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99 Cards in this Set

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  • Back

What are the 3 domains and what are they based on?

Eucaryotes, archaea, and eubacteria. Based on evolutionary relationships.

What is the main difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

Eukaryotes have a true nucleus with a nuclear membrane. (animals, plants, protists)


Prokaryotes only have a primitive nucleus without a nuclear membrane. (eubacteria and archaea)

True/False: Prokaryotes have organelles in cytoplasm.

False.

Which prokaryote does not have peptidoglycan?

Mycoplasma.

Can you find sterols in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

Yes in eukaryotes, but only mycoplasma for prokaryotes.

What is the difference in ribosomes between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

Prokaryotic: 70S (50S + 30S)


Eukaryotic: 80S (60S + 40S)

What is the order for bacterial nomenclature?

kingdom, division, class, subclass, order, family, tribe, genus, species.

True/False: Bacteria are mostly free-living, single-celled organisms that reproduce by simple division.

True.

What is an example of a bacteria that is an obligate intracellular parasite?

Rickettsiae and chlamydiae.

What is the average size of bacteria?

Usually about 1 micron, (mycoplasmas as small as .2 microns, bacillus as large as 10 microns)

What are the cell shapes?

coccus, rod, coccobacillus, vibrio, spirillum, and spirochete.

What is the composition of bacterial cells?

50% protein,


20% nucleic acids (10x more RNA than DNA)


10% polysaccharides


10% lipids

Describe bacterial chromosomes.

Single, circular, ds DNA (except borrelia = linear)


supercoiled strand up to 1 mm in length, haploid, contained in nucleoid, 600 to >5000kb. (a gene is approximately 1 kb)

True/False: A larger chromosome in a bacteria usually means it will be able to live in fewer environments.

False.

What are the 2 main types of extrachromosomal DNA?

Plasmids - replicate in cytoplasm, independent of chromosome, dsDNA, usually circular.


Bacteriophage - virus - replicates in cytoplasm or integrates into chromosome.

What 3 things contribute to the genome of a bacteria?

Chromosome, plasmids, and bacteriophage.Chromosome +plasmids + bacteriophage = GENOME

What is the purpose of detergents, polymyxins, and ionophores?

They act as antibacterials by affecting the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria.


Polymyxins: damage PE-containing membranes (usually gram -)


Ionophores: disrupt membrane potential.

What are the functions of a bacterial cell wall?
Provides shape, barrier against osmotic pressure.
How do we take advantage of bacterial cell walls?
We affect them with antibacterials such as beta-lactams and lysozyme. We also use it for gram stains.
What are the components and results of gram stains?
It involves crystal violet, potassium iodide, ethanol, and water. The crystal violet-iodide complexes get trapped in the thick cell wall, resulting in the gram + cells staining purple. Then safranin (red) counterstain is applied and the gram – cells show up red. Exceptions: mycoplasmas don’t have a cell wall, mycobaceria has lipid that interferes with the stain.
What are the components of peptidoglycan?
Repeating disaccharide of N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid crosslinked by peptide bridges at MurNAc.
How do beta-lactams work?
They resemble transpeptidase substrates and block the crosslinking of the growing chain. Would not affect a fully formed peptidoglycan.
Where do hydrolases work?
Hydrolases such as lysozyme and mutanolysin cleave at the linkage between the sugars.
Where do amidases cleave?
Amidases such as autolysins cleave between NAM and its sidechain L-ala.
What is the purpose of transglycosylases and transpeptidases?
Transglycosylases link the sugars together while Transpeptidases link the sidechains together and make the crosslinking.
What is an example of a beta-lactam?
Penicillin.
What are some of the unique aspects of gram + bacteria?
They have unique cytoplasmic membranes, cell walls, lipoteichoic acid, teichoic acid, and proteins.
What are Wall Teichoic Acids (WTA)?
They are repeating unites of phosphodiester-linked (negative charge) glyderol or ribitol backbone + sidechains that are covalently linked to PG (MurNAc). Found on gram + cells.
What are Lipoteichoic acids (LTA)?
They are similary to WTA, but anchored to the cytoplasmic membrane lipids; phosphodiester lined (negative charge) Found on Gram + cells.
What are the purposes of LTA and WTA?
They help with ion binding, charge maintenance, membrane integrity, adherence, and anchor proteins.
What is different about the gram negative bacteria from the gram + bacteria?
It has a thin peptidoglycan (1-2 layers; 2nm), no WTA or LTA, it has a periplasmic space to hold digestive and protective enzymes, and it has an outer membrane to block entry of large molecules.
Describe the gram negative outer membrane.
It is not a typical lipid bilayer, is attached to PG by lipoprotein, lipopolysaccharide (LPS) forms outer leaflet, its proteins deal with transport, has porins to allow passive diffusion of low MW hydrophilic compounds (sugars and amino acids)
What is a Lipopolysaccharide?
It is an endotoxin that can cause toxic shock. It is made of a Lipid A (which binds it to the outer membrane and contains toxic properties), a core polysaccharide (which varies by species), and an O-antigen (polysaccharide that varies with strain). It is negatively charged and stabilized by interactions with Ca2+ and Mg2+.
What are some additional featers that can be found in both gram + and gram – bacteria?
Capsules, flagella, pili, surface proteins, endotoxins, enzymes, and endospores.
What is a capsule?
A capsule is a polysaccharide or protein layer that is covalently linked to the cell (outer membrane for Gram -, and PG or cytoplasmic membrane for Gram +),
What is its purpose?
It functions to block complement activation, C3b deposition or recognition (antiphagocytic), aids attachment to host surfaces, is antilytic (blockes C5-C9 MAC in gram -), and provides resistance to cationic microbial peptides (CAMPs)
What are the functions of flagella and pili?
Flagella is a protein that aids in motility, chemotaxis, virulence (H-antigen). Allows a cell to rotate (swims), stop (tumbles), and is mediated by attractants (supress tumbling, repellants enhance tumbling). Pili are a shorter narower protein that aid with attachment and the F-pilus is for conjugation in gram -.
What is the purpose of an endospore?
It forms under nutrient depletion, is resistant to heat, desiccation, and chemicals and allows the bacteria to germinate in a favorable environment when it arises. An example would be Bacillus clostridium. (gram +)
What are the growth requirements for bacteria?
Water, Carbon and energy source (may be same), nitrogen, oxygen (or lack of), temperature, pH, and occasionally other things.
True/False: All pathogens are chemoheterorophs.
True.
How much of a cell is water?
70 to 80%
What are some sources of carbon/energy?
Mono and disaccharides, organic acids (lactate, succinate), amino acids, alcohols, and fatty acids.
What are some organic and inorganic sources of nitrogen?
Organic: amino acids. Inorganic: ammonia, nitrogen fixation, nitrate or nitrite (nitrate reduction or dentrification)
What is the basic difference between strict aerobes and strick anaerobes?
Strict aerobes cannot ferment, but do contain the enzymes necessary to degrade O2 metabolites while strict anaerobes lack the enzymes to degrade toxic O2 metabolites (such as catalase and superoxide dismutase), and always ferment.
What is a faculative aerobe?
It grows + or – O2, can respire or ferment.
What is an aerotolerant anaerobe?
It grows + or – O2, but always ferments.
What is a microaerophilic bacteria?
It grows best with low O2, but can grow without.
What are the temperature ranges for thermophiles, psychrophiles, mesophiles?
Thermophiles: >50 C, psychrophiles: 4 to 20 C, mesophiles: 20 to 40 C.
What are the 4 phases of bacterial growth and when are betalacams and lysozymes effective?
The 4 stages are the Lag phase, Log phase, stationary phase, and death phase. Lysozymes are effective for all phases, while betalatams are only effective during the xponential phase.
What is synchronous growth?
When all the cells divide at the same time.
What is an open system/continuous culture/chemostat?
It is when bacteria are given a constant source of fresh nutrients so the growth rate doesn’t change and remains linear.

How do bacteria take in nutrients?

Through hydrolysis of nonpenetrating nutrients by proteases, nucleases, and lipases, or through cytoplasmic membrane transport that is protein mediated (passive - facilitated diffusion; active - group translocation; active - substrate translocation)

How are nutrients taken into the cell through facilitated diffusion kept in the cell?

By phosphorylation of the substrate.

How are nutrients taken into the cell through active transport (group translocation) kept in the cell?

The substrate is altered and thereby trapped in the cell. Uses PEP or ATP.

How are nutrients taken into the cell through active transport (substrate translocation) kept in the cell?

The substrate remains unchanged, but the transport system has a higher affinity for the substrate outside the cell. Uses ATP or PMF (proton motor force)

What is the major mechanism for export across cytoplasmic membrane?

Sec.

True/False: Bacteria have multiple mechanisms for secretion across outer membrane, and some transport directly to eukaryotic cell.

True.

What is the purpose of numerical classification?

It enumerates the similarities and differences. e.g. Morphology (microscopic - size, shape, motility, spores, stains) and biochemical, physiological traits (growth under different conditions)

What are serological classifications?

Reactivity of specific antibodies with homologous antigens of different bacteria. Usually surface antigens (LPS, flagella, capsules. etc.) and is important in epidemiology.

What is taken into consideration when determining genetic relatedness?

DNA base composition, multilocus enzyme electrophoresis, ability to exchange and recombine DNA, DNA restriction profile, DNA sequence, DNA hybridization, DNA-RNA homology, DNA and rRNA, rRNA sequence

What is multilocus enzyme electrophoresis?

A technique used to determine genetic relatedness. It is a starch gel; enzyme assays to detect proteins that shifts in mobility due to changes in protein (amino acid) sequence.

How do you get a DNA restriction profile?

With a Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) analysis. DNA is cut with restriction enzyme and spread on agarose gel stained with ethidium bromide.

What is DNA hybridization?

Taking total or specific sequences of bacterial DNA and seeing if they will hybridize with another? Also uses PCR.

Why is rRNA sequence useful?

Because it can help determine the sequence of DNA encoding that rRNA.

True/False: rRNA is very sensitive.

True.

What is important about rRNA.

It binds the initiation site in mRNA, must have secondary structure (base pairs with self), changes in critical areas likely detrimental, and the DNA that encodes rRNA is highly conserved among bacteria of common ancestry.

True/False: Phylogenetic trees are based on DNA sequences.

False! they are based on rRNA sequences.

What 2 very important things are found in the ribosome binding site?

The Shine-Delgarno sequence and an initiation codon. These allow translation to initiate.

What are operons?

Multiple genes that are transcribed from a single promoter.

True/False: Bacteria have introns.

False. Although they do have non-coding sequences.

In what direction mRNA synthesized?

5' to 3'. and it is the complement of the DNA with U instead of T.

True/False: Transcription can occur on either DNA strand.

True. But the one used depends on the presence of the proper signals (promoters)

Where would you find the Shine-Delgarno sequence and the initiation codon? What are they?

In the Ribosome binding site between the 30S subunit and the mRNA.


The Shine-Delgarno sequence: AGGAGGU


The initiation codon: AUG

What are the start and stop codons?

Start: AUG (Met)


Stop: UAA, UAG, UGA. (except in mycoplasma UGA = Trp)

True/False: Mutations are observable changes from the DNA sequence.

False: They are any change in the DNA sequence, whether or not it is observable. Can be spontaneous or induced.

What is the difference between missense and nonsense?

Missense: codes for a different amino acid


Nonsense: codes for a stop codon.

What are the mechanisms of transcriptional regulation?

Alternative Sigma Factors, 2 component (signal transduction), and quorum sensing.

What are sigma factors?

Proteins that bind RNA polymerase and allow recognition of promoter sequences. Alternative sigma factors allow recognition of alternate promoters. sigma 70 is major in E. coli.

What is involved in Signal transduction (bacterial two component regulation)

An input signal (temp, pH, aa, etc) affecting a sensor (histidine protein kinase (HPK); autophosphorylates), and a response regulator.

What is quorum sensing?

Cell-cell signaling that allows them to perceive/respond to cell density via diffusible molecules. Accumulation and detection leads to transcriptional regulation. Important for competence, bioluminescence, virulence, biofilms, and sporulation.

What are the quorum sensing signals for gram + and gram - bacteria? And how do they sense them?

Gram +: oligopeptide: peptide transported out and is recognized by 2-component system when [out] is high.


Gram -: acyl homoserine lactone (HSL): It diffuses in/out and binds LuxR when [in] = [out]

What is the difference between homologous and nonhomologous recombination?

Homologous: occurs b/t regions of DNA that are highly similar, involves specific bacterial enzymes and is RecA mediated.


Non-homologous: Occurs b/t DNAs without significant similarity and can involve Transposons (mobile genetic elements: Tn)

What is the bacterial importance of Transposons?

They are DNA sequences that are easily transposable that encode the functions for their own transposition and often encode antibiotic resistance and virulence factors.

What are the 3 mechanisms for bacterial gene transfer?

Transduction: mediated by bacteriophage, does not require cell-cell contact and is DNase resistant.


Conjugation: mediated by F-factor (Gm-) and pheromones (Gm+), requires cell-cell contact, and is resistant to DNase


Transformation: mediated by free DNA, no Cell-cell contact required, is sensitive to DNase.

True/False: Homologous DNA taken into cell cannot recombine into chromosome.

False. It can recombine into the chromosome.

Where can you find extrachromosomal DNA?

Bacteriophages - virus; replicates in cytoplasm or integrates into chromosome.


Plasmids - replicate in cytoplasm, independent of chromosome.

What are the types and characteristics of bacteriophages?

They are viruses that can be seen with an electron microscope, contain DNA or RNA in phage head, do not contain metabolic apparatus, and are specific phages infect specific bacteria. They can be virulent (kills bacterial host) or temperate (symbiotic with host, may give virulence factors, and these are >90% of known phages)

What is the significance of bacteriophages?

Phage (lysogenic) conversion is an observable effect of phage carried by bacterium and is medically important. Every bacterium may carry a phage. e.g. Corynebacterium diptheriae - Gm + rod; diptheria toxin = phage-encoded.


They also aid in gene transfer (transduction)

Describe Transduction.

It is the accidental packaging of bacterial DNA during the lytic cycle. It is rare ( about 1/10^6) and can transfer bacterial DNA to new host. Can be virulent or temperate phage.

What is the purpose of F-factors?

They mediate conjugation and can encode antibiotic resistance (R factor). They can replicate in cytoplasm and be transferred. Both donor and recipient = F+ at the end (Recipient begins as F-)

Describe Transformation.

It is the uptake and integration into chromosome (usually) of free DNA (or plasmids).

True/False: For transformation, you need both the capsule and the live strain in order for it to be effective.

True. But the capsule can be heat-killed and still effective.

How does natural transformation occur?

Homologous DNA is integrated from lysed bacteria or secretion. This only occurs when, through quorum sensing, the bacteria know they are near other like bacteria. Then the uptake machinery is expressed (it is highly regulated)

What is antigenic variation?

It is a permanent change that occurs via antigenic drift (slow accumulation of point or other 'small' mutations like in flu virus) or antigenic shift (major change from recombination)

What is Phase variation?

A.K.A. microbial variation. It is a non-permanent change (can revert back to original type). The bacteria can switch back and forth between expressing/not expressing. Helps pathogens avoid antibody and allows it to only express antigen when important (e.g. attachment)

What are the main mechanisms of action for antibiotics?

Inhibition of protein synthesis: rifampin, erythromycin, kanamycin, tetracyclines.


Inhibition of DNA synthesis: fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin)


Inhibition of metabolic activity: sulfonamides-bactrim (inhibit tetrahydrofolate production)


Cell wall synthesis: penicillins, vancomycin.

What allows antibiotics to be specific for bacteria?

Differences between bacteria (70S) and mammalian ribosomes (80S), analogous mammalian enzymes insensitive, antibiotic doesn't enter mammalian cells, or absence of PG in mammalian cells

How can bacteria overcome the antibiotics?

DNA replication (gyrase): Uses altered gyrase that doesn't bind antibiotic. (point mutation)


Transcription (RNA polymerase): Uses altered RNA polymerase. (point mutation)


Translation (ribosome): uses altered ribosome, develops enzyme to inactivate antibiotic, or prevention of antibiotic entering cell.


Cell wall synthesis: Altered cell wall synthesis proteins, or enzymes to inactivate antibiotic.

What aids in the development and spread of antibiotic resistance?

Mutations (point, in chromosome)


Plasmids, transposons


Gene transfer


Mutations arise at a low but constant frequency


Antibiotics SELECT FOR naturally-occurring resistant isolates.