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120 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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is present in more than 70% to 75% of duodenal ulcers; it occurs at a lower rate with gastric ulcers but is found in most gastric ulcers in which NSAIDs cannot be implicated.
Helicobacter pylori
is a loss of enteric surface epithelium that extends deeply enough to penetrate the muscularis mucosae.
gastrointestinal ulcer
refers to a chronic disorder in which the patient has a lifelong underlying tendency to develop mucosal ulcers at sites that are exposed to peptic juice (i.e., acid and pepsin).
PUD
2 main etiologies of PUD?
1. H. pylori
2. Imbalance b/w mucosal protective factors and aggressive facotrs.
Protective Factors for PUD
1. Mucosal barrier (bicarbonate and gastric mucus)
2. Competent sphinctters (pyloric and LES)
3. Certan medications: H2 blockers, Antacids, Sucralfate, Colloidal bismuth sus. Anticholinergic, Cytotec, prilosec.
Prevent bile salt reflux into the stomach and the esophogus.
competent sphincters :
pyloric sphincter and lower esophageal sphincter (LES)
Aggressive factors that are medications
Aspirin
NSAIDS
Gluccocorticoids
Aggressive factors in PUD disease
a. Gastric acid
b. Pepsin
c. Bile acids
d. Decreased blood flow to gastric mucosa
e. Incompetent sphincters
f. Various medications
H. pylori infection
Cigarette smoking
h. Gastrinoma
Stress,
ETOH,
Impaired proximal duodenal bicarbonate secretion
Highly associated risk factors for PUD
1. Smoking more than than ½ pack of cigarettes per day
2. Drugs (NSAIDs)
3. Family history
4. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
. Possibly associated with PUD
.
1. Corticosteroids
2. Stress
(condition caused by non–insulin-secreting tumors of the pancreas, which secrete excess amounts of gastrin)

.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Types of PUD
1. Duodenal ulcers
2. Gastric ulcers
In all, 90% to 95% occur in the first portion of the duodenum. 2. Four times more common than gastric ulcers 3. For men, 10% lifetime prevalence; 5% for women 4. New cases annually: 200,000 to 400,000 5. Most common age range is 25 to 55 years.
Duodenal ulcers
1. Most commonly seen in the lesser curvature of the stomach near the incisura angularis
2. Three to four times more prevalent than duodenal ulcers in NSAID users 4. Peak age of incidence: 55 to 65 years (rare before age 40)
Gastric Ulcer
Ulcer most commonly seen in ages 55 to 65, rarely before age 40.
Gastric Ulcer
What type of ulcer is seen in ages 25 to 55.
Duodenal Ulcers
Epigastric pain (“gnawing,” “aching,” “hunger-like”) occurs 1 to 3 hours after eating. The pain is rhythmic and periodic.
Duodenal Ulcers
2. Nocturnal pain that awakens a patient from sleep Heartburn (suggests reflux disease)
Duodenal Ulcers
. Usually relieved by antacid or food ingestion
Duodenal Ulcers
Epigastric tenderness: usually midline or right of midline
Duodenal Ulcers
Epigastric pain similar to that associated with duodenal ulcers and also rhythmic and periodic
Gastric Ulcer
2. Pain is not usually relieved by food in this type of ulcer
Gastric Ulcer
Food may precipitate symptoms.
Gastric Ulcer
Ulcer with subjective findings of Nausea and anorexia
Gastric Ulcer
Epigastric tenderness at or to the left of midline
Gastric Ulcer
Epigastric tenderness 1 inch or farther to the right of midline
duodenal ulcer
S/S of shock with PUD ....think?
Acute or chronic blood loss
Nausea or Vomitting in PUD is a sign of ?
Pyloric channel obstruction
Boardlike abdomen and rebound tenderness.
Physical findings in PUD with perforation.
Hematemis or melena in PUD
Ulcer is bleeding
For detection of H. pylori:
1. Histopathology (endoscopic biopsy)—gold standard
2. Urea breath test
3. Serum H. Pylori antibody test.
4. Stool antigen for H. pylori
a. Positive tests implies active infection. b. More expensive than serum and stool tests c. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may cause false-negative results and should be withheld for at least 7 days before testing is done.
Urea breath test
a. Positive test does not necessarily imply an active infection; it may reflect previous infection.
Serum H Pylori antibody test
a. Detects active infection by measuring fecal excretion of H. pylori antigens
b. Good test to use to assess whether
treatment has been successful c. PPIs may cause false-negative results and should be withheld for at least 7 days before testing is done.
Stool antigen for H. pylori
Postitive urea breath test indicates what?
H. pylori infection
Leukocytosis suggests
ulcer penetration or perforation
Elevated serum amylase level with severe epigastric pain suggests:
possible ulcer penetration into the pancreas.
Fasting serum gastrin levels are used to identify what syndrome
Zollinger- Ellison syndrom
Rec. diagnostic exam for uncomplicated dyspepsia.
Upper GI barium studies
Complications of PUD
GI bleeding
Perforation
Gastric outlet obstruction
2. Physical examination
a. Pallor b. Tachycardia c. Hypotension d. Diaphoresis 3. Laboratory findings
a. Decreased hematocrit due to bleeding or hemodilution from IV fluids b. BUN may rise owing to absorption of blood nitrogen from the small intestine and as the result of prerenal azotemia.

.
GI bleeding
Tx for GI bleeding
b. IV hydration with normal saline
c. Blood transfusion as required d. Continuous IV infusion of H2 blockers at a dose adequate to maintain gastric pH above 4 e. Vasopressin (Pitressin) and IV octreotide (Sandostatin) should not be used for bleeding ulcers. f. Surgery if bleeding persists
1. Subjective data a. Severe abdominal pain b. Epigastric pain that radiates to back or right upper quadrant 2. Physical examination a. Ill appearance b. Boardlike abdomen c. Severe epigastric tenderness d. Absent bowel sounds e. Knee-to-chest position f. Patient may have symptoms of hypovolemia, fever.
Perforation
3. Laboratory findings a. Leukocytosis is almost always present. b. Amylase levels may be mildly elevated.
Perforation
4. Diagnostics
a. Abdominal x-rays may reveal free air in the peritoneal cavity.
b. Upper GI radiography with water-soluble contrast may be useful.
c. Barium studies are contraindicated.

.
Perforation
Therapy for perforation
a. Surgery
b. Patients who are considered poor candidates for surgery or who present more than 24 hours after perforation and are stable may be followed closely while on IV fluids, nasogastric suction, and broad-spectrum antibiotics.
c. If their condition deteriorates, they should be taken to surgery.

.
1. Caused by edema or narrowing of the pylorus or duodenal bulb
Gastric outlet obstruction
Subjective findings: a. Early satiety b. Nausea c. Vomiting of undigested food d. Epigastric pain unrelieved by food or antacids e. Weight loss

.
Gastric outlet obstruction
Physical examination findings: a. “Succussion splash” may be audible on physical examination, caused by large amounts of air and fluid in the stomach. b. Nasogastric aspiration may return a large amount (more than 200 ml) of foul-smelling fluid.
Gastric outlet obstruction
Diagnostics and labs for gastric outlet obstruction.
Diagnostics
a. Upper GI endoscopy should be performed after 24 to 72 hours to determine the source of obstruction.
b. At 72 hours, all patients should be given the saline load test, accomplished by instilling 750 ml of normal saline into the stomach and checking the residual in 30 minutes.
c. Residual volume greater than 400 ml is considered positive.
d. Patient should remain on nasogastric suction for 5 to 7 additional days.
Laboratory:
Metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia may be present.
Epigastric pain or burning, early satiety, or postprandial fullness.
Endoscopy is warranted in patients with alarm features or in those older than 55 years.
All other patients should first undergo testing for Helicobacter pylori or a trial of empiric proton pump inhibitor.
dyspepsia
the chewing and swallowing of food that is regurgitated volitionally after meals.
rumination
Acute symptoms of N and V without abdominal pain are typically caused by
food poisoning,
infectious gastroenteritis, drugs,
systemic illness
The acute onset of nausea and vomiting with severe pain suggests
peritoneal irritation,
acute gastric
intestinal obstruction, pancreaticobiliary disease.
Persistent vomiting suggests:
pregnancy, gastric outlet obstruction, gastroparesis, intestinal dysmotility, psychogenic disorders, and central nervous system or systemic disorders.
Vomiting that occurs in the morning before breakfast is common with:
pregnancy, uremia, alcohol intake, and increased intracranial pressure.
Vomiting immediately after meals strongly suggests
bulimia or psychogenic causes.
Vomiting of undigested food one to several hours after meals is characteristic of
gastroparesis or a gastric outlet obstruction; physical examination may reveal a succussion splash.
The cause of gastric outlet obstruction is best demonstrated by
upper endoscopy
the cause of small intestinal obstruction is best demonstrated with
abdominal CT imaging.
What condition is confirmed by nuclear scintigraphic studies or 13C-octanoic acid breath tests, which show delayed gastric emptying and either upper endoscopy or barium upper gastrointestinal series showing no evidence of mechanical gastric outlet obstruction.
Gastroparesis
Abnormal liver function tests or elevated amylase or lipase suggest
pancreaticobiliary disease
pancreaticobiliary disease, which may be investigated with an
abdominal sonogram or CT scan.
Complications of nausea and vomittingh include:
dehydration, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, aspiration, rupture of the esophagus (Boerhaave syndrome), and bleeding secondary to a mucosal tear at the gastroesophageal junction (Mallory-Weiss syndrome).
For patient with more severe acute vomiting,unable to eat and losing gastric fluids has become dehydrated, resulting in hypokalemia with metabolic alkalosis. Treat with?
Intravenous 0.45% saline solution with 20 mEq/L of potassium chloride is given in most cases to maintain hydration.
are effective in preventing chemotherapy- and radiation-induced emesis when initiated prior to treatment. Although 5-HT3-receptor antagonists are effective as single agents for the prevention of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, their efficacy is enhanced by combination therapy with a corticosteroid (dexamethasone) and NK1-receptor antagonist (see below).
Serotonin 5-HT3-receptor antagonists
Ondansetron, granisetron, dolasetron, and palonosetron
increasingly are used for the prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting because of increased restrictions on the use of other antiemetic agents (such as droperidol).
Serotonin antagonists
have antiemetic properties, but the basis for these effects is unknown. These agents enhance the efficacy of serotonin receptor antagonists for preventing acute and delayed nausea and vomiting in patients receiving moderately to highly emetogenic chemotherapy regimens.
Corticosteroids

Corticosteroids (eg, dexamethasone
are highly selective antagonists for NK1-receptors in the area postrema. They are used in combination with corticosteroids and serotonin antagonists for the prevention of acute and delayed nausea and vomiting with highly emetogenic chemotherapy regimens. Combined therapy with a neurokinin1 receptor antagonist prevents acute emesis in 80–90% and delayed emesis in > 70% of patients treated with highly emetogenic regimens.
AprNeurokinin receptor antagonists

epitant and fosaprepitant
have antiemetic properties that are due to dopaminergic blockade as well as to their sedative effects. High doses of these agents are associated with antidopaminergic side effects, including extrapyramidal reactions and depression. These agents are used in a variety of situations. Cases of QT prolongation leading to ventricular tachycardia (torsades de pointes) have been reported in several patients receiving droperidol, hence it is no longer recommended as an antiemetic agent.
Dopamine antagonists

The phenothiazines, butyrophenones, and substituted benzamides
may be valuable in the prevention of vomiting arising from stimulation of the labyrinth, ie, motion sickness, vertigo, and migraines. They may induce drowsiness. A combination of oral vitamin B6 and doxylamine is recommended by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists as first-line therapy for nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.
Antihistamines and anticholinergics

These drugs (eg, meclizine, dimenhydrinate, transdermal scopolamine)
are used in psychogenic and anticipatory vomiting
Sedatives
Benzodiazepines
has been used widely as an appetite stimulant and antiemetic. Pure 9-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) is the major active ingredient in marijuana and is available by prescription as dronabinol. In doses of 5–15 mg/m2, oral dronabinol is effective in treating nausea associated with chemotherapy, but it is associated with central nervous system side effects in most patients.
Cannabinoids

Marijuana
In patients on mechanical ventilation, _____ can trigger a full respiratory cycle and result in respiratory alkalosis.
hiccups
Evaluation of the patient with persistent hiccups should include
a detailed neurologic examination, serum creatinine, liver chemistry tests, and a chest radiograph. When the cause remains unclear, CT of the head, chest, and abdomen, echocardiography, bronchoscopy, and upper endoscopy may help. On occasion, hiccups may be unilateral; chest fluoroscopy will make the diagnosis.
A number of drugs have been promoted as being useful in the treatment of hiccups, what is the most commonly used.
Chlorpromazine, 25–50 mg orally or intramuscularly
A number of simple remedies may be helpful in patients with acute benign hiccups.
(1) Irritation of the nasopharynx by tongue traction, lifting the uvula with a spoon, catheter stimulation of the nasopharynx, or eating 1 tsp of dry granulated sugar. (2) Interruption of the respiratory cycle by breath holding, Valsalva maneuver, sneezing, gasping (fright stimulus), or rebreathing into a bag. (3) Stimulation of the vagus by carotid massage. (4) Irritation of the diaphragm by holding knees to chest or by continuous positive airway pressure during mechanical ventilation. (5) Relief of gastric distention by belching or insertion of a nasogastric tube.
Adjunct in the prevention and treatment of portal-systemic encephalopathy; treatment of chronic constipation
Lactulose
Genitourinary irrigant in transurethral prostatic resection or other transurethral resection or other transurethral surgical procedures; diuretic; humectant; sweetening agent; hyperosmotic laxative; facilitate the passage of sodium polystyrene sulfonate through the intestinal tract
Sorbitol
Use
Treatment of Paget's disease of bone (osteitis deformans); adjunctive therapy for hypercalcemia; treatment of osteoporosis in women >5 years postmenopause
Calcitonis
Diarrhea of < 2 weeks duration is most commonly caused by
invasive or noninvasive pathogens and their enterotoxins.
Watery, nonbloody.
Usually mild, self-limited.
Caused by a virus or noninvasive bacteria.
Diagnostic evaluation is limited to patients with diarrhea that is severe or persists beyond 7 days.
Acute noninflammatory diarrhea
Blood or pus, fever.
Usually caused by an invasive or toxin-producing bacterium.
Diagnostic evaluation requires routine stool bacterial cultures (including Escherichia coli O157:H7) in all and testing as clinically indicated for Clostridium difficile toxin, and ova and parasites.
Acute inflammatory diarrhea
Diarrhea present for > 4 weeks.
Before embarking on extensive work-up, common causes should be excluded, including medications, chronic infections, and irritable bowel s
Chronic Diarrhea
Hyponatremia and nonanion gap metabolic acidosis occur in
secretory diarrheas.
Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate or C-reactive protein
suggests inflammatory bowel disease.
increased osmotic gap suggests an
osmotic diarrhea or disorder of malabsorption
A positive fecal fat stain suggests
a disorder of malabsorption
The presence of fecal leukocytes or lactoferrin may suggest
inflammatory bowel disease.
24-hour stool collection quantification of total weight and fat
A stool weight of < 200–300 g/24 h
excludes diarrhea and suggests a functional disorder such as irritable bowel syndrome
24-hour stool collection quantification of total weight and fat

A weight > 1000–1500 g suggests
a significant secretory process, including neuroendocrine tumors.
24-hour stool collection quantification of total weight and fat Fecal elastase < 100 mcg/g may be caused by
pancreatic insufficiency.
A fecal fat determination in excess of 10 g/24 h confirms a
malabsorptive disorder
Hematemesis (bright red blood or "coffee grounds").
Melena in most cases; hematochezia in massive upper gastrointestinal bleeds.
Volume status to determine severity of blood loss; hematocrit is a poor early indicator of blood loss.
Endoscopy diagnostic and may be therapeutic.
Upper GI bleed
Hematochezia usually present.
Ten percent of cases of hematochezia due to upper gastrointestinal source.
Evaluation with colonoscopy in stable patients.
Massive active bleeding calls for evaluation with sigmoidoscopy, upper endoscopy, angiography, or nuclear bleeding scan.
Lover GI bleed
Total serum bilirubin is normally
0.2–1.2 mg/dL
(3.42–20.52 mcmol/L)
jaundice may not be recognizable until levels are about
3 mg/dL
(51.3 mcmol/L).
refers to bleeding that is not apparent to the patient. It is manifested by recurrent positive FOBTs or FITs or recurrent iron deficiency anemia, or both in the absence of visible blood loss (as described below).
Obscure-occult bleeding
bleeding refers to bleeding of unknown origin that persists or recurs after initial endoscopic evaluation with upper endoscopy and colonoscopy.
Obscure gastrointestinal
is manifested by persistent or recurrent visible evidence of gastrointestinal bleeding (hematemesis, hematochezia, or melena). Up
Obscure-overt bleeding
2 major causes of peptic ulcer disease.
NSAIDS
Chronic H. pylori infection
is the feeling of substernal burning, often radiating to the neck. Caused by the reflux of acidic (or, rarely, alkaline) material into the esophagus, it is highly specific for GERD
Heartburn (pyrosis)
is an intraesophageal acid perfusion study that can be used to confirm that the patient's symptoms are acid related.

Jr.Barkley, Thomas W. (2007). Practice Guidelines for Acute Care Nurse Practitioners (Kindle Locations 11330-11331). A Saunders Title. Kindle Edition.
The Bernstein test
is an excellent study for the diagnosis and evaluation of reflux esophagitis and other complications of GERD (strictures, Barrett's esophagus).

Jr.Barkley, Thomas W. (2007). Practice Guidelines for Acute Care Nurse Practitioners (Kindle Locations 11326-11327). A Saunders Title. Kindle Edition.
Endoscopy
The test requires an alternating infusion of 0.1 N hydrochloric acid and normal saline into the esophagus. 2. With reflux esophagitis, symptoms of heartburn occur with infusion of acid but not with infusion of saline.
Bernstein test
measures esophageal pressure.
1. Identifies abnormalities of the LES
2. Identifies esophageal muscle contraction abnormalities

Jr.Barkley, Thomas W. (2007). Practice Guidelines for Acute Care Nurse Practitioners (Kindle Locations 11340-11342). A Saunders Title. Kindle Edition.
Esophogeal manometry
The most sensitive diagnostic test used to detect the presence of abnormal acid reflux is?
24 hour ambulatory ph monitoring
Gold standard for many practitioners
normal serum bilirubin
0.2-1.2mg/dl
cholestasis
retention of bile in the liver
Cholestatic jaundice
conjugated hyperbilirubinemia results from impaired bile flow
Splenomegaly occurs in hemolytic disorders except in ?
Sickle cell anemia
occult blood in the stool suggests what ?
cancer of the ampulla
courvoisier sign
hepatomegaly and a palpable gallbladder
elevated ALT and AST levels result from ?
hepatocellular necrosis or inflammation
unvaccinated person exposed to HAV is advised to recieve post exposure prophylaxis. Which consist of?
Single dose HAV vaccine or
Immune globulin 0.02ml/kg
Vaccine: healthy 1-40
Immune globulin:
older than 40
younger than 1
immunocomprimised
chronic liver disease.
Causes of esophageal varices
Cirrhosis-most common cause
High Portal Venous Pressure
Normal portal venous pressure
2-6
Portal venous pressure associated with esophageal varices bleeding
at least 12
bleeding from esophageal varices usually occurs where?
distal 5cm of esophagus
upper portion of stomach
Associated with 1st variceal bleeding episode?
ASA / NSAID use alone or in combo. in pt with cirrhosis