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248 Cards in this Set

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1. Antioxidants
a. promote the formation of free radicals.
b. donate electrons to free radicals.
c. are reduced in chemical reactions.
d. damage cell membranes
b. donate electrons to free radicals.
1. Which of the following population groups has increased vitamin C requirements?
a. Vegetarians
b. Alcoholics
c. Older adults
d. Smokers
d. Smokers
3. Which of the following vitamins has been helpful in large doses as a treatment for acne?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin A
4. Free radicals
a. are the result of an inborn error of metabolism.
b. are generated by normal metabolic processes.
c. have no beneficial roles in the body.
d. reduce inflammation.
b. are generated by normal metabolic processes.
5. Which of the following is the best source of preformed vitamin A?
a. Broccoli
b. Pork chop
c. Chicken breast
d. Liver
d. Liver
6. Selenium plays a role in all of the following except
a. immune function.
b. thyroid function.
c. regulation of fluid status.
d. glutathione peroxidase activity.
c. regulation of fluid status.
7. Which of the following serves as an antioxidant in cell membranes, protecting them and DNA inside cells, from damage?
a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin D
c. Niacin
d. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin E
8. Vitamin E functions as a(n)
a. Coenzyme
b. Antioxidant
c. Hormone
d. Enzyme
b. Antioxidant
9. A mineral that has antioxidant functions and has been suggested to reduce cancer risk is
a. Iron
b. Manganese
c. Selenium
d. Sulfur
c. Selenium
10. The safest way to meet vitamin A needs is by
a. use of a vitamin A supplement
b. consuming a variety of brightly colored fruits and vegetables
c. consuming organ meats on a daily basis
d. heavy use of fortified foods
b. consuming a variety of brightly colored fruits and vegetables
1. An average serving of which food provides the most vitamin A?
a. Yellow squash
b. Egg
c. Liver
d. Apricot
c. Liver
2. George wants to increase his consumption of vitamin A for the possible cancer risk-reducing effects. Which of the following foods should he choose?
a. Spinach
b. Salmon
c. Pears
d. Potato
a. Spinach
3. Which of the following groups is at high risk for negative consequences of marginal vitamin E status?
a. Vegetarians
b. Preterm infants
c. Athletes
d. Older adults
b. Preterm infants
4. Scurvy can be prevented with adequate intakes of
a. Niacin
b. Riboflavin
c. Vitamin C
d. Thiamin
c. Vitamin C
5. The bioavailabilty of carotenoids is affected by
a. Cooking
b. Consumption with meat products
c. Soil mineral content
d. Exposure to acid
a. Cooking
7. Which of the following marketing campaigns aims to improve the antioxidant content of the typical North American diet?
a. Got Milk?
b. Five-a-day
c. Beef: It’s What’s for Dinner
d. Fight Bac!
b. Five-a-day
1. The mixture of calcium and phosphorus that mineralizes bone is called
a. Dentin
b. Calcium citrate
c. Calcium carbonate
d. Hydroxyapatite
d. Hydroxyapatite
2. Magnesium is required for
a. Bone health
b. Cardiovascular health
c. Energy-yielding reactions
d. All of these choices are correct
d. All of these choices are correct
3. Regarding use of calcium supplements, which of the following is true?
a. Supplements containing oyster shell and dolomite are recommended for their high bioavailability.
b. Intakes over 500 milligrams per dose may interfere with absorption of iron and zinc.
c. For maximum absorbability, any form of calcium supplements should be taken between meals.
d. The USP label warns consumers that the supplement may contain high levels of lead or aluminum.
b. Intakes over 500 milligrams per dose may interfere with absorption of iron and zinc.
4. Vitamin K is important for bone health because it
a. activates proteins that bind calcium.
b. activates blood clotting factors.
c. enhances absorption of dietary calcium.
d. enhances absorption of dietary phosphorus.
a. activates proteins that bind calcium.
5. The ability of the skin to synthesize vitamin D is decreased by
a. use of sunscreen.
b. excessive dietary calcium intake.
c. excessive dietary phosphorus intake.
d. All of these choices are correct.
a. use of sunscreen.
7. The most accurate method of assessing bone health is
a. computed tomography
b. quantitative ultrasound
c. single energy x-ray absorptiometry
d. dual energy x-ray absorptiometry
d. dual energy x-ray absorptiometry
8. Calcium absorption is increased by all of the following except
a. pregnancy.
b. Old age
c. the presence of lactose in the gastrointestinal tract.
d. the presence of acid in the gastrointestinal tract.
b. Old age
9. Vitamin D is unique among the vitamins because
a. it is absorbed and transported via the lymphatic system
b. absorption requires bile and fat
c. it can be formed in the body by skin exposure to the sun
d. it can be stored
c. it can be formed in the body by skin exposure to the sun
10. Magnesium deficiency causes all of the following except
a. Irregular heartbeat
b. Muscle pain
c. Seizures
d. Anemia
d. Anemia
1. The network of protein fibers within bone is called
a. The periosteum
b. The bone matrix
c. Enamel
d. Dentin
b. The bone matrix
2. Higher intakes of all of the following are associated with increased bone mass except
a. Calcium
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin C
d. Sodium
d. Sodium
3. What is magnesium's primary function?
a. It acts as the carrier for calcium absorption
b. It is important in hemoglobin synthesis
c. It maintains mucus production in the digestive tract
d. It is important for nerve and heart function
d. It is important for nerve and heart function
4. Bone remodeling refers to
a. continual degradation and regeneration of bone
b. loss of height that occurs with aging
c. growth at the ends of long bones
d. use of metal pins to repair broken bones
a. continual degradation and regeneration of bone
5. The mineral that gives hardness to teeth and bones is
a. Selenium
b. Zinc
c. Copper
d. Fluoride
d. Fluoride
6. Of the following, the mineral that is least likely to be deficient in the American diet is
a. Calcium
b. Phosphorus
c. Iron
d. Copper
b. Phosphorus
7. Which of the following is not a function of calcium?
a. Muscle contraction
b. Appetite regulation
c. Blood clotting
d. Normal nerve transmission
b. Appetite regulation
1. The Special Supplemental Feeding Program for Women, Infants, and Children
a. provides breakfast for school children
b. provides food vouchers and nutrition education to low-income pregnant and lactating women and their young children
c. has not been shown to be cost effective
d. has not been shown to reduce the numbers of low-birth-weight babies
b. provides food vouchers and nutrition education to low-income pregnant and lactating women and their young children
2. The single most effective health advantage for people wherever they live is
a. Adequate kcalorie intake
b. Safe and convenient water supply
c. Well built shelter
d. Adequate water intake
b. Safe and convenient water supply
3. The program developed in the 1960s to help increase availability of foods to entire families is the
a. School Lunch Program
b. School Breakfast Program
c. Women, Infants, and Children Program
d. Food Stamp Program
d. Food Stamp Program
4. Approximately how many Americans live at or near the poverty level of $18,400 annually for a family of four?
a. 5 million
b. 17 million
c. 50 million
d. 33 million
d. 33 million
5. The major cause of undernutrition in the United States is
a. Political
b. Not enough food for everyone
c. Lack of technological advances
d. Inadequate use of biotechnology
a. Political
6. Which of the following is an example of genetic engineering?
a. Cross-breeding wheat and corn
b. Educating farmers about the advantages of one type of rice over another
c. Developing new, biodegradable pesticides
d. Changing DNA inside grape seeds so they produce their own pesticide to prevent attack by insects
d. Changing DNA inside grape seeds so they produce their own pesticide to prevent attack by insects
7. Which of the following is not true about "new biotechnology"?
a. It has no beneficial applications that are without significant risks.
b. Most of the possible risks of its use are uncertain at this time.
c. Most soybeans produced in the United States are genetically engineered.
d. It is unlikely, at this point in time, that it will be a helpful solution to the undernutrition problem in developing nations
a. It has no beneficial applications that are without significant risks.
8. The majority of hungry people live in
a. Africa
b. Asia
c. Latin America
d. Europe
b. Asia
9. Which of the following is the best approach to preventing famine in developing nations?
a. Increase the productivity of rural people by teaching them farming methods so they can build agricultural surpluses to eat and sell.
b. Developed countries should send food and medicine.
c. Developing countries should grow cash crops.
d. Discourage having livestock.
a. Increase the productivity of rural people by teaching them farming methods so they can build agricultural surpluses to eat and sell.
10. Which of the following is not true about the social and economic impact of AIDS?
a. AIDS tends to have the greatest social and economic impact on developing countries.
b. AIDS will have the greatest economic impact on the United States.
c. Most governments have responded slowly to the AIDS epidemic.
d. A significant portion of the male population of many developing countries will be lost to AIDS and will decrease the workforce that can make a country more productive.
b. AIDS will have the greatest economic impact on the United States.
1. Foodborne illness caused by Clostridium perfringens
a. is usually associated with meat and meat dishes, gravies, and improperly handled leftovers
b. appears within 12 to 36 hours of ingesting contaminated food
c. usually is caused by consuming improperly home-canned food
d. can cause human illness in about 4 hours
a. is usually associated with meat and meat dishes, gravies, and improperly handled leftovers
2. James operates a food service establishment. He should make sure his employees practice all of the following rules to prevent foodborne illness except
a. serving meals made with raw fish
b. cooking chicken to 165°F
c. cooling leftovers rapidly in shallow pans
d. avoiding coughing and sneezing over foods
a. serving meals made with raw fish
3. Norovirus causes an illness that is commonly misdiagnosed as
a. Food poisoning
b. The “common cold”
c. The “stomach flu”
d. Montezuma’s revenge
c. The “stomach flu”
4. Which of the following procedures will not decrease free water in a product?
a. Salting
b. Adding sugar
c. Irradiation
d. Smoking
c. Irradiation
5. Which of the following can produce a foodborne infection?
a. Clostridium perfringens and Salmonella
b. Clostridium botulinum and Staphylococcus aureus
c. Salmonella and Clostridium botulinum
d. Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium perfringens
a. Clostridium perfringens and Salmonella
6. Escherichia coli O157:H7 infection has been associated with consumption of
a. Breakfast cereals
b. Bread made from organic flour
c. Fresh spinach or spinach-containing products
d. Well-done roast beef
c. Fresh spinach or spinach-containing products
7. A common cause of foodborne illness that results from sneezing or coughing over food is
a. Salmonella
b. Clostridium perfringens.
c. Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Campylobacter jejuni.
c. Staphylococcus aureus.
8. Salmonella, Listeria, E. coli O157:H7, and Campylobacter are the bacterial foodborne illnesses of particular interest since they are the ones most often associated with
a. Kidney failure
b. High fever
c. Death
d. Liver failure
c. Death
9. The greatest health risk from food today is contamination via
a. Fungi
b. Viruses and bacteria
c. Parasites
d. Prions
b. Viruses and bacteria
10. A new food preservation method, aseptic processing, is especially useful for
a. Whole grain cereals
b. Fruit juices
c. Meats
d. Spices
b. Fruit juices
1. Human milk provides ______ percent of kcalories from fat.
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60
d. 60
3. Children will more effectively develop the breakfast eating habit if
a. they are driven to school so that they have time to eat.
b. parents eat breakfast with them.
c. breakfast is prepared for them to eat while their parents are dressing for work.
d. they are given money to buy breakfast on the way to school.
b. parents eat breakfast with them.
4. The fluid requirements of the infant are approximately __________ cups per day.
a. 2
b. 1
c. 4
d. 3
d. 3
5. Iron stores present at birth generally are depleted by ______ to ______ months.
a. 1; 2
b. 4; 6
c. 6; 8
d. 8; 10
b. 4; 6
7. If a child is to follow a totally vegetarian diet, greater attention should be given to which of the following nutrients?
a. Iron and calcium
b. The fat soluble vitamins
c. Carbohydrate and fiber
d. Protein and vitamin B-12
d. Protein and vitamin B-12
8. Approximately what percentage of obese children become obese adults?
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 50%
c. 40%
9. Feeding problems may develop during the preschool years partially because of
a. decreased appetite associated with less-rapid growth
b. increased appetite associated with increased growth
c. increased metabolic rate
d. increased need for finger foods
a. decreased appetite associated with less-rapid growth
10. The adolescent growth spurt
a. begins earlier in boys than girls.
b. begins earlier in girls than boys.
c. decreases energy and nutrient needs.
d. begins at the same age for boys and girls.
b. begins earlier in girls than boys.
1. In children under 3 years of age the most common type of food allergy is
a. Eggs
b. Milk
c. Peanuts
d. Shellfish
b. Milk
2. Approximately what percentage of obese adolescents become obese adults?
a. 30%
b. 50%
c. 80%
d. 90%
c. 80%
3. Susie is 3 years old. At her most recent checkup she was at the 20th percentile for height. This means that
a. 79 of 100 girls her age are shorter than she is
b. 19 of 100 girls her age are shorter than she is
c. 79 of 100 girls her age are taller than she is
d. 20 girls her age are taller than she is
c. 79 of 100 girls her age are taller than she is
4. Based on body weight comparisons, at 6 months of age a child's kcalorie per kilogram body weight needs are approximately how many times higher than adult needs?
a. 1-2
b. 2-3
c. 2-4
d. 5-6
c. 2-4
5. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, the best age to introduce solid foods into the infant's diet is
a. Less than 1 month
b. 1 to 4 months
c. 4 to 6 months
d. over 8 months
c. 4 to 6 months
6. Many formula products for infants contain
a. lactose, heat-treated cows' milk protein, and vegetable oils.
b. soy protein, glucose, and vegetable oils.
c. fructose and heat-treated cow's milk protein.
d. galactose and vegetable oils.
a. lactose, heat-treated cows' milk protein, and vegetable oils.
8. High-fiber diets are
a. recommended for infants after 4 months of age
b. recommended for infants after 6 months of age
c. not recommended for infants
d. recommended for breastfed infants only
c. not recommended for infants
9. Essential fatty acids should make up ______ percent of the total fat intake of infants.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
c. 15
1. For those over 40 years of age, an exercise program should include all of the following except
a. Physician clearance
b. Stretching
c. Rest periodically
d. Exercise through the pain
d. Exercise through the pain
5. Long-term aspirin use by an elderly person could increase the need for what nutrient?
a. Calcium
b. Potassium
c. Thiamin
d. Iron
d. Iron
6. Bud has trouble with his dentures and problems chewing. Which of the following foods would be best to help meet his nutritional needs?
a. Gelain
b. Bouillon
c. Sirloin steak
d. Low-fat yogurt
d. Low-fat yogurt
8. Which of the following is true about diet and Alzheimer's disease?
a. High intakes of aluminum can cause it.
b. High intakes of choline and lecithin are associated with improvement in the condition.
c. It is wise for others to oversee food planning and mealtimes to ensure nutritional adequacy.
d. Diet can prevent this condition.
c. It is wise for others to oversee food planning and mealtimes to ensure nutritional adequacy.
9. Aging most likely is the result of
a. slow cell death
b. Acute death of an organ
c. Complete death of the immune system
d. Slow cell multiplication
a. slow cell death
1. Some researchers believe that damage to cells by electron-seeking compounds may contribute to the aging process. Which of the following nutrients does not protect cells from these compounds?
a. Selenium
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin K
2. In the aging process, physiological functioning of organs decreases but it may be years before this decline in organ function becomes noticeable. This is referred to as
a. compression of morbidity
b. homeostasis
c. reserve capacity
d. sub-clinical deficiency
c. reserve capacity
4. The foundation for a diet that optimizes long-term nutritional health emphasizes all of the following except
a. low-fat dairy products
b. a variety of fruits and vegetables
c. refined grain breads and cereals
d. Lean meats
c. refined grain breads and cereals
6. Which of the following is the best definition of life expectancy?
a. The time an average person can expect to live
b. The maximum number of years humans live
c. The rate of death from a variety of diseases
d. The rate of disability from a variety of diseases
a. The time an average person can expect to live
7. Barbara is 65 years of age and her doctor finds her mental function is declining. Which of the following will not significantly impact this issue?
a. Striving for life long learning
b. Exercising regularly
c. Eating a healthy diet
d. Taking nutrition supplements
d. Taking nutrition supplements
When a molecule loses an electron in a chemical reaction, the molecule has been
A. oxidized.
B. reduced.
C. induced.
D. metabolized.
A. oxidized.
Which of the following vitamins has been helpful in large doses as a treatment for acne?
A. vitamin A
B. vitamin D
C. vitamin E
D. vitamin C
A. vitamin A
Which of the following is not accounted for in the calculation of RAEs?
A. Beta-carotene
B. Preformed vitamin A
C. Lutein
D. Alpha-carotene
C. Lutein
Muscle pain, wasting, and heart damage result from a deficiency of
A. vitamin E.
B. vitamin C.
C. vitamin A.
D. selenium.
D. selenium.
To bolster immune function, evidence supports
A. consuming 5 - 9 servings of a variety of fruits and vegetables per day.
B. consuming a variety of nuts and seeds.
C. taking megadoses of vitamin C supplements.
D. All of these choices are correct.
A. consuming 5 - 9 servings of a variety of fruits and vegetables per day.
Deficiency symptoms of pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin, bleeding gums, and joint pain are related to the role of vitamin C in
A. carnitine synthesis.
B. collagen synthesis.
C. antioxidant reactions.
D. neurotransmitter synthesis.
B. collagen synthesis.
Flavonoids, carotenoids, and stanols are examples of
A. phytochemicals.
B. zoochemicals.
C. toxic chemicals.
D. provitamin A.
A. phytochemicals.
Which of the following foods is highest in selenium?
A. Salmon
B. Special K
C. Tuna
D. Raisins
C. Tuna
Which of the following is the best source of preformed vitamin A?
A. Liver
B. Pork chop
C. Broccoli
D. Chicken breast
A. Liver
When a molecule loses an electron in a chemical reaction, the molecule has been
A. oxidized.
B. reduced.
C. induced.
D. metabolized.
A. oxidized.
Muscle pain, wasting, and heart damage result from a deficiency of
A. vitamin E.
B. vitamin C.
C. vitamin A.
D. selenium.
D. selenium.
Deficiency symptoms of pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin, bleeding gums, and joint pain are related to the role of vitamin C in
A. carnitine synthesis.
B. collagen synthesis.
C. antioxidant reactions.
D. neurotransmitter synthesis.
B. collagen synthesis.
Flavonoids, carotenoids, and stanols are examples of
A. phytochemicals.
B. zoochemicals.
C. toxic chemicals.
D. provitamin A.
A. phytochemicals.
Mrs. Davis is a 70-year-old white female who just had a DEXA measurement to assess her bone density. Her T-score of -2.1 indicates
A. normal bone mineral density.
B. osteopenia.
C. osteoporosis.
D. high bone mineral density.
B. osteopenia.
Excessive use of antibiotics can negatively impact bone health through its effects on
A. vitamin D synthesis.
B. calcium absorption.
C. vitamin K synthesis.
D. phosphorus excretion.
C. vitamin K synthesis
The nutrient that can be considered both a vitamin and a hormone is
A. niacin.
B. vitamin D.
C. vitamin E.
D. vitamin A.
B. vitamin D.
Phosphorus functions in all the following ways except
A. it is a component of cell membranes.
B. it is important for blood glucose regulation.
C. it is a cofactor for a variety of enzymes.
D. it is a component of DNA.
membranes.
B. it is important for blood glucose regulation.
For prevention of osteoporosis, strength training is
A. recommended because the stress on bones stimulates bone maintenance.
B. not recommended because it increases fracture risk.
C. recommended because it decreases estrogen levels.
D. not recommended because it increases testosterone levels.
A. recommended because the stress on bones stimulates bone maintenance.
Efficient deposition of calcium and phosphorus in bones is the net effect of
A. vitamin D.
B. niacin.
C. vitamin A.
D. riboflavin.
A. vitamin D.
Excess body weight
A. is associated with greater risk of fractures.
B. accelerates bone loss.
C. impairs calcium absorption.
D. increases bone density.
D. increases bone density.
For prevention of osteoporosis, strength training is
A. not recommended because it increases testosterone levels.
B. not recommended because it increases fracture risk.
C. recommended because it decreases estrogen levels.
D. recommended because the stress on bones stimulates bone maintenance.
D. recommended because the stress on bones stimulates bone maintenance.
Which of the following would be the best source of vitamin D for person following a vegan diet?
A. Fish oil
B. Vitamin D-fortified soymilk
C. Whole grain products
D. Spinach
B. Vitamin D-fortified soymilk
The ability of the skin to synthesize vitamin D is decreased by
A. use of sunscreen.
B. excessive dietary calcium intake.
C. excessive dietary phosphorus intake.
D. All of these choices are correct.
A. use of sunscreen.
Trabecular bone
A. has a porous structure.
B. is the site of blood cell synthesis.
C. is more rapidly remodeled than cortical bone.
D. All of these choices are correct.
D. All of these choices are correct.
All of the following adversely affect the food/population ratio except
A. lack of farmable land.
B. scientific advances that increase food production.
C. lack of food distribution methods.
D. lack of birth control.
B. scientific advances that increase food production.
Which of the following is not true about "new biotechnology"?
A. It has no beneficial applications that are without significant risks.
B. Most soybeans produced in the United States are genetically engineered.
C. Most of the possible risks of its use are uncertain at this time.
D. It is unlikely, at this point in time, that it will be a helpful solution to the undernutrition problem in developing nations.
A. It has no beneficial applications that are without significant risks.
All of the following are socioeconomic factors affecting hunger in the Unites States except
A. poverty.
B. weather.
C. homelessness.
D. political influences.
B. weather.
Which of the following is true about homelessness and undernutrition in America?
A. Political and economic factors impact nutritional status and housing conditions of poor and homeless American citizens.
B. In the 1980s and 1990s, federal spending on nutrition programs has significantly increased.
C. The homeless have plenty of resources; they just fail to utilize them.
D. More is spent on federal nutrition programs than defense in the United States.
A. Political and economic factors impact nutritional status and housing conditions of poor and homeless American citizens.
The primary cause of chronic hunger is
A. lack of large farms in Third World countries.
B. cultural food preferences.
C. poverty.
D. lack of technological advances.
C. poverty.
The homeless in the United States are at increased risk of undernutrition. Which of the following is true about the homeless?
A. All are poorly educated.
B. Most of them are alcoholics.
C. Most of them are lazy.
D. Many are members of families with children.
D. Many are members of families with children.
What is the term to describe failing health that results from a long-standing dietary intake that either fails to meet or greatly exceeds nutritional needs?
A. Overnutrition
B. Undernutrition
C. Malnutrition
D. Emaciation
C. Malnutrition
Failing health that results from a long-standing dietary intake that does not meet nutritional needs is termed
A. starvation.
B. chronic hunger.
C. emaciation.
D. undernutrition.
D. undernutrition.
All of the following are obstacles to solving problems of undernutrition in developing nations except
A. war.
B. lack of available technology that could be taught to the populations.
C. an imbalance between food/population ratios.
D. poor infrastructure.
B. lack of available technology that could be taught to the populations.
The single most effective health advantage for people wherever they live is
A. adequate kcalorie intake.
B. safe and convenient water supply.
C. adequate water intake.
D. well built shelter.
B. safe and convenient water supply.
Which of the following is the best approach to eradicating undernutrition in developing nations?
A. Establish large farms
B. Provide more jobs in urban centers
C. Improve the infrastructure of rural people
D. Have developed countries give direct food aid to underdeveloped countries
C. Improve the infrastructure of rural people
All of the following are obstacles to solving problems of undernutrition in developing nations except
A. an imbalance between food/population ratios.
B. poor infrastructure.
C. lack of available technology that could be taught to the populations.
D. war.
C. lack of available technology that could be taught to the populations.
Which of the following is not true about AIDS?
A. Eating a good diet cannot cure the disease.
B. After infection with the HIV virus, AIDS symptoms generally begin showing within a year.
C. It is transmitted in body fluids.
D. Eating a balanced diet cannot prevent or stave off HIV infection.
B. After infection with the HIV virus, AIDS symptoms generally begin showing within a year.
Failing health that results from a long-standing dietary intake that does not meet nutritional needs is termed
A. emaciation.
B. undernutrition.
C. starvation.
D. chronic hunger.
B. undernutrition.
Listeriosis is of particular concern for pregnant women since they are about ____ times more likely to get this infection than other healthy adults
A. 5
B. 25
C. 20
D. 10
C. 20
Which of the following can be found in raw egg whites?
A. Oxalic acid
B. Avidin
C. Dioxin
D. Saponins
B. Avidin
Food commonly associated with Salmonella intoxication are
A. custards and cream-filled pastries.
B. chicken and eggs.
C. seafood and raw fish.
D. gravies and sauces.
B. chicken and eggs.
A common cause of foodborne illness that results from sneezing or coughing over food is
A. Campylobacter jejuni.
B. Salmonella.
C. Clostridium perfringens.
D. Staphylococcus aureus.
D. Staphylococcus aureus.
The incidence of foodborne illness is rising because of all the following factors except
A. increased availability of frozen food products.
B. greater consumer interest in eating raw, undercooked foods of animal origin.
C. increased reporting of cases.
D. increased shelf life of food products.
A. increased availability of frozen food products.
Which of the following statements is not true about the "Danger Zone"?
A. It includes the temperature range 65oF to 165oF.
B. Keep foods out of the danger zone by keeping hot foods hot and cold foods cold.
C. Do not store food within this temperature range for more than 1 to 2 hours.
D. It is the temperature range at which bacteria grow quickly.
A. It includes the temperature range 65oF to 165oF.
______________________ are hardy and survive freezing and relatively high temperatures and
chlorination up to 10 ppm.
A. Salmonella
B. E. coli
C. Norovirus
D. Listeria
C. Norovirus
As a result of Escherichia coli O157:H7 infection, individuals have been hospitalized with
A. kidney stones.
B. acute renal failure from the hemolytic-uremic syndrome.
C. myocardial infarctions.
D. strokes.
B. acute renal failure from the hemolytic-uremic syndrome.
Which of the following can produce a foodborne infection?
A. Clostridium botulinum and Staphylococcus aureus
B. Salmonella and Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium perfringens and Salmonella
D. Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium perfringens and Salmonella
Which of the following agencies enforces wholesomeness and quality standards for meat?
A. Environmental Protection Agency
B. National Marine Fishery Service
C. FDA
D. USDA
D. USDA
Which of the following naturally occurring substances limits the absorption of calcium and iron?
A. Avidin
B. Oxalic Acid
C. Solanine
D. Safrole
B. Oxalic Acid
Norovirus epidemics have been a problem particularly
A. on cruise ships.
B. at bake sales.
C. in deli meats.
D. at potluck suppers.
A. on cruise ships.
Increasing the acid content of a food is especially effective in preventing the growth of
A. yeast.
B. molds.
C. Staphylococcus aureus.
D. Clostridium botulinum.
D. Clostridium botulinum.
Of the following groups, which have the least risk of becoming ill from foodborne illness?
A. Young children
B. Individuals with cancer
C. The elderly
D. Teens
D. Teens
Which of the following can produce a foodborne intoxication?
A. Clostridium perfringens and Staphylococcus aureus
B. Salmonella and Staphylococcus aureus
C. Clostridium botulinum and Salmonella
D. Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium botulinum
D. Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium botulinum
Which of the following procedures will not decrease free water in a product?
A. Irradiation
B. Salting
C. Smoking
D. Adding sugar
A. Irradiation
Approximately what percentage of obese adolescents become obese adults?
A. 30%
B. 80%
C. 50%
D. 90%
B. 80%
The new WHO growth standards stress that _______________ is the biological
norm for infant nutrition.
A. feeding infant formula and cereal
B. feeding cows' milk
C. feeding infant formula
D. breastfeeding
D. breastfeeding
Which of the following is an appropriate feeding philosophy for children?
A. Children should be responsible for deciding how much and when they should eat.
B. Children should be forced to eat what is good for them.
C. Parents should present nutritious food choices and not worry about their own eating habits.
D. Parents should be responsible for choosing how much and when the child should eat.
A. Children should be responsible for deciding how much and when they should eat.
Based on body weight comparisons, at 6 months of age a child's kcalorie per kilogram body weight needs are approximately how many times higher than adult needs?
A. 2-4
B. 2-3
C. 1-2
D. 5-6
A. 2-4
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Obese infants become obese preschool children.
B. Kcalories should be restricted for obese infants to levels less than those for normal weight infants.
C. Most overweight infants become normal weight preschoolers.
D. There is strong evidence that infant obesity will result in adulthood obesity.
C. Most overweight infants become normal weight preschoolers.
The fluid requirements of the infant are approximately __________ cups per day.
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1
D. 2
B. 3
For a girl, undernutrition could be expected to have its greatest effect on height if it occurs
A. 1 year after the onset of menses.
B. 2 years after the onset of menses.
C. 3 years after the onset of menses.
D. before the onset of menses.
D. before the onset of menses.
Today most females reach their full height
A. within 5 years after menarche.
B. within 7 months of menarche.
C. by menarche.
D. by the age of 19.
A. within 5 years after menarche.
Iron-deficiency anemia in the latter part of infancy is associated with
A. a diet dominated by commercial infant cereals.
B. a diet containing few solid foods.
C. a diet dominated by carbohydrates.
D. medicinal iron supplements.
B. a diet containing few solid foods.
The food needs of preschool children are relatively great and it may be important to
A. serve high-fat foods.
B. provide vitamin supplements.
C. serve snacks daily in addition to meals.
D. withhold liquids until after meals.
C. serve snacks daily in addition to meals.
The first solid foods usually introduced into an infant's milk diet are
A. pureed fruits.
B. egg whites.
C. iron-fortified cereals.
D. pureed meats.
C. iron-fortified cereals.
Infants need fat because it aids in absorption of several vitamins and also helps the ______________ to develop.
A. nervous system
B. skin
C. reproductive system
D. kidneys
A. nervous system
Which of the following minerals may be low in the diets of adolescent girls?
A. Magnesium and zinc
B. Calcium and phosphorus
C. Iron and phosphorus
D. Iron and calcium
D. Iron and calcium
Mildred is worried about her infant becoming obese in adulthood. Which of the following would not be accurate information if you were attempting to counsel her?
A. Most obese infants become normal weight preschoolers.
B. If she limits kcalories during infancy, the growth of other organ systems may be retarded.
C. Fat cells can increase in number during infancy and adulthood.
D. Her infant should eat 20 percent of his or her kcalories as fat to prevent obesity.
D. Her infant should eat 20 percent of his or her kcalories as fat to prevent obesity.
Daily protein needs during infancy vary from ______ to ______ grams per day.
A. 5; 10
B. 9; 14
C. 15; 25
D. They are greater than 25 grams per day.
B. 9; 14
The 2005 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that those who choose to drink alcoholic beverages should do so in moderation, defined as the consumption of up to __ drink per day for women and older adults and up to __ drinks per day for men.
A. 0; 1
B. 2; 3
C. 3; 4
D. 1; 2
D. 1; 2
Use of which of the following medications could cause appetite loss in an elderly person?
A. Antipsychotics
B. Diuretics
C. Antidepressants
D. Aspirin
C. Antidepressants
Use of certain diuretics can increase the need for what nutrient?
A. Calcium
B. Magnesium
C. Sulfur
D. Potassium
D. Potassium
Sara is an administrator at a bank. Sara eats plenty of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, legumes, and lean meats. She is of Northern European descent and is quite small in stature. What could she do to live a more health-promoting lifestyle?
A. Take vitamin and mineral supplements.
B. Eat more lean meats.
C. Consume plenty of low-fat milk and dairy products.
D. Eat more vitamin A laden fruits and vegetables.
C. Consume plenty of low-fat milk and dairy products.
Bud has trouble with his dentures and problems chewing. Which of the following foods would be best to help meet his nutritional needs?
A. Bouillon
B. Gelatin
C. Sirloin steak
D. Low-fat yogurt
D. Low-fat yogurt
A basic plan for health promotion and disease prevention includes all of the following except
A. consuming 3 to 5 ounces of alcohol daily.
B. not smoking.
C. eating the foods in the MyPyramid Food Guide.
D. getting regular exercise.
A. consuming 3 to 5 ounces of alcohol daily.
Which of the following is true about U.S. dietary consumption since the mid 1950s?
A. We are eating less cheese.
B. We are consuming less saturated fat.
C. We are eating more eggs.
D. We are eating less chicken and fish.
B. We are consuming less saturated fat.
Which of the following is not a Dietary Guideline for Americans?
A. Eliminate salt and sodium from the diet.
B. Practice safe food handling when preparing food.
C. Maintain a healthy body weight.
D. Choose a diet low in trans fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol.
A. Eliminate salt and sodium from the diet.
Which of the following is the best definition of life expectancy?
A. The maximum number of years humans live
B. The time an average person can expect to live
C. The rate of death from a variety of diseases
D. The rate of disability from a variety of diseases
B. The time an average person can expect to live
Which of the following is true about application of the RDAs to elderly people?
A. The RDAs apply well to those over 75 years of age.
B. The RDAs are now tailored to 57-70 and 70+ years of age.
C. The RDAs are low for all nutrients.
D. The RDAs are valid even though many older people take medications and are ill.
B. The RDAs are now tailored to 57-70 and 70+ years of age.
Long-term aspirin use by an elderly person could increase the need for what nutrient?
A. Potassium
B. Thiamin
C. Iron
D. Calcium
C. Iron
Where is the chief site of alcohol metabolism?
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Brain
D. Stomach
B. Liver
Mack is constipated. Safe recommendations include all of the following except
A. eat more whole grains.
B. eat 30 grams of fiber per day.
C. use mineral oil routinely and liberally.
D. drink more fluid.
C. use mineral oil routinely and liberally.
Which of the following is true about thirst among the elderly?
A. About 6 cups of fluid per day is a good goal for elderly people.
B. Elderly individuals can easily become dehydrated and this can cause confusion.
C. Elderly people rarely become dehydrated because the sense of thirst is enhanced as people age.
D. Diuretics do not affect the elderly person's fluid requirement.
B. Elderly individuals can easily become dehydrated and this can cause confusion.
Which of the following snacks provides the most vitamin C?
A. Vanilla ice cream topped with sliced strawberries
B. Whole wheat crackers with peanut butter
C. Baked apples with cinnamon and brown sugar
D. Grilled cheese sandwich
A. Vanilla ice cream topped with sliced strawberries
An atom's nucleus has
A. a neutral charge.
B. a positive charge.
C. a negative charge.
D. unpaired electrons.
B. a positive charge.
Which of the following serves as an antioxidant in cell
membranes, protecting them and DNA inside cells, from
damage?
Student Response Feedback
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin D
C. Niacin
D. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin E
In green vegetables, such as broccoli, the orange pigments of
provitamin A carotenoids are masked by
A. lycopene.
B. chlorophyll.
C. lutein.
D. anthocyanin.
B. chlorophyll.
Which of the following is an antioxidant?
Student Response Feedback
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B-6
C. Biotin
D. Niacin
A. Vitamin C
Glutathione peroxidase
A. converts water into oxygen and hydrogen.
B. converts peroxides into water. C. converts alcohol into peroxides.
D. converts glucose into fructose.
B. converts peroxides into water
Free radicals
A. are the result of an inborn error of metabolism.
B. are generated by normal metabolic processes.
C. have no beneficial roles in the body.
D. reduce inflammation.
B. are generated by normal metabolic processes.
Beta-carotene is
Student Response Feedback
A. one form of vitamin A.
B. one form of vitamin E.
C. a precursor to vitamin A.
D. a precursor to vitamin E.
C. a precursor to vitamin A.
Which of the following is not accounted for in the calculation of
RAEs?
A. Preformed vitamin A
B. Alpha-carotene
C. Beta-carotene
D. Lutein
C. Beta-carotene
Vitamin C participates in the recycling of
A. vitamin A.
B. vitamin E.
C. iron.
D. zinc.
B. vitamin E.
Consuming carotenoids may reduce the risk for all of the following except
A. osteoporosis.
B. cataracts.
C. age-related macular degeneration.
D. cardiovascular disease.
A. osteoporosis.
Which of the following is a good source of provitamin A?
A. Orange
B. Apricot
C. Cauliflower
D. Potatoes
B. Apricot
George wants to increase his consumption of vitamin A for the possible cancer risk-reducing effects. Which of the following foods should he choose?
A. Spinach
B. Salmon
C. Pears
D. Potato
A. Spinach
Scurvy can be prevented with adequate intakes of
A. niacin.
B. riboflavin.
C. vitamin C.
D. thiamin.
C. vitamin C.
Most vitamin A is stored in the
A. kidneys.
B. small intestine.
C. liver.
D. adipose tissue.
C. liver.
Glutathione peroxidase
A. converts water into oxygen and hydrogen.
B. converts peroxides into water.
C. converts alcohol into peroxides.
D. converts glucose into fructose.
B. converts peroxides into water.
Which of the following is not accounted for in the calculation of RAEs?
A. Preformed vitamin A
B. Alpha-carotene
C. Beta-carotene
D. Lutein
D. Lutein
Which of the following serves as an antioxidant in cell membranes, protecting them and DNA inside cells, from damage?
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin D
C. Niacin
D. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin E
Vitamin E aids the absorption of
A. vitamin A.
B. vitamin D.
C. iron.
D. zinc.
A. vitamin A.
Vitamin E functions as a(n)
A. coenzyme.
B. antioxidant.
C. hormone.
D. enzyme.
B. antioxidant.
A mineral that has antioxidant functions and has been suggested to reduce cancer risk is
A. iron.
B. manganese.
C. selenium.
D. sulfur.
C. selenium.
The vitamin C content of foods can be decreased by
A. exposure to heat.
B. leaching into cooking water.
C. exposure to oxygen.
D. All of these choices are correct.
D. All of these choices are correct.
Vitamin E is thought to be helpful in the prevention of heart disease because it
A. acts as a blood thinner.
B. prevents oxidation of LDL cholesterol.
C. relaxes blood vessel walls.
D. prevents sodium retention.
B. prevents oxidation of LDL cholesterol.
Formation and maintenance of collagen requires
A. thiamin.
B. vitamin C.
C. pantothenic acid.
D. folate.
B. vitamin C.
Which of the following qualities can help to identify produce that is rich in antioxidants?
A. Price
B. Fat content
C. Color
D. Texture
C. Color
The most bioavailable source of vitamin E is
A. plant oil.
B. fish oil.
C. alpha-tocopherol supplements.
D. mixed-tocopherol supplements.
A. plant oil.
All of the following can be described as functional foods except
A. milk enriched with CLA, a dietary oil that may improve immune function.
B. a granola bar with added calcium to improve bone health.
C. a granola bar with added psyllium, a soluble fiber that may reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
D. sweet potatoes, which contain beta-carotene, a cancer-fighting antioxidant.
B. a granola bar with added calcium to improve bone health.
_______________ inhibit(s) osteoclast activity to prevent bone loss.
A. Calcium citrate
B. HRT
C. SERMs
D. Bisphosphonates
D. Bisphosphonates
To promote bone health, exclusively breastfed infants require supplemental
A. calcium.
B. phosphorus.
C. vitamin D.
D. magnesium.
C. vitamin D.
Exceeding the UL for phosphorus can lead to
A. kidney damage.
B. excessive bone growth.
C. blood clots.
D. All of these choices are correct.
A. kidney damage.
Postmenopausal women are more prone to fractures than premenopausal women primarily because
A. low estrogen levels accelerate bone loss.
B. low progesterone levels accelerate bone loss.
C. older women are unable to maintain physical activity.
D. accumulation of iron in the blood depletes bone minerals.
A. low estrogen levels accelerate bone loss.
What is magnesium's primary function?
A. It acts as the carrier for calcium absorption
B. It is important in hemoglobin synthesis
C. It maintains mucus production in the digestive tract
D. It is important for nerve and heart function
D. It is important for nerve and heart function
For prevention of osteoporosis, strength training is
A. recommended because the stress on bones stimulates bone maintenance.
B. recommended because it decreases estrogen levels.
C. not recommended because it increases fracture risk.
D. not recommended because it increases testosterone levels.
A. recommended because the stress on bones stimulates bone maintenance.
Efficient deposition of calcium and phosphorus in bones is the net effect of
A. vitamin A.
B. riboflavin.
C. vitamin D.
D. niacin.
C. vitamin D.
Type 1 osteoporosis
A. is mainly due to increased estrogen levels.
B. most dramatically affects trabecular bone.
C. is characterized by loss of both trabecular and cortical bone.
D. affects both men and women over the age of 60.
B. most dramatically affects trabecular bone.
Soft bones resulting from a deficiency of vitamin D in adulthood is known as
A. osteopenia.
B. osteomalacia.
C. osteoporosis.
D. osteopathy.
B. osteomalacia.
Mrs. Davis is a 70-year-old white female who just had a DEXA measurement to assess her bone density. Her T-score of -2.1 indicates
A. high bone mineral density.
B. normal bone mineral density.
C. osteopenia.
D. osteoporosis.
C. osteopenia.
Reduced blood calcium levels would result from the actions of
A. calcitriol.
B. calcitonin.
C. parathyroid hormone.
D. All of these choices are correct.
B. calcitonin.
Which would you expect to furnish the largest amount of calcium?
A. 1 medium egg
B. 1 slice of bread
C. 1 ounce of cheese
D. 1 medium apple
C. 1 ounce of cheese
All of the following populations are at risk for poor magnesium status except
A. Alcoholics.
B. Vegans.
C. People who use diuretic medications.
D. People with excessive vomiting or diarrhea.
B. Vegans.
Which of the following populations is most susceptible to vitamin K deficiency?
A. Vegans
B. Preschool children who are picky eaters
C. Children with cystic fibrosis
D. Older adults
C. Children with cystic fibrosis
Regarding use of calcium supplements, which of the following is true?
A. Supplements containing oyster shell and dolomite are recommended for their high bioavailability.
B. Intakes over 500 milligrams per dose may interfere with absorption of iron and zinc.
C. For maximum absorbability, any form of calcium supplements should be taken between meals.
D. The USP label warns consumers that the supplement may contain high levels of lead or aluminum.
B. Intakes over 500 milligrams per dose may interfere with absorption of iron and zinc.
Vitamin K is important for bone health because it
A. activates proteins that bind calcium.
B. activates blood clotting factors.
C. enhances absorption of dietary calcium.
D. enhances absorption of dietary phosphorus.
A. activates proteins that bind calcium.
Which of the following would be the best source of vitamin D for person following a vegan diet?
A. Fish oil
B. Vitamin D-fortified soymilk
C. Spinach
D. Whole grain products
B. Vitamin D-fortified soymilk
Soft bones resulting from a deficiency of vitamin D in adulthood is known as
A. osteopenia.
B. osteomalacia.
C. osteoporosis.
D. osteopathy.
B. osteomalacia.
In the aging process, physiological functioning of organs decreases but it may be years before this decline in organ function becomes noticeable. This is referred to as
A. compression of morbidity.
B. homeostasis.
C. reserve capacity.
D. subclinical deficiency.
C. reserve capacity.
The decrease in lean tissue that occurs with aging can best be prevented by
A. eating a lot of protein.
B. exercise and a weight training program.
C. eating a lot of kcalories.
D. taking vitamin and mineral supplements.
B. exercise and a weight training program.
Maggie switches to a health-promoting diet. This potentially will have the most impact on
A. life span.
B. life expectancy.
C. risk for heart disease.
D. quality of life in later years.
D. quality of life in later years.
Some researchers believe that damage to cells by electron-seeking compounds may contribute to the aging process. Which of the following nutrients does notprotect cells from these compounds?
A. Selenium
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin K
Maude is losing her sense of taste and smell. Which of the following is true about her situation?
A. Taste and smell typically do not decrease with aging.
B. She will need to vary her diet and use more herbs and spices.
C. She will have to learn to accept that food will taste more bland.
D. She eventually will not be able to smell and taste food.
B. She will need to vary her diet and use more herbs and spices.
Elderly people should limit alcohol consumption due to all of the following except
A. they become intoxicated more easily.
B. they have lower amounts of body water in which to dilute alcohol.
C. decreased ability to metabolize alcohol.
D. increased risk of depression.
D. increased risk of depression.
Edna, at age 75, has found she does not tolerate milk products well. She should do which of the following?
A. Eat more vegetables.
B. Increase her protein intake.
C. Eliminate dairy foods.
D. Decrease the serving size of dairy foods.
D. Decrease the serving size of dairy foods.
Use of certain diuretics can increase the need for what nutrient?
A. Calcium
B. Sulfur
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium
C. Potassium
Excess calorie intake can lead to which of the following?
A. Weight loss
B. Accelerated body breakdown
C. Depression
D. Semistarvation
B. Accelerated body breakdown
Of older people, at least _____ percent have nutrition-related health problems.
A. 25
B. 50
C. 65
D. 75
C. 65
The DETERMINE acronym refers to all of the following except
A. eating poorly.
B. depression.
C. economic hardship.
D. multiple medications.
B. depression.
Compared to individuals aged 19 - 50, adults over the age of 70 need _____ times more vitamin D.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
B. 3
The foundation for a diet that optimizes long-term nutritional health emphasizes all of the following except
A. low-fat dairy products.
B. a variety of fruits and vegetables.
C. refined grain breads and cereals.
D. lean meats.
C. refined grain breads and cereals.
Barbara is 65 years of age and her doctor finds her mental function is declining. Which of the following will not significantly impact this issue?
A. Striving for life long learning
B. Exercising regularly
C. Eating a healthy diet
D. Taking nutrition supplements
D. Taking nutrition supplements
Loss of vision and hearing can negatively affect nutritional health. The biggest problem is the inability to
A. shop for food.
B. prepare food.
C. find food in the house.
D. cook food.
A. shop for food.
In the United States, more than _____ percent of school-age children are overweight or obese.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 25
C. 15
Breast milk contains approximately how many kcalories per quart?
A. 450
B. 570
C. 600
D. 640
D. 640
In adults the most common type of food allergy is
A. eggs.
B. milk.
C. peanuts.
D. shellfish.
D. shellfish.
Absence of breakfast for children is associated with
A. increased attention span and decreased performance in sports.
B. decreased performance in school and no impact on attention span.
C. decreased performance in school and decreased attention span.
D. decreased performance in sports and no impact on attention span.
C. decreased performance in school and decreased attention span.
Iron-deficiency anemia in the latter part of infancy is associated with
A. a diet containing few solid foods.
B. a diet dominated by commercial infant cereals.
C. medicinal iron supplements.
D. a diet dominated by carbohydrates.
A. a diet containing few solid foods.
Infants who are born prematurely will catch up in growth by
A. 6 months.
B. 1 year.
C. 2 to 3 years.
D. 4 to 5 years.
C. 2 to 3 years.
The most sensitive indicator of long-term nutrient intake in a child is
A. weight.
B. height.
C. head circumference.
D. fusion of bone ends.
B. height.
The treatment of childhood obesity involves all the following except
A. increasing the activity level.
B. moderation of energy intake.
C. reducing dietary sugar and fat.
D. a restrictive weight-loss diet.
D. a restrictive weight-loss diet.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. There is strong evidence that infant obesity will result in adulthood obesity.
B. Obese infants become obese preschool children.
C. Most overweight infants become normal weight preschoolers.
D. Kcalories should be restricted for obese infants to levels less than those for normal weight infants.
C. Most overweight infants become normal weight preschoolers.
Essential fatty acids should make up ______ percent of the total fat intake of infants.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
C. 15
All of the following are true about "nursing bottle syndrome" except
A. it causes tooth decay in bottle-fed infants.
B. it is associated with an infant keeping a bottle in his or her mouth while sleeping.
C. it results from the teeth being bathed in carbohydrate-rich fluid.
D. it is associated with not brushing the infant's gums at least 3 times per week.
D. it is associated with not brushing the infant's gums at least 3 times per week.
All of the following are recommended to help preschoolers eat vegetables except
A. show the child you like vegetables.
B. promise dessert when vegetables are eaten.
C. offer new vegetables with familiar foods.
D. serve vegetables undercooked and crunchy.
B. promise dessert when vegetables are eaten.
Adolescents obtain ______ percent of their energy and nutrient intakes from snacks.
A. 15 to 23
B. 25 to 33
C. 43 to 53
D. 50 to 63
B. 25 to 33
The greatest energy requirement per unit of body weight occurs during
A. pregnancy.
B. infancy.
C. lactation.
D. childhood.
B. infancy.
Brain growth is most rapid in infancy but stops by about what age?
A. 9 months
B. 18 months
C. 24 months
D. 3 years
B. 18 months
Weight gain during the second through about the eighth year of life is about ______ pounds per year.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
A. 5
Infants need fat because it aids in absorption of several vitamins and also helps the ______________ to develop.
A. kidneys
B. nervous system
C. reproductive system
D. skin
B. nervous system
Approximately one third of children in developing nations are short and underweight for their age. The most frequent cause is
A. weaning to high-carbohydrate, low-protein diets.
B. diets low in essential fatty acids.
C. weaning to low-carbohydrate, high-protein diets.
D. diets high in protein.
A. weaning to high-carbohydrate, low-protein diets.
All of the following are characteristic of food allergies except
A. they are a disorder of the immune system.
B. they are most frequently linked to milk, eggs, nuts, or wheat.
C. once they develop, they are always permanent.
D. they can cause nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea.
C. once they develop, they are always permanent.
Which of the following in not a common food allergen?
A. Fruits
B. Corn
C. Nuts
D. Seafood
B. Corn
Human milk provides _______ percent of kcalories from protein.
A. 6-7
B. 7-8
C. 9-10
D. >15
A. 6-7
If a child is to follow a totally vegetarian diet, greater attention should be given to which of the following nutrients?
A. Iron and calcium
B. The fat soluble vitamins
C. Carbohydrate and fiber
D. Protein and vitamin B-12
D. Protein and vitamin B-12
Which of the following is true about teens and vegetable consumption?
A. Most teens generally get all of their vegetable requirements on a daily basis.
B. Most of a teen's vegetable intake is from pizza sauce.
C. Potato chips and French fries make up more than one-third of the vegetable intake of teens.
D. Vegetable nutrients are not important during teenage development.
C. Potato chips and French fries make up more than one-third of the vegetable intake of teens.
Which foods would you suggest adding to the diet of a preschool child who needs increased iron intake?
A. Lean meats
B. Milk
C. Orange juice
D. Egg whites
A. Lean meats
According to present day growth charts, an infant will double his or her birth weight at about ______ months of age.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 2
D. 9
A. 5