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157 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic?
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An aircraft in distress
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What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head on?
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The aircraft on the left shall give way
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What aircraft has the right of way over all other aircraft listed?
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Glider
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An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is on the left the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right of way?
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The airship
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Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?
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Aircraft towing another aircraft
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What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head on collision?
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Both pilots should give way to the right
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When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft....
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At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another
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Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
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An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
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Except when necessary for takeoff or landing what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
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An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft
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Except when necessary for takeoff or landing what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
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An altitude of 500 feet AGL except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure
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Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer that what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?
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500 feet
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When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds which aileron positions should be used?
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Aileron down on the side from which the wind in blowing
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Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?
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Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing
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Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nose wheel equipped high wing airplane?
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Quartering tailwind
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Refer to figure 9, area A-
How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind? |
Left aileron up, elevator neutral
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Refer to figure 9, area B-
How should the controls be held while taxiing a tail wheel airplane into a right quartering headwind? |
Right aileron up, elevator neutral
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Refer to figure 9, area C-
How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tail wheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind? |
Left aileron down, elevator down
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Refer to figure 9, area D
How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind? |
Left aileron down, elevator down
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Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should...
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Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
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What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
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Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace
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What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain feature during flight?
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All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance
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The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use....
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A series of short regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10 degrees sector
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Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during a straight and level flight?
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Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
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How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
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There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft
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Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall....
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Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
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When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) the pilot shall....
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Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
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Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
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Blue omni directional lights
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A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
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Three white lights and on red light
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A below glide slope indication from a tricolor VASI is
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A red light signal
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An above glide slope indication from a tricolor VASI is
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An amber light signal
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An on glide slope indication from a tricolor VASI is
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A green light signal
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A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
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Pulsation red light
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Refer to figure 48-
Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is |
On the glide slope
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Refer to figure 48-
VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is |
Above the glide slope
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Refer to figure 48-
While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is... |
Below the glide slope
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To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone then click it....
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Five times
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An airports rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
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That weather at the airport located in class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
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A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits....
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Two quick white flashes between green flashes
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A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits....
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Two quick white flashes between green flashes
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How can a military airport be identified at night?
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Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes
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Refer to figure 49-
That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for.... |
Taxiing and takeoff
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Refer to figure 49-
According to the airport diagram, which statement is true? |
Take offs may be started at position A on runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B
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Refer to figure 49-
What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted? |
A may be used for taxi and take off, E may be used only as an overrun
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Refer to figure 49-
Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a |
Closed runway
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Refer to figure 50-
The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area... |
Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff
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The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
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090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic
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Refer to figure 50-
Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing |
Right hand traffic and Runway 18
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Refer to figure 50-
If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on.... |
Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right
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Refer to figure 51-
The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is... |
Left-hand for runway 36 and right hand for runway 18
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Refer to figure 51-
The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the... |
Southeast of the airport
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Refer to figure 51-
The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a |
Right quartering head wind
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Refer to figure 51-
Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle? |
Left hand traffic on runway 36
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Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LaHSO) program?
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Student pilots
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Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LaHSO) clearance?
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Pilot in command
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When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LaHSO) clearance?
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When it will compromise safety
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The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
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090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic
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Refer to figure 50-
Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing |
Right hand traffic and Runway 18
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Refer to figure 50-
If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on.... |
Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right
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Refer to figure 51-
The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is... |
Left-hand for runway 36 and right hand for runway 18
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Refer to figure 51-
The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the... |
Southeast of the airport
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Refer to figure 51-
The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a |
Right quartering head wind
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Refer to figure 51-
Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle? |
Left hand traffic on runway 36
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Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LaHSO) program?
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Student pilots
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Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LaHSO) clearance?
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Pilot in command
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When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LaHSO) clearance?
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When it will compromise safety
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What is the CTAF.UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?
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122.8 MHz
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When flying over Arrow-wood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than?
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2,000 feet AGL
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On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous In-flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1?
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117.1 MHz
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The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?
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Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet MSL
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The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a...
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Visual checkpoint used to identify position
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The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is?
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20 feet
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The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot and Audubon Lake varies from?
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2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL
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Which public use airports deplicted are indicated as having fuel?
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Minot Intl. and Mercer County Regional Airport
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The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton Evans County airport, and Ridgeline Airport are?
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Visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Svannah Class C airspace
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What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?
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1,549 feet MSL
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The top group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 340* radial is?
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455 feet MSL
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What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?
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1,273 feet MSL
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What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the south east side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?
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1,403 feet MSL
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The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is?
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126.0 MHz
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What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Dear Hill TV towers in the congested area south of NAS Dallas?
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3,449 feet MSL
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The navigation facility at Dallas Ft Worth International is a
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VOR/DME
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Pilots fly over a nation wildlife refuge are requested to fly...
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No lower than 2,000 feet AGL
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The width of federal airway from either side of the centerline is
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4 nautical miles
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Unless otherwise specified, Federal airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
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1,200 feet above the surface to and including 17,999 feet MSL
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Normal VFR operation in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least?
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1,000 and 3 miles
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At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight lever?
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18,000 feet MSL
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A blue segmented circle on a sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
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Class D
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Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only...
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When the associated control tower is in operation
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Unless otherwise authorized two-way radio communication with air traffic control are required for landing or takeoffs
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At all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions
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Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
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Class C
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What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
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Two-way radio communication equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter
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What minimum pilot certificate is required for operation within class B airspace?
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Private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
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What minimum pilot certification is required for operating within a class B airspace?
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Private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
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What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within class B airspace?
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Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
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An operable 4096-code transponder and mode C encoding altimeter are required in
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Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the class B primary airport
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In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
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Class A
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During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from the clouds requirement for VFR flight is
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2,000 Feet
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What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
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1-mile visibility and clear of clouds
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What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
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3 miles
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The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
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500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally
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During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
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1,000 feet
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VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of...
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3 miles, and 500 feet below, or 1,000 feet above the clouds in a controlled airspace
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During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum flight visibility for VFR at night is...
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3 miles
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Outside controlled airspace the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is...
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1 mile
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During operations outside controlled aispace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 MSL the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is...
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500 feet
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The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is...
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5 miles
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For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL the minimum horizontal distance from the clouds required is...
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1 mile
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During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is...
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1,000
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No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the...
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Ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles
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The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are...
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1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility
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What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in class D airspace?
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1 mile flight visibility
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What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in class D airspace at night?
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The pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IFR equipped
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No person may operate an airplane within class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the...
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Airplane is equipped for instrument flight
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With certain exceptions all aircraft within 30 miles of a class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with...
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An operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability
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The floor of class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport north-northwest of Fort Worth meacham Field is...
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4,000 feet MSL
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Identify airspace over Lowe Airport
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Class G airspace surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL Class E airspace 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL
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The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is
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Class G airspace from the surface up to 700 feet AGL
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The airspace overlying Mc Kinney is controlled from the surgace to
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2,900 feet AGL
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What is the floor of the savannah Class C airspace at the shelve area?
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1,300 feet MSL
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What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?
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Mode C transponder and two way radio
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The vertical limits of that portion of class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are...
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1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL
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The vertical limit of class C airspace above the primary airport is normally...
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4,000 feet AGL
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The normal radius of outer area of class C airspace is...
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20 nautical miles
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What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area?
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Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted
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Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with...
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All pilots
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A non-tower satellite airport within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport requires radio communications be established and maintained with the...
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Primary airport’s control tower
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Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
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Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency
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To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft’s position, the aircraft must have a...
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VHF transmitter and receiver
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Automatic Terminal Information Service is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning...
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Non-control information in selected high activity terminal areas
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An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360* “ traffic 10 o’clock 2 miles south bound” where should the pilot look for this traffic?
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Northwest
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An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying northing in a calm wind “traffic 9 o’clock 2 miles south bound” Where should this pilot look for this traffic?
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West
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Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as...
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Safety alerts traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft
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TRSA service in the terminal radar program provides...
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Sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft
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When making routine transponder code changes pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
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7500, 7600, 7700
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Unless otherwise authorized if flying a transponder equipped aircraft a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code?
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1200
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Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft in Lincoln Municipal?
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Sequencing to the primary Class C airport traffic advisories conflict resolution and safety alerts.
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A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot?
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Is cleared to land
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If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be?
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Steady RED
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AN alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to?
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Exercise extreme caution
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While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should?
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Exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
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(Refer to figure 28 on page 5-8) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?
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1030 MST
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(Refer to figure 28 on page 5-8) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated uneversal time?
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1645Z
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(Refer to Figure28) An aircraft departs an airport in the pacific standard time zone
at 1030 PST for a 4- hour fight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? |
2230Z
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(Refer to figure 21, area 3 on page 4-18.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck county airport?
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Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position report in the traffic pattern
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When flying HAWK N666CB the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is...
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“McAlester radio, hawk six six six Charlie Bravo receiving ardmore vortac over”
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The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is...
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“Four thousand five hundred”
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Prior to entering an airport advisory area a pilot should...
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Contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories
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After landing at tower-controlled airport when should the pilot contact ground control?
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When advised by the tower to do so
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If instructed by ground control to taxi to runway 9 the pilot may proceed....
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Via taxiways and across runways to but not onto runway 9
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When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter be replaced or recharged?
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After one half the battery’s useful life
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When may an emergency locator transmitter be tested?
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During the first 5 minutes after the hour
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An ATC clearance provides....
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Authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace
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When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing initial communications should be with....
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Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz
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FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by...
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Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office
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Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are...
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To the left on runway 17L, and runway 35L, to the right on runway 17R and runway 35R
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The letters VHF/DF appearing in the airport/facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that...
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The Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station
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FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
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70
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