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121 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Lesser omentum?
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Holds the liver in its proper position.
Double layer of peritoneum that extends from the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach and the start of the duodenum. |
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Falciform ligament?
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Attaches the liver to the abdominal wall
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Greater omentum?
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Layer of fat the protects the abdominal tissues. Large fold of peritoneum that hangs down from the stomach. Extends from the stomach to the posterior abdominal wall after associating with the transverse colon.
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Retroperitoneum?
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Anatomical space in the abdominal cavity behind (retro to) the peritoneum. The duodenum, pancreas and rectum are retroperitoneal organs.
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Celiac trunk?
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a. First major branch of the abdominal aorta. Branches from the aorta around the level of the T12 vertebra in humans.
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Common hepatic artery?
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Short blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the:
i. Liver ii. Pylorus (a part of the stomach) iii. Duodenum (a part of the small intestine) iv. Pancreas |
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Right gastric artery (pyloric artery)?
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Arises from the common hepatic artery, above the pylorus. Descends to the pyloric end of the stomach. Passes from right to left along lesser curvature of stomach. Supplies branches and joins left gastric artery
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Left gastric artery?
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Arises from the celiac artery. Runs along the superior portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach.
Branches also supply the lower esophagus. |
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Splenic artery?
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a. Supplies oxygenated blood to the spleen
Branches from the celiac artery, and follows a course superior to the pancreas. |
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Superior mesenteric artery?
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Arises from the anterior surface of the abdominal aorta, just inferior to the origin of the celiac trunk. Supplies the intestines from the lower part of the duodenum to the left colic flexure and the pancreas
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Inferior mesenteric artery?
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Supplies the large intestine from the left colic (or splenic) flexure to the upper part of the rectum.Supply includes:
ii. Descending colon iii. Sigmoid colon iv. Part of the rectum |
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Portal system?
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The term “portal system” means capillaries attached to a vein and that vein being attached to another system of capillaries that then take blood back to the heart.
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Hepatic portal vein?
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a. Drains blood from the digestive system and its associated glands.
b. One of the main components of the hepatic portal venous system. |
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Superior mesenteric vein (SMV)?
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Drains blood from the small intestine (jejunum and ileum).
Terminates behind the neck of the pancreas. |
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Combines with the splenic vein to form the hepatic portal vein?
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Superior mesenteric vein (SMV)?
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Splenic vein?
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Joins with the superior mesenteric vein, to form the hepatic portal vein and follows a course superior to the pancreas, alongside of the similarly named artery, the splenic artery.
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Collects branches from the stomach and pancreas and most notably from the large intestine, which is drained by the inferior mesenteric vein and joins with splenic vein shortly before it forms the portal vein.
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Splenic vein
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Drains large intestine and terminates when reaching the splenic vein?
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Inferior mesenteric vein (IMV)
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Hepatic Portal Vein is formed by the union of the?
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● splenic vein and
● superior mesenteric vein and ● inferior mesenteric vein |
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True or false, fats are NOT carried in the portal blood?
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True. Almost all of the fats absorbed from the intestinal tract into intestinal lacteals. Fats are then transported to the systemic circulation via the thoracic duct
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True or false, oxygen is the most important dilator in the intestinal vili?
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True
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Four (4) Major Layers of Tissue of the Alimentary Canal?
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Mesentary
Muscularis externa Muscularis mucosa Submucosa |
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GI Mucosa (3 layers)?
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Mucus Lining of epithelium
Lamina propria Muscularis mucosae |
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Plicae (folds) that increase surface area?
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Mucus Lining of epithelium
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Connective tissue, nerves, capillaries and lymphoid tissue (GALT or MALT)?
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Lamina propria
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Location of dense connective tissue in the GI tract?
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Submucosa
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Responsible for peristalsis and segmentation?
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Muscularis externa
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Protective outer layer of visceral peritoneum consisting of squamous cells.
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Serosa
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Three Major Functions of the Motor Activity of the GI Tract?
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Segmentation
Peristalsis Sphincters |
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The enteric nervous system concentrates in two specific areas:
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1. Submucosal plexus
2. Myenteric plexus |
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The enteric nervous system can also be stimulated directly from the hypothalamus via sight, taste and smell. This occurs through ______.
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long reflexes
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Long nerve fibers from the GI to the brain are Extrinsic nerves. What do they signal?
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Extrinsic Primary Afferent Nerves (EPAN) notify CNS of GI processes that are relevant to energy and fluid homeostasis and the sensations of discomfort (nausea and vomiting) and pain
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The major stimulant of Extrinsic Primary Afferent Nerves (EPAN) is?
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Distention (stretch)
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The _____ cranial nerve innervates most of the GI organs
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10th
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_______ nerves innervate the lower intestines, anus and bladder.
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Pelvic splanchnic
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The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) acts through short pre-glanglionic nerves stimulating long post-ganglionic nerves that synapse in the chain ganglia?
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False, the pre-ganglionic nerves are not synapsing in the chain ganglia. Instead, they synapse just beyond the chain ganglia in the pre-vertebral ganglia.
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True or false, the parasympathetic system is excitatory?
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True
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The function of 5HT-4 in the gut is to?
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Enhance the release of more ACh, thus enhancing contraction
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Tegaserod?
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5-HT4 agonist manufactured by Novartis and used for the management of irritable bowel syndrome and constipation
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True or false, zelnorm was withdrawn due to increased risks of heart attack or stroke.
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True
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Of the 6 major gastric reflexes, which one is inhibitory?
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Enterogastric
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Most important substance stimulating gastric acid release?
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Gastrin (stomach and duodenum)
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Acts on pancreatic ducts, causes secretion of bicarbonate & water, secretion of bile from liver and may inhibit gastric emptying
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Secretin (duodenum)
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Stimulates release of bile from gall bladder, secretion of pancreatic enzymes from acinar cells and may inhibit gastric emptying?
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Cholecystokinin (duodenum and jejunum)
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Slows stomach motility and secretions?
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Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (GIP) (duodenum and jejunum)
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Clearing hormone. Only works in absence of food to clear the GI tract. Very powerful stimulant of contraction?
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Motilin (duodenum and jejunum)
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Inhibits secretion of endocrine hormones as well as histamine, gastric acid, rate of gastric emptying. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle in liver, causing a decrease in blood flow in esophagus. Also decreases bile secretions.
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Somatostatin – in stomach and duodenum, pancreas – INHIBITORY
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Transmitter released by distention and noxious stimuli. Involved in contraction of GI smooth muscle and nausea and vomiting.
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Serotonin, from EC cells.
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Octreotide?
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Sandostatin, an octopeptide that mimics natural somatostatin pharmacologically, though is a more potent inhibitor of growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin than the natural hormone.
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Used to decrease bleeding from esophageal varices?
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Octreotide
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Glands the secrete the most saliva?
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Submandibular Glands
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4 stomach sections, top to bottom?
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i. Cardia
ii. Fundus iii. Body or corpus iv. Pylorus or antrum |
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Stomach section secreting the greatest amount of gastric acid, enzymes and intrinsic factor
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Body or Corpus
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Area of gastrin secretion but no gastric acid secretion?
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Antrum region
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Two stomach areas secreting gastric acid?
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ii. Fundus
iii. Body or corpus |
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Gastric acid is secreted by?
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Parietal cells
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Pepsinogen is secreted by?
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Chief cells
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Mucous is secreted by?
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Goblet cells
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Bicarbonate ions are secreted by?
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Surface epithelial cells
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Gastric acid is secreted in response to?
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histamine (via H2 receptors), acetylcholine (M3 receptors) and gastrin (CCK2 receptors).
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Ezyme unique to the parietal cells that transports H+ against a concentration gradient of about 3 million to 1
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Hydrogen potassium ATPase (H+/K+ ATPase) is
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Parietal cells also produce?
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intrinsic factor
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Intrinsic factor is required for?
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absorption of vitamin B12 in the diet
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Hormone produced mainly by P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the human stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas that stimulates appetite?
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Ghrelin
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Ghrelin is also produced in the ____, where it stimulates the secretion of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland
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hypothalamic arcuate nucleus
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Opposite of Ghrelin, decreases appetite?
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Leptin
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Hepatopancreatic sphincter that controls secretions from the liver, pancreas, and gallbladder into the duodenum of the small intestine
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Sphincter of Oddi
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The main function of these glands is to produce an alkaline secretion (containing bicarbonate) in order to:
protect the duodenum from the acidic content of chyme (which is introduced into the duodenum from the stomach); provide an alkaline condition for the intestinal enzymes to be active, thus enabling absorption to take place; lubricate the intestinal walls. |
Brunner glands
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Site of greatest absorption?
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Jejunum
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Main function is to absorb vitamin B12 and bile salts, water and products of digestion not absorbed by the jejunum
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Ileum
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Peyer’s patches are found in the?
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Ileum
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The crypts of Lieberkühn (or intestinal glands) are glands found in the epithelial lining of the small intestine and colon. The crypts secrete the enzymes:
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i. Sucrase
ii. Maltase iii. Endopeptidases (Enterokinase) iv. Exopeptidases |
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Turns trypsinogen (a zymogen from the pancreas) to trypsin, indirectly activating a number of pancreatic digestive enzymes
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Enterokinase
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AMITIZA?
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lubiprostone) is approved to treat Chronic Idiopathic Constipation in adults and Irritable Bowel Syndrome with Constipation (IBS-C) in women 18 years of age and older
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Lubiprostone works by stimulating
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Chlorine pump
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The main inducer of the mechanisms involved in vomiting?
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Serotonin
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The most effective antiemetics constituting the single greatest advance in the management of nausea and vomiting in patients with cancer
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5-HT3 inhibitors
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Approved 5-HT3 inhibitors include:
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1. Dolasetron (Anzemet),
2. Granisetron (Kytril) 3. Ondansetron (Zofran) 4. The newest 5-HT3 inhibitor, Palonosetron (Aloxi), |
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Emend?
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iAprepitant. Substance P inhibitor shown to be effective in controlling the nausea of cancer chemotherapy in the delayed phase.
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Pneumonic for VOMIT?
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(V)estibular(O)bstruction(M)ind(I)nfection(T)oxins
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Part of the brain that controls vomiting?
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Area postrema
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Area of the brain which receives inputs from blood-borne drugs or hormones, and communicates with the Vomiting center, to initiate vomiting?
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Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
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Substance-P acts on?
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NK-1 receptors
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Most important phase in regards to pancreatic exocrine secretion?
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Intestinal phase
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Specialized macrophages located in the liver that form part of the reticuloendothelial system (aka: mononuclear phagocyte system)
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Kupffer cells
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Simulates the secretion of bile from the gall bladder
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Cholecystokinin
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Stimulates release of bile from the liver?
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Secretin
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Small pouches caused by sacculation that give the colon its segmented appearance?
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Haustra
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Runs the length of the large intestine. and actually replaces some of the longitudinal muscle of the muscularis externa?
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taenia coli
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Sphincter muscle situated at the junction of the small intestine (ileum) and the large intestine?
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ileocecal valve
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Lactinex?
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Lactobacillus, a probiotic supplement used to replace microorganisms (gut flora) in the human intestines and colon
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Antihistamines:
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1. Buclizine – Bucladin-S
2. Cyclizine – Marezine 3. Dimenhydrinate – Dramamine 4. Diphenhydramine – Benadryl 5. Meclizine – Antivert, Bonine, Dramamine (less drowsy formula) 6. Promethazine – Phenergan |
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Alkylamine antihistamines?
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1. Chlorphenamine (Chlortrimeton)
2. Brompheniramine (Dimetane) 3. Triprolidine (Actidil) |
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Piperizine antihistamines?
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1. Cyclizine (Marezine)
2. Hydroxyzine (Atarex/Vistaril) 3. Meclizine (Antivert/Bonine) 4. Cetirizine (Zyrtec) |
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Phenthiazine antihistamine?
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Promethazine (Phenergan)
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2nd generation antihistamines?
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1. Terfenadine (Seldane)
2. Acrivastine (Semprex) 3. Astemizole (Hismonol) 4. Cetirizine (Zyrtec) 5. Loratadine (Claritin) 6. Desloratidine (Clarinex) 7. Azelastine (Astelin)* 8. Levocetirizine (Xyzal) 9. Fexofenadine (Allegra) |
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The Theophyline salt of diphenhydramine?
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Dramamine
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H2 agonists?
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a. Ranitidine – Zantac
b. Famotidine – Pepcid c. Cimetidine – Tagamet d. Nizatidine – Axid |
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Proton pump inhibitors?
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e. Esomeprazole – Nexium
f. Lansoprazole – Prevacid g. Omeprazole – Prilosec h. Rabeprazole – Aciphex i. Pantoprazole - Protonix |
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Key to H2 agonists?
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the imidazole group
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H-2 Receptor Antagonists block the H2 receptor on ________, thus limiting the effects of histamine on acid production
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parietal cells
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H2 agonist potency?
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Pepcid > Axid > Zantac > Tagament
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Proton pump inhibitors?
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1. Esomeprazole – Nexium
2. Lansoprazole – Prevacid 3. Omeprazole – Prilosec 4. Rabeprazole – Aciphex 5. Pantoprazole - Protonix |
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True or false, PPIs are prodrugs and must get into the acid environment of the stomach to be activated?
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True
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PPIs are weak bases and would be destroyed by the acidic stomach environment?
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True
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PPIs are released in the small intestine?
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True
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PPis enter the parietal cell ionized?
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False, PPIs enter the parietal cell unionized and become trapped.
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Carafate?
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Sucrulfate, reacts with hydrochloric acid in the stomach to form a cross-linking, viscous, paste-like material.
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Anticholinergic/Antispasmotic Agents
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1. Dicyclomine – Bentyl
2. Hyoscyamine -Cystospaz, IB-Stat, Levbid, Levsin, Levsinex, NuLev)a. Atropine-like 3. Propantheline – Probanthine 4. Mepenzolate – Cantil 5. Belladonna 6. Methscopolamine – Pamine 7. Combinations a.Atropine, scopolamine, hyoscyamine + Pb b. Chlordiazopoxide + Clidinium - Librax |
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Reglan?
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Metoclopramide. i. Blocks Dopamine 2 Receptors in GI tract, causing increased motility of the smooth muscle of the stomach and small intestines
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Tigan?
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Trimethobenzamide
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Sulfasalazine?
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Azulfidine: 5-Aminosalicylates, Mainstay of Treatment for IBS.
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Dipendum?
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Olsalazine, delivers 2 molecules of Mesalazine (5-aminosalicylic acid) (5-ASA)
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Balsalazide?
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Colazal, releases mesalazine, also known as 5-aminosalicylic acid, or 5-ASA, in the large intestine
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iPentasa and Asocol?
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Pentasa and Asocol are coated to prevent acid destruction in stomach.
iPentasa releases throughout small intestines and colon. iii. Asacol releases primarily in ileum and colon like the other mesalamine products |
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Relistor?
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(Methylnaltrexone), new option for treating constipation due to opioids
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Kwashiorkor?
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Deficient intake of protein
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Marasmus?
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Deficient intake of both calories and protein over a long time period
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Most useful parameter to test for malnutrition in the hospital due to short half life of only 2 days.
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Thyroxine
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Most accurate test for malnutrition due to short half life, but cost restrictive
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Retinol binding protein
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Caloric requirements:
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b. 25 kcal/kg/day for adults
c. 30 kcal/kg/day for patients with infections, skeletal trauma d. 35 kcal/kg/day for patients with major trauma e. 40 kcal/kg/day for patients with major thermal injury |