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75 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Restriction enzymes are _____ which mean they can cleave the phosphodiester bond within a polypeptide chain |
endonucleases |
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Enzymes that work by cleaving nucleotides one at a time from the end of a polynucleotide chain |
exoenzymes |
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nucleotide sequence recognized for cleavage by a restriction enzyme |
restriction site |
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Bacteria protect their own DNA from the endonuclease by using the modification enzyme ___________ which adds methyl groups to its own DNA and therefore prevents the endonuclease from recognizing its own sequence and cleaving its own DNA |
methyltransferase |
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Single stranded overhangs that have an affinity for their complimentary sequences and can reconnect through hybridization |
sticky ends |
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enzymes that cut both ribose backbones at the same place leaving ______ ______ that have no affinity for other pieces of DNA |
blunt ends |
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Restriction endonucleases that are large multi subunit complexes that include both the endonucleases and methyltransferase activities |
Type I and Type III |
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Restriction endonucleases that can cleave at distant random sites which can be 1000 base pairs or more from the recognition sequence |
Type I |
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Restriction endonuclease that requires ATP as source of energy |
Type I and III |
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Restriction endonucleases that are homodimeric or tetremeric enzymes that cleave DNA at defined sites of 4-8 bp in length |
Type II |
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Restriction endonucleases that require Mg2+ ions for catalysis |
Type II |
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Restriction endonucleases that require no ATP to catalyze the reaction |
Type II |
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Restriction endonucleases that cleave the DNA at about 25 base pairs from the recognition sequence |
Type III |
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An engineered DNA sequence that maximizes the number of restriction sites in a very small sequence of a plasmid |
Multiple Cloning site (MCS) |
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We isolated ______ from our transformed E. coli cells. |
puc19 |
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_____ has a multiple cloning site, ampicillin resistance gene for selecting your transformants, and the lac operon and promoter that would allow you to clone your gene into that location and induce expression of your gene with the carbohydrate lactose |
puc19 |
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The enzyme ______ added to DNA fragments will reattach the ribose backbone. |
ligase |
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When the gene of interest creates a genetic polymer where multiple copies link end to end |
concatemer |
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column chromatography done at higher pressure to speed up the process |
HPLC (High Pressure Liquid Chromatography) |
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Volatilizes liquids and separates the molecules as a gas |
gas chromatography |
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Separates smaller molecules |
thin layer chromatography |
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Separates DNA ro RNA fragments based on the size of the fragment |
agarose gel electrophoresis |
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The ______ the percent of agarose in your gel, the ______ the pore between strands. |
higher, smaller |
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DNA migrates to the __________ pole of the apparatus due to its __________ charged phosphate backbone. |
positive, negatively |
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Low percentage gels are best for resolving _____ molecular weight fragments and vice versa. |
high |
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Loading buffer contains _______ to make your sample heavier than water so it will stay in the well if properly pipetted. |
glycerol |
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______ is added to the loading buffer to sharpen the bands and give better resolution. |
SDS |
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_______ _______ is added to give a colored band that migrates on the gel at the same rate as an ~500 bp DNA fragment. |
Bromophenol Blue |
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The gels are resolved using a voltage between ___ and ____ volts. |
30 , 120 |
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Standard which is 100 bp ladder (100, 200, 300 bp fragments) |
HindIII digest of Lambda Phage DNA |
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To generate a standard curve, plot _______ vs. ______. |
log of molecular weight (base pairs) vs. distance the fragments migrated |
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Sequences often found flanking the centromere location on a chromosome |
Highly repetitive centromeric DNA |
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DNA repeats that form satellite bands when centrifuging genomic DNA in a cesium chloride gradient |
Satellite DNA |
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Sequences that have propagated themselves by replicating and then moving to new locations in the genome |
Transposed Sequences |
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Elements that move to new locations in the genome |
Transposons or jumping genes |
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Short sequences that repeat two or more times. EX: ATTCG ATTCG. also called mini satellite or micro satellite DNA depending on the repeat size |
Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTR) |
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Repeated sequences that range between 15-100 base pairs |
minisatellites |
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Repeated sequences that range between 2-6 base pairs in length |
microsatellites |
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Intervening sequences that are find in a mRNA and are excised out during mRNA processing indicating they are non-functional DNA |
introns |
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In DNA fingerprinting, we extracted DNA from buccal cells using _______ + _________. |
extraction buffer + proteinase K |
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Extraction buffer contains the detergent _____ which will lyse the cells by perturbing the lipid bilayer. |
SDS |
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_______ is an enzyme that will degrade contaminating proteins. |
Proteinase K |
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This was used to further purify the buccal DNA by denaturing any remaining proteins |
chloroform/phenol |
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Hydrophilic DNA is in the ______ phase and hydrophobic molecules will be in the ______ layer. |
aqueous, organic |
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Proteins that have been denatured by the chloroform will pack into the _____ during centrifugation. |
interface |
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These two primers are required to amplify DNA |
forward and reverse primers |
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A primer of ___-___ bases is considered to be the optimal length. |
18-22 |
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The temperature where half the DNA will melt into single strands |
primer melting point (52-58 degrees Celcius) |
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The ____ content of a primer gives fair estimation of a primer's melting point |
G-C |
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______ annealing temperature will produce insufficient primer-template hybridization resulting in low PCR product yield. |
too high |
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_____ annealing temperature may possible lead to non-specific products caused by a high umber of base pair mismatched. |
too low |
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A max number of di-nucleotide repeats acceptable in an oligo is _____ di-nucleotides. |
4 |
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PCR reagents needed for amplification |
DNA polymerase, Nucleotides, template DNA, reaction buffer, primers |
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Three steps to PCR |
denaturation, annealing, extension/elongation |
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an automated heat block which is programmed to raise and lower the temperature for each of the steps of the PCR |
Thermocycler |
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a DNA polymerase that was isolated from a thermophilic bacteria and is heat stable (doesn't need to be re-added every cycle of PCR) |
Taq polymerase |
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rapid, small scale isolation of plasmid DNA from transformed bacteria |
miniprep of plasmid DNA |
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_____ and ____ will cause all DNA to fall out of solution and be pelleted in a centrifuge during mini prep. |
alcohol and salt |
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Plasmid DNA is much _______ than genomic DNA. |
smaller |
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Solution I of miniprep contains |
glucose, EDTA, Tris, Lysozyme |
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in solution I of miniprep , maintains correct osmotic conditions |
glucose |
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in solution I of mini prep, chelates divalent cations (Ca++, Mg++) |
EDTA |
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in solution I of mini prep, pH buffer maintains biological pH (~7) |
Tris |
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In solution I of mini prep, digests polysaccharides to weaken cell wall |
lysozyme |
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Solution II of mini prep contains |
NaOH and Triton |
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In solution II of mini prep, raises pH to 12.5 to denature DNA into single strands |
NaOH |
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In solution II of mini prep, a detergent that lyses cells by perturbing lipid bilayer |
triton |
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Solution III of mini prep contains |
Sodium acetate |
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In solution III of mini prep, lowers pH to 7 to allow DS DNA |
sodium acetate |
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Occurs at the level of protein-protein interactions and the wildtype phenotype can be achieved without any change in the genetic sequences of the organism. |
complementation |
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type of complementation where the proteins are different and assemble into a heterodimer and involves two different gene products |
intergenic complementation |
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type of complementation where the proteins are the same and assemble into a homodimer and involves isoforms of the same gene product produced by two different alleles of the same gene |
intragenic complementation |
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a protein that differs slightly in its amino acid sequence when compared to the wild type protein |
isoform |
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system used to study intergenic complementation |
lambda (T4) bacteriophage |
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two common T4 mutants that cannot lyse the host cells |
rIIa and rIIb |