• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/102

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

102 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
most common pattern of sacral fracture
vertical
lateral and extraforaminal with low incidence of neurologic and bladder injury
zone 1
transverse sacral foramen
zone 2
medial and extraforaminal with central involvement. neurologic injury with bowel and bladder dysfunction
zone 3
transverse fractures of the sacrum occurs at what vertebral level
s1-s3
patterns of sacral fractures (3)
vertical
transverse
h-shaped
avulsion fracture of the pelvis may affect what structures (3)
ASIS
AIIS
ischial tuberosity
other name for avulsion fracture of the pelvis
sprinter fracture
iliac crest fracture
duverney fracture
what is the known complication of straddle injury
urethral injury
bilateral superior and inferior rami fx are known as ___
straddle injury
this was originally described in horseback riders and is the result of direct trauma
straddle injury
result of high energy blunt trauma
pelvic ring injury
what is the leading cause of death among pelvic ring injury patients
hemorrhage
anterior stability of the pelvic ring is achieved with __ and __
rami
symphysis pubis
what is the main contributor to the posterior stability of pelvic ring
interosseous sacroiliac ligament
normal symphysis measurement
2.5 cm
young and burgess classification of pelvic ring injury(3)
anterior posterior compression
lateral compression
vertical shear
usually result of posterior hip dislocation
posterior wall fracture
indications for surgery among patients with acetabular fracture (6)
greater than 3 mm articular step off
posterior wall fx of greater than 40%
marginal impaction
loss of acetabular congruency
intraarticular debris
irreducible fracture/dislocations
majority of hip dislocations are in what direction?
posterior
due to the impaction of the femoral head upon the acetabulum from direct force to the distal femur
hip fracture
impaction of the femoral head upon the acetabulum from direct force to the distal femur
dashboard injury
fracture of the posterior rim of the acetabulum may result in what nerve injury
sciatic
with this type of dislocation the femoral head is displaced into the obturator and pubic region
anterior dislocation
with this type of dislocation the femoral head projects into the pelvic cavity
internal dislocation
common in osteoporotic women
proximal femur fracture
extracapsular fractures (2)
intertrochanteric
subtrochanteric
intracapsular fractures (2)
femoral neck
femoral head
which type of proximal femoral fracture has high incidence of avascular necrosis of the femoral head
intracapsular fracture
Garden Classification: incomplete (possible impacted) fractures with the femoral head in valgus position
garden I
Garden Classification: complete but nondisplaced. the femoral head is in mild varus position
garden II
Garden Classification: complete, partially displaced
garden III
Garden Classification: complete with full displacement
garden IV
what treatment for femoral neck fracture would you give for young patient
close reduction and internal fixation
what treatment for femoral neck fracture would you give for sedentary, medical problems, poor bone stock patient
bipolar hemiarthroplasty vs. primary THRA
what treatment would you give for patients with multiple medical problems with low life expectancy and poor bone stock
unipolar hemiarthroplasty
what treatment would you give for patients with high activity level, good bone stock
CRIF vs ORIF
intertrochanteric fractures classification wherein the lesser and greater trochanter are neither fractured
two part fracture
intertrochanteric fracture classification wherein wether the lesser or greater trochanter is fracture
three part fracture
itnertrochanteric fracture classification wherein both lesser and greater trochanter are fractured
four part fracture
what artery may be injured with complex fracture of the distal femur
superficial femoral artery
this region extends from 5cm above the meraphyseal flare to the articular surfaces
supracondylar region
treatment for non displaced supracondylar fracture
cast brace, NWB, ROM
treatment for displaced supracondylar fracture
ORIF, IMN, condylar screw side plate, angle plate
avulsion of the medial femoral condyle at the origin of medial collateral ligament
pelligrini-stieda disease
avusion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau at the side of attachement of lateral capsular ligament
segond fracture
segond fracture is frequently associated with tears of ___
ACL or menisci
patellar fractures are classified accdg to ___
holt and larson
what is the most common patellar fx
transverse fracture
differentiation of patellar fx is made from a _____ located usually at the superolateral margin
bipartite patella
tx for patellar dislocation
cylinder cast for 6 wks then progressive ROM
usually occurs in patients who are younger than 40 y/o and athletically active
patellar tendon rupture
usually occurs in px who are older than age 40 yrs and sedentary
quadriceps tendon rupture
tibial plateau fractures were originally termed as ____ or ___
fender or bumper fractures
what type of tibila plateau fracture is the most common? this is caused by trauma from valgus froce
lateral plateau fracture
what is the classification used to describe tibial plateau fracture
schatzker classification
schatzker classification (4)
depression
split
split depression
condylar
disease involves the tibial tubercle
osgood-schlatter's disease
osteochonditis of the tibial tuberosity
osgood-schlatter's disease
fracture of the medial malleolus of the ankle with disruption of the tibiofibular syndesmosis
maisonneuve fracture
fracture of the proximal third of the fibular
maisonneuve fracture
results from an ankle eversion injury
mainssoneuve fracture
more comminuted fractures of the proximal tibia may compromise blood supply of the __ artery
popliteal artery
in this fracture, you should check for compartment syndrome
tibial shaft fracture
MOI of tibial shaft fracture
direct hit
peritalar dislocation refers to dislocation of what joints
talocalcaneal and talonavicular joints
most common variety of subtalar dislocation
medial dislocation
basketball foot
subtalar dislocation
total talar dislocation refers to
tibiotalar and subtalar joint dislocation
most common dislocation of the foot
lisfranc dislocation
dorsal dislocation of tarsometatarsal joints
lisfranc joints
lisfranc joints is common among ___
charcot joints
consists of lateral dislocation of metatarsals of one through five or two through five
homolateral dislocation
consists of lateral dislocation of metatarsals two through five and medial dislocation of metatarsal one
divergent dislocation
this can be seen in parachute jumpers
lisfranc dislocation
due to severe plantarflexion of the foot with folding of the midfoot upon the forefoot
lisfranc dislocation
comminuted fracture of the distal tibia
pilon fracture
what is the common complication of pilon fracture
posttraumatic arthritis
fractures of medial, lateral and posterior malleoli of the tibia
trimalleolar fracture
this fracture may be caused by talar eversion and posterior displacement
trimalleolar fracture
trimalleolar fracture is also known as
henderson fracture
compression fractures of the talar neck, fractures of the body, fractures of the posterior process or fracture dislocation injuries
aviator's astralagus
what is the most frequently injured site in aviator's astragalus
talar neck
what is the most injured bone in the foot
calcaneus
what is the second most injured bone in the foot
talus
subchondral luscency secondary to hypervascularity
hawkin's sign
this a potential complication of neck fracture
proximal avascular necrosis
avascular necrosis which affects the second metatarsal head and is unilateral
freiberg's infarction
occurs one inch distal to the base of the fifth metatarsal. it is due to a twisting inversion injury to the foot
jones fracture
fracture of the proximal base of the fifth metatarsal due to peroneus brevis tendon avulsion
pseudojones fracture
stress fracture occurs in one of the metatarsal
march fracture
due to direct trauma. often part of the lisfranc fracture-dislocation spectrum
metatarsal fracture
common calcaneal fracture, resulting from an exial type of injury
lover's fracture
there is decrease in what angle in calcaneal fracture
boehler's angle (<20 deg)
calcaneus fracture is associated with (2)
don juan fracture
pilon fracture
what is the most common phalangeal injury of the foot
fracture of distal phalanx of the first digit
result of hyperextension injury. this results in avulsion of the capsule and a small fragment of the bone from the first MTP jt. there is also dislocation of the first MTP joint
turf toe injury
typically affects the ankle and tarsal joints due to diabetes
charcot joint
neuropathic joint in knees is caused by
tabes
neuropathic joint in the shoulder is caused by
syringomyelia
charcot joint is characterized by (6) Ds
destruction
density
disorganization
dislocation
distension
debris