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75 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Restriction enzymes are _____ which mean they can cleave the phosphodiester bond within a polypeptide chain

endonucleases

Enzymes that work by cleaving nucleotides one at a time from the end of a polynucleotide chain

exoenzymes

nucleotide sequence recognized for cleavage by a restriction enzyme

restriction site

Bacteria protect their own DNA from the endonuclease by using the modification enzyme ___________ which adds methyl groups to its own DNA and therefore prevents the endonuclease from recognizing its own sequence and cleaving its own DNA

methyltransferase

Single stranded overhangs that have an affinity for their complimentary sequences and can reconnect through hybridization

sticky ends

enzymes that cut both ribose backbones at the same place leaving ______ ______ that have no affinity for other pieces of DNA

blunt ends

Restriction endonucleases that are large multi subunit complexes that include both the endonucleases and methyltransferase activities

Type I and Type III

Restriction endonucleases that can cleave at distant random sites which can be 1000 base pairs or more from the recognition sequence

Type I

Restriction endonuclease that requires ATP as source of energy

Type I and III

Restriction endonucleases that are homodimeric or tetremeric enzymes that cleave DNA at defined sites of 4-8 bp in length

Type II

Restriction endonucleases that require Mg2+ ions for catalysis

Type II

Restriction endonucleases that require no ATP to catalyze the reaction

Type II

Restriction endonucleases that cleave the DNA at about 25 base pairs from the recognition sequence

Type III

An engineered DNA sequence that maximizes the number of restriction sites in a very small sequence of a plasmid

Multiple Cloning site (MCS)

We isolated ______ from our transformed E. coli cells.

puc19

_____ has a multiple cloning site, ampicillin resistance gene for selecting your transformants, and the lac operon and promoter that would allow you to clone your gene into that location and induce expression of your gene with the carbohydrate lactose

puc19

The enzyme ______ added to DNA fragments will reattach the ribose backbone.

ligase

When the gene of interest creates a genetic polymer where multiple copies link end to end

concatemer

column chromatography done at higher pressure to speed up the process

HPLC (High Pressure Liquid Chromatography)

Volatilizes liquids and separates the molecules as a gas

gas chromatography

Separates smaller molecules

thin layer chromatography

Separates DNA ro RNA fragments based on the size of the fragment

agarose gel electrophoresis

The ______ the percent of agarose in your gel, the ______ the pore between strands.

higher, smaller

DNA migrates to the __________ pole of the apparatus due to its __________ charged phosphate backbone.

positive, negatively

Low percentage gels are best for resolving _____ molecular weight fragments and vice versa.

high

Loading buffer contains _______ to make your sample heavier than water so it will stay in the well if properly pipetted.

glycerol

______ is added to the loading buffer to sharpen the bands and give better resolution.

SDS

_______ _______ is added to give a colored band that migrates on the gel at the same rate as an ~500 bp DNA fragment.

Bromophenol Blue

The gels are resolved using a voltage between ___ and ____ volts.

30 , 120

Standard which is 100 bp ladder (100, 200, 300 bp fragments)

HindIII digest of Lambda Phage DNA

To generate a standard curve, plot _______ vs. ______.

log of molecular weight (base pairs) vs. distance the fragments migrated

Sequences often found flanking the centromere location on a chromosome

Highly repetitive centromeric DNA

DNA repeats that form satellite bands when centrifuging genomic DNA in a cesium chloride gradient

Satellite DNA

Sequences that have propagated themselves by replicating and then moving to new locations in the genome

Transposed Sequences

Elements that move to new locations in the genome

Transposons or jumping genes

Short sequences that repeat two or more times. EX: ATTCG ATTCG. also called mini satellite or micro satellite DNA depending on the repeat size

Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTR)

Repeated sequences that range between 15-100 base pairs

minisatellites

Repeated sequences that range between 2-6 base pairs in length

microsatellites

Intervening sequences that are find in a mRNA and are excised out during mRNA processing indicating they are non-functional DNA

introns

In DNA fingerprinting, we extracted DNA from buccal cells using _______ + _________.

extraction buffer + proteinase K

Extraction buffer contains the detergent _____ which will lyse the cells by perturbing the lipid bilayer.

SDS

_______ is an enzyme that will degrade contaminating proteins.

Proteinase K

This was used to further purify the buccal DNA by denaturing any remaining proteins

chloroform/phenol

Hydrophilic DNA is in the ______ phase and hydrophobic molecules will be in the ______ layer.

aqueous, organic

Proteins that have been denatured by the chloroform will pack into the _____ during centrifugation.

interface

These two primers are required to amplify DNA

forward and reverse primers

A primer of ___-___ bases is considered to be the optimal length.

18-22

The temperature where half the DNA will melt into single strands

primer melting point (52-58 degrees Celcius)

The ____ content of a primer gives fair estimation of a primer's melting point

G-C

______ annealing temperature will produce insufficient primer-template hybridization resulting in low PCR product yield.

too high

_____ annealing temperature may possible lead to non-specific products caused by a high umber of base pair mismatched.

too low

A max number of di-nucleotide repeats acceptable in an oligo is _____ di-nucleotides.

4

PCR reagents needed for amplification

DNA polymerase, Nucleotides, template DNA, reaction buffer, primers

Three steps to PCR

denaturation, annealing, extension/elongation

an automated heat block which is programmed to raise and lower the temperature for each of the steps of the PCR

Thermocycler

a DNA polymerase that was isolated from a thermophilic bacteria and is heat stable (doesn't need to be re-added every cycle of PCR)

Taq polymerase

rapid, small scale isolation of plasmid DNA from transformed bacteria

miniprep of plasmid DNA

_____ and ____ will cause all DNA to fall out of solution and be pelleted in a centrifuge during mini prep.

alcohol and salt

Plasmid DNA is much _______ than genomic DNA.

smaller

Solution I of miniprep contains

glucose, EDTA, Tris, Lysozyme

in solution I of miniprep , maintains correct osmotic conditions

glucose

in solution I of mini prep, chelates divalent cations (Ca++, Mg++)

EDTA

in solution I of mini prep, pH buffer maintains biological pH (~7)

Tris

In solution I of mini prep, digests polysaccharides to weaken cell wall

lysozyme

Solution II of mini prep contains

NaOH and Triton

In solution II of mini prep, raises pH to 12.5 to denature DNA into single strands

NaOH

In solution II of mini prep, a detergent that lyses cells by perturbing lipid bilayer

triton

Solution III of mini prep contains

Sodium acetate

In solution III of mini prep, lowers pH to 7 to allow DS DNA

sodium acetate

Occurs at the level of protein-protein interactions and the wildtype phenotype can be achieved without any change in the genetic sequences of the organism.

complementation

type of complementation where the proteins are different and assemble into a heterodimer and involves two different gene products

intergenic complementation

type of complementation where the proteins are the same and assemble into a homodimer and involves isoforms of the same gene product produced by two different alleles of the same gene

intragenic complementation

a protein that differs slightly in its amino acid sequence when compared to the wild type protein

isoform

system used to study intergenic complementation

lambda (T4) bacteriophage

two common T4 mutants that cannot lyse the host cells

rIIa and rIIb