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121 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Lesser omentum?
Holds the liver in its proper position.
Double layer of peritoneum that extends from the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach and the start of the duodenum.
Falciform ligament?
Attaches the liver to the abdominal wall
Greater omentum?
Layer of fat the protects the abdominal tissues. Large fold of peritoneum that hangs down from the stomach. Extends from the stomach to the posterior abdominal wall after associating with the transverse colon.
Retroperitoneum?
Anatomical space in the abdominal cavity behind (retro to) the peritoneum. The duodenum, pancreas and rectum are retroperitoneal organs.
Celiac trunk?
a. First major branch of the abdominal aorta. Branches from the aorta around the level of the T12 vertebra in humans.
Common hepatic artery?
Short blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the:
i. Liver
ii. Pylorus (a part of the stomach)
iii. Duodenum (a part of the small intestine)
iv. Pancreas
Right gastric artery (pyloric artery)?
Arises from the common hepatic artery, above the pylorus. Descends to the pyloric end of the stomach. Passes from right to left along lesser curvature of stomach. Supplies branches and joins left gastric artery
Left gastric artery?
Arises from the celiac artery. Runs along the superior portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach.
Branches also supply the lower esophagus.
Splenic artery?
a. Supplies oxygenated blood to the spleen
Branches from the celiac artery, and follows a course superior to the pancreas.
Superior mesenteric artery?
Arises from the anterior surface of the abdominal aorta, just inferior to the origin of the celiac trunk. Supplies the intestines from the lower part of the duodenum to the left colic flexure and the pancreas
Inferior mesenteric artery?
Supplies the large intestine from the left colic (or splenic) flexure to the upper part of the rectum.Supply includes:
ii. Descending colon
iii. Sigmoid colon
iv. Part of the rectum
Portal system?
The term “portal system” means capillaries attached to a vein and that vein being attached to another system of capillaries that then take blood back to the heart.
Hepatic portal vein?
a. Drains blood from the digestive system and its associated glands.
b. One of the main components of the hepatic portal venous system.
Superior mesenteric vein (SMV)?
Drains blood from the small intestine (jejunum and ileum).
Terminates behind the neck of the pancreas.
Combines with the splenic vein to form the hepatic portal vein?
Superior mesenteric vein (SMV)?
Splenic vein?
Joins with the superior mesenteric vein, to form the hepatic portal vein and follows a course superior to the pancreas, alongside of the similarly named artery, the splenic artery.
Collects branches from the stomach and pancreas and most notably from the large intestine, which is drained by the inferior mesenteric vein and joins with splenic vein shortly before it forms the portal vein.
Splenic vein
Drains large intestine and terminates when reaching the splenic vein?
Inferior mesenteric vein (IMV)
Hepatic Portal Vein is formed by the union of the?
● splenic vein and
● superior mesenteric vein and
● inferior mesenteric vein
True or false, fats are NOT carried in the portal blood?
True. Almost all of the fats absorbed from the intestinal tract into intestinal lacteals. Fats are then transported to the systemic circulation via the thoracic duct
True or false, oxygen is the most important dilator in the intestinal vili?
True
Four (4) Major Layers of Tissue of the Alimentary Canal?
Mesentary
Muscularis externa
Muscularis mucosa
Submucosa
GI Mucosa (3 layers)?
Mucus Lining of epithelium
Lamina propria
Muscularis mucosae
Plicae (folds) that increase surface area?
Mucus Lining of epithelium
Connective tissue, nerves, capillaries and lymphoid tissue (GALT or MALT)?
Lamina propria
Location of dense connective tissue in the GI tract?
Submucosa
Responsible for peristalsis and segmentation?
Muscularis externa
Protective outer layer of visceral peritoneum consisting of squamous cells.
Serosa
Three Major Functions of the Motor Activity of the GI Tract?
Segmentation
Peristalsis
Sphincters
The enteric nervous system concentrates in two specific areas:
1. Submucosal plexus
2. Myenteric plexus
The enteric nervous system can also be stimulated directly from the hypothalamus via sight, taste and smell. This occurs through ______.
long reflexes
Long nerve fibers from the GI to the brain are Extrinsic nerves. What do they signal?
Extrinsic Primary Afferent Nerves (EPAN) notify CNS of GI processes that are relevant to energy and fluid homeostasis and the sensations of discomfort (nausea and vomiting) and pain
The major stimulant of Extrinsic Primary Afferent Nerves (EPAN) is?
Distention (stretch)
The _____ cranial nerve innervates most of the GI organs
10th
_______ nerves innervate the lower intestines, anus and bladder.
Pelvic splanchnic
The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) acts through short pre-glanglionic nerves stimulating long post-ganglionic nerves that synapse in the chain ganglia?
False, the pre-ganglionic nerves are not synapsing in the chain ganglia. Instead, they synapse just beyond the chain ganglia in the pre-vertebral ganglia.
True or false, the parasympathetic system is excitatory?
True
The function of 5HT-4 in the gut is to?
Enhance the release of more ACh, thus enhancing contraction
Tegaserod?
5-HT4 agonist manufactured by Novartis and used for the management of irritable bowel syndrome and constipation
True or false, zelnorm was withdrawn due to increased risks of heart attack or stroke.
True
Of the 6 major gastric reflexes, which one is inhibitory?
Enterogastric
Most important substance stimulating gastric acid release?
Gastrin (stomach and duodenum)
Acts on pancreatic ducts, causes secretion of bicarbonate & water, secretion of bile from liver and may inhibit gastric emptying
Secretin (duodenum)
Stimulates release of bile from gall bladder, secretion of pancreatic enzymes from acinar cells and may inhibit gastric emptying?
Cholecystokinin (duodenum and jejunum)
Slows stomach motility and secretions?
Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (GIP) (duodenum and jejunum)
Clearing hormone. Only works in absence of food to clear the GI tract. Very powerful stimulant of contraction?
Motilin (duodenum and jejunum)
Inhibits secretion of endocrine hormones as well as histamine, gastric acid, rate of gastric emptying. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle in liver, causing a decrease in blood flow in esophagus. Also decreases bile secretions.
Somatostatin – in stomach and duodenum, pancreas – INHIBITORY
Transmitter released by distention and noxious stimuli. Involved in contraction of GI smooth muscle and nausea and vomiting.
Serotonin, from EC cells.
Octreotide?
Sandostatin, an octopeptide that mimics natural somatostatin pharmacologically, though is a more potent inhibitor of growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin than the natural hormone.
Used to decrease bleeding from esophageal varices?
Octreotide
Glands the secrete the most saliva?
Submandibular Glands
4 stomach sections, top to bottom?
i. Cardia
ii. Fundus
iii. Body or corpus
iv. Pylorus or antrum
Stomach section secreting the greatest amount of gastric acid, enzymes and intrinsic factor
Body or Corpus
Area of gastrin secretion but no gastric acid secretion?
Antrum region
Two stomach areas secreting gastric acid?
ii. Fundus
iii. Body or corpus
Gastric acid is secreted by?
Parietal cells
Pepsinogen is secreted by?
Chief cells
Mucous is secreted by?
Goblet cells
Bicarbonate ions are secreted by?
Surface epithelial cells
Gastric acid is secreted in response to?
histamine (via H2 receptors), acetylcholine (M3 receptors) and gastrin (CCK2 receptors).
Ezyme unique to the parietal cells that transports H+ against a concentration gradient of about 3 million to 1
Hydrogen potassium ATPase (H+/K+ ATPase) is
Parietal cells also produce?
intrinsic factor
Intrinsic factor is required for?
absorption of vitamin B12 in the diet
Hormone produced mainly by P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the human stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas that stimulates appetite?
Ghrelin
Ghrelin is also produced in the ____, where it stimulates the secretion of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland
hypothalamic arcuate nucleus
Opposite of Ghrelin, decreases appetite?
Leptin
Hepatopancreatic sphincter that controls secretions from the liver, pancreas, and gallbladder into the duodenum of the small intestine
Sphincter of Oddi
The main function of these glands is to produce an alkaline secretion (containing bicarbonate) in order to:
protect the duodenum from the acidic content of chyme (which is introduced into the duodenum from the stomach); provide an alkaline condition for the intestinal enzymes to be active, thus enabling absorption to take place; lubricate the intestinal walls.
Brunner glands
Site of greatest absorption?
Jejunum
Main function is to absorb vitamin B12 and bile salts, water and products of digestion not absorbed by the jejunum
Ileum
Peyer’s patches are found in the?
Ileum
The crypts of Lieberkühn (or intestinal glands) are glands found in the epithelial lining of the small intestine and colon. The crypts secrete the enzymes:
i. Sucrase
ii. Maltase
iii. Endopeptidases (Enterokinase)
iv. Exopeptidases
Turns trypsinogen (a zymogen from the pancreas) to trypsin, indirectly activating a number of pancreatic digestive enzymes
Enterokinase
AMITIZA?
lubiprostone) is approved to treat Chronic Idiopathic Constipation in adults and Irritable Bowel Syndrome with Constipation (IBS-C) in women 18 years of age and older
Lubiprostone works by stimulating
Chlorine pump
The main inducer of the mechanisms involved in vomiting?
Serotonin
The most effective antiemetics constituting the single greatest advance in the management of nausea and vomiting in patients with cancer
5-HT3 inhibitors
Approved 5-HT3 inhibitors include:
1. Dolasetron (Anzemet),
2. Granisetron (Kytril)
3. Ondansetron (Zofran)
4. The newest 5-HT3 inhibitor, Palonosetron (Aloxi),
Emend?
iAprepitant. Substance P inhibitor shown to be effective in controlling the nausea of cancer chemotherapy in the delayed phase.
Pneumonic for VOMIT?
(V)estibular(O)bstruction(M)ind(I)nfection(T)oxins
Part of the brain that controls vomiting?
Area postrema
Area of the brain which receives inputs from blood-borne drugs or hormones, and communicates with the Vomiting center, to initiate vomiting?
Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
Substance-P acts on?
NK-1 receptors
Most important phase in regards to pancreatic exocrine secretion?
Intestinal phase
Specialized macrophages located in the liver that form part of the reticuloendothelial system (aka: mononuclear phagocyte system)
Kupffer cells
Simulates the secretion of bile from the gall bladder
Cholecystokinin
Stimulates release of bile from the liver?
Secretin
Small pouches caused by sacculation that give the colon its segmented appearance?
Haustra
Runs the length of the large intestine. and actually replaces some of the longitudinal muscle of the muscularis externa?
taenia coli
Sphincter muscle situated at the junction of the small intestine (ileum) and the large intestine?
ileocecal valve
Lactinex?
Lactobacillus, a probiotic supplement used to replace microorganisms (gut flora) in the human intestines and colon
Antihistamines:
1. Buclizine – Bucladin-S
2. Cyclizine – Marezine
3. Dimenhydrinate – Dramamine
4. Diphenhydramine – Benadryl
5. Meclizine – Antivert, Bonine, Dramamine (less drowsy formula)
6. Promethazine – Phenergan
Alkylamine antihistamines?
1. Chlorphenamine (Chlortrimeton)
2. Brompheniramine (Dimetane)
3. Triprolidine (Actidil)
Piperizine antihistamines?
1. Cyclizine (Marezine)
2. Hydroxyzine (Atarex/Vistaril)
3. Meclizine (Antivert/Bonine)
4. Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
Phenthiazine antihistamine?
Promethazine (Phenergan)
2nd generation antihistamines?
1. Terfenadine (Seldane)
2. Acrivastine (Semprex)
3. Astemizole (Hismonol)
4. Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
5. Loratadine (Claritin)
6. Desloratidine (Clarinex)
7. Azelastine (Astelin)*
8. Levocetirizine (Xyzal)
9. Fexofenadine (Allegra)
The Theophyline salt of diphenhydramine?
Dramamine
H2 agonists?
a. Ranitidine – Zantac
b. Famotidine – Pepcid
c. Cimetidine – Tagamet
d. Nizatidine – Axid
Proton pump inhibitors?
e. Esomeprazole – Nexium
f. Lansoprazole – Prevacid
g. Omeprazole – Prilosec
h. Rabeprazole – Aciphex
i. Pantoprazole - Protonix
Key to H2 agonists?
the imidazole group
H-2 Receptor Antagonists block the H2 receptor on ________, thus limiting the effects of histamine on acid production
parietal cells
H2 agonist potency?
Pepcid > Axid > Zantac > Tagament
Proton pump inhibitors?
1. Esomeprazole – Nexium
2. Lansoprazole – Prevacid
3. Omeprazole – Prilosec
4. Rabeprazole – Aciphex
5. Pantoprazole - Protonix
True or false, PPIs are prodrugs and must get into the acid environment of the stomach to be activated?
True
PPIs are weak bases and would be destroyed by the acidic stomach environment?
True
PPIs are released in the small intestine?
True
PPis enter the parietal cell ionized?
False, PPIs enter the parietal cell unionized and become trapped.
Carafate?
Sucrulfate, reacts with hydrochloric acid in the stomach to form a cross-linking, viscous, paste-like material.
Anticholinergic/Antispasmotic Agents
1. Dicyclomine – Bentyl
2. Hyoscyamine -Cystospaz, IB-Stat, Levbid, Levsin, Levsinex, NuLev)a. Atropine-like
3. Propantheline – Probanthine
4. Mepenzolate – Cantil
5. Belladonna
6. Methscopolamine – Pamine
7. Combinations a.Atropine, scopolamine, hyoscyamine + Pb
b. Chlordiazopoxide + Clidinium - Librax
Reglan?
Metoclopramide. i. Blocks Dopamine 2 Receptors in GI tract, causing increased motility of the smooth muscle of the stomach and small intestines
Tigan?
Trimethobenzamide
Sulfasalazine?
Azulfidine: 5-Aminosalicylates, Mainstay of Treatment for IBS.
Dipendum?
Olsalazine, delivers 2 molecules of Mesalazine (5-aminosalicylic acid) (5-ASA)
Balsalazide?
Colazal, releases mesalazine, also known as 5-aminosalicylic acid, or 5-ASA, in the large intestine
iPentasa and Asocol?
Pentasa and Asocol are coated to prevent acid destruction in stomach.
iPentasa releases throughout small intestines and colon.
iii. Asacol releases primarily in ileum and colon like the other mesalamine products
Relistor?
(Methylnaltrexone), new option for treating constipation due to opioids
Kwashiorkor?
Deficient intake of protein
Marasmus?
Deficient intake of both calories and protein over a long time period
Most useful parameter to test for malnutrition in the hospital due to short half life of only 2 days.
Thyroxine
Most accurate test for malnutrition due to short half life, but cost restrictive
Retinol binding protein
Caloric requirements:
b. 25 kcal/kg/day for adults
c. 30 kcal/kg/day for patients with infections, skeletal trauma
d. 35 kcal/kg/day for patients with major trauma
e. 40 kcal/kg/day for patients with major thermal injury