• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/174

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

174 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Heartburn
-aka
-cause
pyrosis
reflux of acid or alkali
What is achalasia?
cause
symptoms
diagnosis
motility disorder with aperistalsis and failure of LES to relax; caused by loss of Auerbach's neural plexus; barium swallow; treat with NTG, dilation with bougie, maybe surgical myotomy
Zenker's Diverticulum
symptoms
age of onset
treatment
protrusion of the pharyngeal mucosa; worsening dysphagia and regurg over years; typically over 60; surgical resection
4 serious complications of GERD
stricture
Barrett's esophagus
aspiration pneumonia
acid laryngitis
Bernstein Test
0.1M solution of HCl dripped into distal esophagus; a positive test reproduces the pt's symptoms
Tx for GERD
eliminate precip factors, elevate head of bed on block, antacids, histamine antagonists, PPIs
Omeprazole, Lansoprazole, Rabeprazole, con't...
Proton pump inhibitors
Ranitidine, Famotidine, Cimetidine, Nizatidine
H-2 receptor blockers
Barrett's Esophagus
condition where normal squamous epithelium is replaced by columnar epithelium (precursor to CA)
Melena vs hematochezia
melena - black tarry stools
hematochezia - bright red
Tx for esophageal varicies
emergent - endoscopy, gastric lavage, banding
pharm - abx prophylaxis, somatostatin, vit K, lactulose
balloon tamponade
Mallory-Weiss Syndrome
mucosal laceration of the gastroesophageal junction; causes upper GI bleeding
What surgery is considered a common cause of malabsorption
gastric bypass (Roux-en-Y)
What causes celiac dz?
T-cell mediated autoimmune response in the intestinal submucosa that results in destruction of mucosal enterocytes
Another name for celiac disease
celiac sprue
Clinical features of celiac disease (sprue)
weight loss, dermatitis (rare), distention, flatulence, greasy stools, bone pain, 'rrhea
Small bowel biopsy in celiac disease shows what
diffuse damage to the proximal intestinal mucosa resulting in malabsorption
Tx for celiac sprue
gluten eliminated from diet, corticosteroids or immunosupp drugs can be employed in refractory cases
Whipple's disease - definition
multisystem illness caused by Tropheryma whipplei
Whipple's dz - features
malabsorption, many systems affected, fever, LA, arthralgias, biopsy reveals bacillus
Diagnostic test for Whipple's Disease
endoscopic biopsy of duodenum; presence of non-acid fast, gram positive bacilli
Whipple's Dz - treatment
prolonged abx that cross the BBB are warranted; TMPZ for one year
Sxs of Bacterial Overgrowth
many asymptomatic....distension, flatulence, wt loss, steatorrhea (fatty stools)
Short Bowel Syndrome - definition
malabsorptive condition that arises secondary to removal of signif segments of small bowel
Short Bowel Syndrome - causes
Crohn's (surgical resection), mesenteric infarction, radiation enteritis, trauma, surgical resection of cancer
Lab diagnosis of lactase deficiency
hydrogen breath test (ingest 50g lactose, rise in breath H is positive)
Diarrhea - what is considered acute...persistent...chronic
less than 14 days
more than 14
more than 30
Chronic 'rrhea suggests the etiology is infectious in nature. T/F
False
Most important finding that can indicate infx with invasive bacteria
FEVER
Shellfish usually associated with what pathogen
Vibrio cholerae
Likely microbes that cause vomiting
S. aureus, B. cereus, Norwalk-like viruses
Likely microbes that cause watery 'rrhea
C. perfringens, ETEC, enteric viruses, c. parvum
Likely microbes that cause inflammatory 'rrhea
Campylobacter, salmonella, shiga toxin producing e. coli, shigella, v. paraheolyticus
Who typically gets stool cultures
immunocompromised; pts with comorbidities; pts with more severe inflamm diarrhea; pts with underlying inflamm bowel dz; some food handlers
How long are stool cultures incubated
up to 72 hours bc some bacteria take longer to grow
MacConkey agar
inhibits gram-positive and diff bt gram negative that ferment lactose and those that don't

lactose fermentation also acts as a pH indicator
Hectone-Enteric agar - definition....aka...
like MacConkey; inhibits GP, diff bt Lactose-Pos from Lactose-Neg , GN rods
Also, E. coli is suppressed, and H2S can be detected
aka Salmonella-Shigella agar
OCP diagnostic studies
Ova, Cyst, and Parasites
only used in serious cases (persistent 'rrhea, bloody 'rrhea with no fecal leukocytes...)
requires 3 samples on 3 consecutive days
Clostridium difficile aka?
Antibiotic Associated Colitis
What abx are most frequently implicated in predisposition to C. difficile infection
fluoroquinolones, clindamycin, cephalo, penicillins, metronidazole and vancomycin (virtually all abx)
Tx for Clostridium difficile
Metronidazole (ironic bc this can actually cause C diff infection)
Brat diet
bananas, rice, applesauce, toast
What are 5 possible causes of IBS
abnormal motility
visceral hypersensitivity
enteric infx
bacterial overgrowth
psychosocial abnormalities (depression)
How long must symptoms be present to diagnose IBS
3 months
What are the 3 types of IBS
diarrhea predominant
constipation predominant
alternating
3 complications of diverticulosis
bleeding, infection, perforation
What are some clinical findings for diverticulosis
NONE
Tx for diverticulosis
monitor for complications, avoid nuts/seeds, high fiber diet
Diverticulitis - signs and symptoms
mild achy abdominal pain that progresses over 2-3 days; tender to palpation; N/V frequent symptom; change in bowel habits
How do you diagnose diverticulitis
CT of abdomen and pelvis with and without contrast
Diverticulitis - treatment
broad spectrum abx
inpatient - clear liquids, pain management, IV abx
outpatient - bland diet, ciprofloxacin + metronidazole; augmentin is also a good option
When is surgical intervention indicated for diverticulitis
recurrent or refractory cases; no evidence of improvement on CT after 72 hrs
Two other names for Ischemic Bowel Disease
intestinal angina, visceral artery insufficiency
4 major types of ischemic bowel dz
occlusive dz - embolism or thrombosis of a major mesenteric artery
nonocclusive - from low perfusion (CHF, shock)
demand mediated dz - post prandial pain occurs due to increased demand
ischemic colitis - intestinal mucosa sloughs off
What types of imaging are used for ischemic bowel dz
CTA (CT angiogram) or MRA
Ischemic bowel dz - treatment
identify source of occlusion and remove or bypass it
Hemorrhoids - definition
swollen or varicose veins in the anal-rectal area; typically painful; caused by pressure in the rectal veins from standing upright, sitting for a long time, and poor bowel habits
Internal hemorrhoids occur above the ____ line whereas external hem are below
dentate line
Strangulated hemorrhoid
vein that is caught (incarcerated) outside the rectal sphincter
Hemorrhoids - signs/symptoms
itching (pruritus ani), bleeding, mucus discharge, pain, soiling of clothes, difficulty pooping
Fistula vs fissure
fistula - abnormal connection/passageway bt two epithelium-lined organs or vessels that dont normally connect
fissure - tears in the anal mucosa
Fistula - signs/symptoms
soiling, fecal incontinence, fever/chills, pneumaturia, chronic UTIs
Fistula - treatment
must ID fistulous tract by using dye; surgery to remove/repair; abx
Fissures - treatment
fiber supplements, Sitz baths, NTG ointment, botulinum toxin injection into external sphincter
Skin Tags
redundant tissue that can occur in the ano-rectal area; not malignant despite their often large size
Condyloma accuminata
warts; viral infection caused by various types of HPV
Proctitis - definition, symptoms, transmission, organisms
inflammation of the distal 15cm of the rectum; anorectal discomfort, tenesmus, constipation, and d/c; sexually transmitted; n. gonorr, t. pallidum, c. trachomatis, HSVII
Minor incontinence
inability to control farts or slight soilage of undergarments
Major incontinence
complete uncontrolled loss of stool; can be caused by trauma, sphincteric or neurologic damage
3 major causes of uncomplicated rectal disorders
constipation, passing hard dry stools, excessive straining
What 2 diseases does IBD encompass
ulcerative colitis and Crohn's dz
Ulcerative colitis - definition
chronic, recurrent dz characterized by diffuse mucosal inflammation involving only the colon
Crohn's dz - definition
chronic recurrent dz characterized by patchy transmural inflammation involving any segment of the GI system from the mouth to the anus
What part of GI does Crohn's mostly affect
terminal ileum (though can involve any part of the GI)
Crohn's - signs/symptoms
intermittent bouts of low grade fever (UC has no fever), N/V/malaise, wt loss, non bloody diarrhea and RLQ pain
Ulcerative colitis - s/s
bloody 'rrhea, lower abdominal cramps and fecal urgency, NO fever, negative stool cultures, tenesmus, LLQ cramps relieved by defecation
Best way to diagnose Crohn's and UC
biopsy
With crohn's you typically see ____ deficiency, with UC you see ____ due to bleeding
folate/vitB12 deficiency due to malabsorption
iron deficiency anemia
What is the cardinal feature of ulcerative colitis
passage of gross blood or bloody 'rrhea
Malaise, nausea, vomiting, and fever are more common in Crohn's or UC
Crohn's
Most common sites of GI bleeding
cecum, descending colon, rectosigmoid colon
Typically see ____ anemia with UC and ____ anemia with Crohn's
microcytic, macrocytic
Will crohn's or UC patients more likely undergo surgery
Crohn's (60-70%), UC is around 30-40%
What are the stages in the Adenoma-Carcinoma sequence
small adenomatous polyp (<5mm) --- large adenomatous polyp (>1cm) --- dysplasia --- adenocarcinoma
How long does an Adenoma-Carcinoma sequence typically take
approx 10 years
Which are we more concerned about, hyperplastic or adenomatous polyps
adenomatous (can progress to cancer)
What are the 2 types of polyps, what percentage do each account for, what are some features about them
hyperplastic (33%) - small and distally located, rarely progress to cancer
adenomatous (65%) - more likely to progress to colon cancer
Clinical manifestations of colon cancer
abdominal/pelvic pain (44%)
change in bowel habit (43%)
hematochezia/melena (40%)
weakness (20%)
weight loss (6%)
Is hematochezia more often caused by rectal or colon cancer
rectal
Risk factors that change colon cancer screening recommendations
prior colorectal cancer or polyp, IBD, family hx, hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer, familial adenomatous polyposis
What are 4 traditional screening modalities for colorectal cancer
fecal occult blood, sigmoidoscopy, colonoscopy, double contrast barium enema
What are some disadvantages to the fecal occult blood test for colon cancer
only detects blood, and the majority of polyps don't bleed; high false positive rate requiring costly work ups
What is the goal of colon cancer surgery
complete removal of the tumor along with the major vascular pedicle feeding the affected colonic segment and the lymphatic drainage basin
What 5 features must be present to diagnose cirrhosis
abnormal enzyme levels, evidence of liver insufficiency, clinical evidence of portal HTN, known etiology for liver dz, chronicity
What are some things that can cause cirrhosis
viral infx (HBV or HCV), fatty liver, alcohol, hemochromatosis, autoimmune dz, biliary cirrhosis
What is the definitive way to diagnose cirrhosis
biopsy
What is Child's-Pugh criteria used for? What parameters are used?
to assess the prognosis for pts with cirrhosis
albumin, bilirubin, ascites, encephalopathy, PT
What is the MELD score?
assesses severity of chronic liver dz; predicts 3 month mortality; (Model for Endstage Liver Disease)
<20 --- <10% mortality
>30 --- >50% mortality
What are the 5 clinical stages of cirrhosis
1 - no varices/ascites
2 - varices without bleeding, no ascites
3 - varices w/bleeding, no ascites
4 - ascites w/out bleeding
5 - ascites and bleeding
Ammonia level is a good test for hepatic encephalopathy. T/F
FALSE
What is the preferred analgesic for pts with advanced cirrhosis? What is the exception?
Acetaminophen; NOT to be used in alcoholic patient!
What infection is lethal in cirrhosis
V. vulnificus
What does iron do to the liver
HEPATOTOXIC; induces formation of free radicals, promotes fibrogenesis
What are 4 ways you should educate the patient with cirrhosis
no alcohol, can take acetaminophen but limited amt, avoid raw seafood and exposure to salt water (v. vulnif), no iron and limited VitA intake
What is HCC? Whats the most common cause of HCC?
hepatocellular carcinoma

HCV
What is hepatic encephalopathy
confusion associated with the presence of portal HTN
2 types of hepatic encephalopathy
overt - altered mental status
minimal - cognitive impairment
Hepatic encephalopathy is a ______ diagnosis, NOT a ______ diagnosis
clinical; laboratory
What does cirrhosis cause with regards to arterial constriction/dilation
causes systemic VASODILATION, so patients who used to have HTN and took meds for it need to stop
What is the most common cause of death in fatty liver dz
cardiovascular
Not giving statins to patients with liver disease ______
kills them ???
When should a pt with cirrhosis be referred for transplantation
evidence of decompensation, MELD >16 (typically 22-26)
Treatments for GERD
lifestyle mod: stop smoking, avoid large meals, nothing 3 hrs before bedtime, avoid spicy foods, chocolate, tomato products, and other triggers; pharmacotherapy
Whats the most common type of esophageal carcinoma
squamous cell (95%); adenocarcinoma (arising from Barrett's Esophagus) is next
What is the defining clinical feature of esophageal neoplasm
progressive dysphagia (solid foods) with associated wt loss
Classic symptom associated with peptic ulcer disease
burning epigastric pain associated with eating, or with an empty stomach
Most frequent causes of small bowel obstruction
postoperative adhesions and hernias, which cause extrinsic compression of the intestine
Treatment for small bowel obstruction
nasogastric tube.....time.....if no resolution, surgery
What disease are skip lesions primarily found in
Crohn's
What are some extraintestinal symptoms of Crohn's
uveitis, iritis, episcleritis, erythema nodosum, peripheral arthritis (large joints), central/axial arthritis (ankylosing spondylitis, sacroiliitis)
What enzyme is most useful in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis
amylase
Single most helpful test in evaluation for malabsorption
72-hour fecal fat test
Treatment for celiac disease
gluten-free diet
What is Toxic Megacolon a complication of
Inflammatory bowel disease
Most common cause of chronic or recurrent abd pain in the US
IBS
A patient with severe pain and bright red blood on defecation in the absence of other symptoms likely has.....
anal fissure
Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis in the US
alcohol abuse
What infectious agent is the most likely cause of bloody and purulent stools
shigella species
What are 3 common findings of acute appendicitis
RLQ pain, low grade fever, positive psoas sign (vomiting/diarrhea not typically seen)
What is the psoas sign
positive test indicates inflamed appendix is retrocecal; demonstrated by getting patient to flex thigh at the hip, if abd pain then is a positive test
Only liver fxn test that will show the extent of the damage in acute viral hepatitis
prothrombin time
Which of the hepatitis viruses are chronic
A - no
B,C,D,G - yes
E - rarely
HAV - transmission
fecal-oral (doesn't exclude hand to hand contact)
99% of acute hepatitis results in.....
recovery
First antibody to appear in hepA

What does it indicate
anti-HAV IgM
indicates acute dz
What does anti-HAV indicate
acute disease OR past exposure
(includes both IgM and IgG)
Treatment for hepA
supportive; no need for antiviral therapy; prophylaxis for recent contacts
Transmission of HBV
percutaneous or parenteral contact with infected blood and body fluids
Most common form of HBV transmission
mother to child
What must be positive for HBV to be diagnosed
HBsAG (HBV surface antigen)
+ HBsAG and + HBcAb-IgM (core antigen)
acute hepatitis B
95% of adults with acute HBV
resolved infection
+ HBsAG and - HBcAB-IgM
chronic HBV
Relation between HBV and liver disease
HBV does NOT cause liver disease; its caused by an immune response TO the virus
Clinical features of active disease type of chronic hepB
high viral load, liver inflammation, progression to cirrhosis
What are some features of immune-tolerant phase chronic hep B
high viral load; no liver inflammation; low likelihood of progression; common when infx is acquired at birth
What does + HBsAB tell you
person is immune to HBV
What can immunosuppressive agents do to HBV
reactivation; so any pt on high dose prednisone or chemotherapy need to be screened
Prevalence of HCV compared to HIV
3-4x more prevalent
Risk factors and modes of transmission for HCV
illicit injection, blood transfusion, HIV or HBV infx, infected mother at birth, multiple sex partners, tattoos
What is the current treatment for HCV
pegylated interferon, ribavarin, and direct acting antiviral
Most common type of chronic viral hepatitis
Hep C
Hep D is only found in patients with _____
Hep B
3 clinical features to diagnose acute pancreatitis
abdominal pain
serum amylase and/or lipase >3x ULN
compatible CT scan of the abdomen
3 pathophysiological phases of acute pancreatitis
1. trypsinogen to trypsin within the acinar cells
2. intrapancreatic inflamm
3. extrapancreatic inflamm
What are some systemic complications of acute pancreatitis
fever, ARDS, pleural effusion, renal failure, shock, myocardial depression, metabolic complications
SIRS
systemic inflammatory response syndrome (seen in severe pancreatitis)
2 main causes of acute pancreatitis
gallstones and alcohol
What is the BISAP score
used to predict severity of acute pancreatitis
BUN > 25
Impaired mental status
Systemic inflamm response
Age > 60
Pleural effusion
Initial phase of treatment for acute pancreatitis
FLUIDS; nothing by mouth; 02 supplementation; pain control
What are some common metabolic complications of acute pancreatitis
hyperglycemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia
Clinical features of chronic pancreatitis
persistent or recurrent pain; epigastric or LUQ radiation to back; wt loss; foul-smelling stools; epigastric mass; jaundice
What labs do you evaluate for chronic pancreatitis
amylase and/or lipase; hyperglycemia, glycosuria; AP and bilirubin; 72h fecal fat; fecal elastase
What do calcifications in the pancreas upon xray indicate
chronic pancreatitis
What are some complications from chronic pancreatitis
biliary obstruction, pseudocyst, duodenal obstruction, pancreatic fistula
Chronic pancreatitis - treatment
avoid alcohol and tobacco!!!
frequent, small volume, low fat meals; pancreatic enzyme supplementation (lipase); manage complications (diabetes)
Prognosis of chronic pancreatitis
poor long-term survival; 50% mortality in 10 years
Pancreatic cancer - signs/symptoms
often asymptomatic; wt loss; epigastric pain radiating to back; new onset hyperglycemia; jaundice
What are some diagnostic tools for early detection of pancreatic CA
no test currently approved; tumor markers should NOT be used; U/S; MRI; ERCP
What are some diseases H. pylori can cause
acute, chronic, or atrophic gastritis
duodenal/gastric ulcers
gastric lymphoma or adenocarcinoma
What are some nonclassical symptoms that can present with appendicitis
indigestion, flatulence, bowel irregularity, general malaise
Advantages/disadvantages of laparoscopic appendectomy
fewer wound infx, less pain, shorter hospital stay

higher rates of readmission, intra-abd abscess, higher cost
What to do if a normal appearing appendix is identified during surgical exploration for right lower abd pain
appendectomy
What person in our class looks like a big bowl of diarrhea
Jonathan Calvarese