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130 Cards in this Set

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1. Which of the following is true about carbohydrate digestion?
a. Saliva production does not influence starch digestion.
b. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach.
c. Chewing food does not assist in carbohydrate digestion.
d. Carbohydrate digestion is assisted by cooking, which softens tough skins.
d. Carbohydrate digestion is assisted by cooking, which softens tough skins.
2. Lactose intolerance is caused by
a. intestinal bacteria.
b. milk bacteria.
c. a milk allergy.
d. lactase deficiency.
d. lactase deficiency.
3. Which of the following is not characteristic of Type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a. Sometimes caused by viral infection
b. Has a genetic link
c. Arises most commonly in adulthood
d. Associated with a tendency to develop ketosis
c. Arises most commonly in adulthood
4. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
a. Lactose
b. Galactose
c. Fructose
d. Glucose
a. Lactose
5. Of the following, which is a major source of sucrose?
a. Alcohol
b. Fruits
c. Sugar cane
d. Grains
6. How many grams of carb
c. Sugar cane
6. How many grams of carbohydrate, per day, must humans consume to avoid ketosis?
a. 250
b. 100
c. 130
d. 75
c. 130
7. Dietary fibers primarily are
a. Polysaccharides
b. Polypeptides
c. Monosaccharide
d. Disaccharides
a. Polysaccharides
8. Viscous (soluble) fibers
a. are not readily fermented by intestinal bacteria.
b. do not dissolve in water.
c. increase stool size significantly.
d. can lower blood cholesterol.
d. can lower blood cholesterol.
9. The monosaccharide important in nutrition are
a. fructose, glucose, and maltose.
b. sucrose, fructose, and glucose.
c. fructose, glucose, and galactose.
d. glucose, fructose, and lactose.
c. fructose, glucose, and galactose.
10. John Fibernugget wants to increase his fiber intake. Which of the following would be the safest way for him do this?
a. Eating enriched grains such as Rice Krispies and Saltines
b. Eating more fruits and vegetables and not removing the edible peels
c. Reading the labels of grain products and buying those labeled "wheat flour"
d. Buying bran and fiber supplements to add to his current diet
b. Eating more fruits and vegetables and not removing the edible peels
11. Sucralose (Splenda→) is ______ times sweeter than sucrose.
a. 100
b. 250
c. 500
d. 600
d. 600
12. The major symptoms of lactose intolerance are
a. gas, abdominal pain, and distention.
b. a rash, sneezing, and stuffy nose.
c. a headache and chest pain.
d. nausea and vomiting.
a. gas, abdominal pain, and distention.
13. When insulin is released, it causes
a. the liver to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood.
b. muscle and fat cells to increase glucose uptake.
c. fat breakdown in fat tissue.
d. the liver to make glycogen from protein.
b. muscle and fat cells to increase glucose uptake.
14. Dietary fiber may play a key role in the prevention of which cancer?
a. Colon
b. Liver
c. Pancreatic
d. Stomach
a. Colon
15. Which organ will first receive sugars after they are absorbed into the blood?
a. Kidney
b. Heart
c. Liver
d. Pancreas
c. Liver
16. The major storage sites for glycogen are
a. Muscles and liver
b. Kidney and muscles
c. Liver and kidney
d. Liver and pancreas
a. Muscles and liver
17. Glucose is absorbed via ______ absorption.
a. Passive
b. Facilitated
c. Active
d. Participatory
c. Active
18. Which of the following breakfasts would be highest in carbohydrate?
a. Grapefruit half, 2 fried eggs, 3 bacon slices, 1 slice of toast with butter, coffee
b. 8 ounces orange juice, 2 cups Cream of Wheat with 2 tablespoons sugar, English muffin with jelly, 1 cup whole milk
c. 8 ounces orange juice, 2 bran muffins, 8 ounces nonfat yogurt, coffee
d. 1 cup whole milk, 2 ounces sausage, 2 fried eggs, 1 slice of toast with butter
b. 8 ounces orange juice, 2 cups Cream of Wheat with 2 tablespoons sugar, English muffin with jelly, 1 cup whole milk
19. The term "simple carbohydrates" refers to
a. Monosaccharides
b. monosaccharides and disaccharides
c. Disaccharides
d. Polysaccharides
b. monosaccharides and disaccharides
20. You are on a diet, eating less than 50 grams of carbohydrate per day. The claim made in the educational materials is that carbohydrate is the main culprit in being overweight, so it must be restricted. Which of the following will happen as a result of this low carbohydrate diet?
a. Proteins in muscles, heart, and other vital organs will be broken down into amino acids to make needed glucose, over time weakening them.
b. Fat will be broken down and used as the exclusive fuel, leading to considerable fat loss and little health risk.
c. Ketones will be produced from partial protein metabolism to be used for energy.
d. Fat will be broken down, converted to glucose, and will be used as the primary energy source.
a. Proteins in muscles, heart, and other vital organs will be broken down into amino acids to make needed glucose, over time weakening them.
21. All of the following are characteristic of Type 2 diabetes mellitus except
a. arises most commonly in adulthood.
b. caused by insensitivity of fat and muscle cells to insulin.
c. often associated with obesity.
d. the least common form of diabetes.
d. the least common form of diabetes.
22. Starch is comprised of hundreds and perhaps thousands of which molecule?
a. Fructose
b. Glycerol
c. Glucose
d. Galactose
c. Glucose
23. Which of the following is true?
a. Glucose and glucose form sucrose.
b. Glucose and fructose form lactose.
c. Glucose and galactose form lactose.
d. Glucose and galactose form maltose.
c. Glucose and galactose form lactose.
24. Which of the following has the most starch?
a. 1 medium orange
b. 1 cup of kidney beans
c. 8 fluid ounces of milk
d. 4 ounces of meat
b. 1 cup of kidney beans
25. After absorption, galactose is converted to ________ in the liver.
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Glycogen
d. Lactose
a. Glucose
1. Name an omega-3 fatty acid with 20 carbons and 5 double bonds, found in fatty fish and synthesized from alpha-linolenic acid.
a. Omega-6 fatty acids (NOT THIS ONE)
b. Steroids
c. Phospholipids
d. Eicosapentaenoic Acid (EPA)
d. Eicosapentaenoic Acid (EPA)
2. Which of the following is true about cholesterol?
a. It is found in plant and animal foods.
b. It is found only in animal products.
c. It is an essential nutrient.
d. It is found only in plants.
b. It is found only in animal products.
3. Which of the following describes a fatty acid that has one double bond?
a. Saturated
b. Monounsaturated
c. Hydrogenated
d. Polyunsaturated
b. Monounsaturated
4. Which of the following is not a rich source of polyunsaturated fatty acids?
a. Soybean oil
b. Corn oil
c. Safflower oil
d. Palm oil
d. Palm oil
5. Phospholipids differ from triglycerides in which of the following ways?
a. A compound containing phosphorus replaces at least one fatty acid.
b. Phospholipids do not contain glycerol.
c. Phospholipids do not contain fatty acids.
d. A compound containing nitrogen replaces at least one fatty acid.
a. A compound containing phosphorus replaces at least one fatty acid.
6. Which of the following contains the greatest percentage of calories from fat (in a typical serving size)?
a. M&M candies
b. Margarine
c. Whole Milk
d. T-Bone steak
b. Margarine
7. Which of the following contains a rich supply of omega-3 fatty acids?
a. Salmon
b. Broccoli
c. Sirloin
d. Chicken Breast
a. Salmon
8. The main regulator of blood cholesterol levels is
a. The liver
b. The amount of cholesterol in LDLs
c. Dietary cholesterol
d. The amount of cholesterol in HDLs
a. The liver
9. All of the following are sources of cholesterol except
a. Butter
b. Whole milk
c. Turkey meat
d. Peanut butter
d. Peanut butter
10. Gram for gram, which of the following contains the most cholesterol?
a. Shrimp
b. Lard
c. Liver
d. Ice Cream
c. Liver
11. Which of the following would you buy if you wanted the highest polyunsaturated fatty acid content?
a. Liquid, squeezable margarine, made from safflower oil
b. Semisolid shortening made with olive oil
c. Soft margarine in a tub, made from corn oil
d. Stick margarine made with canola oil
a. Liquid, squeezable margarine, made from safflower oil
12. When triglycerides are digested, before being absorbed, they are converted to a mixture of
a. monoglycerides and diglycerides.
b. diglycerides and fatty acids.
c. monoglycerides and fatty acids.
d. glycerol and fatty acids.
c. monoglycerides and fatty acids.
13. All of the following describe the characteristics of fat cells except
a. the storage capacity for fat depends on both fat cell number and fat cell size.
b. the body's ability to store fat is limitless.
c. the number increases when storage capacity has reached its limit
d. the number of fat cells decreases when fat is lost from the body.
d. the number of fat cells decreases when fat is lost from the body.
14. Studies of Greenland Eskimos, among others, have demonstrated a relationship between the consumption of fish and the risk for heart disease. What is the most likely mechanism for the reduction of heart disease risk when fish is consumed?
a. Fish contain fatty acids that decrease blood clotting.
b. Fish is low in cholesterol.
c. The protein in fish lowers the blood cholesterol.
d. The carbohydrate in fish lowers blood cholesterol.
a. Fish contain fatty acids that decrease blood clotting.
15. Which of the following is true about the fate of fatty acids after their absorption?
a. Fatty acids of 16 or more carbons enter the blood and then the liver via the portal vein.
b. Fatty acids of less than 12 carbons enter the lymphatic system packaged in chylomicrons.
c. Fatty acids of less than 12 carbons enter the blood and then the liver via the portal vein.
d. Fatty acids of 16 or more carbons enter the lymphatic system directly and then enter the blood via the aorta
c. Fatty acids of less than 12 carbons enter the blood and then the liver via the portal vein.
16. Olive oil contains abundant amounts of which type of fatty acid?
a. Saturated
b. Monounsaturated
c. Polyunsaturated
d. Partially hydrogenated
b. Monounsaturated
17. Timothy wants to avoid eating too much hydrogenated fat. All of the following are appropriate ways except
a. using little or no stick margarine.
b. using tub margarines and vegetable oils.
c. avoiding consumption of deep fried foods at quick-service restaurants.
d. eating packaged cookies and desserts made with vegetable shortening.
d. eating packaged cookies and desserts made with vegetable shortening.
18. A desirable total serum cholesterol level is less than ____ milligrams per deciliter.
a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
d. 400
b. 200
19. After absorption, long-chain fatty acids and monoglycerides inside intestinal cells are
a. Converted to proteins
b. Converted to glucose
c. Reformed into triglycerides
d. Converted to cholesterol
c. Reformed into triglycerides
20. An essential omega-3 fatty acid with 18 carbons and 3 double bonds is called
a. Linoleic acid
b. Diglyceride
c. Alpha-linoleic acid
d. Cholesterol
c. Alpha-linoleic acid
21. Most fats in foods and the body are composed of
a. glycogen and fatty acids.
b. Fatty acid and glycerol
c. Lactic acid and glycogen
d. Glucose and fatty acids
b. Fatty acid and glycerol
22. How many carbons do long-chain fatty acids contain?
a. 4 to 6
b. 6 to 8
c. 10 or more
d. 12 or more
d. 12 or more
23. Phospholipids differ from triglycerides in which of the following ways:
a. A compound containing phosphorus replaces at least one fatty acid.
b. Phospholipids do not contain glycerol.
c. Phospholipids do not contain fatty acids.
d. A compound containing nitrogen replaces at least one fatty acid.
a. A compound containing phosphorus replaces at least one fatty acid.
24. One of the richest plant sources of omega-3 fatty acids, alpha-linolenic acid, and also a good source of plant sterols is
a. Cranberries
b. Walnuts
c. Tomatoes
d. Avocados
b. Walnuts
25. The safest way to get measurable heart disease risk-reducing benefits from consuming omega-3 fatty acids, would be to
a. Consume fish oil capsules daily
b. eat 3 to 5 servings of vegetables daily.
c. take cod liver oil 3 times a week.
d. eat oily fish, such as salmon, 2 times a week.
d. eat oily fish, such as salmon, 2 times a week.
1. A protein that acts as a hormone is
a. Trypsin
b. Pepsin
c. Insulin
d. Hemoglobin
c. Insulin
2. If a person does not eat enough carbohydrate to supply the glucose the body needs, which of the following will happen?
a. Fatty acids will be converted to glucose.
b. The pancreas will convert protein to glucose.
c. The pancreas will convert insulin to glucose.
d. The liver will convert amino acids to glucose
d. The liver will convert amino acids to glucose
3. If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose?
a. Fatty acids
b. Ketones
c. Urea
d. Amino acids
d. Amino acids
4. Proteins that bind to foreign proteins in the body are
a. Hormones
b. Antibodies
c. Collagen
d. Enzymes
b. Antibodies
5. The nitrogen from amino acid breakdown is
a. Converted to urea
b. Oxidized to carbohydrate
c. Stored in the liver
d. Converted to fat
a. Converted to urea
6. An essential amino acid
a. can be formed in the body from semiessential amino acids.
b. cannot be synthesized in the body in sufficient quantity to meet body needs.
c. can be synthesized in the body if there is a nitrogen source.
d. can be synthesized in the body if caloric intake is adequate.
b. cannot be synthesized in the body in sufficient quantity to meet body needs.
7. Approximately how many different amino acids are used in the synthesis of body proteins?
a. 5
b. 20
c. 9
d. 29
b. 20
8. The basic building block of a protein is called a(n)
a. Amino acids
b. Keto acid
c. Monosaccharide
d. Fatty acid
a. Amino acids
9. The most reliable source of vitamin B12 for the vegan would be
a. Cheese
b. Fortified soybean milk
c. Eggs
d. Milk
b. Fortified soybean milk
10. The edema in children with kwashiorkor is the result of fluid leaking into
a. body tissues from the bloodstream because of decreased blood protein levels.
b. body tissues from the bloodstream because of decreased energy levels.
c. the bloodstream from body tissues because of decreased energy.
d. the bloodstream from body tissues because of decreased cellular proteins.
a. body tissues from the bloodstream because of decreased blood protein levels.
11. A hereditary condition caused by an incorrect amino acid in the amino acid sequence of a protein chain is
a. marasmus.
b. edema.
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Kwashiorkor
c. Sickle cell anemia
12. Which of the following is not true about body proteins?
a. They are static and change little after achievement of adult status.
b. Their breakdown products, especially amino acids, can be recycled.
c. They are in a state of breakdown, rebuilding, and repair.
d. Those in the bone marrow and intestine undergo the most change, in terms of breakdown and synthesis.
a. They are static and change little after achievement of adult status.
13. What is meant by the amino acid sequence of a protein?
a. Order of appearance of only the essential amino acids in the protein
b. Order of appearance of amino acids in the peptide chain
c. Number of side chains in the protein
d. Folding arrangement of the peptide chain
b. Order of appearance of amino acids in the peptide chain
14. Cooking an egg alters its appearance due to
a. denaturation.
b. Emulsification
c. Esterification
d. Detoxification
a. denaturation.
15. The typical American diet supplies approximately what percentage of protein as essential amino acid?
a. 50%
b. 10%
c. 40%
d. 25%
a. 50%
16. All of the following are essential amino acids except
a. alanine.
b. Lysine
c. Methionine
d. Threonine
a. alanine.
17. Which of the following is not true about pepsin?
a. Amino acid chains are the digestive products of its action.
b. Pepsin works best in an alkaline environment.
c. Acid activates pepsin.
d. Pepsin acts on food in the stomach.
b. Pepsin works best in an alkaline environment.
18. High protein diets may be harmful for
a. those with kidney disease.
b. Athletes
c. The elderly
d. Body builders
a. those with kidney disease.
19. The chemical element found in all amino acids but not found in either carbohydrates or fats is
a. Carbon
b. Nitrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Hydrogen
b. Nitrogen
20. Which of the following is true about protein intake of people in the United States?
a. Most do not consume enough protein.
b. Most consume approximately the amount needed to balance losses.
c. Athletes generally do not get enough protein without supplements.
d. Most consume more than is needed.
d. Most consume more than is needed.
21. Donovan has been consuming large quantities of food and in violation of safe rules of athletic training is injecting testosterone. He has been seeing large temporary gains in muscle mass. He is in a state of
a. negative protein balance.
b. positive protein balance.
c. energy equilibrium.
d. excess protein balance.
b. positive protein balance.
22. Proteins regulate the acid-base balance of the blood by
a. acting as buffers.
b. releasing nitrogen.
c. Releasing an acid
d. Binding sodium ions
a. acting as buffers.
23. When protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, the excess amino acids are metabolized and the energy in the molecule is
a. stored as glycogen and/or fat.
b. excreted in the urine.
c. stored as amino acids in muscle.
d. stored as amino acids in the liver.
a. stored as glycogen and/or fat.
24. If a food does not contain the necessary amounts of a certain amino acid to meet a body need, that amino acid is referred to as a
a. complementary amino acid.
b. essential amino acid.
c. Limiting amino acid
d. Dispensable amino acid
c. Limiting amino acid
25. In the case of sickle cell anemia, the slight alterations in the DNA of red blood cells lead to
a. defects in the membranes of these cells.
b. changes in the structure of the protein hemoglobin.
c. poor use of glucose for energy.
d. inability of the cells to make protein.
b. changes in the structure of the protein hemoglobin.
26. All of the following are true of the alteration of the three-dimensional structure of a protein except
a. it tends to be rigid and retains its structure.
b. it can be caused by heat, acid, or base.
c. it is called denaturation.
d. it usually destroys its physiological function.
a. it tends to be rigid and retains its structure.
27. The RDA for protein translates into approximately what percentage of total daily kcalorie needs?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
b. 10%
1. Changing one's frame of mind related to weight control and nutrition is called
a. cognitive restructuring.
b. Chain-breaking
c. Stimulus control
d. Self-monitoring
a. cognitive restructuring.
2. An example of cognitive restructuring for weight control is
a. decreeing candy bars off limits.
b. planning what to eat for breakfast.
c. replacing eating reactions to stress with helpful relaxing alternatives.
d. keeping a food intake diary to identify triggers for eating.
c. replacing eating reactions to stress with helpful relaxing alternatives.
3. How would you interpret the body mass index for a woman who is 1.63 meters tall and weighs 72 kilograms?
a. Her health risks due to obesity would be high.
b. This indicates significant android obesity and high health risk.
c. The value does not exceed the value for which health risks begin.
d. She slightly exceeds the value for which health risks begin.
d. She slightly exceeds the value for which health risks begin.
4. All of the following are true about contributors to energy expenditure except
a. the thermic effect of food represents about 5 percent to 10 percent of total expenditure.
b. basal metabolism accounts for 60 percent to 70 percent of total expenditure.
c. fidgeting accounts for 40 percent of total energy expenditure.
d. physical activity accounts for 25 percent to 40 percent of total expenditure.
c. fidgeting accounts for 40 percent of total energy expenditure.
5. Which of the following is not a way to estimate body fat?
a. Body mass index
b. Bioelectrical impedance
c. Underwater weighing
d. Skinfolds
a. Body mass index
6. A weight loss program should have all of the following characteristics except
a. the plan should be socially acceptable, allowing attendance at parties and restaurants.
b. the plan should have a weight loss goal of 3 to 5 pounds per week.
c. use MyPyramid as a pattern for food choices.
d. the plan should adapt to habits and tastes.
b. the plan should have a weight loss goal of 3 to 5 pounds per week.
7. A daily deficit of 500 kcalories should result in a weight loss of about how many pounds per week?
a. 4
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
b. 1
8. Bill consumes 2,500 kcalories per day. What would be his energy expenditure, in kcalories, from the thermic effect of food?
a. 125 to 250
b. 250 to 375
c. 425 to 600
d. 399 to 550
a. 125 to 250
9. Joe is getting his energy expenditure measured by direct calorimetry. The 1 liter of water surrounding the chamber has an initial reading of 15 degrees Celsius. The final reading is 2,015 degrees Celsius. How many kcalories did he expend?
a. 2500
b. 2000
c. 1500
d. 1000
b. 2000
10. Basal metabolism is the energy expended
a. when doing moderate activity.
b. when resting, but awake, and in a fasting state.
c. to make food available to the body.
d. when sleeping.
b. when resting, but awake, and in a fasting state.
11. Which of the following is not associated with an increase in basal metabolism?
a. A low kcalorie intake
b. Caffine use
c. An increase in lean body mass
d. An increase in body temperature
a. A low kcalorie intake
12. Which of the following is true about use of diet pills for weight reduction?
a. Oral cholecystokinin is absorbed and suppresses hunger.
b. Diet pills do not lead to long-term changes in weight and tend to have side effects.
c. Diuretics lead to significant fat loss.
d. Amphetamines are not addictive.
b. Diet pills do not lead to long-term changes in weight and tend to have side effects.
13. When attempting to use body fat content to define obesity, body fat above ____ for women warrants an obesity diagnosis.
a. 30%
b. 20%
c. 35%
d. 25%
c. 35%
14. For a woman who is 1.63 meters tall and weighs 72 kilograms, the body mass index would be
a. 18
b. 23
c. 32
d. 27
d. 27
15. When individuals lose weight quickly, most of the weight lost is from
a. fat, water, and muscle tissue.
b. water, glycogen, and muscle tissue.
c. fat, water, and glycogen.
d. water, muscle tissue, and protein stores.
b. water, glycogen, and muscle tissue.
16. The body's set point has been suggested to be
a. one's minimum body weight.
b. one's desirable body weight.
c. the weight that is reached and maintained during mid life.
d. a weight to which the body closely regulates.
d. a weight to which the body closely regulates.
17. Body weight in kilograms divided by height squared in meters yields
a. the body mass index.
b. percent body fat.
c. The obesity index
d. Relative weight
a. the body mass index.
18. Which of the following is an important aspect of behavior modification used for weight control?
a. Severely restricting intake after overeating
b. Avoiding planned eating so you can be ready to handle spontaneous changes in the situation
c. Recording eating behavior to identify situations that contribute to overeating
d. Weighing at the same time each day
c. Recording eating behavior to identify situations that contribute to overeating
19. Xenical is a weight loss drug that works in the digestive system
a. to substitute xylose for glucose.
b. to block digestion of about one-third of the fat in the food we eat.
c. to produce a full feeling that decreases hunger.
d. as an artificial fat.
b. to block digestion of about one-third of the fat in the food we eat.
20. The kcalorie cost of the thermic effect of food is ___ of energy consumed.
a. 1% to 2%
b. 5% to 10%
c. 15% to 20%
d. 20% to 25%
b. 5% to 10%
21. The method for determining energy expenditure that involves the measurement of heat given off by the body during a select period of time in an insulated chamber is
a. direct calorimetry.
b. indirect calorimetry..
c. thermocalorimetry.
d. bomb calorimetry.
a. direct calorimetry.
22. All of the following statements about many popular diets are true except
a. they promote quick weight loss that ends up being primarily water and lean muscle mass.
b. they help people make permanent changes in eating habits.
c. they often recommend expensive supplements.
d. they use testimonials from famous people.
b. they help people make permanent changes in eating habits.
23. Which of the following is not true about android obesity?
a. It is upper body obesity.
b. High testosterone levels encourage it.
c. A low waist-to-hip ratio is indicative of it.
d. It is related to heart disease, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus.
c. A low waist-to-hip ratio is indicative of it.
24. As one finds his or her weight loss slowing during a weight control program, the best practice is to
a. restrict more food choices.
b. reduce food intake to 1,000 kcalories.
c. go off the weight control program and take a break.
d. increase physical activity.
d. increase physical activity.
25. Which of the following is not a major goal for weight control programs?
a. 5 pound weight loss per week
b. Loss of stored fat
c. Sparing lean body mass
d. Reaching a healthy weight
a. 5 pound weight loss per week
26. Which of the following testing methods is considered the most accurate way of measuring percent body fat?
a. Underwater weighing
b. Skinfolds
c. Infrared light
d. Bioelectrical impedance
a. Underwater weighing
27. Two self-help groups that would be helpful with weight control efforts include
a. Jenny Craig and Slim Fast.
b. Nutri-System and Jenny Craig.
c. Weight Watchers and Take Off Pounds Sensibly.
d. Weight Watchers and Nutri-System.
c. Weight Watchers and Take Off Pounds Sensibly.
28. The best way to treat an underweight person is to advise him or her to
a. eat high-fat foods such as cream, cheeses, ice cream, and ground beef.
b. stop exercising.
c. eat kcalorie-dense foods higher in vegetable fat like nuts and seeds.
d. eat high kcalorie foods at the beginning of a meal.
c. eat kcalorie-dense foods higher in vegetable fat like nuts and seeds.
1. Criteria for diagnosing bulimia nervosa includes all the following except
a. Uses purging techniques like self-induced vomiting
b. Purposely eats large quantities of food and feels tremendous control in doing it
c. two binge eating episodes per week for at least 3 months
d. Over concern with body shape and weight
b. Purposely eats large quantities of food and feels tremendous control in doing it
2. All of the following are true about bulimia except
a. the disordered behavior is secretive.
b. frequent bingeing and purging occurs.
c. the result is low body weight.
d. it most commonly occurs in adolescent and college-age individuals.
c. the result is low body weight.
3. All of the following are associated with bulimia except
a. Shoplifting
b. Less sexual activity than the general population
c. Drug abuse
d. Compulsive lying
b. Less sexual activity than the general population
4. Night eating syndrome is characterized by evening hyperphagia which is defined as
a. eating one-half of total daily calories after the evening meal.
b. eating more than one-third of total daily calories after the evening meal.
c. eating one-half of total daily calories at the evening meal.
d. eating all of total daily calories after the evening meal.
b. eating more than one-third of total daily calories after the evening meal.
5. What is the name of the condition characterized by disordered eating, lack of menstrual periods, and osteoporosis?
a. Female anorexia
b. Female athlete triad
c. Binge eating disorder
d. Female bulimia
b. Female athlete triad
6. Anorexia nervosa is defined as
a. purging, including laxatives and diuretics.
b. psychological denial of appetite.
c. hyperactivity.
d. Compulsive eating
b. psychological denial of appetite.
7. Studies have shown that night eating syndrome symptoms, including nocturnal ingestion and evening
hyperphagia, are significantly improved with use of
a. Amphetamines
b. A sleeping pill
c. An antibiotic
d. An antidepressant
d. An antidepressant
8. A difference between anorexics and bulimics is that
a. anorexics come from loosely organized families, whereas bulimics come from overly-organized families.
b. anorexics turn away from food during a crisis, whereas bulimics turn toward food.
c. bulimics exhibit denial of the disorder, whereas anorexics know their behavior is abnormal.
d. bulimics tend to be methodical, whereas anorexics tend to be impulsive.
b. anorexics turn away from food during a crisis, whereas bulimics turn toward food.
9. Which of the following is not characteristic of individuals who develop eating disorders?
a. From families with unrealistic expectations
b. From middle- and upper-class families
c. Highly competitive
d. Have high self-esteem
d. Have high self-esteem
10. Which of the following is characteristic of bulimics?
a. Binge eating
b. Have obvious symptoms
c. Tend to be very thin
d. Are almost never male
a. Binge eating
11. One of the best ways to get anorexics into treatment is to
a. Deny the disorder
b. Threaten them
c. Keep offering them food
d. Have group intervention of friends and family to confront them with the problem
d. Have group intervention of friends and family to confront them with the problem
12. Which of the following is the best treatment approach for binge eating disorder?
a. Teaching them not to be selfish and work at nurturing others.
b. A structured eating plan that the person eats without regard to his or her hunger signals.
c. A diet that lists foods to be eaten and others to be avoided.
d. An eating plan that does not restrict particular foods, in which the person eats in response to hunger signals.
d. An eating plan that does not restrict particular foods, in which the person eats in response to hunger signals.
13. At later stages in anorexia development, anorexics
a. do not feel hungry.
b. eat 1,200 to 1,500 kcalories per day.
c. eat 300 to 600 kcalories per day.
d. abstain from beverages and food.
c. eat 300 to 600 kcalories per day.
14. Joni uses ipecac syrup to promote vomiting after her binges. All of the following are negative effects of vomiting except
a. high blood potassium levels, which disturb heart rhythm.
b. Stomach ulcers
c. Swelling of salivary glands
d. Tooth decay
a. high blood potassium levels, which disturb heart rhythm.
15. The most significant factor promoting eating disorders in North American culture is
a. the current focus on physical fitness.
b. food availability.
c. the fatty foods emphasized in our culture.
d. societal emphasis on being thin and the link between thinness and social value.
d. societal emphasis on being thin and the link between thinness and social value.
16. Anorexia nervosa sufferers
a. see themselves as thin even though they are fat.
b. lack denial of their disease.
c. tend to be between 25 and 35 years of age.
d. tend to be adolescent and early adult girls.
d. tend to be adolescent and early adult girls.
17. An effective nutritional counseling approach to bulimia involves all the following except
a. suggesting that the person follow strict food rules to control eating.
b. a daily meal plan.
c. helping the person correct misconceptions about food.
d. keeping a daily food diary.
a. suggesting that the person follow strict food rules to control eating.
18. All of the following can initiate the problem of anorexia nervosa except
a. comments from significant others about being too fat.
b. coming from a supportive family.
c. leaving home and family for college.
d. a job or profession that demands maintaining a certain weight.
b. coming from a supportive family.
19. The slower basal metabolism that accompanies anorexia nervosa is caused by
a. decreased synthesis of growth hormone.
b. decreased synthesis of thyroid hormone.
c. low intake of iron.
d. hypoglycemia.
b. decreased synthesis of thyroid hormone.
20. The semistarvation of anorexia nervosa results in all the following physiological changes except
a. dry, scaly, cold skin.
b. lanugo hair.
c. increased heart rate.
d. iron-deficiency anemia.
c. increased heart rate.
21. The most long-term success in anorexia nervosa treatment has been with
a. hospitalization and feeding via a tube.
b. a multidisciplinary team of health care providers.
c. scare tactics.
d. outpatient treatment.
b. a multidisciplinary team of health care providers.
22. A person with anorexia nervosa is likely to
a. come from a low socioeconomic class.
b. come from a loose, flexible home.
c. grow up in a perfectionistic home with very high expectations.
d. have a mother with a healthy view of the body and food habits.
c. grow up in a perfectionistic home with very high expectations.
23. All of the following are true of an anorexic person who falls below 75 percent of normal body weight except
a. hospitalization is almost always necessary.
b. cure becomes very difficult.
c. premature death is likely.
d. loss of menstrual period becomes irreversible.
d. loss of menstrual period becomes irreversible.
24. Which characteristic is more indicative of bulimia than anorexia nervosa?
a. Rigid, disciplined dieting
b. Feeling a sense of power because of strict discipline and self-denial
c. Fluctuating weight
d. Lack of menstruation
a. Rigid, disciplined dieting
25. Which of the following is true about purging behavior related to bulimia?
a. There are no medical risks to purging.
b. After many months of purging, it gets harder and harder to do.
c. After vomiting, many kcalories from the food eaten are still absorbed.
d. Few kcalories are absorbed when laxatives are used as a purging technique.
c. After vomiting, many kcalories from the food eaten are still absorbed.