervention? With medical intervention?
3-4 Gy; with 6-7 Gy
what is the dose window over which bone-marrow transplants may be useful
8-10 Gy
what is the dose-reduction factor used to evaluate and what is the equation
used to evaluate radioprotectors: dose in presence of drug divided by the dose in absence of drug
describe the mechanism and pharmokinectics of amifostine
free radical scavenger; acts as prodrug - dephosphorylated by alkaline phosphatase to active form
what is the dose limiting toxicity of amifostine?
hypotension
what type of effect has a threshold dose, and whose severity increases with dose
deterministic (ex - cataracts)
what type of effect has a increasing probability with dose, no threshold, and dose not exhibit a dose-severity response
stochastic (ex - cancer)
what type of cancer was seen in radium dial painters? Ankylosing spondylitis? Children irradiated for benign cancers, thymus, or H&N? Fluoroscopies in TB patients in nova scotia?
bone cancers in dial painters
leukemia in anklosing spondylitis
thyroid cancer in children
breast cancer in Tb patients
due radiation induced malignancies tend to appear early, at same time, or later than spontaneous malignancies
same time
2 types of risk moels for radiation carcinogenesis: absolute and relative. Which one does BEIR use
relative risk
what is the excess cancer mortality per SV for LDR for the working population
4 x 10^-2 / Sv (5 for whole)
what is the excess cancer mortality per SV for HDR for the working population
8 x 10^-2 / Sv (10 for whole)
the dose response relationship for radiation-induced cancer is what relationship at low dosease and what shape at higher doses
linear at low, lin-quad at moderate doses
what type of leukemia's are seen with radiation induced
AML and CML (NOT CLL)
what is the genetic mutation doubling rate dose
1 Sv (1 Gy)
what response model is preferred for solid cancer? For leukemia?
solid - linear; leukemia - linear quadratic
permanent sterility dose in men? Single vs fractionated dose? Females?
6 gy single; 3 gy fractionated

females: 12 gy prepubertal to 2 Gy premenopausal
azoospermia and oligospermia doses
0.5 Gy and 0.15 Gy
what is the doublind dose required to double the spontaneous mutation incidence
1 Gy
ICRP estimate for hereditary risk of radiation is… (general) and working
0.2% per SV (0.1 % / SV for workin)
what is a robertsonian translocation
fusion of two chrmosomes
in humans, describe the lengths of preimplantation, organogenesis, and the fetal period
0-9 days: preimplantation
10 days - 6 weeks: organogenesis
6 - term: fetal period
which is permanent growth retardation: irradiation in the organogenesis phase or fetal period
fetal period
what results in neonatal death - preimplanation or organogenesis
organogenesis (death at the time of birth)
describe the timing of mental retardation and microcephaly: 0-7 weeks, 8-15 weeks, 16-25 weeks
microcephaly 0-7
both 8-15 (mental retardation most pronounced during this period)
mental retardation 16+
what is the excess absolute risk per gray of childhood cancer in fetus irradiation? What is the lowest dose that can cause an increase (and suggest therapeutic abortion)
6%, 0.1 Gy (10 cgy)
once pregnancy declared what is the maximum permissable dose to the fetus per month (NCRP)
0.5 mSv
with increasing dose what happens with the latency period to develop cataracts
decreases
how do dead cells get removed in the lens
they don't (unique feature)
minimum dose to produce cataract in single dose? Fractionated?
2 Gy; 10 Gy (fractionated)
what would suggest a cataract that is likely caused by radiation
originates from the posterior pole
what type of effect is cataracts: deterministic or stochastic? What happens with increasing dose?
deterministic; severity increases w/ dose (past threshold)
what are the 3 types of background radiation
cosmic rays, terrestial radiation, radionuclides present in background
where is cosmic radiation higher at the equator or at the poles
poles
what % of lung cancers are caused by radon?
10%
rank the following in terms of effective dose to the brain: CT, x ray, nuclear imaging, cerebral angiography
x ray, CT, nuclear, angiography
what parameter of CT's must be adjusted for kids
kV and mAs (smaller size)
erythema of the skin occurs at what dose and what etiology
permeable capillaries, 2 Gy
the loss of IQ in utero irradiation (points/sv)
30 points per SV
what is the typical dose (in mCi) for PET
10 mCi
what is genetically significant dose (GSD)
equivalent dose to gonads weighted for age, gender, & probability of having kids

dose to the gonads x # of children each member expected to have divided by # of people in the population
give Gray in rad and in erg
1 Gy = 100 rad (radiation absorbed dose)
1 rad = 100 erg/g
radiation weighting factor (Wr) is representative of ? What is the value for photons, electrons, protons, alpha particles, neutrons
RBE; photons, electrons 1; protons 2; alpha particles 20; neutrons up to 20
equivalent dose is in what unit (what is the old unit)
absorbed dose x weighting factor = Sievert (100 rem (rad equivalent man))
effective dose takes into account what?
takes into account tissue weighting factor (Wt); to account for unevenly distributed absorption of dose.
(BM, breast, colon, lung, stomach), (bladder, esophagus, gonads, liver, thyroid), (bone surface, brain, kidneys, salivary glands, skin) - order these groups in decreasing tissue weighting factor
(BM, breast, colon, lung, stomach .12) > (bladder, esophagus, gonads, liver, thyroid .05) > (bone surface, brain, kidneys, salivary glands, skin .01)
what is committed equivalent/effective dose used for
intergral over 50 years of equivalent/effective dose after intake of radionuclide
what is collective equivalent/effective dose used for; Units?
takes into account group or population; man-sievert or person-sievert
what is the % increase per seivert for severe mental retardation
40%/Sv (at 8-15 weeks)

after 15 weeks - 10%
what is the carcinogenesis per Sv for the general population (low doserate)
5%/Sv
what is the hereditary effects per Sv fo rhte general population
0.2%/Sv
no occupational exposure should be permitted before what age
18
under the NCRP what is the worker's lifetime effective dose per year and in lifetime
50 mSv per year; age x 10 mSv lifetime
what is the dose limit per year for the lens of the eye and the skin for workers? For gen public?
150 mSv and 500 mSv; 50 mSv
in special situations where you have to allow persons less than age 18 to work what is the annual effective dose limit
1 mSv
annual effective dose limit for members of the public (frequent) exposure? Infrequent?
1 mSv and 5 mSv
what is the remidial action level of radon by the EPA
148 Bq/m^3
what is the neglible individual dose considered
.01 mSv (1 mrem)
what is the average annual equivalent dose to monitored radiation workers
2 mSv
how does the ICRP annual dose limit differ from the NCRP? Which allows for more dose at a younger age?
the ICRP has a limit of 20 mSv per year over 5 years
the NCRP has a 10 mSv x age lifetimes
both have 50 mSv annuale limit
how does the ICRP pregnancy dose limit differ from the NCRP
ICRP: 2 mSv to the surface of the woman's abd;
NCRP: monthly limit of 0.5 mSv
enzymes that cleave DNA after recognizing a specific sequence. Those moste useful for constructing recombinant molecules leave a "sticky" end - a single-strand overhang of two-four nucleotides that can pair with a complementary strand
restriction endonucleases
autonomously replicating DNA molecule into which foreign DNA fragments are inserted and then propagated in a host cell. Vectors include plasmids, bacteriophage, bacterial artificial chromosomes, and viruses
vector
PCR adaptation to analyze RNA expression; amplify RNA w/ reverse transcriptase than add primers and separate on gel electrophoresis
reverse transcription PCR
very sensitive PCR technique that enables high-throughput nucleic acid analysis and quantification; amplification nad measurement take place in same vessel using fluorescent oligo specific for gene of interest
quantitative real-time PCR
putting a functional version of a defetive gene into cells to correct the phenotype associated with the defect by hybridization to oligonucleotide probes, microarrays, or sequencing
functional complementation
strategy used to clone a gene for which no information is available about its protein product. (ex tumor suppressor); incorporates family inheritance
positional cloning
identifies regions of chromosomal duplication or deletion. The genes in the abnormal region can then be analyzed by expression or functional studies to identify candidate genes in the region

tumor DNA harvested and digested w/ restriction enzyme - labeled with red fluorescent and green done to control; hybidize to DNA microarray --> observe increase (amplify) or decrease red (deletion)
comparative genomic hybridization
useful platform for studying gene expression changes (RNA), gene aneuploidy (CGH), and DNA-protein interactions (ChIP-chips). The primary advantage is the sheer number of sequences that can be analyzed at one time
microarray
structural variations in DNA caused by point mutations, deletions, or insertions can result in restriction fragments of different lengths, which can often be detected by Southern blotting. Can be used as genetic markers to map genes to specific chromosomal locations and identify aberrant genes causing disease
restriction fragment length polymorphisms
used to study promoter function in intact cells, either to identify transcription factor interactions with promoters or to dissect mechanisms of regulation. DNA purified by it can be analyzed individually by PCR or by hybridization to promoter microarrays
chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP)
subcloning by recombination, functinonal complementation, hybridization, oligonucleotide probe, positional cloning: are all types of ?
ways to screen a DNA library
what can be used to isolate gene if no info available about gene's protein product ? Linkage analysis can facilitate location, then can used "linked DNA" sequence; useful for tumor suppressor genes
positional cloning
used to reduce expression of gene; double strand RNA vectors induce antiviral response and interact w/ RNA-inducing silencing complex --> silecnes the gene (affects gene translation)
si-RNA; RNA interference
used to identify the specific sequence bound by a transciption factor;

short DNA radiolabeled -> incubated with cellular extracts and electrophoresed -> if transcription factor binds, DNA sequence moves slower
electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA)
"inverse Northern blot"; cellular RNA is reverse transcribed, amplified w/ modified nucleotide that allows fluorescence detection -> hybridized to array of sequences
spotted arrays

oligo arrays
what does far western blotting do
protein-protein interaction
2D PAGe is used to study what
posttranslational modification of proteins - proteins separated by charge and size
order the following vectors in terms of increasing DNA capacity for transfection: cosmids, yeast artificial chromosomes, viruses, plasmids, bacteriophage lambda
plasmid, bacteriophage, cosmid, yeast artificial chromosomes, viruses
which polarity does dna move towards: positive or negative
positive
radioactive probe is mixed with cell extract containing the DNA binding proteins (transcription factors) and run on polyacrylamide gel

retardation of the probe indicates binding of protein with this DNA segment
gel shift assay
gene arrays, cDNA libraries, qPCR all begin with a ____ type of transcript
RNA
reporter gene assays, gel mobility shift assay, and chromatin immunoprecipitation have all been used to evaluate ?
promoter genes
The protein of interest is isolated with a specific antibody. Interaction partners which stick to this protein are subsequently identified by Western blotting.[1] Interactions detected by this approach are considered to be real. However, this method can only verify interactions between suspected interaction partners. Thus, it is not a screening approach. A note of caution also is that immunoprecipitation experiments reveal direct and indirect interactions. Thus, positive results may indicate that two proteins interact directly or may interact via one or more bridging molecules. This could include bridging proteins, nucleic acids (DNA or RNA), or other molecules.
Co-immunoprecipitation is considered to be the gold standard assay for protein–protein interactions, especially when it is performed with endogenous (not overexpressed and not tagged) proteins.
The premise behind the test is the activation of downstream reporter gene(s) by the binding of a transcription factor onto an upstream activating sequence (UAS). For the test, the transcription factor is split into two separate fragments, called the binding domain (BD) and activating domain (AD). The BD is the domain responsible for binding to the UAS and the AD is the domain responsible for the activation of transcription.[1][2] The Y2H is thus a protein-fragment complementation assay. only when both hybridize together do u see an outcome.
two-hybrid screen
technology typically used to validate protein interactions. It is based on the association of fluorescent protein fragments that are attached to components of the same macromolecular complex. Proteins that are postulated to interact are fused to unfolded complementary fragments of a fluorescent reporter protein and expressed in live cells. Interaction of these proteins will bring the fluorescent fragments within proximity, allowing the reporter protein to reform in its native three-dimensional structure and emit its fluorescent signal
Bimolecular fluorescence complementation (also known as BiFC)
ras, neu, myc, EGFR, and bcr-abl are all examples of what?
oncogenes
NF1,2, ECAD, PTCH, PTEN, APC are all examples of ?
tumor suppressors
WT1
wilms - tumor suppressor
PTEN
cowden syndrome - hamartoma - tumor suppressor
MEN1
pituitary, pancreas, parathyroid - tumor suppressor
Rb is active phosphorylated or hypophosphorylated? When is it bound to E2F)
active when hypophosphorylated and bound to E2F
TGFbeta has what relationship with Rb
it keeps Rb active by inhibiting Rb phosphorylation (which keeps Rb in its "active" hypophosphorylated state); does this through the promotion of P21 and P15 INK (which are inhibitors of Rb)
which caspase is the initiator in the extrinsic pathway? Intrinsic?
caspase 8; 9
which caspases are considered effectors
3,6,7
mdm2 has what effect on p53
it inhibits
does BID inhibit or promote apoptosis
promote
describe the relationship btw VHL and HIF
VHL normally inhibits HIF; HIF in response to hypoxia is upregulated causing angiogenesis
TSP-1 - pro or anti angiogenic
antiangiogenic; no p53 -> decreased TSP1
does radiation increase or decrease ceramide
increase (ceramide increases apoptosis)
p21 has what function - downregulates or upregulates cell cycle
downregulates cell cycle (cdk4 and 6)
how does cdk4 and 6 promote the cell cycle
by phosphorylating Rb thereby inactivating it which lets it release E2F which goes to upregulate cyclinE
which cyclins are in G1?
D and E
which cylins are in S and G2?
A
which cyclins are in G2 and M?
B
chk1 has what affect on the cell cycle
it is inhibitory; chk1 promotes phosphorylation of Cdc25A which inhibits cyclin E and A
when is Ras active - with GTP or GDP
GTP; inactivated by GAP (GTPase activiating protein)
what does p16 do
competes with cyclin D for binding to CDK4, thus inhibiting activity of CDK4 (which normally promotes cell cycle)
Cockayne's syndrome is defective in what repair process
NER, increased sensitivity to UV radiation
are people with ataxia telangiectasia sensitive to UV radiation
no
ATM mutation lacks checkpoint in G1/S or G2/M
BOTH
is MAPK lead to growth or growth arrest
arrest (via p53, fos, jun, myc)
shape of dose and incidence of tumor control and normal tissue damage
sigmoidal
ratio of tumor response to normal-tissue damage is called
the therapeutic index
after irradiation most cells die a _______ death
mitotic (also apoptotic but lesser)
describe spleen colony assay
recipient animals (irradiated prior to experiment to sterilize spleen) inoculated with bone marrow from mice that received test dose of radiation. Number of spleen nodules counted
where are thyroid and mammary cells implanted in cell survival assay
mouse fat pads
how is tolerance of cord related to length irradiated
for short lengths (< 1 cm), tolerance dose varies markedly with cord length irradiated; for > few centimeters, virtually independent of cord length
is looking at rodent skin, breathing rate following lung irradiation, myelopathy: functional end points or cell survival endpoints
functional endpoint
which way on a dose response curve does the curves move if you add a radiosensitizer
to the left
what is the typical orientation of the dose response curves, which is on the left : tumor control or normal tissue damage
tumor control
does overall time versus dose/fx important in spinal cord irradiation
overall time not important
generalized symptoms (those unrelated to cell killing), such as fatigue, nausea, vomiting may be mediated by…
radiation-induced inflamm cytokines
what requires more does to destroy: differentiated cell or dividing cell
differentiated cell
time interval btw irradiation and expression in tissue damage depends on…
life span of mature functional cells and the time it takes for a cell born in the stem compartment to mature
tolerance doses more sensitive to changes in dose per fraction for early or late effects
late
which one: serial or parallel organized? Little or no functional reserve, and risk of developing complication less dependent on volume irradiated ….. Risk of complication influenced by high-dose regions and hot spots
serial (spinal cord, etc.)
early radiation response in skin -- epidermis or dermis? Late response?
epidermis --early. Dermis--late
most sensitve late responding tissue
lung
FSUs in kidney organization
parallal
whats affected first white or gray matter in brain following RT
white;
is spinal cord affected by length of irradiation
for very small lengths yes; for lengths greater than few CM tolerance independent of length irradiated
permanent sterility dose in males (fractionated)
2.5-3 Gy (fractionated); sterility - 6 Gy
is womens libido affected by irradiation to ovaries
yes (in men libido preserved)
rank in terms of radiosensitivits (most to least): kidney, lung, brain, liver and heart; what is the common theme of these organs?
lung, kidney, liver, heart, CNS

all late responding tissues
most common radiation induced injury to lung
acute pericarditis
what does SOMA stand for
Subjective, Objective, Management, Analytic
what casarett's classification: differentiating intermitotis cells, which divide regularly but in which there is some differentiation between divisions, and which are variably differentiated?
II

I: stem cells of classic self-renewal tissues, which divide regularly

III: reverting postmitotic cells, which do not divide regularly but can divide under the appropriate stimulus
IV: fixed postmitotic cells which are highly differentiated and appear to have lost the ability to divide
what are the 2 classic early responding tissues
GI epithelium and skin
is the spinal cord structurally defined or undefined
undefined (similar to skin, mucosa) meaning clonogenic cells can migrate from 1 FSU to another and allow repop

versus defined - kidney liver and lung
what are the two broad categories (types) that Michalowki described in radiation pathology
H-type - or heirarchical cells: stem -> mature partially diff cells -> functional cells
F-type - or flexible cells : rarely divide under nl circumstances but can be triggered

tissues are hybrids of above
interleukin's role with regards to radiation
radioprotector (increase shoulder and Do of survival curve)
TGF-beta's role with radiation
strong inflamm response; can inhibit interleukin 1 and TNF; linked to fibrosis and vascular changes in late effects

can increase radiation damage
TNF role in radiation
mediates inflamm response -> prolif of fibroblasts, inflamm cells, and endothelial cells

protects hemotopoietic cells and sensitizes tumor cells to radiation

correlates with RT complications; cachexia
what type of assay: transplated tumor on flank or back is measured daily , grown to specific size and then some are given treatment others are control. Advantage?

Endpoint is TCD50 (? What is this)
growth delay (single dose) or tumor cure (graded doses)
adv: avoids artifacts involved in disaggregating the tumor

TCD dose at which 50% of the tumors are controlled
what type of assay: mice with advanced leukemia irradiated /controls and liver harvested then made into single cell suspension and injected into peritoneal cavity -> number of mice that develop leukemias scored. Relevant is # of cells required to transmit tumor to 50% of mice
Dilution assay technique
what type of assay: tumors irradiated in situ -> irradiated/controls -> made into single cell sups -> ijected -> number of lung colonies counted
lung colony assay
what type of assay: tumor treated in vivo (alive) -> tumor removed and prepared into single cell sups -> plated on petri dish -> counted
in vivo/in vitro assay
what type of assay: transplating from 1 species to another and using congenitaly immune deficient mice to accept human tumors
xenograft
mitotic index is fraction of cells in mitoses; what is the equation?
MI = λ Tm / Tc; where lambda is a correction factor to allow for fact that the cells are not distriubted evenly in the cell cycle b/c the # of cells doubles during mitosis
what is the labeling index? Equation
fraction of cells that are in S (marked by those that take up titriated thymidine); LI = λ Ts / Tc; where lambda is a correction factor to allow for fact that the cells are not distriubted evenly in the cell cycle b/c the # of cells doubles during mitosis
describe the percent labeled mitoses technique? What does it aim to estimate?
uses thymidine/bromodeoxyuridine that stain in S phase and chart their time at regular intervals to count percent in mitoses. All the phases of the cell cycle can be approximated with this technique. Ts can be approx by following time of cells to enter mitoses and completely leave (begining or vice versa end); in practice estimated by middle width
describe the bromodeoxyuridine-DNA assay in flow cytrometry? What is it used for?
cells stained simultaneously with two dyes that fluoresce at different wavelengths: one binds in proportion to DNA content to indicate the phase of the cell cycle, and the other binds in proportion to bromodeoxyuridine incorporation to show if cells are synthesizing DNA

can be used for Tpot and to estimate labeling index and Ts
an approximate estimate of cell cycle time with regards to S phase is what?
3 times S-phase time
what is the equation for cell loss factor? What does a value of 100% represent?
ф = 1 - Tpot/Td
ratio of rate of cell lost to rate of new cell production; 100% correlates to steady state (ie no growth no regression); estimated to be greater than 50% for all tumors (median 77)
what is the relationship btw Tpot (potential doubling time), labeling index, and S phase cell cycle time
Tpot = l Ts/Labeling Index
what does increased cell loss do to cell doubling time (Td)? Decreased growth fraction?
both increase Td (actual cell cycle doubling time)
as tumor size increases what happens to growth fraction? Rate of cell loss? Tumor growth rate?
growth fraction decreases; rate of cell loss increases; tumor growth rate decreases
proliferating cells / (proliferating + quiescent cells) = ?
growth fraction (LI/MI)
high or low growth fraction assoc with radiosensitivity
high
if I inject titriated thymidine into an animal with a tumor then harvest the tumor and calculate the fraction of cells labeled (LI) and divide by the fraction of mitoses (MI) what would I get
growth fraction
four R's of radiobiology
Repair of sublethal damage
Reassortment of cells w/in cell cycle
Repopulation
Reoxygenation
Strandquist plot/iso effect curve? Do late tissues have a flat or steep curve?
relation btw total dose and overall treatment time; "time" includes # of fx; slope of line for skin is around 0.33

late tissues have steep curve reflecting increased repair capacity
prolonging overall time within normal RT affects what type of reactions
early
What type of tissues (early or late) are more sensitive to changes in fractionation pattern
late-responding tissues (because of large shoulder)
triggering of surviving cells to divide more rapidly as a tumor shrinks after irradiation or txt w/ cytotoxic agent
accelerated repopulation
when does accelerated repopulation start in H&N cancers
around 4 weeks; about 0.6 Gy needed per day to compensate
basic aim of hyperfractionation
separate early and late effects (decrease late effects)
basic aim of acceleration
to reduce repopulation
randomized trial has shown what for hyperfractionation
increased LC and increased survival; no increase in acute or late effects
EORTC trial of accelerated txt results? In terms of LC? Survival? Late effects? Early effects?
increase in LC; no increase in survival
unexpected increase in late effects (consequential effects from severe early effects and incomplete repair secondary to short time interval btw fxs)
CHART results? In terms of TC? Acute and late effects?
same tumor control, worse acute effects, and decreased late effects (because of low dose)
logic of ARCON (accelerated hyperfractionation radiation therapy while breathing carbogen and with the addition of nicotinamide)
acceleration to overcome cell prolif, hyperfractionation to spare late responding tissues, carbogen to overcome chronic hypoxia, and nicotinamide to overcome acute hypoxia
decrease in local control per day in increasing overall txt time for H&N cancers? Cervix
1.4%

0.5%

rapid prolif not seen in breast or prostate
BED
"biologically effective dose" = nd(1+ d/ (alpha/beta)
what are eppendorf probes used for
measuring oxygen tension in tumors
if survival fraction following a 2 gy dose was higher for a certain tumor cell line versus another tumor cell line; would you expect its response to treatment to be better or worse? Courtnay assay?
worse; shown in head and neck with regards to local control and cervix

courtenay assay - cells grown as spheres or clumps in semisolid agar gel
what is a commonly used parameter to model proliferative potential but has not panned out in studies?
Tpot (potential doubling time); if high, tumor has high proliferative potential
what is meant by SF2? Where has it been shown to be useful
SF2 refers to the fraction of cells surviving a dose of 2 Gy; used in identifying tumors that are radiosensitive and resistant (> or < then 0.4)
neutrons are (directly or indirectly) ionizing
indirectly
how do the biologic properties of neutrons differ from x-rays in terms of OER, sublethal damage repair, and cell cycle sensitivity variation
reduced OER, little or no SLDR, and less variation in cell cycle
what sites have neutrons been clinically proven
salivary gland, prostate cancer, and soft-tissue sarcoma
describe concept of boron neutron capture therapy
deliver a drug containing boron and then deliver low-energy thermal neutrons that interact with the boron to produce alpha-particles
why is boron a good choice for neutron capture therapy
large cross setion, emits short range alpha particles, and can be incorporated in wide range of compounds
comparison of RBE, OER btw protons and x-rays
similar
carbons in comparison to xrays and protons: RBE
increased LC and increased survival; no increase in acute or late effects
unique way carbon ion dose can be visualized
PET - carbon strips other carbons neutrons and results in 11C and 10C which are positron emitting isotopes
halogenated pyrimidines mechanism of action
incorporated into DNA by competing with thymidine; must be incorporated into DNA for sensitization to occur. Cells must be grown in presences of analogue for several cell cycles….extent of radiosensitization increases with amount incorporated
toxicity of bromodeoxyuridine
phototoxicity --> rash
toxicity of misonidazole
peripheral neuropathy
which radiosensitizing hypoxi cell has the least toxicity and was shown to have a benefit for head and neck CA in LC and OS
nimorazole
what class/action is tirapazamine
organic nitrooxide -- cytotoxic against hypoxic cells; found use as adjunct to chemo agents
nitroimidazoles labeled with radionuclide can be used as markers for…
hypoxic cells
how do hypoxic-cell radiosensitizers work?
mimics oxygen by "fixing" damage produced by free radicals
which of the following are bioreductive: misonidazole or mitomycin C
mitomycin C;
tirapazamin is what class of drug? Side effects?
hypoxic cytotoxic drug; nausea and severe mm cramping
please describe the four aspects of ARCON trial (acceleration, carbogen, hyperfractionation, and nicotinomide)
carbogen -> chronic hypoxia
nicotinomide -> actue hypoxia
acceleration -> prolif
hyperfractionation -> spare late tissue
what are 3 ways of radiosensitizing cells
hyperbaric oxygen
improve O2 supply to tumors (perfluorocarbons, transfusions)
hypoxic cell radiosensitizers
downside to retrovirus
only infect dividing cells
downside to adenoviruses
invoke immune response (but infect both dividing and nondividing cells)
what is suicide gene therapy? examples of suicide gene therapy?
transduce cell with gene that converts a prodrug into a cytotoxic agent

cytosine deaminase which converts to 5FU. HSV-tk plus ganciclovir
what is cytotoxic virus
kill cells with mutated gene (most work on p53)

preferentially targets cancer cells with a cytotoxic virus and spares normal cells
- uses an adenovirus that replicated only in p53 mutant cells, killing them thru cell lysis
- early trials show significant growth suppression in animal models and human H&N ca; however, only produce PR
what is molecular immunology (ie cancer vaccines)
seeks to provoke a cellular immune response against the cancer by injecting a vaccine genetically engineered to express immune stimulatory molecules or tumor-specific antigents
what is tumor-suppressor gene therapy
replacement, with a correct copy, of the mutated gene that initiates or contributes to the malignant phenotype
what is linking a radiation-inducible promotor to a cytotoxic agent; the cytotoxic agent is "turned on" only in the carefully delineated radiation field
radiation-activated genes or radiogenetic therapy
why are traditional anticancer drugs toxic to intestinal epithelium and hematopoietic stem cells?
because they have a high growth fraction
MOA of alkylating agents
ability to substitute alkyl groups for hydrogen atoms in DNA, include nitrogen mustard derivatives, cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, melphalan, and the nitrosoureas (BCNU and CCNU)
MOA of antibiotics
bind to DNA and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, include dactinomycin, doxorubicin, daunorubicin, and bleomycin
MOA of antimetabolites
analogues of the normal metabolites required for function and replication; include MTX, 5FU, cytarabine, and 5-azacytidine
dose-response relationship of chemo (in comparison to RT)
similar, initial shoulder
oxygen effect of chemo?
varies on drug - some target aerated cells, some hypoxic cells
development of resistance to one drug results in cross-resistance to other drugs with a different mechanism of action
pleiotropic resistance
are alkylating agents as a class considered cell cycle specific
cell-cycle NONspecific
what are the 3 classes of bioreductive agents? Do they favor hypoxic or oxic conditions?
fused-ring benzoquinones (mitomycin C), organic N-oxides (tirapazamine), dual-function nitroheterocyclic (RB6145)
favors hypoxic situations
what is the mdr gene do? (hint - chemo)
mdr - multidrug resistance gene; membrane bound protein that pumps drugs out of the tumor cells; reversed by calcium channel blocking drugs
contrast vinca alkaloids and taxanes
vinca inhibit spindle formation; taxolsinhibit disassembly
Busulfan
DNA alylation; myelosuppression; CML and polycythemia vera (and pre BMT)
carboplatin
intra and interstrand crosslinks; myelosuppression (esp thrombocytopenia); multiple cancers
carmustine
alkylating agent cellcycle independent - PENETRATES BLOODBRAIN BARRIER; myelosuppression (esp thrombo); brain, mult myeloma
chlorambucil
alkylating agent cell cycle indepen; meylosuppression; CLL - other leukemias/lymphomas (lowgrade)
cyclophosphamide
alkylating agent cell-cycle indepen; myelosuppression, hemorrhagic cystitis; multiple sites
dacarbazine
alkylating agent methylates guanine bases; myelosuppression - SYNERGY W/ RT; malignant melanoma and hodgkin's
ifosfamide
alkylating agent non-cell cycle dependent; meylosuppression, hem cystitis, CNS tox; recurrent germ cell tumors
lomustine (CCNU)
alkylating agent - cell cycle indep PENETRATES BLOOD BRAIN BARRIER; myelosupp (esp thrombo); brain and hodgkin's
mechlorethamine
alkylating agent - cell cycle indepen; powerful vesicant, secondary leukemia; hematologic malignancies - hodgkin's and topically for t-cell lymphoma
melphalan
alkylating agent - cell cycle indepen; myelosuppression, secondary leukemia; multiple myeloma
oxaliplatin
alkylating agent - disrupts DNA via intra and interstrand cross links; neurotoxicity; metastatic colorectal
procarbazine
alkylating agent - cell cycle indepen PENETRATES BLOOD BRAIN BARRIER; myelosupp; hodgkin's
temozolomide
alkylating agent - PENETRATES BLOOD BRAIN BARRIER; myelosupp; brain tumors
cisplatin
produces intra and interstrand cross links; nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity; INTERM SYNERGY W/ RT; multiple
bleomycin
antibiotics cause DNA strand breaks directyl via creation of hydroxyl radicals; pulmonary toxicity; STRONG SYNERGY W/ RT; germ cell tumors, hodgkin's, SCC
dactinomycin
antibiotics inhibts transcription by complexing w/ DNA; moderate vesicant STRONG SYNERGY WITH RT; wilm's, ewings, rhabdo, many others
doxorubicin
antibiotic intercalating agent; potent vesicant, cardiomyopathy STRONG SYNERGY W/ RT (sever skin reactions); breast and others
mitomycin C
antibiotics inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis; vesicant and myelosuppression STRONG SYNERGY W/ RT; anal
5FU
antimetabolites inhibitor of thymidylate synthase; gi toxicities, dermatitis, and hand-foot syndrome SYNERGY W/ RT; multiple
capcitibine
oral 5FU; myelosuppressin hand foot sydrome INT SYNERGY WITH RT; metastatic breast and colorectal
cytarabine
incorporated into DNA during replication --> strand termination PENETRATES BLOOD-BRAIN BARRIER; myelosupp; AML and ALL
fludarabine
antimetabolite; neutrotoxicity; CLL
gemcitibine
antimetabolite; inhibits ribonucleotide reductase ; STRONG SYNERGY WITH RT myelosupp; pancreatic, bladder
hydroxyurea
inhibitor of ribonucleotide reductase --> inhibition of DNA synthesis
methotrexate
antimetabolite interferes w/ dihydrofolate reductace; encephalopathy with intrathecal, should be admin prior to cranial irradiation; multiple malignancies; toxicity - peripheral neuropathy
l-asparaginase
cleaves the amino acid asparagine which is essential for proliferation; hypersensitivity; ALL
trastuzumab
monoclonal antibody against her2/neu growth factor; cardiotoxicity; breast
megestrol acetate
steroidal progestational agent; hormonal changes; breast and endometrial ca; appetite stimulation
cetuximab
blocks egfr receptor dimerization; acne STRONG SYNERGY W/ RT; colorectal and head and neck ca
imatinib mesylate
specific tyrosine kinace inhibitor which inhibits bcr-abl, ckit; myelosuppression; CML and metastatic GIST
rituximab
directed against CD20; fever, chills; lymphoma
docetaxel
inhibits mitotic spindle apparatus by stabilizing tubulin polymers; myelosuppression; multiple malignacies
paclitaxel
inhibits depolymerization of tubulin in spindle apparatus -> apoptosis; weak synergy with RT - myelosupp, neuromyopathy; multiple malignancies
etoposide VP16
topoisomerase II inhibitor; myelosuppression; germ cell tumors and SCLC
irinotecan
topoisomerase I inhibitor; myelosuppression; metastatic colon
vinblastine
inhibitor of tubulin polymerization; soft tissue vesicant; multiple malignancies Hodgkins
vincristine
inhibitor of tubulin polymerization; vesicant, neurotoxict; nonhodgkins
vinorelbine (navelbine)
inhibitor of tubulin polymerization; mild vesicant, myelosuppression; metastatic breast and NSCLC
goserelin acetate (zolodex)
agonist, inhibits pituitary-gonadal axis function causing steroid hormone withdrawal from prostate and breast cancer cells; endocrine; prostate and met breast
leuprolide acetate (leupron)
agonist, inhibits pituitary-gonadal axis function causing steroid hormone withdrawal from prostate and breast cancer cells; endocrine; prostate and met breast
bicalutamide (casodex)
nonsteroidal antiandrogens; endocrine + constipation; prostate
tamoxifen
nonsteroidal antiandrogens;
anastrozole
nonsteroidal aromatase inhibitors; breast
amifostine
free radical scavavenger; hypotension, n/v, and somnolence; radiation protectant
describe heat survival curves (y and x axis; contrast from x-rays)
y axis - survival; x axis - time at Temperature (T); similar to radiation
what is the significance of the break point (43 C) with regards to sensitivity
below this temp, change in T results in more sensitivity than above this temp

seen on a arrhenius plot for heat inactivation; inverse of D0 (y-axis) and T (x-axis)
is there a difference in sensitivity to heat between normal and malignant cells?
no
what phase of cell cycle is most sensitive to hyperthermia
S phase (specificially late S)
hyperthermia and pH and nutrition
cells with low pH and nutritionally deprevied (ie tumors) MORE sensitive to heat
does hypoxia protect cells from hyperthermia
NO
what damages cells more rapidly - hyperthermia or xrays? Why
heat damages tissues more rapidly than x-rays because heat kills differentiated as well as dividing cells and cells die in interphase (contrast from next or subsequent mitosis in xrays)
what is thermotolerance
induced resistance to a second heat exposure by prior heating; complication during fractionated hyperthermia
what does heat do to vasculature for tumor and normal tissues?
heat preferentially damages tumor vasculature; after heating, blood flow goes down in tumors but increases in normal tissues
what is the most successful noninvasive technique to measure hyperthermia
MRI
thermal dose is expressed in terms of ?
CEM43°C - cumulative equivalent minutes at 43 C exceeded by 90% of monitored points w/in tumor
how does hyperthermia work synergistically with radiation (specifically why does it radiosensitive)
hyperthermia inhibits repair
what is the mechanism of damage for hyperthermia
damage to plasma membrane and inactivation of proteins (denaturation)
what is thermal enhancement ratio
radiation dose without heat/radiation dose with heat (increases with increasing temperature) (generally > 1.0)
how does hyperthermia and chemo interact
heat makes chemo more effective
benefits and contrasts of microwaves and ultrasound in hyperthermia
microwaves - good localization at shallow depths; poor at greater depths; ultrasound - deep heating can be achieved but bone and air cavities get in the way
what types of cells does hyperthermia affect - dividing or differentiated cells?
both
what type of death do heated cells die by - mitotic or apoptotic
apoptotic
what is thermal dose equivalent
minutes the tissue has to be held at 43 degrees C to suffer same biological damage as produced by the actual temperature; for lower dosease factor of 1/4th ; for greater factor of 2 (per degree difference)

other words; for every degree above 43 - time is halved and for below 43 time is multiplied by 4-5
What is a dirty bomb
bomb with radioactive materials that when explodes results in spread of that material (cs 137)
what is a hidden RED
hidden radiation exposure device - simply droping a gamma emitting source into a busy location so people are exposed
what is the goal of decontamination in event of radiologic terroris (w/ regards to backgroun radiation)
count less than twice background
what % of patients present with second cancer
10%
what tolerates retreatment better: early or late responding tissue
early-responding tissues
pair production is related to energy, Z how?
independent of energy (but must be greater than 1.02 Mev) and proportional to Z^2
what changes in coherent scattering
only the direction of the incident photon (no energy transfer, no ejected electrons)
what is specific ionization and its relation to particle velocity
ion pairs per unit length (decreases with increasing particle velocity)
LET can be calculated what two ways? Are they similar for xrays? Neutrons?
track average or energy average; same for x rays but different for neutrons; energy avg better for biological effects
what is the rough LET for neutrons? For high energy protons? For 250kv xrays?
100, 0.5, 2
how is LET related to mass? Charge? Velocity/energy?
increases with mass and square of charge; decreases with increasing velocity and energy
DNA strand breaks are to the bases or sugars
sugars
what does UV light cause in DNA
pyrimidine dimers - type of bulkly DNA lesion
what is H2Ax and its significance? How do u interpret if its phosphorylated?
H2Ax is a histone that is phosphorylated by ATM in response to DNA damage; can be used a sensitve measure for DNA double strand break
terminal deletions and sister unions are what type of aberration
chromotid
ATM plays a major role in which cell cycle check point
G2/M
size of proton
1.6 x 10 ^ -15
how far can hydroxyl radical diffuse
double the distance of double helix ( 4 nm )
spurs and blobs are most associated with what kind of damage
locally mulstiply damaged sites
spur vs blob in terms of energy; type of radiation that causes them
“spur” –
contains up to 100 eV of energy (e- transfers an average of 60 eV to water & cellular molecules per event)
contains ~ 3 ions pairs (ie. 33 eV produces 1 ion pair)
diameter ~ 4 nm (diameter of DNA = 2 nm)
for x-rays and -rays, 95% of the energy deposition events are spurs

“blob” – contains 100-500 eV of energy
contains ~ 12 ion pairs
diameter ~ 7 nm
damage produced is much more difficult to repair
common for neutrons and -particles (ie. damage produced is qualitatively different than x-rays)
what is adaptive response
cells irradiated with a lose dose may be more resistant to a subsequent higher dose
how do u solve for an equivalent doses when comparing multifraction vs single dose using Dq?
acute dose - Dq = each fraction - Dq
in 2 fx example: acute dose = fx x 2 - Dq
as a general rule how much larger is D0 in hypoxic conditions
3 x D0 for hypoxic conditions compared to aerobic
when n (extrapolation number) is equal to 1 what does this signy with regards to the survival curve
Beta = 0 or there is no shoulder
what is flexure dose?
0.1 x alpha/beta ratio ; defined as the point when curve bends signifincatly; to fully exploit sparing, doses per fraction should be as low as this
what is tissue rescue unit
Minimum number of FSU's to maintain tissue fx
what is the cell loss factor for most tumors
> 50%
is PTEN a tumor suppressor or oncogene
tumor suppressor (assoc with cowden syndrome - hamartomas)
total cell cycle time is approximately how much longer than S-phase cycle time
3 x Ts
are cells killed when exposed to hydroxyurea
s phase cells killed and block introduced
what are the layers of a spheroid
asynchronous/aerobic in outer layer, noncycling G1-like in middle, central zone of G1-like hypoxic cells
dilution assay, lung colony system and in vivo/in vitro techniques are all examples of ….
clonogenic assays
bloom syndrome is a result of what deficiency
ligase deficiency
what is on the axes of an isoeffect curve? What do late responding tissues look like (steep or flat)?
effective single does plotted as function of overall txt time; late responding tissues have steeper slope (reflects increased repair capacity)
which of the 4 Rs spares normal tissues and which of them kills tumor
repair and repopulation spares normal tissues, while reassortment and reoxygenation kills tumor
Know the OERs of X-rays, alpha particles and neutrons
X-rays 2.5, Neutrons 1.6, Alpha 1.0
these are all used for what: 2-Nitroimidazole Markers (pimonidazole and EF5), Endogenous Markers (Carbonic Anhydrase 9, HIF), Comet Assay (requires rapid sampling of irradiated tumor), Noninvasive Imaging (PET, SPECT with various labeling agents, etc)
to measure hypoxia
how do u get the fraction of hypoxia cells via an experiment
ratio of aerated SF / Hypoxic SF
how long does S, G2, and M last in hours
S is around 8 hours, G2 is around 4 hours, and M is around 1
when does radiosensitivity is halfway and saturated in terms of Oxygen tension
3 mm Hg or 0.5% O2 causes halfway
30 mm Hg or 3 % O2 saturation
What will distinguish the tumors cells lining the vessels from those farther away? (with regards to labeling index)
higher labeling index
Does LET increase with increasing energy?
No, it decreases, as less energy is deposited in tissue.
What are the units of LET?
KeV / um
what happens to RBE with increasing alpha/beta ratio (no shoulder)
decreased RBE
at what LET does OER go to 1
160 KeV/um
what is the LET for protons (150 Mev)? 250 kvp photons? 14 MeV Neutrons? 2.5 MeV alpha particles?
Protons - 0.5
250 kvp photons - 4.7
neutrons - 12 (track); 100 (energy)
alpha - 166
do neutrons have a bragg peak?
no
who is more radioresistant - a human or a mouse?
mouse
They asked what was the major organ limiting toxicity of TBI?
Bone marrow suppression
What is the most likely effect seen after 1.5 Gy of total body irradiation?
lymphopenia/neutropenia
What is the defination of DRF Dose reduction factor?
Ratio of dose in presence of drug/dose in absence of drug to produce a given level of lethality
what are thiols and how do they work?
radioprotectors; They work by free radical scavenging by the SH- group AND by donating hydrogen atom to facilitate direct chemical repair at sites of DNA damage
If the drug had a dose enhancement ratio of 1.1 and patient can tolerate 45 Gy without drug, what dose can now be given?
• 40.5 Gy
• 49.5 Gy.
40.5 Gy
Had to know the exact definition of dose reduction factor:,
for radioprotectors
• radiation dose in the presence of drug, divided by radiation dose in the absence of drug.
how do nitro-imadazole drugs work? Sensitize or protect?
sensitizers; taken up by hypoxic cells and substitute for oxygen to fix radiation damage
difference in latency period btw solid tumors and leukemia
leukemia has shortest latency - peak by 10 years versus solid tumors with longer latency on order of 10-50 years
after chernobyl accident there was an increased risk of what type of malignancy
thyroid cancer
What tumors are seen after tx of cervix cancer?
Bladder most common, followed by rectal and vaginal.
Type of cancers seen:
Early radiologists ______ cancer
Thorotrast ______ cancer
Radium dial painter _____ cancer
Uranium miner ______ cancer
Tinea capitis tx ______ cancer
Early radiologists Skin cancer
Thorotrast Liver cancer
Radium dial painter Bone cancer
Uranium miner Lung cancer
Tinea capitis tx Thyroid cancer
what is the ratio of solid tumor to leukemia
5 to 1
how many ergs/gram is equal to 1 rad
100 erg/g
what are the major organs at risk for carcinogenesis (ie highest tissue weighting factor)
bone marrow, breast, colon, stomach
what is the units of integral dose
joules (given by Gray x kg of tissue)
describe the difference in interaction with neutron for low (< 6 MeV) and high energy
at lower energies - dominant process is elastic scattering (interaction with hydrogen atoms) - recoil protons
at higher energies - inelastic scattering - spalliation products
what form is ATM active (monomer or dimer)
monomer (inactive dimer autophosphorylates)
D0 = D37 in what scenario
when n = 1
what is the tunel assay (dUTP nick end labeling) used for
to detect apoptosis (as well as DNA ladder, and Annexin V)
conversion of sphingomyelein to ceramide occurs at what part of the cell
cell membrane (involved with apoptosis (intrinsic pathway))
How does RBE change with low dose rate, with hypoxia, with more fractionation, with low alpha/beta
RBE increases (need more x-rays for same effect)
male: sterility dose for single dose and fractionated? Temporary sterility?
4-6 Gy (single dose) or 2 Gy fractionated

temporary: 15 cGy in 1 fx or 40 cGy fractionated (decreases 2 months later and recovers 6-1 year)
women: sterility dose for single and fractionated
3 Gy in 1 fx vs 20 Gy fractionated

prepuberity - higher 12 Gy
absolute mutation rate for humans estimated at…
0.2 % per SV
brca2 can be mutated in what condition
fanconi's anemia
dose limiting toxicity of misonidazole (hypoxic cell radiosensitizers)
peripheral neuropathy
what is the RBE for neutrons for cataract formation
20-50
whats the radiation dose flying transcontinetal
5 mrem
what are the sources of natural background radiation
cosmic radiation
terrestrial
radionuclides
diagnostic x-rays take up how much of 6 mSv/year total? Nuclear medicine? Radon? Natural back ground ( minus radon)
3 mSv; nuclear medicine 0.14 mSv
radon 2 mSv + 1 mSv (natural background)
types of cell loss include
death from inadequate nutrition
apoptosis
death from immunologic attack
metastasis
exfoliation
in hydroxyurea technique to produce synchronously dividing cell population where is the block and does it kill cells?
block introduced at end of G1 and S-phase cells killed
what does the nominal standard dose system used for? Can it be used for late effects?
total dose for connective tissue related to number of fractions and overall txt time; only applicable to early tissues because based on skin data
cells plated into 96 well then treated with radiation or chemo and allowed to grow; stained --> only taken by surviving cells;

cell growth quantitated by measuring density of stain in well by a spectrophotometer

can only be used for screening for activity
colorimetric assay
petri dish coated with mixture of fibronectin and fibrinopeptides

known # of tumor cells plated into 24 well plates then grown for 2 weeks and stained

cell growth quantified by measuring density of stain (DOES NOT MEASURE REPRODUCTIVE INTEGRITY)
cell adhesive matris (CAM) assay
which cells are affected in radiation pneumonitis
type II pneumocytes
what is the neglibible individual dose (annual) as defined by NCRP
.01 mSV (1 mrem)
How can you measure levels of a specific RNA sequence under various cellular conditions?
northern blot (by intensity of the band)
proteins made and released by host cells in response to the presence of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, parasites or tumor cells. They allow for communication between cells to trigger the protective defenses of the immune system that eradicate pathogens or tumors.
interferons
these allow for detection of changes in gene expression levels, genomic gains and losses, as well as detection of mutation in DNA (single nucleotide polymorphism)
DNA microarrays
this strategy relies upon the production of the gene product (protein) within the cell allowing for a detectable/measurable phenotype. Therefore, requires the whole coding region!

Example: screening for a
DNA repair gene that confers
Resistance to radiation or
chemical treatment.
functional complementation
This method allows for the identification of regulatory sequences within a promoter that can be bound by transcription factors. Also allows one to measure activation/reduction in transcription factor binding.

A DNA fragment from a genomic clone or a corresponding synthetic oligonucleotide, which is suspected of containing regulatory sequences, is end-labeled and then mixed with a protein extract/purified protein.
The binding of a protein to the DNA fragment reduces its mobility during gel electrophoresis.
gel mobility shift assay
2-D Gel electrophoresis is used to analyze dna, rna or protein
protein
1. Clone the region of DNA thought to act as a promoter
2. Sequence the region
3. Digest with appropriate restriction enzymes
4. Ligate to reporter gene so that the reporter can be transcribed in the cells of interest
5. Transform cells of interest with the various promoter:reporter constructs
6. Measure reporter-gene transcription rates by assaying the reporter gene product
promoter bashing
transgenic, knockout, scid, and nude mice. What exactly are they and what kinds of experiments they are useful for
Nude mouse - xenograft models
Scid mice- defective non-homologous repair (defective DNA-PK), therefore can study repair defects. DNA-PK is also important in V(D)J recombination, which is why Scid mice have immunodeficiency.
Transgenic- expression of function
Knockout to see loss of function or gain of function
What is the mechanism of action of gleevec
Binds BCR-ABL receptors and induces apoptosis
What is NF-kB?
Transcription factor that is one of a number of anti-apoptotic agents. It inhibits caspase activation.
describe radiation's role in ceramide production
radiation --> ASMase activity increases which is responsible for conversion of sphingomyelin to ceramide

cells deficient in asmase can only generate ceramide from ceramide synthase which is negatively regulated by ATM
APC - tumor supressor or oncogene
supressor
what's more sensitive arteries or veins
arteries
What is the role of basic fibroblast growth factor?
induces endothelial growth; Protects against microvascular damage after RT; inhibits RT induced apoptosis
does IL1 act as a radiosensitizer or protectant?
increasing both shoulder and D0 of survival curve - protectant
PDGF Beta decreases or increases damage as result of radiation
increases damage to vascular tissue
Lhermitte’s sign:
demyelinating injury several months after treatment, persists for a few months to a year, but reversible, threshold 35 Gy, does not predict myelitis
Which is not seen following liver irradiation? VOD, hepatitis, hepatomegaly, acities,
VOD and Hepatitis are part of Radiation Induced Liver Disease. Ascites can be seen as a consequence of VOD. Hepatomegaly generally is not seen.
does hyperbaric oxygen improve hypoxia?
yes by increasing distance oxygen can diffuse
mechanism of action for hypoxic cell sensitizers (nitroimidazoles)
can penetrate/diffuse further than O2 to reach hypoxic areas
- differential effect is based on the premise that while tumors contain hypoxic cells, normal tissues do not
- nitroimidazoles act as both radiosensitizers and chemopotentiators for alkylating agents
- mechanism of action = substitution for oxygen in radiation-induced free radical reactions (“oxygen mimic”)
- only needs to be present in hypoxic regions of the tumor at the time of irradiation
- results in an increase in the slope of the hypoxic cell survival curve
what is spatial cooperation
radiation treats primary while chemotherapy treats metastases
MOA: amsacrine
topo II inhibitor
MOA: bleomycin
radiation-mimetic agent, more toxic to aerated cells since greater amount of damage
MOA: dactinomycin
inhibits RNA synthesis
MOA: doxorubicin
inhibits DNA synthesis and topo II
MOA: etoposide
topo II inhibitor
MOA: MTX, 5 FU
MTX - folic acid analog competes for DHFR

5FU - inhibits thmidylate synthetase
MOA: topotecan, irinotecan, camptothecin
topo I inhibitor
generally are alkylating agents, antibiotics, and cisplatin cell-cycle specific or nonspecific
nonspecific
what type of chemo agen has a concave upward doseresponse curve
antibiotics ( - mycin's)
are taxanes and vinca alkaloids cell cycle specifice or nonspecific? Cytarabine and 5-azacytidine? Hydroxurea?
all cell cycle specific
what's defective in fanconi's anemia
HRR BRCA2
do u see less thermotolerance with low or high temp? Thermotolerance assoc with step up (progressive higher temps) or step down (start high and go to lower temp)?
high

step up
most common side-effect of TBI? Dose limiting toxicity?
cataracts most common; pulmonary and kidney toxicity dose limiting
what is the range of neutron and RBE for lower energy and high energy
for low energy RBE ~ 10 (5-15); for high energy ~2
what causes obstruction of intestinal tract following irradiation
fibrosis
is basic fibroblastic growth factor anti or pro apoptotic
anti-apoptotic
what cells have pro-apototic tendency
serous acinar cells, oocytes, crypt cell and lymphocytes
egfr activation - pro or anti apoptotic
anti-apoptotic
PI-3K - pro or anti apoptotic
pro-apoptotic
TNFR-1, Fas/CD95, TRAIL receptors
extrinistic pathway for apoptosis;
DNA-PK, ATM, ATR, mTOR are all part of what family
PIKK family
farnyltransferase has what relation to RAS
stimulate (so there is a push for farnyltransferase inhibitors which inhibits ras)
is ras involved in ATM activation
NO
ras is pro or anti cell cycle
PRO; via Raf-Mek-MapK/erk pathway (leads to more cyclin D1 expresion);
Ral GDS (inhibits apoptosis)
JND (inhibits p53)
mTOR - pro or anti cell survival
pro survival
use inhibitors to radiosensitize and slow growth (- limus)
MDM2, COP1, PIRH2, JNK
all down regulate p53
14-3-3σ and GADD45
inhibit CDK1 - cyclin B --> G2 arrest (both are activated by p53)
cdc25c
activates CDK1-cyclin B
chk1/chk2
activates p53; also inhibits cdc25A
tumor suppressor or oncogene: PTCH
tumor suppressor (gorlin - skin, medullo)
tumor suppressor or oncogene: CDKN2A
tumor suppressor (melanoma)
tumor suppressor or oncogene: MEN1
tumor supp (parathyroid, pituitary, islet)
tumor suppressor or oncogene: NF2
tumor supp (meningioma, acoustic neuroma)
tumor suppressor or oncogene: MET
oncogene
tumor suppressor or oncogene: ABL
oncogene
tumor suppressor or oncogene: BRAF
oncogene
tumor suppressor or oncogene: myc
ONCOGENE
tumor suppressor or oncogene: MDM2
oncogene
order of decrease for CBC (granulocytes, platelets, erythrocytes, lymphocytes)
lymphocytes > granulocytes > thrombocytes > erythrocytes
what organ is the least tolerant to re-treatment; and show least recovery following RT
kidney
Survival curves with small alpha/beta ratios are expected to have curve shapes best described by
Curves will have a flat initial slope followed by a steep terminal slope
cdc2
The cdc2 protein is a kinase that phosphorylates serine and threonine residues in target proteins and combines with cyclin A and B in order to undergo a conformational change to activate the kinase site of the cyclinB-cdc2 complex.
Which proteins are part of the apoptosome?
Apaf-1, cytochrome c, and caspase 9
bcl-xs - pro or antiapoptotic
pro-apoptotic
relationship btw PARP and apoptosis
The overactivation of PARP may deplete the stores of cellular NAD+ and induce a progressive ATP depletion, since glucose oxidation is inhibited, and necrotic cell death. In this regard, PARP is inactivated by caspase-3 cleavage (in a specific domain of the enzyme) during programmed cell death.

PARP is found in the cell’s nucleus. The main role is to detect and signal single-strand DNA breaks (SSB) to the enzymatic machinery involved in the SSB repair. PARP activation is an immediate cellular response to metabolic, chemical, or radiation-induced DNA SSB damage.

incresing PARP activity correlates with increas apoptosis
p14
The gene product p14 binds to mdm2 protein and prevents ubiquitination of p53 protein. The result is the stabilization of p53 protein and ultimately an increase in its concentration. Therefore, p14 functions as a tumor suppressor by inhibiting the inhibitor of p53.
what is the expected cell loss factor for a slow recovery tissue versus a high growth tumor
slow recovery - high cell loss factor (approximates to 1)
high rate of growth - low cell loss factor
with acute hyperthermia > 45 degrees do you see a change to the shoulder? What about with 40-43 degrees?
steepening of xray survival curve; no change to shoulder

with lower temperature: removal of shoulder
Electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA)
feed in fragments of DNA that resemble promotor and then radioactive labeled then mix with cell lysate (bunch of protein) then run on gel; then if protein attaches then can see shift in gel runing;

monitors protein that binds to DNA
Rnase protection assay
assess binding of proteins to RNA to prevent nuclease cleavage
can RT-PCR be used to assess gene expression
yes
two-hybrid screen looks at what
protein protein interaction
which can u use the whole genome for : RT PCR or expression array
expression array
2D gel electrophoresis - dna or protein
protein
bind to and inhibit the transcription of specific genes and/or they can silence cytoplasmic mRNAs by inhibiting translation ; sized 25 nucleotide
siRNAs and miRNAs
whats denser polyactrylamide gels versus agarose gels? Which is used for small DNA?
polyacrylamide (used for fine separation)
ELISA
well plates; want to measure cytokines or other proteins - antibody in the well plates put in the serum of patient

another antibody will be added that binds if there is a primary antibody-protein interaction
subtractive hybridization input
compares amounts of mRNA in different samples
is the RNA transcribed from DNA translated directly on the ribosome
no it undergoes the first step to go from RNA of whole genome to post processing to remove introns
Dnase I footprinting
assess binding of proteins to DNA to prevent nuclease cleavage
transfer of a genet to a mutant cell in order to determine whether doing so restores the normal phenotype
functional complementation
what interaction does phage display
protein-protein
what wavelength is considered ionizing
10^-7 (less than 10^-6)
which of the following are sensitive to XRT: XP, Cockaynes, Werners, Blooms, HNPCC
trick; none
if 2 cell lines with difference alpha/beta ratios have the same D10 for a single dose. What would you expect the change in D10 if you fractionated it (assuming alpha beta was low for 1 and high for the other)?
the low alpha beta D10's would increase
the high alpha beta would not change
how does OER change for high doses? For low dose rate?
for high doses - OER increases (oxygen more effective for high doses - ie more resistant part of curve)

for low dose rate - OER decreases (on the alpha portion of the curve - oxygen not doing much)
how do u calculate the % hypoxic cells in a tumor using animals
SF of air breathing animals / SF of nitrogen breathing animals
what does hypoxia do to p53?
apoptosis of p53 wild type cells, gene amplification, genomic instability in p5# mutated cells and increased metastatic potentials (increas in p53 mutant cell pop w/ hypoxia because wild type die via apoptosis
which of the following is a pure beta emitter : I-131 or Y-90
Y-90 (zeralin)
in the dilution assay how do you calculate the survival faction of the irradiated cells using the TD50 (total dose/# of cells to infect 50% of the recipient animals)
TD50 control / TD 50 irradiated
epo trials demonstrated what affect on cancer patients survival
deleterious
18F perfluorocarbon emulsion is used to assay what?
tumor blood flow
if growth fraction = 1 then what does Tpot equal to? If GF = 0?
GF = 1 (Tpot = Tc)
GF = 0 (Tpot = infinity)
are mTOR inhibitors radiosensitizers
yes
ATM's control of check points through what mediators: G1/S, G2/M, and S phase
G1/S - inhibition of MDM2, activation of p53 and Chk2/1
G2/M - activation of Chk2/Chk1, p53 and inhibition of MDM2
S phase - Nbs1 and SMC1

BRCA1 is a substrate as well
most radiosensitive cell class in Casarett system? Rubin
Casarett
vegetative intermitotic -> diff intermit -> rever post-mitotic -> fixed post-mitotic

Rubin
undiff stem -> stem -> reverting mature -> fixed/functional mature
CNS changes post radiation affect gray or white matter
white; demyelination, vasculopathies, necrosis
when is radiation pneumonitis seen? Fibrosis?
1-6 months for pneumonitis; 6 months for fibrosis
when boron is irradiated with neutron what are the products
lithium and alpha particles
amsacrine - topo I or II
II (just like etoposide)
in a isobologram analysis what does the straight line represent
additive; below represents synergism; above reflect anatgonism
use of pentoxyfylline
prevent radiation induced fibrosis
most common cancer seen in chernobyl? Japanese A-bomb? Marshall islands? Tonsils?
chernobyl thyroid
japan - bladder?
marshall island - thyroid
tonsil: thyroid
leukema vs solid - which follwos the linear quadratic absolute risk
leukemia ; (solid - linear relative risk model - base rate multiplied by relative risk)
at what age does the fetus take up iodine
10 weeks
how much (%) does radon take of annual effective dose? Nuclear medicine? Natural background (minus radon)?
radon 30%; nuclear 0.14 mSv; natural (- radon) : 1 mSv

diagnostic 3 mSV
for emergency dose should not exceed
500 mSv
LET value for neutrons (energy average)? LET for 250 kv x-rays? 150 Mev protons?
100 neutrons; 2 (250 kvp x-rays; 0.5 (protons)
units: keV/micrometer
the tunel assay is used for detecting what?
apoptosis (specifically DNA fragmentation) - deoxynucleotidyl transferease mediated deoxyuridine triphosphate nick end labeling
what does BOLD MRI imaging detect
changes in paramagnetic deoxyhemoglobin which represents a very noninvasive measurement of hypoxia (BOLD - blood oxygen level dependent)
tissues with high capacity for clonogen migration from outside the irradiation field tend to be those that have FSUs arrange in _____( series or parallel) or those structurally ____ (defined or undefined)
series (intestinal epithelim, spinal cord)
undefined (skin)
whats the diff btw ion pair and free radical
ion pair represents electron and free radical whereas free radical is the unpaired electron molecule alone
with increasing dose of radiation the formation of DSBs becomes more linear or linear quadratic
with high enough dose becomes linear
when are chromosome/chromotid abnormalities observed? What's one example of an abnormality that could be observed in interphase?
majority seen in mitosis; exception is micronuclei which result from acentric fragment that cell forms nuclei
with a cell line with a large "n" what would happen to D0 if I increase fraction size
it would decrease
is mental retardation induction deterministic or stochastic
deterministic
if deficient in MRE11 what disease? BLM helicase? WRN helicase? A-G mismatch/BRCA2? Artemis?
MRE11 - ataxia-telangiectasia-like disorder
BLM - bloom's
WRN - werner's
A-G mismatch/BRCA2 - fanconi's
Artemis - SCID
in regions of hypoxia describe what happnes to functional lymphatics and interstitial fluid pressure
decreased lymphatics
increased interstitial fluid pressure
in absence of angiogenesis tumors would be expected to only reach a diameter of …
2 mm
hypoxia has what affect on BRCA1
repressed (leads to less DNA repair HRR); still hypoxia activates RAD51
what happens to the cell loss factor after the start of radiotherapy
appears to decreas --> slowing tumor regression
MAPK and PI3K are both dounstream targets of what
RAS signaling; results in cell viability
would RFLP be useful in gene expression?
no because only measures change in DNA base sequence
RAF, MEK, JNK, RAC/RHO, PLC and Pi3k/AKT
Ras targets
wortmanin is a ____ inhibitor
PI3K
what do I have to take a tumor down to with regards to clonogenic cells to have the chance of cure to be 37%
10^0 = 1
are patients with deficient NER characterized by cancer proneness? What are the 2 prototype diseases?
NO; XP and cockaynes
viruses that can inactivate p53 include…
HPV, SV40, and adenovirus ( NOT EBV)
how is p53 activated in response to DNA damage
phosphorylation or acetylation
what is the threshold for the emeitc response of RT? Detectable change in blood count?
1 Gy
onset of vomiting can be used as a indicator of life-threatening whole body RT; what time frame do u use?
within 4 hours indicates life threatening dose
who is more sensitive to induction of radiation induced sterility - younger or older women
older women.
the most radiosensitive cells in the heart are…
the vascular endothelial cells
order these in terms of dose (and time to onset) - temp erythema, moist desquamtion, dry desquamation, temporary and permanent epilation
2 Gy - 1 day - temporary erythema
3 Gy - 3 weeks - temp epilation
7 Gy - 3 weeks - permanent epilation
14 Gy - 4 weeks - dry desquamation
18 Gy - 4 weeks - wet desquamation
what types of drugs can be used to treat radiation nephropathy
ACE inhibitors
what is the life span of mature spermatids
67 days
TGF beta - has a ____ effect on epithelial cell proliferation
inhibitory; but increases prolif of mesenchymal cells and extracellular matrix and involved in radiation fibrosis
the TD5 of the cspinal cord as a function of length changes how
initially decreases with increasing cord length, then remains relatively constant
in the kidney, the tolerance to retreatment ______ (increases or decreases) with time; with treatment how does kidney differ from other tissues with regards to inflammation
decreases (which indicates continous progression of renal injury)

does not experience increase in inflammatory cells
how does photodynamic therapy work? Is it toxic to hypoxic cells?
photosensitizing agent, oxygen and light ; agent - hemotoprophyrin; light wavelength is 600-900 nm

not efficacious to hypoxic cells
what drug class mediates synthesis of eiconsanoids from arachidonic acid
COX-2 inhibitors
tipifarnib mechanism of action
inhibitor of farnesyl transferase
why is bleomycin more toxic to oxygenated cells than to hypoxic cells
role of molecular oxygen; redox reactions involving metas and O2
whats a pro drug (versus bioreductive drugs)
hypoxic cell sensitizers are bioreductive meaning they get converted in hypoxic cells

prodrugs get converted in the liver (amifostine)
what drug has been used to reduce the incidence and severity of oral mucositis?
palifermin (keratinocyte growth factor); amifostine has shown to reduce the incidence xerostomia (not oral mucositis)
overgaards metaanalysis of hypoxic cell radiosensitizers or oxygen showed what
improvement of survival and tumor control
what phase does hydroxurea work in
s phase
estimated risk for a mutation being produced in the child of an irradiated individual is…
0.2 % per SV
CGH arrays are used for genome-wide detection of chromosomal gains or losses
….
genomic DNA arrays can be used to study epigenetic changes; low abundance RNAs cannot be used because of high background signals; expression profiles btw cancer and normal cells differ by a lot; they are subject ot inconsistencies
….
1 Gy of irradiation to the testis results in a nadir of sperm count at ___ months
2
G2 block is what minute per cGy
1 min / cGy
Dicentrics
- dose for low LET radiations delivered at a high dose rate
- dose for low LET radiations at low dose rate
linear-quadratic - low LET deliverate at a high dose rate
linear - low LET at low dose rate
as age increases active bone marrow is increasingly located in the ______ (axial or appendicular)
axial
nimarozle best for single or mult fraction
single - reoxygenation leaves drug useless
hierarchical tissue - what accounts for most acute RT effects
stem cell depletion
minium dose at 2 Gy/fx causes late kidney toxicity (nephropathy)
25-30 Gy
wither's head and neck extra dose to combat repopulation in H&N
0.6 Gy (60 cGy/day)
the single-hit, multitarget model does not provide a good fit for (low or high) radiation doses
high doses (overestimates)
exposing post irradiation cells to saline versus drug that prevents cell cycling does what to PLD
fixation of PLD in the drug treated cells which results in lower SF
bleomycin works in hpoxic or oxgenated cells
increases damage fixation in presence of oxygen
clonogenic cell survival is defined as the ability of cells to form colonies of at lease ___ cells
50
proton therapy has higher or lower integral dose
lower integral dose
mechanism of action for tirapazamine
hypoxic cells reduce TPZ -> free radicals
generation of DNA DSB
interference with DNA replication

poisinging of topo II
annual total effective dose limit to an individual member of the general public is…
1 mSv
gemcitabine mechanims of action
cytidine analogue competes for uptake (inhibits DNA polymerase and ribonucleoside reductase)

when mismatch genes inactive - abolishes cytotoxic and radiosensitizing effect of gem
dose rate effect is most pronounced at what dose range
.01 - 1 Gy / min
1 - 100 cGy / min
dirty bomb in large city uses what estimate for fatal cancers
5.0 x 10^-2 cancer/SV
survival curve of population of cells with hypoxic sells demonstrates a break in the curve; the curve demonstrates a shallow or steeper slope and a lower or higher D0
Do is higher reflecting increased resistance and the slope is shallower
annual effective dose from radon gas
2 mSv
how do PARP inhibitors work
PARP1 is a protein that is important for repairing single-strand breaks ('nicks' in the DNA). If such nicks persist unrepaired until DNA is replicated (which must precede cell division), then the replication itself will cause double strand breaks to form.[citation needed]

classic cleaved target apoptosis

Drugs that inhibit PARP1 cause multiple double strand breaks to form in this way, and in tumours with BRCA1, BRCA2 or PALB2 [6] mutations these double strand breaks cannot be efficiently repaired, leading to the death of the cells. Normal cells that don't replicate their DNA as often as cancer cells, and that lacks any mutated BRCA1 or BRCA2 still have homologous repair operating, which allows them to survive the inhibition of PARP.[7][8]

Some cancer cells that lack the tumor suppressor PTEN may be sensitive to PARP inhibitors because of downregulation of Rad51, a critical homologous recombination component, although other data suggest PTEN may not regulate Rad51.[3][9] Hence PARP inhibitors may be effective against many PTEN-defective tumours[4] (e.g. some aggressive prostate cancers).
whats a weaker carcinogen radiation or chemo
generally radiation
late-responding normal tissues have shallower initial slopes than for early-responding tissues
what is mitotis promoting factor
cylin B/cdk1
where is ras located and what happens after farnelystransferase gets hold of it
ras located in cytoplasm; following farnelysation --> goes to cell membrane
OER in low dose rate vs high dose rate
2 vs 3 Gy
cachexia is assoc with what cytokine
TNF- alpha
the higher the LET what is more likely spurs , blobs, or short track
track
when spurs, blobs and short tracks overlap, this results in…
multiply damaged sites (clustered lesions)
minimum dose detected by dicentrincs in lymphocytes is
25 cGy
how can acentric fragments be used to estimate dose
by looking for micronuclei
in HRR what complex causes the initial incision and removal to create a single-stranded region
rad50-mre11-nbs1 complex
in NHEJ what binds to the broken DNA ends
KU70/80
in NHEJ what has endo/exo nuclease activity to pair away regions of mismatch in the microhomology hydrogen bonding that leaves some single stranded ends
artemis
PARP, DNA glycosylase, AP endonuclease, DNA plymerase Beta, ligase III, and XRCC1 are involved in what
Base Excision Repair
Lig 4, ATR-Sekel, RS-SCID and AT-like disorder (MRE 11) are syndromes in which individuals are radio _____ (sensitive vs resistant)
sensitive
what is the predominant process for DSB repair in human cells?
NHEJ
what corrects interstrand crosslinks
recombinational repair (HRR, or NHEJ)
what corrects AG/TC mismatch, insertion, deletion
mismatch
when does D0 = D37
when there is no shoulder or n=1; survival follows single hit kinetics
what phase does apoptosis often occur in
interphase (G0)
which pathway results in release of cytochrome C from the mitochondria
intrinisic pathway -- cyt C then combines with pro-caspase 9 and ATP in the apoptosome resulting in the formation of active caspase 9
paired survival curve in which animals are irradiated eitehr while breathing air or under hypoxic conditions looks like what
y axis - logarithmic fx of cells; x axis - dose
steep portion initially (aerobic cells dead) then a break where there is a shallow portion that reflects the hypoxic cells
by extrapolating back to the y-axis can estimate the percent hypoxic cells
which is a pure beta emitter: 90Y or 131I
90Y (Zevalin)
in the percent labeled mitoses approach with time to 50% point represents what?
G2 + 0.5M
TG2 + 0.5 Tm
(ln2)(Tc) / ln(1+GF)
Tpot
what does Tpot assume cell loss factor to be
Missing Answer
what viruses can result in inhibition of p53
SV40 large T antigen, papillomavirus E6 protein and adenovirus E1B
TRK - oncogene/tumorsupressor
oncogene
MDM2 - oncogene/tumor supressor
oncogene
VHL, PTCH, CDH1, APC, CKDN2A (p16INK4A and P14ARF), MEN1, SMAD 4, and NF2 - all share what
tumor supressors
are oncogenes inherited in a pedigree
rarely since generally lethal (mutation dominant though)
BRAF oncogene is assoc with what type of cancer
melanoma
epigenetic regulation via DNA methylation, histone deacetylation and gene silencing through miRNA is important for…
silensing genes (tumor supressors ; NOT oncogenes)
p16INK4a and p14ARF function by promotin what
retinoblastoma (RB) and p53 transcription factor respectively

p16INK4a inhibits cyclin D dependent kinases - CDK 4 and 6

p14ARF antagonizes the function of p53 negative regulator, MDM 2
SMC1 - is it pro or anti cell cycle
anti cell cycle stimulated by ATM via Nbs1
prodromal TBI reflect 0.5-1Gy dose
easy fatigability, anorexia, nausea and vomiting

vs fever, hypotension, immediate diarrhea
low vs high doses
what happens to latent period if u increase dose
decrease latent period
what type of tissue is sensitive to large dose to a small volume: serial or parallel
serial
edema in the alveolar wall, infiltration by mononuclear cells and macrophages, and desquamation of the alveolar epithelium all characterize what
lung fibrosis (occurs > 6 months)
anemia, azotemia and increased blood pressure characterize what
radiation nephropathy ()
what is the main way to spare the parotid
decrease the volume irradiatied (since fractionation results in relatively little sparing)
spinal cord myelopathy involves what cells
endothelial cells, oligodendrocytes and macrophages
gonadal endocrine function of the testes occurs at what dose range
20-30 Gy
the radiobiological target of the testes is identified as what
type B spermatogonia
BED tumor experimental / BED tumor standard // BED complications experimental / BED complications standard
therapeutic ratio
actinomycin D concurrent with radiation - causes toxicity of what organ
lung
what drug is used to prevent radiation-induced fibrosis
pentoxifylline
contrast the toxicity of hypoxic cell radiosensitizers vs halogenated pyrimidines
hypoxic cell radiosensitizers - peripheral neuropathy (-azoles)
halogenated pyrimidines - photosensitivity (- deoxyuridine)
drugs ending in -nib versus -mab
nib - small TKI
mab - monoclonal antibody
ixabepilone works by what
binds to tubulin and promotes tubulin polymerization and microtubule stabilization, theraby arresting cells in the G2-M phase of the cell cycle
nelarabine works by how
antimetabolite - ara-G; disrupts DNA synthesis and induces apoptosis

clofarabine - inhibits ribonucleotide reductase
romidepsin is an examble of what type of drug? Mechanism of action?
histone deacetylase inhibitor; results in hyperacetylation of histones which affects gene expression (since for expression cell must control the coiling and uncoiling of DNA around histones)
fulvestrant works how?
targets and degrades the estrogen receptors present in breast cancer cells (faslodex)
abarelix works how?
inhibits gonadotropin and related androgen production by directly and competitievely blocking receptors in the pituitary gland. Directly suppresses luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulatin hormone secretion and thereby reduces tesosterone
transducing tumors cells with cDNA with TNF and promoter for EGR which is turned on by the active oxygen species produced by radiation
radiogenetic therapy - radiation-inducible gene linked to a cytotoxic agent
cut offs used for 4-5% per SV versus 8-10% in risk of radiation-induced cancer
< 0.2 Sv or dose rate less than 0.1 SV/hr
txt of ankylosing spondylitis resulted in what type of cancer
leukeumia (NOT CLL)
does treatment with radioactive iodine cause increase in 2nd malignancies
no; has not been seen
when leukemias and solid tumors appear following irradiation in comparison to the general population
leukeumas appeared few years after irradiaiton but solid tumors appeared at same age as occurs spontaneously
are humans more sensitive to radiation than mice
no
was there an increase in genetic effects in children of A-bomb survivors
no
fetus begins to take up iodine at what age
10 weeks
what relation does thalidomide and angiogenesis have?
thalidomide is inhibitor of angiogenesis
what pathway does CAK have to do with
p53 pathway -> p21 -| CAK (CAK normal stimulates cdc2 and cyclin B)
when does the effective dose equal the equivalent dose
under conditions where the whole body is irradiated
does background radiation increase or decrease with altitude
increase with increasing altitude
if I increase initial heat dose will I get more or less thermotolerance
more
from the Japan population what is the estimated risk of fatal cancer
8% per SV
what is SDS detergent used for
to denature proteins