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265 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Hypopigmented macules associated with what disease?
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Vitiligo
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Pruritic pustules in the webbing of hands?
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Scabies
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Crusting vesicles around the mouth and face?
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Herpes or impetigo
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If patients respond poorly to lithium what medication should be started in a bipolar patient?
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Valproic acid
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Describe the rules of nine?
1. Head and Arm 2. Back and Chest 3. Each leg 4. Groin |
1. Head 9% and Arm 9%
2. Back and Chest 18% 3. Each Leg 18% 4. Groin 1% |
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During what drug toxicity should cardioversion be avoided?
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Digitalis toxicity
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What is the agent of choice for hypertension emergencies?
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Sodium Nitroprusside
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What is the treatment of choice for Uncomplicated cystitis caused by e-coli?
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TMP/SMX
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Black Spoke-like opacities in the lens indicates?
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Cataracts
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4 Ws of postoperative fever?
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Wind: Atelectasis/Pneumonia (<2 days)
Water: UTI (3-5 days) Wounds: Wound infection/Abscess (5-7 days) Walking: PE or DVT (2 weeks) Wonder Drugs: Drug reactions |
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Side effect daunorubicin?
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Cadiomegaly
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Side effects Vincristine?
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Neurotoxicity
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Side effects Bleomycin?
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Pulmonary toxicity
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side effects Cyclophosphamide?
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Hemorrhagic Cystitis
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What is the treament of choice for Typhoid Fever?
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Chloramphenicol
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Blue Sclera, Thin skin, Hyperextensibility of ligaments
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Osteogenic Imperfecta
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Sternal, tibia, femur Tenderness is a symptom of?
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leukemia
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What is the earliest symptom of mitral stenosis?
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Exertional Dyspnea
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mid cycle abdominal pain associated with ovulation?
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mittleschmertz
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Jugular venous pressure rises with inspiration, name the sign?
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Kussmaul's sign
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What conditions are associated with Kussmaul's sign?
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Constrictive Pericarditis
Restrictive cardiomyopathy Pericardial Effusion or Cardiac Tamponade RHF Tricuspid Stenosis (Jugular venous pressure rises with inspiration) |
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Blood pressure declines as one inhales and increases as one exhales, name the sign?
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Pulsus paradoxus
(Cardiac Tamponade, pericarditis, Chronic sleep Apnea, COPD |
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1. Pain in the calf with ambulation?
2. Dull Aching heaviness brought on by long periods of standing? 3. Stasis Dermatitis and Edema? |
1. DVT (Pain in the calf with ambulation?)
2. Varicosities (Dull Aching heaviness brought on by long periods of standing?) 3. Chronic Venous Insufficiency (Stasis Dermatitis and Edema?) |
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Normal -term newborn mother hep B virus surface antigen positive, what is the protocol?
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1. Hepatitis B Vaccine and Hepatitis B immune globulin within 12 hours of birth,
2. Second dose of the vaccine and immunoglobulin 1-2 months 3. Third Dose Vaccine 6-months |
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What percentage of children born to mothers who are positive for hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis B antigen will have chronic hepatitis B by 6 months?
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90%
Treating an infant with Hepatitis B immune globulin within 12 hours of birth and vaccination, reduces infection rate by more than 50% |
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What is the protocol if the Hepatitis status of the mother is unknown?
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1. Vaccinate child
2. Test mother if positive give baby immune globulin within 7 days. |
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Does Hib reduce the rate of otitis media? why?
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No, because otitis media is usually caused by a non typable Hib.
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Name three common pathogens associated with Otitis media?
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Step Pneumonia
Nontypable H. Influenza Moraxella catarrhalis |
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1. Treatment for Otitis Media?
2. Treatment for resistant cases? |
1. Amoxicillin 10 days
2. Amoxicillin/Clavulanic acid |
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Kawasaki Disease
(CRASH and BURN) |
Conjunctivitis
Rash Adenopathy Strawberry Tongue Hands and feet red and swollen Fever > 40c for >5 days |
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What is the protocol for immunization for Hep B in a non-immunized patient?
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First Dose Time zero
Second dose 1-2 months Third dose 4-6 months |
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At what age is the influenza viruses contraindicated?
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< 6 months of age.
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1. What mite causes scabies?
2. What is the treatment? |
1. Sarcoptes Scabiei
2. PERMETHRIN from neck down, treat contacts. Oral IVERMECTIN may be helpful |
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In a prenatal work up for a 24 year old patient, you discover she is not immune to rubella. when is the best time to vaccinate her against rubella?
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As early in the postpartum period as possible
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What is the usual schedule for pneumococcal vaccine?
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one dose 2. 4. 6. 12-15
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At what age is the HPV vaccination recommended?
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9-26 years old. Ideally should be given prior to female becoming sexual active. Do not give during pregnancy but breast feeding is ok.
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IF a women has a histroy of genital warts or an abonormal pap smear, should she still receive the HPV vaccine?
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yes, there are many subtypes of HPV
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Who should consider Pneumococcal Vaccine?
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1. Adults 65 years of age and older.
2. Persons > 2 (24-59 months) years of age with chronic heart or lung disorders including congestive heart failure, diabetes mellitus, chronic liver disease, alcoholism, spinal fluid leaks, cardiomyopathy, chronic bronchitis or emphysema (COPD) or emphysema. 3. Persons > 2 years of age with spleen dysfunction (such as sickle cell disease) or lack of spleen function (asplenia), blood malignancy (leukemias), multiple myeloma, kidney failure, organ transplantation or immunosuppressive conditions, including HIV infection. 4. Alaskan natives and certain 5. American Indian populations. 6. If elective surgical removal of the spleen (splenectomy) or immunosuppressive therapy is planned, the vaccine is given two weeks prior to the procedure, if possible. 6. Schedule 2,4,6 and 12-15 |
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Why shouldnt the intranasal influenza vaccine be used in an immunocomprimised patient?
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Because it is live
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At what age is it recommended for an elderly patient to get the pneumococcal vaccine?
What if the patient got the vaccine at age 64, what is the protocol? |
Age 65
The protocol is to give the vaccine in 5 years, |
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1. People born before 1957 are considered to have which immunity?
2. People born before 1980 are considered to have which immunity? 3. at what age do you stop giving Tdap? 4. Up to what age can you give intranasal influenza vaccine |
1. MMR
2. Varicella 3. 65 years 4.healthy people below the age of 50 |
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At what age is the herpes zoster vaccine currently recommended?
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60 years old
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at what age is it strongly recommended that men screen for lipid disorders, even in the absence of other risk factors?
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35
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What does 0.4-0.8 mg of folic acid daily prevent prior to pregnancy?
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Neural tube defect
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You are discussing cancer screening with a patient. Her father was diagnosed with colorectal cancer at age 58.
when should you recommend she begins colorectal cancer screening? |
Colorectal cancer screening age 50
Family history colon cancer should be 10 years before the cancer was diagnosed in the family member or at age 50 which ever comes first. |
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When should mammograms be done for screening purposes?
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every 1 to 2 years begining at age 40.
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How should you advise a patient concerning Breast Self Exam?
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There is insufficient evidence to suggest for or against.
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If a patient comes and asked for advice on prostate screening what should you tell the patient?
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There is insufficient evidence for or against prostate cancer screening
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What are the protocols concerning ECG as part of a periodic examination on an asymptomatic adult?
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Against the use of an ecg for periodic exams on an asymptomatic patient
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1. When should cervical Cancer screening begin?
2. what changes are there at 30? 3. What change are there at 70? |
1. All women should begin cervical cancer screening about 3 years after they begin having vaginal intercourse, but no later than 21 years old.
2. Screening should be done every year with the regular Pap test. 3. Beginning at age 30, women who have had 3 normal Pap test results in a row may get screened every 2 to 3 years. Women older than 30 may also get screened every 3 years with either the conventional or liquid-based Pap test, plus the human papilloma virus (HPV) test. 4. Women 70 years of age or older who have had 3 or more normal Pap tests in a row and no abnormal Pap test results in the last 10 years may choose to stop having Pap tests. 5. Women who have had a total hysterectomy (removal of the uterus and cervix) may also choose to stop having Pap tests, unless the surgery was done as a treatment for cervical cancer or pre-cancer. Women who have had a hysterectomy without removal of the cervix should continue to have Pap tests |
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What does O.S, O.D. and O.U stand for?
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O.S. = left eye
O.D. = right eye O.U. = both eyes |
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Another name for Obesity hypoventilation syndrome?
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Pickwickian syndrome
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Complications of Clostridium dificile?
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Toxic Megacolon
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What is virchows triad?
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Trauma/
Venous Stasis Hypercoagulability |
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What does O.S, O.D. and O.U stand for?
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O.S. = left eye
O.D. = right eye O.U. = both eyes |
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Another name for Obesity hypoventilation syndrome?
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Pickwickian syndrome
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Complications of Clostridium dificile?
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Toxic Megacolon
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What is virchows triad?
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Trauma/
Venous Stasis Hypercoagulability |
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What is the NYHA Classification Dyspenea?
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Class I: Symptoms with Exertion
Class II: Symptoms with ordinary activity Class III: Symptoms with minimal activity Class IV: Symptoms at rest |
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What is lights criteria for Pleural Effusion?
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Transudate Low protein in the fluid)
Nephrotic
CHF
Liver
Thoracoentesis if patient is symptomatic Exudate High protein in the fluid Pleural fluid [protein] / plasma [protein] > 0.5 and/or pleural fluid [LDH] / plasma [LDH] > 0.6; Pneumonia Caution Loculation, Malignancy, TB, Pancreatitis, ovarian neoplasm (Meig's syndrome), collagen vascular disease (SLE, RA), |
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Name and describe the three types of Cardiomyopathies?
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1. Dilated: (m/c) LVH 40% familial, Associated with alcohol
drugs daunorubicin and doxorubicin, cocaine, methamphetamines
Infections: viral endocarditis/myocarditis, parasites, chagas disease
High output states: anemia, thyrotoxicosis, pregnancy
collagen vascular disease(marfans), neuromuscular disease, pheochromocytoma, amyloidosis
2. Hypertrophic: autosoma dominant (chrom 14), Thick heart muscle causing obstruction 3. Restrictive: (least Common) Walls are stiff hemochromatosis, amylodosis, sarcoidosis, scleroderma, glycogen storage disease, radiation, metastatic, drug toxicity |
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What is the m/c Cardiomyopathy?
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Dilated
Assoc Alcohol/drugs High output state |
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During an office visit what specific labs and referrals does a Diabetic patient need?
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1. HBA1C at least every 6 months
2. Urine microalbumin yearly 3. Lipid (cholesterol) at least every year. LDL 70 4. Dilated eye exam (ophthalmology appt) at least every year 5. Foot exam at least every 6 months Pneumovax (one-time vaccination) Annual seasonal flu vaccine |
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Name the two major susceptibility genes for breast cancer?
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BRCA 1 and BRCA 2
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In what gender, ethnic/religious backround is the BCRA gene most prevalent?
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Women with Ashkenazi Jewish Decent
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What is a major predictors of perioperative risk?
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Heart Disease
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1. Define Low risk surgical procedure?
2. Intermediate risk surgical procedure? 3. High risk |
1. Define Low risk sugical procedure?
Risk of cardiac death less than 1% 2. Intermediate risk surgical procedure? Risk of cardiac death less than 1-5% 3. High risk >5% |
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How is poor lung functional capacity defined?
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unable to walk four blocks or up two flights of stairs
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When should preoperative ECG be performed?
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1. Men >45
2. Women >55 3. History of cardiac disease 4. Patients at risk for Electrolyte Abnormalities (eg. on diuretics) 5. PAtients with systemic disease associated with secondary cardiac disease 6. Pt undergoing major surgical procedures |
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What antibiotic chemoprophylaxis would you recommend for a person traveling out of the country with concerns for Travelers diarrhea (e-coli)?
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None, Chemoprophylaxis is not recommended
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What is the m/c preventable illness acquired by travelers?
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Hepatitis A
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a 32 year old women is started on a combination oral contraceptive 3 months ago, after that on the following three visits her BP is elevated what would be the next step?
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Discontinue oral contraceptive and recommend barrier method
Both estrogen and progesterone cause BP elevations, after discontinuing the BP goes back to normal in 3 months |
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What side effect most commonly causes a patient to be non complient with combination oral contraceptive?
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Irregular bleeding which is common in the first 3 months of COC therapy then return to normal in 3 months
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Visible pulsations of the retinal arteries and pupils, Name the sign?
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Becker's sign
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A head bob with each heartbeat, Name the sign?
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deMusset's Sign
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Systolic and Diastolic bruit when femoral artery is partially compressed, Name the sign?
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Duroziez's Sign AR
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Systolic pulsations of the spleen, Name the sign?
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Gerhard's sign
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Popliteal cuff systolic pressure exceeding brachial pressure by >60 mmhg, Name the sign?
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Hill's sign
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>15 mm hg decreases in diastolic blood pressure with arm elevated, Name the sign?
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Mayne's sign
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Systolic Uvular pulsation, Name the sign?
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Mueller sign AR
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Capillary pulsation in fingertips or lips, Name the sign?
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Quincke's Pulse AR
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Systolic pulsations of the liver, Name the sign?
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Rosenbach's sign
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Systolic and diastolic sounds over the femoral artery, Pistol-Shot pulse, Name the sign?
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Traube's sign AR
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On physical examination MS patients cant do what with their eyes? Name the problem.
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Can't see past the midline
Intranuclear opthamoplegia |
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On physical examination MS patients cant do what with their eyes? Name the problem.
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Can't see past the midline
Intranuclear opthamoplegia |
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What is the appropriate treatment for?
1. Recurrent paroxysmal AF with minimal or infrequent symptoms? |
1. B-blockers, Calcium channel blockers
ABCD: Anticoagulants, Beta-blockers, Calcium channel blocker, Cardioversion, Digoxin |
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1. Patient with AF duration unknown or > 48 hours or the patient is at high risk for embolization what is the next step in management?
2. What is an alternative therapy if the patient is stable? |
1. Transesophageal echo TEE
2. Delay cardioversion for 6 weeks, Anticoagulate with warfarin |
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1. What is the treatment for Recurrent persistent or permanent AF?
2. What if the patient cannot tolerate Antiarrythmics? |
1. Rate control: B-blockers, Ca channel blockers
Rhythm control: Antiarrythmics Anticoagulation 2. Surgey, ablation or implantable devices |
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What is the treatment for Acute-onset AF if hemodynamically unstable?
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Electrocardioversion
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During sleep, increased secretion of GH, decreases the effectiveness of insulin, leading to high glucose levels early in the morning. Name the problem and how to address it?
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1. Dawn Phenomenon
2. Move evening dose of insulin closer to bedtime |
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What are the different types of ascites?
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Transudate: SAAG > 1.1g/dl Portal Hypertension (Straw Color)
Exudate: SAAG < 1.1g/dl Infectious, Inflammatory, Nephrotic, Cancerous |
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How is Exudative ascites diagnosed vs. Transudative?
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SAAG
Transudate: SAAG > 1.1g/dl Portal Hypertension (Straw Color) Exudate: SAAG < 1.1g/dl Infectious, Inflammatory, Nephrotic, Cancerous |
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How can one classify Transudative Ascites disorders?
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Transudative disorders (Usually Straw Color)
anything cause blockage prehepatic/hepatic/posthepatic PREhepatic: Splenic or portal vein thrombosis Hepatic: Cirrhosis, Massive hepatic mets POSThepatic: RHF, Constrictive pericarditis, Budd Chiari (Hepatic vein occlusion) Traid:1.Abdominal Pain 2. Ascites 3. Hepatomegaly |
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what is the most common organism associated with Primary peritonitis (Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis)?
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E-coli Usually a single orgaism disease TX cefotaxime
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What is the most common vitamin deficiency in alcoholics?
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Folate B9
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What vitamin is absent in colostrum?
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Vitamin D
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What type of anemia may a child get who switches from cow's milk to goat milk?
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Goats milk low in folate, B6, Iron
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Retinal hemorrhage in children, what is one of the first things to think of?
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Possible child abuse (Shaken Baby syndrome)
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1. Painful spider bite think of?
2. Painless Spider bite think of? |
1. Black Widow
2. Brown recluse |
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Vinyl chloride, arsenic and thorotrast all cause what disease?
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Angiosarcoma of the liver
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Are the Alpha Fetal Protein levels high or low in association with Down syndrome?
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Low
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Decreased protein intake but normal total caloric intake, fatty liver, pitting edema, flaky paint dermatitis?
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Kwashiorkor
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Decreased Caloric intake, loss of muscle mass?
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Marasmus
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What chromosome cri du chat?
What heart dysfunction? |
Chromosome 5
VSD |
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Autosomal Dominant, Cerebellar hemangioblastomas, pheochromocytoma, renal adenocarcinoma?
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Von Hippel Lindau
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Most common cause of rabies in the USA?
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Skunk Bites
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What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate?
What type of anemia does it cause? |
1. Methotrexate: Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor
2. Megaloblastic anemia |
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Most common hepatitis virus transmitted through blood transfusion?
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HCV
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Most common Cyanotic heart disease?
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Tetralogy of fallot
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Group A strep (Strep Pyogenes) pharyngitis m/c predisposes
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Rheumatic fever
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Meningitis infecting organisms?
1. Newborns 2. 1 mo - 18 years 3. > 18 |
1. Newborns < 1 month Group B Strep Agalactae
2. 1 mo - 18 years N. meningitidis 3. > 18 Strep Pneumonia |
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Most common heart disease in Downs syndrome?
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Endocardial cushing disease (ASD + VSD)
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Most common cause of death in down syndrome early age?
Most common cause of death down syndrome over the age of 35? |
Endocardial cushing disease (ASD + VSD)
Alzheimers Disease |
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1. ALL
2. CLL 3. AML 4. CML |
1. ALL: Childhood Immature lymphoblast
2. CLL: Elderly Males Lymphocytosis 3. AML: Auer Rods, increase risk with down syndrome, ionizing radiation. 4. CML: Philadelphia chrom |
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Leukemias
1. Childhood Immature lymphoblast 2. Elderly Males Lymphocytosis 3. Auer Rods, increase risk with down syndrome, ionizing radiation. 4. Philadelphia chrom 22 |
1. ALL
2. CLL 3. AML 4. CML |
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young man with low back pain, uveitis. HLAB27
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Ankylosisng spondylitis
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Anemia MCV <80
Thalasemmia Iron def anemia Chronic disease Siderblastic anemia/lead posioning |
Microcytic anemia's (TICS)
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Name the microcytic anemia's? (TICS)
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Anemia MCV <80
Iron def anemia Thalasemmia Anemia chronic disease Lead posioning Siderblastic anemia |
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String sign in terminal ileus?
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Crohn's Disease
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Lead Pipe sign?
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Ulceratice Colitis
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What is the MCV for
1. Microcytic? (TICS) 2. Normocytic? (HACH) 3. Macrocytic? (BF) |
MCV
1. Microcytic <80 2. Normocytic 80-100 3. Macrocytic >100 |
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Name the normocytic anemias?
(MCV 80-100) HACH |
Normocytic
Normocytic 1. Hemolytic 2. Aplastic 3. Chronic Disease 4. Hemorrhage (Acute) |
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Name the anemia's of Macrocytic anemia? MCV >100
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Macrocytic
B12 deficiency Folate Deficiency |
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Aschoff bodies are pathognomonic of what disease?
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Rheumatic fever
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Most common type of hernia?
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Indirect inguinal hernia
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Which hernia is lateral to the lateral border of the triangle of hesslebach?
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Indirect inguinal hernia
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What makes up the borders of the hesslebach triangle?
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1. Lateral border inferior epigastric artery
2. Inferior border inguinal ligament 3. Medial border lateral aspect of the rectus abdominis muscle. |
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Traveler to mexico who one week later
developed watery diarrhea with mucus and blood and colicky bowel? What is the treatment of choice ? |
Amebiasis
Metronidazole |
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Most common type of tracheoesphangeal fistula?
What disease is TE assoc with? |
Proximal esophagus ends blindly and the distal esophagus arises from the trachea. Air in stomach Type C or 3B
Polyhydramnios in mother |
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Deficiency associated with:
1. Terminal Ileum resection 2. Duodenum resection 3. Jejunum resection |
1. Terminal Ileum resection
B12 deficeincy 2. Duodenum resection Iron 3. Jejunum resection Folate |
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is a crunching, rasping sound, synchronous with the heartbeat,[3] heard over the precordium in spontaneous mediastinal emphysema. Name the sign?
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Hammans sign
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Most frequent cancer of the bone in adults?
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metastatic
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Which primary cancer is responsible for the most bone metastasis?
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Breast
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Flat hyperpigmented lesion on the forehead and cheeks of a women who take oral contraceptives and pregnancy?
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Chloasma or Melasma
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What is the most common cause of Chloasma or melasma?
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m/c Contraceptives
2nd Pregnancy |
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1. What is the umbrella term describing a group of people who cross-culturally defined gender categories?
2. Individuals who wear the clothes of the other gender, but may not completely identify with the other gender. 3. Individuals identify with both genders? 4. Dressing as another gender, but have not considered surgery. 5. Wish to change their sex and wish to or have undertaken surgery? |
1. Transgendered (umbrella term describing a group of people who cross-culturally defined gender categories)
2. Cross-Dresser (ear the clothes of the other gender, but may not completely identify with the other gender) 3. Bi-gender (identify with both genders) 4. Transvestite (Dressing as another gender, but have not considered surgery) 5. Transsexual (change their sex and wish to or have undertaken surgery) |
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What is the DSM criteria for transsexualism?
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The diagnosis of Transsexualism was introduced in the DSM-III in 1980 for gender dysphoric individuals who demonstrated at least two years of continuous interest in removing their sexual anatomy and transforming their bodies and social roles.
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Young man develops extreme fatigue, muscle cramps after exercising with pink colored urine, what is the diagnosis?
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McArdles disease
Absent muscle phosphorylase Phosphorylase needed to break down glycogen to glucose |
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What is the most common diverticula in the esophagus?
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Zenkers
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Patient with Dysphagia and a fetid oder to his breath, what is the diagnosis?
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Zenkers diverticulum
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What vitamin deficiency is associated with a prolonged PT?
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Vitamin K deficiency
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Most common fracture in postmenopausal osteoporosis?
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Vertebral fracture
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What is high AFP associated with?
Name 3 |
Neural tube defect
Hepatocellulat carcinoma Yolk sac tumor of ovary and tstis |
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Describe ECG changes?
1. Short QT 2. Prolonged QT 3. U-wave 4. Peaked T-waves |
1. Short QT: Hypercalcemia
2. Prolonged QT: Hypocalcemia 3. U-wave: Hypokalemia 4. Peaked T-waves: Hyperkalemia |
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Trisomy 18 and Rocker bottom feet?
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Edwards Syndrome
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What is the most common Leukemia?
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CLL
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Describe the AST/ALT in Alcohol?
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AST>ALT
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Wire looping in glomerulus?
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SLE Glomerulonephritis
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1, Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
Most Common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults? |
1. Minimal Change disease
2. Membranous Glomerulonephritis |
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Most common benign tumor of brain in adults?
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Meningioma
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Most common malignant tumor of the brain in adults?
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Gliaoblastoma multiform
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What chromosome is Wilms tumor Associated?
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Chrom 11
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C-wave indicate the closure of which valve?
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Closure of Tricuspid valve
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What keeps PDA open?
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PGE
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What is the mechanism of action of statins?
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HMG CoA reductase
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Why should a pregnant women lye on her left side?
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Lying on left side decreasing intravascular dehydydration and to increase urine output in a pregnanat women.
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Alopecia, Skin and bowel inflammation, muscle pain, What vitamin deficiency?
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Biotin B7
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Opthalmoplegia, Ataxia, Global confusion. Medical Emergency Administer Thiamine B1, what is the diagnosis?
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Alcohlic: Classic triad Wernickes Encephalopathy, Ataxia, Global Confusion Opthalmoplegia
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What drug prevents ventricular remodeling in CHF?
|
ACEI
|
|
|
Name the drug that inhibits alpha glucosidase in the intestinal tract used for DM II
Prevents postprandial hyperglycemia |
Acarbose
|
|
|
Monitor beta-hCG levels for one year, Pregnancy should be avoided during first year follow up, What is the diagnosis?
|
Hydatiform Mole
|
|
|
M/C site of an ectopic prenancy?
|
Fallopian Tubes
|
|
|
Snowstorm Appearance?
|
Hydatiform mole
|
|
|
Preeclampsia first line therapy?
|
Mg Sulfate
|
|
|
What is the antidote for Mg toxicity?
|
Calcium Gluconate
|
|
|
By having the patient get into a knee-chest position, fluid would pool into the abdomen by gravity. Name the sign?
|
Puddle sign
|
|
|
Strawberry tongue
|
Scarlet fever, Kawasaki
|
|
|
Koplik Spots
|
Rubeola
|
|
|
Honey Crusted Lesions
|
Impetigo
|
|
|
What signs or symptoms differentiates acute sinusitis from viral rhinitis?
|
Acute sinusitis (FACIAL PAIN)
Viral Rhinitis (No Facial Pain) |
|
|
Which nerve affects lateral eye movement, and if paralyzed will cause double vision with
lateral gaze? |
abducens nerve
|
|
|
Which nerve affects downward, inward movement of the eye?
|
trochlear nerve affects downward, inward movement of the eye
|
|
|
Which nerve affects affects pupillary constriction and movement of eye medial, upward, and
downward lateral? |
Oculomotor nerve affects pupillary constriction and movement of eye medial, upward, and
downward lateral. |
|
|
Which vitamin is associated with Decreased proprioception?
|
Vitamin E
Decreased proprioception |
|
|
Which Vitamin Toxicity is associated with hair loss?
|
vitamin A toxicity
Hair loss |
|
|
Which blood disease most commonly presents with mucosal bleeding such as epistaxis,
gingival bleeding, and menorrhagia? |
Von Willenbrand's disease
|
|
|
Sign associated with flexor tenosynovitis.
|
Kanavel's sign is associated with flexor tenosynovitis.
|
|
|
Proximal humeral groove and a positive
|
Bicipital tendinitis is associated with pain along the
Yergason's sign proximal humeral groove and a positive |
|
|
Babinski reflex would indicate an upper motor or LMN neuron disease?
|
Babinski reflex would indicate an upper motor
|
|
|
abnormal involuntary movements of the face, mouth,
patients develops tongue, trunk, and limbs and develop after months or years of treatment with neuroleptic drugs. Nmae the diease? |
Tardive Dyskinesia
|
|
|
A 47-year-old patient with Type 1 diabetes presents in a coma due to diabetic ketoacidosis. He is noted
to have rapid deep breathing. What type of the breathing best describes this patient's breathing pattern? |
Kussmaul breathing
|
|
|
What type of breathing is characterized by unpredictable irregularity?
|
Biot's breathing, also known as ataxic breathing, is characterized by unpredictable irregularity.
|
|
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Name the type of breathing that is characterized by periods of deep breathing alternating with periods of
apnea. This is caused by heart failure, uremia, drug-induced respiratory depression, and brain damage. |
Cheyne-Stokes breathing is characterized by periods of deep breathing alternating with periods of
apnea. This is caused by heart failure, uremia, drug-induced respiratory depression, and brain damage. |
|
|
What type of breathing isdeep breathing, and in this some cases, is a compensatory mechanism for
metabolic acidosis. |
Kussmaul breathing is deep breathing, and in this some cases, is a compensatory mechanism for
metabolic acidosis. |
|
|
the sternum is displaced anteriorly, increasing the anteroposterior diameter. The costal cartilages adjacent to the protruding sternum are depressed. Describe the chest type?
|
Pigeon Chest
|
|
|
Characterized by a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. Compression, Describe the chest type?
|
depression in the lower portion of the sternum. Compression
|
|
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If multiple ribs are fractured in multiple places, paradoxical movements of the thorax may be seen. Name the chest type?
As descent of the diaphragm decreases intrathoracic pressure on inspiration, the injured area caves |
flail chest
If multiple ribs are fractured in multiple places, paradoxical movements of the thorax may be seen. As descent of the diaphragm decreases intrathoracic pressure on inspiration, the injured area caves |
|
|
Chest has an increased anteroposterior diameter.
Nam the chest type? |
A barrel chest has an increased anteroposterior diameter
|
|
|
What is another name for pectus Excavatum and what disease state is it associated with?
|
Funnel Breast
Ricketts and Marfans |
|
|
What is another name for Pectus carinatum and what disease state is it associated with?
|
Pigeon Breast
Ricketts and Marfans |
|
|
What disease state is Barrel Chest associated with?
|
Emphysema
|
|
|
a groove or sulcus is formed in the ribcage, extendding laterally from the xiphoid, with flaring of the ribcage below the groove, Name the chest type?
|
Harrisons sulcus
|
|
|
What is Inflammation of the glands of the penis?
|
balanitis
|
|
|
A foreskin that cannot be retracted seen in?
|
phimosis
|
|
|
chancre on the shaft of the penis is typically seen in?
|
primary syphilis
|
|
|
Fibrotic areas under the penile skin along with a history of
penile curvature during erection. |
Peyronie disease
|
|
|
What is themost common presenting symptom/sign of renal cell carcinoma?
|
Hematuria
|
|
|
Pulsus paradoxus is a classic finding for cardiac disease? tamponade.
|
Cardiac tamponade.
|
|
|
Chest pain aggravated by
coughing and relieved by sitting, Name the cardiac sign and disease? |
Pericardial friction rub and pericarditis
|
|
|
What type of pulse pressure do you see in high stroke volume such as aortic insufficiency or hyperthyroidism?
|
Wide pulse pressure is seen in conditions of high stroke volume such as aortic insufficiency or hyperthyroidism. Narrow pulse pressure is seen with cardiac tamponade.
|
|
|
What type of pulse pressure do you see in cardiac tamponade?
|
Narrow pulse pressure
|
|
|
What disease is Erythema marginatum associated with?
|
Rheumatic fevel, Erythema marginatum is associated with rheumatic fever and is characterized by macular to maculopapular lesions. A clearing center is not found in the rash.
|
|
|
A patient presents with a rash, characterized by red macules and edematous papules with
a clearing center (Target Lesions). This best describes which of the following? |
erythema multiforme
|
|
|
Spasticty is asscociated with UMN or LMN disease?
|
UMN
|
|
|
Physical exam findings include laxity and hypermobility of joints, mitral valve prolapse, and associated degenerative arthritis.
Name the syndrome? |
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
|
|
|
Syndrome have hypotonia, arachnodactyly, joint laxity and
dislocations. Name the syndrome? |
Marfan syndrome
|
|
|
Blue sclerae, history of recurrent fractures and presenile deafness, Name the disease?
|
osteogenesis imperfecta
|
|
|
Philadelphia Chromosome, Which chromosome is it on?
|
Chrom 22 CML
|
|
|
Heinz Bodies
|
G6PD Deficiency
|
|
|
Inflammation of the proximal tibia at the insertion of the patellar tendon in active boys?
|
Osgood Schlatters
|
|
|
Chloramphenicol Side Effect?
|
Aplastic anemia
|
|
|
What type of blood dyscrasia side effect doe s Penicillin, methyldopa and quinidine have?
|
Hemolytic anemia
|
|
|
What drug most commonly causes macrocytic anemia?
|
Methotrexate
|
|
|
What drug causes thrombocytopenia most commonly?
|
Heparin
|
|
|
What drug causes a maculopapular rash?
|
Penicillin
|
|
|
What antibiotic causes a photosensitivity rash?
|
Tetracycline
|
|
|
Which antibiotic causes urticaria and Photosensitivity rash?
|
Penicillin
|
|
|
What drug most commonly causes liver necrosis?
|
Acetaminophen
|
|
|
Mee's lines name the posioning?
|
Arsenic
|
|
|
Arsenic posioning name the toxic effects?
|
diarria, Transverse bands in nails (ee's Lines). convulsions, Liver angiosarcoma, lung cancer
|
|
|
Benzene toxic effects?
|
Acute leukemia, aplastic anemia
|
|
|
headache, cherry-red skin coma, decreased oxygen saturation name the chemical?
|
Carbon monoxide
|
|
|
Polyvinyl chloride (plastics)
|
Liver angiosarcoma
|
|
|
m/c cause of HTN in young women?
|
Oral contraceptives
|
|
|
What drug decreases the risk for endometrial and ovarian cancer?
|
Oral Contraceptives
|
|
|
m/c cause of accidental death in people ages 1-39 years old?
|
Automobile accident
|
|
|
Is there permanent scarring in 1st and 2nd degree burns?
|
No
|
|
|
M/c cause of death in burn patients?
|
Sepsis caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
|
Patient has >104, anhidrosis (absence of sweating)?
|
Heat stroke
|
|
|
In electrical injury which is more dangerous AC or DC?
|
AC
|
|
|
Most common type of drowning?
|
Wet Drowning
|
|
|
Which tissue is least sensitive to radiation?
|
Bone
|
|
|
What is the first hematologic sign with total body radiation?
|
lymphopenia
|
|
|
most frequent type of cancer caused by radiation?
|
Acute Leukemia
|
|
|
What is the most common type of skin cancer caused by UVB light?
|
Basal Cell Carcinoma
|
|
|
Where does carbohydrates digestion begin?
|
In the mouth
|
|
|
What is the most important factor in determining daily energy expenditire?
|
BMR
|
|
|
Where does protein digestion occur?
|
Stomach
|
|
|
Where does fat digestion begin?
|
Small intestine
|
|
|
Do you see pitting edema in kwashiorkor or Marasmus?
|
Kwashiorkor
|
|
|
Where do you most commonly see extreme muscle wasting kwashiokor or marasmus?
|
Marasmus
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of death in anorexia?
|
Ventricular arrhythmia
|
|
|
What metabolic disturbance do you expect to see in Bulimia?
|
Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of vitamin D deficiency?
|
Renal Failure
|
|
|
What is the m/c cause of vitamin K deficiency in hospitals?
|
Broad spectrum antibiotics
|
|
|
what is the most common anemia in cancer?
|
anemia of chronic disease
|
|
|
M/c cause of death in Marfans syndrome and EDS?
|
Aortic Dissection
|
|
|
What type of valvular disease due you see in marfans syndrome/
|
Mitral Valve prolapse
|
|
|
What type of inheritance does marfans have?
|
Autosoma dominant
|
|
|
Wide pulse pressure presenting with a forceful arterial pulse upswing with a rapid fall of?
|
Water Hammer Pulse AR
|
|
|
unusually large carotid pulsation
|
Corrigans Pulse AR
|
|
|
Cooleys
|
B thalasemmia
|
|
|
Coombs which anemia?
|
hemolytic anemia
Direct: detects antibody on RBC surface (Acquired hemolytic anemia) Indirect: Detects antibody in plasma used in cross matching blood products |
|
|
1. Detects antibody on RBC surface (Acquired hemolytic anemia)
2. Detects antibody in plasma used in cross matching blood products |
1. Direct Coombs Test
2. Indirect Coombs Test |
|
|
Which disease is dignosed with the below study?
1. Antiplatelet antibodies 2. Hemophilia 3.Platelet aggregation study |
1. ITP
2. Factor VIII 3. Von Wiilebrand |
|
|
m/c nephrotic syndrome in adults
|
membrabous nephropathy
|
|
|
Hemophila B |
def Factor 9 Christmas factor |
|
|
Iron toxicity, what type of of Primary acid base disturbance is it associated with? |
Metabolic Acidosis |
|
|
What type of acid base disturbance is aspirin toxicity associated with? |
Mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis |
|
|
Treatment for ethylene glycol overdose |
Fomepizole |
|
|
Treatment for ethylene glycol overdose |
Fomepizole |
|
|
Treatment for salicylate and TCA overdose |
Sodium Bicarbonate |
|
|
Patient comes in with fatigue, isolated elevated alkaline phosphatase cholangiocarcinoma, pigmented gallstones, inflammation of the Biliary tract. Name the fluke |
Clinic his sinensis (Chinese Liver Fluke) transmitted by undercooked fish |
|
|
How do salicylate a effect the respiratory center? |
Stimulates respiratory center leading to hyperventilation |
|
|
A hair pull that produces 12-14 hairs. Everything else normal |
Telegenic effluvium |
