Flight Operations Manual

Front 1

At what times is the consumption of alcohol not permitted?

Back 1

1. Within 10 hours or the same calendar day preceding:
- Ground School
- Scheduled to fly
- Standing Reserve
- Company related duties.
2. The use of alcohol is not permitted when in any recognizable part of the company uniform.
3. Within 8 hours following an accident unless you have been given a "post-accident" alcohol test or the "Duty Officer" has determined alcohol was not a factor in the accident.
4. Alcohol may not be transported on the flight deck at any time. It must be placed in the cabin!

Front 2

What must the captain do if cockpit smut is found in the cockpit?

Back 2

The captain must place the smut in an envelope and mark it "confidential". Forward all cockpit smut to the chief pilot's office.
Include the date, time and location found in the aircraft. Also include the aircraft number.

Front 3

Any "Off Duty Flying" requires you to do what?

Back 3

1. Requires written permission from the Chief Pilot's Office.
2. All off duty flying must be reported to "Crew Scheduling Services" within 5 calendar days or prior to Horizon Air Duty, whichever occurs first.
3. Pilots must ensure they remain within compliance with FAR flight time limits and rest requirements.
4. Off duty flying is not permitted within 24 hours preceding reporting for duty at Horizon Air.

Front 4

When you are notified of a FAA violation, what must you do?

Back 4

Report all FAA violations to the "Director of Flight Operations" as soon as possible!

Front 5

What is the "Crew Fatigue Policy"?

Back 5

1. You will be removed from flight duty "without pay".
2. No disciplinary action will be taken against the pilot.
3. Fill out a "Flight Crew Fatigue Survey" form whenever fatigue is encountered, especially if it contributed to a performance error.
4. The pilot will discuss the event with the chief pilot's office.

If you suspect that a fellow pilot is to fatigued to fly and he hasn't taken himself off the trip, report it to the "Duty Officer" before proceeding

NOTE:
If the fatigue is due to illness the pilot will be placed on sick leave!

Front 6

How may a temporary airman certificate be obtained?

Back 6

By calling the FAA certification branch during normal business hours.
Only a company designee may call the FAA during off hours.
A faxed copy of your airman certificate may be obtained from "Crew Scheduling" under authority of exemption 5487.
If a "temporary confirmation" is received from the FAA, a copy must be sent to "Training Records" within 24 hours of receipt.

Front 7

How long is a temporary certificate valid for and what restrictions apply to its use?

Back 7

A temporary certificate is valid for only 60 days.

It is not valid outside of the US.

A replacement certificate must be applied for within 72 hours (3 days) of the initiation of any flight while using a temporary certificate.

Front 8

What must be accomplished if you lose your company ID badge?

Back 8

Report the lost ID immediately to "Corporate Security" during regular business hours or to "Northwest Protective" if after normal business hours.
Request a pilot's photo from crew scheduling via the crew lookup system. This will serfice for crew verification.

Front 9

Scuba diving is not allowed within ___ hours of __________.

Back 9

24 hours of "reporting for duty".

Front 10

Blood donations are not allowed within ______ hours of reporting for duty.

Back 10

72 hours (3 days)

NOTE:
If a flight is conducted within 72 hours following a blood donation the pilot must obtain a "hemoglobin test" and "blood count test".

Front 11

At what times must the pilot's cellular phones be turned off?

Back 11

1. While performing any required crew duty.
2. Within 20 minutes of departure.
3. With passengers on-board.

- All crew phones are to be turned "OFF" prior to takeoff.
- Use of pilot's cell phones are permitted during emergency or abnormal situations at the pilot's discretion.
- Use of pilot cell phones "are permitted" for company business.

Front 12

What are the "Age 60" requirements?

Back 12

1. If the "captain" is 60 years old or greater than the first officer must be less than 60 years of age.

2. All pilots (captains and first officers) must maintain a "1st Class Medical" every 6 months!

Front 13

What is the "Runway Verification" procedure for taxi or takeoff?

Back 13

Prior to crossing any runway hold line, the captain and first officer must verbally verify:

1. The aircraft is cleared onto the runway.
2. It is the correct runway.
3. The runway is clear.

Front 14

What is the "Runway Verification" procedure for landing?

Back 14

The pilot flying must verbally restate the landing clearance after the NFP receives clearance from ATC.

Both pilots will "silently" verify that it is the correct runway and clear of traffic.

Front 15

For takeoff, approach and landing, what is the runway visibility measuring priority?

Back 15

1. RVR --- Runway Visual Range
2. RVV --- Runway Visual Value
3. RVO --- Runway Visual Observation

Front 16

When conducting a circling approach, what visibility value is used and controlling?

Back 16

Prevailing Visibility

Front 17

What is the minimum visibility and cloud separation for the following:
CLASS "A","B","C", "D", "E", "G" Airspace?

Back 17

CLASS "A" Airspace:
Positive Controlled
IFR ONLY!

CLASS "B" Airspace:
TCA
3 miles visibility / Clear of Clouds

CLASS "C" Airspace:
TRSA
3 miles visibility
500 below, 1,000 above, 2,000 horizontal

CLASS "D" Airspace:
Control Zones/Airport Traffic Areas
3 miles visibility
500 below, 1,000 above, 2,000 horizontal

CLASS "E" Airspace:
General Controlled Airspace

Below 10,000' MSL:
3 miles visibility
500 below, 1,000 above, 2,000 horizontal

At or above 10,000':
5 miles visibility
1,000 below, 1,000 above, 1 mile horizontal

CLASS "G" Airspace:
Uncontrolled Airspace
DAY:
Within 1,200' AGL:
1 mile / Clear of Clouds
Above 1,200' AGL:
1 mile
500 below, 1,000 above,2,000 horizontal
NIGHT:
3 miles visibility
500 below, 1,000 above, 2,000 horizontal

Front 18

When is compliance with a TCAS "Resolution Advisory" mandatory?

Back 18

At all times unless the pilot considers it "Unsafe to do so".

Front 19

What must the pilot do following a deviation due to a TCAS event?

Back 19

1. Notify ATC as soon as possible.

2. Submit an HA 148 (Irregularity Report).

Front 20

At what times is it required to use the headsets?

Back 20

For all operations below 18,000 feet.

Front 21

What does the "Critical Phase of Flight" include regarding the "Sterile Cockpit" rules?

Back 21

1. All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff and landing.

2. All flight operations conducted below 10,000' MSL except level cruise.

Front 22

What is considered the "Critical Phase of Flight" with regards to the use of the Immediate Action Card etc.?

Back 22

Takeoff:
Begins at brake release and ends when the aircraft has either:
- Came to a complete stop following a rejected takeoff or taxied clear of the runway.
"or"
- The aircraft has reached acceleration height with the gear and flaps retracted and the airspeed at least Vse.

Landing:
Begins at gear extension and ends when the aircraft has come to a complete stop on the runway or taxied clear.

Front 23

Is it permissible to make PA's to passengers during the Sterile Cockpit period?

Back 23

Yes .. But only to keep them informed of delays etc.

Front 24

At what times may the flight attendants contact the cockpit during times of a "Sterile Cockpit"?

Back 24

Only for issues regarding the "Safety of Flight".

Front 25

What is considered the "Final Approach Fix" for:
Non-Precision Approach?
Precision Approach?

Back 25

Non-Precision Approach:
Maltese Cross

Precision Approach:
Intercepting the glideslope at glideslope intercept altitude.

Front 26

When is the use of the shoulder harness required?

Back 26

During Takeoff and Landings and all other operations when below 1,500' AGL.

Front 27

At what times are the pilots required to use oxygen?

Back 27

10,000 to 12,000' cabin altitudes:
Any duration over 30 minutes

Above 12,000' cabin altitude:
Continuously

Above FL250:
Anytime one pilot leaves his station the other must don and use his oxygen mask.

Front 28

What is the minimum altitude for commencing a turn following takeoff?

Back 28

400' AGL when the ceiling is reported at least 1,000' agl / 3 miles.

1,000' AGL when the ceiling is less than 1,000' agl / 3 miles.

Front 29

What is the maximum bank angle allowed during normal operations?

Back 29

30 degrees

Front 30

When "Flow Control" is in effect, at what time are the passengers to be boarded?

Back 30

If the flight is anticipated to be "Less than 30 minutes late":
Board at the "Normal Time"

If the flight is anticipated to be "More than 30 minutes late":
Board 30 minutes prior to "Wheels Up" departure time.

Front 31

If a "wheels up" time is given, what is the allowed window that the aircraft must be airborne from the assigned wheels up time?

Back 31

+/- 2 minutes

Front 32

If passengers have already been boarded prior to receiving an assigned "Wheels Up time", at what point should stations be notified for possible passenger deplaning?

Back 32

If the passengers would have to remain onboard the aircraft for at least 45 minutes.

Front 33

When is it advisable to call reported traffic in sight to ATC?

Back 33

Usually when "both" pilots have the traffic in sight, however it is the captain's discretion as to when traffic is called "in sight".

Front 34

Is it permissible for the captain and first officer to eat at the same time?

Back 34

No

Front 35

At what time is it "permissible" for flight crews to consume food and beverage products during flight?

Back 35

Food may not be consumed at any time during the "climb or descent" phase of flight!

Beverages may only be consumed when above 10,000 feet.

Front 36

At what times may a "cockpit observer" consume food and beverages during flight?

Back 36

At any time permissible unless restricted by the captain.

Front 37

At what times are publications "not related to flight" allowed to be read in the cockpit?

Back 37

Never ....

All publications not related to flight must be stowed within the pilot's personal equipment at all times while on the flight deck.

Front 38

At what times are the pilots required to be at their stations and for what reasons are they allowed to leave their stations?

Back 38

1. Must be at the aircraft 30 minutes prior to scheduled departure.

2. Must be in the cockpit 20 minutes prior to departure.

The pilots seat and rudder must be adjusted so that they can assume control of the aircraft if necessary at all time while in-flight.
If one pilot leaves his station while on the ground with an engine "running", the other pilot must remain at his station with the parking brake set!
A pilot may only leave his station while in-flight for "psychological needs" or in connection with the aircraft's operation.

Front 39

At selected airports, airborne control of lights may be accomplished by keying the mic how many times?

Low Intensity / Medium Intensity / High Intensity

Back 39

Low Intensity:
3 times within 5 seconds

Medium Intensity:
5 times within 5 seconds

High Intensity:
7 times within 5 seconds

Front 40

Once activated, how long will the runway and approach lights remain illuminated when pilot controlled?

Back 40

15 minutes from last "keying event".

Front 41

At what times are flights restricted from Takeoff and Landing operations from an unlighted field?

Back 41

From 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise unless the runway lights are operational.

Departure from a runway where only a portion of the lights are "inoperable" is permitted if adequate visibility exits to identify the runway surface.

Front 42

Following illumination of the aircraft by a ground based laser light what must the captain do?

Back 42

1. Report the laser event to ATC.

2. Complete a laser event questionnaire and fax it to flight operations on the same day.

3. Submit an HA-148 Form.

Front 43

What is the maximum allowance required left and right of course while flying a "RNAV-1" Sid or Star?

Back 43

1.0 NM either side of course.

Front 44

What equipment is required to be used while conducting a "RNAV-1" Sid or Star?

Back 44

1. "Requires" the use of the Flight Director.
2. At least one (1) operational GPS Sensor is "required".
3. LNAV path guidance may begin as low as 500' above airport elevation.
4. Requires an up to date database in FMS.
5. At least one FMS is required on the flying pilot's side.

Front 45

What difference is there in the requirements while conducting a "RNAV-1" Sid or Star if being radar vectored by ATC?

Back 45

The flight director is not required.

If the flight is then returned to the Sid or Star, the flight director must again be used.

Front 46

What does the company require of the pilots in regards to the automation policy?

Back 46

1. Pilots are to maintain proficiency in all levels of automation.
2. Pilots must apply the judgment to choose the appropriate level of automation for the given task.
3. Automation level should be selected so as to "share" the total workload.

Front 47

At what times is it recommended to use the HGS system to maintain proficiency?

Back 47

At all times during flight below 10,000' MSL, especially for takeoffs and landings.

Front 48

At what times is it "Not Recommended" to use Level One automation?

Back 48

1. During possible windshear encounters on takeoff.

2. During times of poor visibility.

Front 49

During what times is it permissible for the captain to clear or stow the HGS combiner?

Back 49

At times when the HGS does not provide maximum situational awareness.

When above 10,000 feet.

Front 50

What are the different levels of automation?

Back 50

Level One: Hand Flying / Raw Data

Level Two: Use of the flight director "with or without" the Autopilot

Level Three: Use of the FMS "with or without" the Autopilot

Front 51

When would it be appropriate to use "Level One Automation"?

Back 51

1. Collision Avoidance
2. Unexpected response from automation
3. Aircraft Upset
4. PRM "Breakout" maneuver.

Front 52

When would it be appropriate to use "Level Two Automation"?

Back 52

1. Takeoff
2. Initial Departure

Front 53

When would it be appropriate to use "Level Three Automation"?

Back 53

Normal Operations

Front 54

In the event of an "engine failure", which level of automation should be selected by the pilots?

Back 54

Level two or Level three

Front 55

What is required by Horizon Air to maintain proficiency in CAT III and FMS approaches?

Back 55

It is recommended that at least one (1) CAT III and one (1) FMS approach be conducted and logged in JAWS every 30 days.

At a minimum each approach must be logged every 90 days.

It is permissible to conduct the CAT III approach to any ILS equipped runway using CAT III procedures.

Front 56

While the CAT III approach is out-of-service at PDX, to what minimums may we utilize?

Back 56

1,400 RVR to runway 10R only!

Front 57

At what times is the use of the HGS required?

Back 57

1. All takeoffs below 500' RVR.
2. For all approaches below 1,800 RVR.
3. At all times when below 10,000 feet msl.

Front 58

Anytime that the "Charted" bearing is in discrepancy of ____ degrees or more "or" the distance is in discrepancy of _____ nm or more, the charted data will take precedence.

Back 58

3 degrees
0.3 NM

Front 59

If a navigation data integrity check indicates an excessive error, what must be accomplished?

Back 59

Charted data will take precedence.

All data errors must be reported to the "Director of Flight Operations".

Front 60

When selecting a "Direct To Waypoint", what should be remembered?

Back 60

Always select a Direct To waypoint within the arrival or en-route procedure if possible so that the waypoint will maintain its relation with the approach and arrival procedure.

Front 61

What is required to be accomplished anytime that you "change navigation receivers frequencies" in any nav receiver?

Back 61

State "#1 nav on Battle Ground" etc....

Front 62

What is required to operate into and out of an "Uncontrolled Airport"?

Back 62

1. An operational instrument approach procedure.
2. Approved weather source.
3. Traffic advisories must be available.
4. Facilities and services required to safely conduct IFR operations must be available and operational.

Front 63

At what times is it permissible to operate within 15 NM of all the mountain peaks in the Northwest?

Back 63

Only during Day VMC conditions.

Front 64

Is it permissible to conduct both Class I and Class II navigation?

Back 64

No ... Only Class I navigation is authorized!

Front 65

Describe Class I navigation.

Back 65

1. Navigation conducted entirely within the VOR's service volume (including published MEA gaps).

2. Radar Vectors within controlled airspace.

3. Off airway routing when within the service volumes of the VOR's provided:
a. Routing is within the service volumes of the VOR's.
b. Airborne and ground based navigation facilities are operational.

4. Area Navigation using "Dual FMS" provided:
a. The flight returns to the airway in the event that ATC radar fails.
b. The flight returns to the airway in the event that any one FMS fails.

5. Area Navigation using a "Single FMS" provided:
a. The aircraft remains in a positive radar control at all times.
b. The aircraft can safely return to the airway in the event that the single FMS fails.

Front 66

At what times is a RAIM predication required to be shown in the weather packet?

Back 66

Anytime that the flight is dispatched under the following conditions:

1. Using "Q-Routes".
2. Based on a GPS approach at destination or alternate.

Front 67

What operations may be conducted at the following airports?

Regular/Provisional/Alternate/Re-Fueling Airport

Back 67

REGULAR AIRPORT:
Passengers may be picked up and discharged.

PROVISIONAL AIRPORT:
Passengers may be picked up and discharged. Used when the regular airport is unavailable.

ALTERNATE AIRPORT:
Passengers may be discharged but not picked up.

REFUELING AIRPORT:
Refueling operations Only!

Note: The captain may use "any airport" while exercising his emergency authority.

Front 68

In order to operate into or out of a "Special Airport", what qualifications must be met?

Back 68

1. Either the captain or first officer must have made a "Takeoff and Landing" at that airport within the previous 12 calendar months.

"OR"

2. The crew may utilize the pictorial chart in Jeppessen manual.

Front 69

Special airport qualifications are "not required" if:

Back 69

The ceiling is at least 1,000' above the lowest MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude and the visibility is at least 3 miles.

Front 70

What airports are listed as "Special Airports" in Horizon's system?

Back 70

1.San Francisco, CA
2. Ontario, CA
3. Burbank, CA
4. Palm Springs, CA
5. San Diego, CA
6. Mammoth Lakes, CA
7. Missoula, MT
8. Klamath Falls, OR
9. Reno, NV
10. Sun Valley, ID
11. Loreto, Mexico

Front 71

How does the captain certify that the Special Airport requirements are met when operating at a "Special Airport"?

Back 71

By his signature on the dispatch release.

Front 72

How is the maximum "Daily" flight time limitation determined?

Back 72

Daily flight time limits are based on the flight's "report time":

Midnight to 4:59 AM: 8 hours
5:00 AM to 7:59 PM: 9 hours
8:00 PM to 11:59 PM: 8 hours

Note: These are "Hard Times" and cannot be extended! All report times are based on the pilot's domicile time!

Every 28 days (672 Hours):
100 hours

YEARLY (365 Days):
1,000 hours

Note:
If unforeseen circumstances arise after the flight departs, a crew member may exceed the flight time limits to the extent necessary to land the airplane at the next destination airport or alternate.
Submit a Captain Irregularity Report!

Front 73

What is the maximum "cumulative" Flight Duty Period hours allowed?

Back 73

7 Day Period (168 Hours): 60 FDP Hours

28 Day Period (672 Hours): 190 FDP Hours

Note:
These are Hard limits and may not be exceeded!

Front 74

What are the daily "Flight Duty Period" limitations based on?

Back 74

The maximum "Flight Duty Period" is based on:

"Scheduled" duty start time in "Base Time"
"and"
The number of flight segments scheduled to fly.

Note:
- If a flight diverts to an alternate, including an air turnback, and subsequently continues to its original destination, it is considered a single flight!
- The daily flight duty Period may be extended up to 2 hours if the Captain and company agree! Any extension of more than 30 minutes may only occur once prior to receiving a 30 hour rest period!
- Consult the "Maximum Flight Duty Limitations" chart in the Flight Operations Manual.

Front 75

What are the minimum "Rest Required" in any 7 day period (168 hours)?

Back 75

30 consecutive hours look back from the start of the FDP.

Front 76

What is the minimum "Rest Required" between Flight Duty Periods (overnights)?

Back 76

10 hours

Pilot's must have at least 8 hours of uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity.
- If a fire alarm goes off in the middle of the night, then this may have been disrupted!
- The company may initiate one (1) phone call. This does not disrupt the rest period! (One Phone Call Rule)

Front 77

If a "Gate Turn-back" is required due to a mechanical difficulty, does this count toward the total flight time with regards to maximum limits?

Back 77

Yes

Front 78

At what times do "Domestic Rules" apply?

Back 78

For all flights conducted solely within the United States

"OR"

For flights conducted between the United States and another country.

Front 79

At what times do "Flag Operation" rules apply?

Back 79

For all flights conducted "entirely outside" of the United States.

Front 80

At what time does your duty expire when:

Operating within the United States?
Operating outside of the United States?

Back 80

Within the United States:

Following a "Flight leg": 15 minutes after block in
Following a "Deadhead leg": 5 minutes after block in

Outside of the United States: 30 minutes after block in

Front 81

There must be at least one (1) ___ hour period free from duty in any consecutive 7 day period.

Back 81

30 hour

Front 82

Does Part 91 flights have to comply with the minimum rest requirements section of the FAR's?

Back 82

Yes

Front 83

Is there ever a time when a pilot "may" be on duty on the seventh consecutive day?

Back 83

Yes ...
If a flight is normally scheduled to terminate on the sixth day but is delayed outside of the company's control, the crewmember may fly into the seventh day.
You may "deadhead or attend ground school" during the 7th day, however you must have 24 hours off before acting as a crewmember again!

Front 84

How many carry-on bags are allowed per passenger?

Back 84

Two (2)

1 + 1 Program :
(1) "Carryon" and (1) "Personal Item" (laptop, purse, briefcase).

Excess baggage will be tagged with an "orange" tag and placed in cargo for:
Flight Crews
Gold Passengers
First Class Passengers

NOTE: These bags will be delivered to you plane side.

All other excess passenger baggage will be tagged with a "White" tag and be delivered to the baggage claim area. A baggage fee may be charged!

Federal Air Marshall's are allowed three (3) carry-on bags.

Front 85

What items are "Excluded" from the passenger's personal items provision?

Back 85

1. Umbrellas
2. Coats
3. Hats
4. Pillows
5. Reading Material
6. Child Safety Seats
7. Food for immediate consumption

Front 86

Are Federal Air Marshalls "exempt" from the carry-on bag limits?

Back 86

Yes

Front 87

Who is responsible for the stowage of all carry-on baggage aboard the aircraft?

Back 87

Flight Attendant "A"

Front 88

What restrictions apply to the carriage of cargo in the passenger compartment?

Back 88

1. It is only allowed to be carried in seat 1A.
2. It must be secured by a safety belt or other tie down to eliminate the possibility of shifting.
3. It must be packaged or covered in a means to avoid injury to passengers.
4. It may not exceed the maximum floor loading limit.
5. It must not restrict access to any emergency exit.
6. It must not obscure any "Fasten Seatbelt", "No Smoking" or "Exit" sign.
7. Cargo may not be strapped into a seat between a passenger and the isle.

Front 89

Military personnel may carry their weapons on-board provided:

Back 89

1. Advanced arrangements have been made.
2. All passengers are military personnel.
3. The officer in charge conducts an "Inspection of Arms" before boarding the aircraft.
4. Weapons bolts are locked in the "open" position.

Front 90

May a passenger consume alcohol which he has brought on-board the aircraft?

Back 90

No

Passengers may only consume alcohol that has been served to them by the flight attendants.

Front 91

Alcoholic beverages may not be served to:

Back 91

1. Intoxicated passengers.
2. Prisoners
3. Prisoner escorts.
4. Armed Individuals.

Front 92

Who may make the decision to "remove" a passenger?

Back 92

On the ground:
Either the captain or the customer service agent.

If both flight attendants agree that a passenger should be removed because of intoxication then the captain is required to have that passenger removed.

If the flight attendants disagree on the issue then the captain has the final decision!

In-flight:
Only the captain can make the decision to make an unscheduled stop for passenger removal.

Front 93

If a passenger is visibly intoxicated while the aircraft is in-flight and is being disruptive, what action must the captain take?

Back 93

The captain must put into effect "Level One Lock Down" procedures.

The captain will make the decision whether to make an unscheduled stop for passenger removal.

Front 94

What restrictions apply to the flight crews assistance in helping remove a passenger?

Back 94

1. Flight crew members will not actively participate in the removal of a passenger unless it cannot be avoided.

2. The flight crew will only assist law enforcement personnel "if requested".

Front 95

Is it permissible for the flight crew to sign a criminal complaint against a passenger?

Back 95

Only following approval of Horizon Air, unless the situation is urgent.

Any situation where the flight crew signs a criminal complaint, a written report must be sent to Horizon's legal counsel.

Front 96

Following any incident which involves the removal of a passenger, what is required to be accomplished by the captain?

Back 96

The captain must submit an HA 148 (Irregularity Report) to the company.

Front 97

What is the function of a CRO?

Back 97

They are used to handle passenger complaints regarding "Differently Abled Individuals".

Front 98

At what times is it permissible for passengers to use their cellular phones?

Back 98

Departure: Prior to closing the Main Cabin Door.

Arrival: Once clear of the active runway.

At any time that the captain authorizes their use during departure ground delays.
Note:
The aircraft must be parked and cell phones must be re-stowed prior to aircraft movement.

Front 99

At what times is the passenger's use of PED's permitted?

Back 99

In all phases of flight except:

1. During CAT II or CAT III approach procedures.
- Notify the flight attendants to ensure all PED's are selected to "OFF" in the cabin. The flight attendants will make a passenger announcement.

2. During taxi, takeoff, approach and landing in "international airspace".

3. Suspected interference with aircraft systems.

Front 100

If the pilots suspect interference from a PED's use what must they do?

Back 100

Inform all passengers to cease operation of cell phones.

If the interference still exists have all the passengers check their carry-on baggage for active PEDs.

Report all cell phone interference with a HA 148 (Irregularity Report).

Front 101

What is the maximum number of passengers allowed on board?

Back 101

82

This is based on the fact that there are only 76 seats plus 6 infant life vests available.

Front 102

What is the maximum "infants" allowed on-board?

Back 102

Unlimited ..... except that the total passenger count of 82 cannot be exceeded!

There are no drop down masks!

Front 103

All lap children must be seated where?

Back 103

No limitation

There are no drop down masks!

Front 104

How many "Portable oxygen bottles" are located in the cabin of the aircraft?

Back 104

Six (6)

Three (3) are used by the passengers in the event of an emergency depressurization.
One (1) may be used by the passengers for a sudden illness.
Two (2) are reserved for the flight attendants use during a rapid depressurization.

Front 105

What requirements must be met for a passenger to bring on-board a POC if it is intended for use?

Back 105

1. The POC model must be approved for aviation use by the FAA.

2. Flight Attendant "A" must notify the captain that a passenger has brought on-board a POC as well as the passengers medical requirements.

- This alerts the pilots to the possible need for supplemental oxygen in the event the POC fails while enroute.
- No paper work is required!

Front 106

Does the flight crew require any notification if a passenger has a POB which is stored in the cargo compartment?

Back 106

No

Front 107

How much oxygen does the cabin portable bottles provide?

Back 107

30 minutes

Front 108

At what time are the passengers boarded if a ground delay due to flow control etc is delaying the flight?

Back 108

Flight delay < 30 minutes = Normal time

Flight delay > 30 minutes = 30 minutes prior to "wheels up time".

Front 109

At what times must the passengers be provided "water and snacks" during a prolonged ground delay?

Back 109

Following a ground delay of 2 hours or more!

Front 110

Is it required by the DOT to provide the passengers with a "working lavatory"?

Back 110

Yes ... while on the tarmac unless the lavatory is inoperative and the passengers are notified prior to boarding.

Front 111

What is the maximum allowed time that the passengers can be held on the aircraft following a prolonged ground delay?

Back 111

3 hours maximum prior to deplaning unless ATC or security orders the passengers to remain onboard.

Front 112

At what point is it Horizon's policy to deplane passengers following a prolonged ground delay?

Back 112

After 2 hours unless departure is planned within 30 minutes.

Front 113

At what intervals should the flight crew make "informational PA's" to the passengers during prolonged ground delays?

Back 113

At 15 to 30 minute intervals.

Front 114

What reports are required to be given to ATC while "in radar contact"?

Back 114

1. Leaving an altitude
2. Entering a hold (time and altitude)
3. Leaving a hold
4. Unforecast weather
5. Change in TAS of 10 kts or 5% whichever is greater.
6. Missed Approach
7. Unable to climb at least 500 fpm.
8. Loss of navigational capability
9. Information pertinent to safety of flight.
10. Altitude change when operating VFR Over-The-Top.

Front 115

What is required to be reported to ATC while "not in radar contact"?

Back 115

1. FAF inbound.
2. Compulsory Reporting points.
3. 3 minute error to fix.

Front 116

What information is required to be given to stations, dispatch or maintenance control during your initial call up while in-flight?

Back 116

1. Flight Number
2. Aircraft Number
3. Aircraft's position

NOTE:
This is regulatory for communication logging requirements.

Front 117

What information is required to be given to operations when calling "In-Range"?

Back 117

1. ETA
2. Fuel at shutdown
3. Positive or negative fueling
4. "Hold" (if required)
5. MEL items which may require non-routine procedures while on the ground.

Front 118

At what times must dispatch be notified?

Back 118

1. Return to gate
2. Return to field
3. Takeoff abort (regardless of speed)
4. Diversion to a field not listed on the flight release.
5. Diversion to an alternate.
6. Flight plan change "Prior to Takeoff".
7. MEL's either added or removed from the aircraft or not listed on release.
8. Prior to operating under the "YES*" provision of the MEL.
9. Any event which may be news worthy or draw public attention.

Front 119

When operating at uncontrolled airports you should begin reporting your position at what distance from the airport?

Back 119

10 NM from airport

Front 120

After what time should operations be notified following the aircraft's pushback from the gate if it has not yet left the ground?

Back 120

After 15 minutes.

Front 121

At what intervals should the aircraft's status be updated with operations if still on the ground following pushback?

Back 121

At 15 minute intervals.

Front 122

For "Ground Delays", at what interval should the passengers be updated via the PA system?

Back 122

At 15 minute intervals.

Front 123

With regards to turning "OFF" the seatbelt sign, when are the pilots "required" to make an announcement?

Back 123

Only following selecting the seatbelt sign "OFF" following takeoff for the first time.
For subsequent seatbelt sign events the crew should make an announcement if work load permits.

Front 124

Prior to descent, what PA is the pilots required to make?

Back 124

Give the passengers a 10 to 15 minute warning prior to selecting the seat belt sign back to "ON".

Front 125

Operations must be contacted while the flight is still at least ______ minutes out.

Back 125

10 Minutes

20 minutes for LAX only!

Front 126

If the original ETA called into operations is in error of more than ____ minutes, update the ETA at ______ minute intervals.

Back 126

10 minutes

10 Minute

Front 127

What are the three (3) types of turns requested through operations?

Back 127

1. Normal Turn
2. Quick Turn
3. Hold (maintenance)

Front 128

Who is responsible for the planning and dispatch of a flight?

Back 128

The captain and dispatcher jointly.

Front 129

Who may declare an emergency for a flight?

Back 129

Either the captain or dispatcher.

Front 130

Are "alternate" airports subject to "WET Runway" performance adjustments?

Back 130

No

Front 131

Horizon may release flights under IFR to a destination airport when the weather reports indicate it may be below authorized landing minimums with the following restrictions:

Back 131

1. At least two alternates must be listed on the flight release
2. The destination airport must have at least 1/2 the required visibility
3. The "first" alternate must have at least 1/2 the required visibility and 1/2 the ceiling required for the approach.
4. The second alternate must have normal alternate minimums.

- The flight must have sufficient fuel to fly to the destination airport, and then to the most distant alternate, plus 45 minute reserve.

Front 132

At what times are pilots required to report unusual weather to dispatch?

Back 132

Anytime that the weather can be considered hazardous to safety of flight.

Front 133

Flights will not be released into the following weather conditions:

Back 133

1. Severe Icing
2. Severe or Extreme Turbulence

Front 134

The minimum runway width for "any operation" is ________.

Back 134

100 feet

Front 135

VISOPS calculates "Reserve Fuel" based on the aircraft's fuel flow when?

Back 135

At the top of descent at the aircraft's planned weight and altitude.

Front 136

What is the standard "Contingency Fuel"?

Back 136

200 lbs

Front 137

What is "Contingency fuel" added for?

Back 137

Increased fuel burn due to actual takeoff weight being higher than "Planned Takeoff Weight".

Front 138

The dispatcher may remove the standard "Contingency Fuel" for what reasons?

Back 138

1. The flight is planned at "Max Zero Fuel Weight".

2. The Actual Zero Fuel Weight is "less than or equal to" Planned Zero Fuel Weight.

Front 139

"Reserve Fuel" calculations by VISOPS are based on what?

Back 139

50 minutes at normal cruise consumption to provide for the increased fuel burn when operating above the restricted NL range, if required.

Front 140

What is the minimum fuel that a flight may:
"Start Engines" with?
"Takeoff" with?

Back 140

Start Engines with:
Minimum Total

Takeoff with:
Minimum Total minus Taxi Fuel (200 lbs)

Front 141

What is the standard "Taxi Fuel" planned for the Q-400 aircraft?

Back 141

200 lbs

Front 142

What does "Optimum Fuel" protect when listed on the dispatch release?

Back 142

It will protect the "maximum payload" at all times!

Front 143

What weight for passengers does VISOPS use when calculating tanker fuel possibilities?

Back 143

230 lbs per passenger which includes carry-ons, baggage and other cargo (comat).

Front 144

When amending the flight release is a "new" dispatch release number required?

Back 144

No

Front 145

Icing penalties represent performance for up to _____ inches of ice accumulation on the aircraft's "unprotected" surfaces.

Back 145

3 inches

Front 146

At what times are icing penalties "not applied"?

Back 146

When the OAT at the MEA or MOCA is above freezing or it is too cold for ice to form.

Front 147

What should be accomplished if the "Actual Takeoff Weight" is greater than the "Planned Takeoff Weight"?

Back 147

Determine the additional fuel required by using the burn increase per 1,000 ZFW on the flight plan page of release.

- If an alternate is required, then "double" the amount of additional fuel required.
- If the additional fuel exceeds the listed "Contingency Fuel" an amended flight release is required.

Front 148

When is the "Maximum Landing Weight" listed on the flight plan page valid?

Back 148

Anytime that the actual temperature at the destination airport is "at or colder" than the planned temperature.

Front 149

At what time would you be required to obtain a new "Maximum Landing Weight" amendment from dispatch?

Back 149

Anytime that the latest METAR shows a higher (warmer) Max temperature for the destination airport.

Front 150

At what times is a new "Dispatch Release" required?

Back 150

1. If the flight returns to the field of departure.
2. If a flight returns to the gate following "Block Out".
3. If the flight remains on the ground for over 60 minutes at intermediate stops.

- A through flight is not released for multiple legs if the ground time is expected to exceed 45 minutes!
- A release has "no expiration" for the first leg of release!

Front 151

How long in advance are dispatch releases generated by the dispatcher and available for retrieval?

Back 151

2 hours

Front 152

If the flight plan is not available in the FMS database how is it indicated on the dispatch release?

Back 152

In the remarks section of the dispatch release the following is added: "RMKS FLT PLN NOT IN DATABASE"

Front 153

If a diversion is required to a listed alternate airport, where can the filed routing be found?

Back 153

On the last page of the "Flight Plan Summary" the ATC filing route is indicated below the Terrain Clearance / Mountain Driftdown section.

Front 154

At what times is the captain required to make all takeoffs and landings?

Back 154

1. Operations at "Special Airports".
2. Operations on "Contaminated Runways".
3. Braking action is "Less than Good".
4. Crosswind exceeds 15 kts.
5. Reported windshear.
6. Visibility is less than 4000 RVR / 3/4 miles.
7. Conditions which the captain deems appropriate.

Front 155

What "Takeoff Minimums" apply when departing from an airport "not listed" in the ops specs?

Back 155

1. Used the "Published" Takeoff minimums if available.

2. If no published takeoff minimums are available, then use:
800 / 2
900 / 1 1/2
1,000 / 1

Front 156

When is a "Takeoff Alternate" required?

Back 156

Anytime that the "departure" airport weather is below published landing minimums.

Front 157

Any listed "Takeoff Alternate" must meet the following restrictions to be valid:

Back 157

Within 60 minutes, at normal cruise, most direct route, in still air with one (1) engine inoperative.

Front 158

When planning or changing a route either by dispatch or the pilots, what restriction must always apply?

Back 158

The flight must remain within 60 minutes of a suitable airport at all times (Cargo Fire Bottle Restriction).

Based on:
1. Single engine
2. Still Air
3. Normal single engine cruise speed.

Front 159

A "Destination" alternate is "not required" when?

Back 159

1. From 1 hour before to 1 hour after the flights ETA the weather at the destination airport is reported as 2,000 / 3 miles.

2. An operational limitation will not be exceeded.

3. The destination has an instrument approach procedure.

4. The flight is not predicated on an FMS based approach only unless the aircraft is WASS equipped.

ALASKA ONLY:

5. The destination airport must have at least two operational runways of at least 5,000 feet in length.

NOTE:
Any airports that "do not" have a published instrument approach procedure requires an alternate!
Sun Valley requires an alternate anytime the weather is reported below 5,000 / 6 miles!

For aircraft equipped with the "WASS system" the approach "may be" predicated on a FMS based approach only!

Front 160

What is the weather required to be reported at for the listed alternate airport?

Back 160

At the flights ETA to the alternate the weather must be forecast at least:

With 1 straight in or circling approach:
- Add 400 / 1 mile to the published CAT I minimum.

With 2 straight in approaches:
- Add 200 / 1/2 mile to the higher of each minimum.

Published CAT II or CAT III with 2 straight in approaches:
- CAT II: Ceiling of 300 / 3/4 mile (4,000 RVR)
- CAT III: Ceiling 200 / 1/2 mile (1,800 RVR)

NOTE:
CAT II and CAT III alternate minimums are predicated on "Engine Inoperative CAT III Authorization".
NOT AUTHORIZED IN CANADA!

Front 161

Where do we retrieve all Off-Line alternate airport charts approach plates from?

Back 161

The "Brick"

Front 162

How can you tell what off-line airport charts the "Brick" contains?

Back 162

The brick's charts are listed on the back page of the brick, as well as alternate filing requirements.

Front 163

On the front of the "Brick" some listed airports are "shaded". Why are they shaded?

Back 163

They are airports not listed in the FOM.

They are to be used for "Emergency's Only"!

Front 164

What should be accomplished if the Brick's shrink wrap has been removed or the Brick has been used?

Back 164

1. Return charts back to the brick in alphabetical order.
2. Verify that the required charts for your flight are within the brick.
3. Notify "Tech Pubs" that the brick has been used.
4. Write "Tech Pubs Advised" on the outside of the brick.

Front 165

Does a missing brick require a maintenance log entry?

Back 165

No

Front 166

When retrieving an aircraft from the hangar, is it required for the entire crew to go?

Back 166

YES

The captain may call crew scheduling and request the absence of the flight attendants if they are not available.

Front 167

When retrieving an aircraft from the hanger it is to be repositioned at the gate at least _____ minutes prior to scheduled departure.

Back 167

30 minutes

Front 168

Deadheading pilots and Flight Attendants are required to be at the gate for check-in by when?

Back 168

20 minutes prior to deadhead flights departure.

If a late arrival is anticipated .. notify operations and your seat will be held until at least 10 minutes prior to scheduled departure time.

Front 169

What "Recent Experience" requirements are the pilots required to maintain?

Back 169

3 Takeoffs and 3 landings in Aircraft Type within the preceding 90 days.

Front 170

At what time is the pilots required to notify the chief pilots office if his recent experience requirements have not been met?

Back 170

Anytime that 60 days have elapsed without meeting the requirement.

Front 171

Captains may only be assigned to fly in the "Right Seat" if they have:

Back 171

1. Completed "Right Seat Task Qualification" within the preceding 12 months.

"or"

2. Been assigned as a First Officer in the specific aircraft type in the preceding 12 months.

Front 172

What are the required "Captain Duties"?

Back 172

1. Review MEL items and other pertinent data with the First Officer.
2. Ensure that the flight is fueled and planned properly.
3. Give the Flight Attendants a Pre-Departure Briefing that includes:
a. Pertinent MEL's related to the cabin.
b. Forecast Turbulence
c. Projected passenger loads
d. Aircraft assigned
e. Related Weather to flight

Front 173

When can the captain's "switch seats" in the aircraft?

Back 173

Only with mutual consent.

The captain listed on the flight release will remain "PIC".

Front 174

When a "Check Airman" is conducting a line check, who is ultimately responsible for the aircraft?

Back 174

The check airman is responsible and may take command at any time!

Front 175

At what times are "Both" flight attendants required to be on-board the aircraft?

Back 175

During passenger boarding and de-planning!

Front 176

Is it permissible for one or both flight attendants to leave the aircraft with passengers on-board?

Back 176

Yes ... during stop-overs provided:

1. The aircraft engines are shut down.
2. One (1) floor level exit remains "OPEN".
3. The captain or first officer may substitute for a flight attendant, however he must be identified to the passengers.
4. Crew members must space themselves throughout the cabin to assist in the event of an "Emergency Evacuation".

Note:
Only one crewmember is required to be onboard during stop-overs. This can be either a flight attendant or pilot!

Front 177

At stations where the "Pre-Fuel Program" is in effect, station operations will request what fuel quantity from the fueler?

Back 177

Optimum fuel plus 100 lbs to allow for 30 minutes of APU usage.

Front 178

Aircraft Re-Fueling requires what?

Back 178

1. A fire extinguisher is within 50 feet.
2. Radars are "OFF" within 50 feet of aircraft.
3. No thunderstorms are present within 5 nm.
4. Aircraft and truck are "grounded".
5. Aircraft's electrical system remains in a steady state.
6. No open flames in the re-fueling area.
7. No oxygen servicing is allowed during re-fueling operations.

Front 179

Is it permissible to "Over Wing" re-fuel the "left wing" while passengers are boarding or deplaning?

Back 179

No

Only over wing refueling is allowed for the right wing during passenger boarding/deplaning.

Over wing fueling of the left wing can be accomplished with passengers on-board but not during boarding or de-planning.

Front 180

What restrictions apply to re-fueling with passengers on-board the aircraft?

Back 180

1. All normal exits must remain "OPEN".
- The area outside one secondary exit must remain clear.
2. "No Smoking" signs must be illuminated.
3. The fuel truck and hose cannot impede any exit.
4. Flight Attendant "A" must be notified.

NOTE:
During the boarding or de-planning process only "center point" fueling is allowed. You may "over-wing" fuel the right wing but never the left wing while passengers are boarding or de-planning!

Front 181

What restrictions apply to re-fueling with one engine running?

Back 181

Not Allowed on the Q-400!

Front 182

When is it required for the flight crew to be "at the aircraft"?

Back 182

30 minutes prior to departure.

Front 183

When is it required for the pilots to be in the cockpit?

Back 183

20 minutes prior to departure.

Front 184

What equipment are the pilots required to carry on their possession or in their flight bag?

Back 184

1. Current FAA Medical Certificate
2. Airman Certificate
3. Restricted Radio/Telephone Operators Permit
4. Passport
5. Company ID (at beginning of trip)
6. Flashlight (2 "D" size batteries or equivalent)
7. Jeppesen Manuals
8. Manual Dispatch Release Forms
9. Headset with boom mic
10. Company issued I-Pad

Front 185

What restrictions are there regarding the company issued I-Pad?

Back 185

1. The I-Pad must have a minimum charge of 50% prior to beginning a flight segment.
2. Must be selected to "Airplane Mode" prior to engine start.
3. Must be stowed during times of moderate or greater turbulence.
4. Both pilots may not use the I-Pad at the same time unless it is operationally necessary.

Front 186

Is it permissible to depart with one or both I-Pads missing or inoperative?

Back 186

Yes ... with Duty Officer approval.

You must also print out the documents from the FDDS site pertaining to one I-Pad Operations and carry with you!

Front 187

Per the FAA requirements the VORs must be checked how often for accuracy?

Back 187

Every 30 days.

Front 188

Per Horizon Air how often are the VOR's required to be checked?

Back 188

Daily ... prior to the first flight of the day, or the first available opportunity.

Front 189

What is the allowable tolerance for the VOR Checks?
VOT / DUAL / AIRBORNE

Back 189

VOT: +/- 4 degrees

DUAL: +/- 4 degrees

AIRBORNE: NOT AUTHORIZED!

Front 190

Are you required to recite the entire "Takeoff Briefing"?

Back 190

No

You may simply state "Standard Briefing" unless there are changes to the Standard Briefing.

Front 191

At what time is the "Departure Briefing" normally accomplished?

Back 191

Following the Takeoff Briefing!

Front 192

The "Departure Briefing" must include what?

Back 192

1. Planned runway of departure.
2. Routing or SID.
3. Initial cleared altitude.
4. Nav source to be used (Magenta or Blue needles).
5. Ice protection to be used.
6. Turn Procedure.

Front 193

Are jump seat rider credentials required to be checked?

Back 193

Only if they are actually going to occupy the jump seat in the cockpit.

Front 194

For "International" flights, who may occupy the flight deck jumpseat?

Back 194

For international flights:
The only personnel allowed to ride in the jump seat for international flights are:
1. Federal Officials
2. Deadheading crew members, maintenance personnel and Dispatchers conducting operational familiarization which are considered "Operationally Necessary" and booked into the seat by crew scheduling.
3. Horizon pilots and dispatchers for non-rev travel.

Note: Pilots from other airlines are not allowed jump-seat access for international flights.

Front 195

The only individuals allowed to actually occupy the jump seat in the cockpit are who?

Back 195

1. Horizon Air Pilots
2. "Federal" ATC Controllers
3. ATC Evaluators
4. FAA Inspector
5. NTSB Inspector
6. DOD Inspectors
7. Secret Service Agents
8. Manufactures Technical Representatives
9. Those specifically authorized by the "Director of Flight Operations".

- The following are allowed to ride in the jump seat "only if" there are no seats available in the cabin!
a. Alaska Pilots
b. Those that participate in the CASS Program.

Front 196

Who may occupy one of the jump seats in the "cabin"?

Back 196

Guidance for cabin jump-seat occupation resides in the Flight Attendant Manual.

Front 197

What does "JACS" stand for in relation to jump seat access?

Back 197

Jumpseat Access Control System

Front 198

What does "CASS" stand for with regards to jump seat authorization?

Back 198

Cockpit Access Security System

Front 199

Is it permissible for an "Alaska Air" mechanic to occupy the jump seat on the flight deck?

Back 199

No ... they must take a seat in the cabin.

Front 200

During what dates do "Summer Passenger Weights" apply?

Back 200

May 1st through October 31st

Front 201

During what months do passenger "Winter Weights" apply?

Back 201

November 1st through April 30th

Front 202

What is the average passenger weights used when calculating the weight and balance for "Summer Weights"?
Adult: ? / Children: ?

Back 202

Adult: 196 lbs
Children: 88 lbs

Front 203

What is the average passenger weights used when calculating the weight and balance for "Winter Weights"?
Adult: ? / Children: ?

Back 203

Adult: 201 lbs
Children: 93 lbs

Front 204

Adult average passenger weights "includes" how much carry-on baggage weight?

Back 204

22 lbs

Front 205

For the purpose of weight and balance calculations "children" weights are used for children between the ages of ____ and _____.

Back 205

2 and 12 years of age

Front 206

For the purpose of weight and balance calculations "Infants" are considered to be children under the age of _______.

Back 206

2 years old

Front 207

At what times are "Actual passenger weights" used when completing the aircraft's weight and balance?

Back 207

1. Military Groups
2. Athletic Squads
3. Any situation where standard weights have not been computed.

NOTE:
Non standard passenger weights include the weight of all carryon items including gear!

Front 208

If a group of individuals are traveling such as an athletic squad etc. that have no standard passenger weight established, who calculates their non-standard weight?

Back 208

Station Personnel

Front 209

What is the "Standard Weights" for:

Pilots and cockpit jump seats: ?
Flight Attendants and cabin jump seats: ?

Back 209

Pilots and Cockpit Jump seat:
190 lbs

Flight Attendants and Cabin Jump seat:
170 lbs

Front 210

Is the crew's overnight bags weight included in the aircraft's Basic Operating Weight?

Back 210

Yes

NOTE:
If conducting Flight Attendant "IOE" and the extra crew bags are placed in cargo they are counted as "regular bags" (30 lbs).

Front 211

At what point are excess "crew bags" weights added to the forward baggage compartment?

Back 211

Anything over 4 crew bags must be counted as either a carry-on bag, normal bag or heavy bag as appropriate.

Front 212

What is the standard weights for the following types of bags?
Carry-out / Normal / Gate Checked / Heavy Bags

Back 212

Carry-out Bags:
22 lbs (placed in cargo)

Normal Bags:
30 lbs (34 lbs for YVR)

Gate Checked Bags:
30 lbs

Heavy Bags:
60 lbs

Front 213

A "Normal Bag" is considered any bag that weighs _______.

Back 213

50 lbs or less

Front 214

A "Heavy Bag" is considered any bag which weighs _______.

Back 214

Over 50 lbs to 100 lbs.

Front 215

What is the maximum allowed weight for a checked bag that Horizon will carry?

Back 215

100 lbs

Front 216

How much weight is added to the forward cargo compartment for commisary items?

Back 216

42 lbs

This weight is automatically included in the aircraft's BOW!

Front 217

What items are stored in the "Forward Baggage Compartment" and included in the aircraft's Basic Operating Weight?

Back 217

Four Crew Bags: 120 lbs
Sweeper: 3 lbs
Bottled Water: 42 lbs

Front 218

What may the captain or load coordinator do if he suspects that the average baggage weight is in error?

Back 218

If it is believed that the total cargo weight is in error by more than 100 lbs he may estimate the additional weight penalty.

Enter the weight penalty on the cargo manifest as cargo code "O".

The captain must document the discrepancy and submit an HA 148 form!

Front 219

What procedure should be followed if a weight discrepancy or error is discovered in the aircraft's weight and balance and "prior to takeoff"?

Back 219

The captain must return to the gate if an "aircraft loading change" is required.

A new load manifest must be generated!

If the aircraft is still at the gate ... make the necessary changes.

Front 220

What procedure should be followed if the captain discovers an error in the aircraft's weight and balance while the aircraft is airborne?

Back 220

1. Burn off fuel as necessary so as to land the aircraft below maximum landing weight.
2. The flight may continue to the destination if the aircraft's flight characteristics are satisfactory.
3. The captain must contact the duty officer upon landing at the destination.
4. The captain must submit a HA-148 Form.

Front 221

What is the procedure for passenger deplaning or boarding with one engine running?

Back 221

- The #1 engine must be shutdown.
- The aircraft must be parked with the #2 engine "away" from the terminal/gate.
- Last minute passengers may be boarded provided they are escorted to the aircraft by a passenger service agent.

Front 222

When may a flight push back and depart from the gate early?

Back 222

1. A flight may push back up to 10 minutes early if:
- Stations has cleared the flight.

2. A flight may push back early when anticipated weather delays or other aircraft problems would cause the flight to block out more than 10 minutes late.
- It is the sole decision of the captain!
- The captain must submit an HA 148 Form "only if requested".

NOTE:
Early departures greater than 10 minutes require dispatch approval!

Front 223

At what times may the station hold a flight beyond departure time?

Back 223

The customer service manager may elect to hold the departure for up to 10 minutes beyond departure time for late or connecting passengers "without" dispatch approval.

A delay in excess of 10 minutes requires dispatch approval!

Front 224

At what times are all pushback and ramp operations suspended?

Back 224

Anytime that lighting is observed within 3 nm of the airport!

Front 225

If the interphone is inoperative during pushback, what signal is used to indicate to the ramp that pushback may commence?

Back 225

Flash the "TAXI" light.

Front 226

With an inoperative interphone how do you indicate the direction to position the tail of the aircraft?

Back 226

Touch your nose and point in the direction that "the tail is to be pushed".

Front 227

The use of headsets is mandatory for all pushback operations unless:

Back 227

1. The aircraft's interphone system is inoperative.

2. Thunderstorm activity is present in the area.

NOTE:
An additional ground agent is required to relay signals from the tug operator.

Front 228

Hand signals may only be used during pushback operations at what times?

Back 228

1. Adequate visibility exists.
2. An additional ramp agent is available to relay signals to the tug operator.

Front 229

What is the "Emergency Signal" to be used by the flight crew during pushback operations to command an "Emergency Stop"?

Back 229

Rapidly flash the "TAXI" light.

Front 230

What is the minimum taxi clearance required for operations?

Back 230

For any operation = 10 feet

With wing walkers = 5 feet

NOTE:
We never taxi closer than 5 feet, even with wing walkers!

Front 231

Is it permissible to taxi over parking cones?

Back 231

YES ... they are not considered obstructions.

Front 232

What signal is used to release the marshaller following pushback operations?

Back 232

Flash the "TAXI" light.

Front 233

At what time should the marshaller be released following pushback?

Back 233

Not until "BOTH" engines are running and stabilized!

Marshaller must act as a "Fire Guard" role during engine startup.

Front 234

At what times are "Power Backs" authorized?

Back 234

NEVER

Front 235

Once the flight has left the gate it may only be recalled under what circumstances?

Back 235

1. Duty Officer requests it.
2. Emergency exists.
3. Safety of Flight (aircraft damage etc)
4. The captain and dispatcher agree that on-time performance of later flights will not be affected.

Front 236

Is it required to call in your times to operations following a return to gate?

Back 236

Not if the flight is anticipated to re-depart and it is required for a crewmember to remain onboard for operational reasons.

Front 237

At what times is it permissible for single pilot taxi operations?

Back 237

Never!

Front 238

What is the "Standard Takeoff Minimums" for:

United States: ? / Canada: ?

Back 238

United States:
1 mile visibility / 5,000 RVR

Canada:
2 miles visibility (CAT C)

Front 239

What are the "Lower than Standard Takeoff Minimums"?

Back 239

"Standard Takeoff Minimums" must be allowed to use the lower than standard minimums!

1,600 RVR / 1/4 mile visibility with:
Any visual aid allowing adequate visual reference.
If RVR is installed the "Mid" may replace an inoperative TDZ RVR.

1,200 / 1,200 / 1,000 RVR with the following:
1. At least Two (2) transmissometers are required!
- All "operative" transmissometers are controlling except "Far End"!
2. A takeoff alternate is required!

Required runway lights:
DAY: HIRL "or" CL "or" RCLM
NIGHT: HIRL "or" CL

1,000 /1,000 / 1,000 RVR with the following:
1. At least Two (2) transmissometers are required!
- All "operative" transmissometers are controlling except "Far End"!
2. A takeoff alternate is required!

Required runway lights:
Centerline Lights
"or"
High Intensity Runway Lights "and" Runway Centerline Markings

500 RVR / 500 RVR / 500 RVR (with SMGS) with the following:
1. At least Two (2) transmissometers are required!
- All "operative" transmissometers are controlling except "Far End"!
2. A takeoff alternate is required!

Required runway lights:
High Intensity Runway Lights
Runway Centerline Lights

300 /300 /300 RVR with the following:
1. At least Two (2) transmissometers are required!
- All "operative" transmissometers are controlling except "Far End"!
2. A takeoff alternate is required!

Front 240

What is the minimum visibility required when using the HGS for takeoff?

Back 240

300 RVR / 300 RVR / 300 RVR

Front 241

For takeoff, ATC controllers are required to give how much separation behind a large or heavy aircraft?

Back 241

Large aircraft: 2 minutes or 4 miles (B757)

Heavy aircraft: 2 minutes or 5 miles

Front 242

Are Horizon pilots allowed to "waive" wake turbulence separation prior to departure?

Back 242

No

Front 243

When may ATC approve a VMC climb to a "specific point" as part of the departure clearance?

Back 243

Only at the pilot's request!

Front 244

When ATC clears a flight to depart using a VMC climb to a specific point, what route must the pilots follow upon departure?

Back 244

Pilots are still required to follow the departure procedure routing or published instrument departure procedure!

Front 245

What restrictions must be met if climbing out in VMC conditions?

Back 245

1,000' terrain separation must be maintained.

Front 246

What restrictions apply to departing from an intersection?

Back 246

The approach end of the runway must be clearly visible!

Front 247

At what times may a flight depart under VFR?

Back 247

Only when:

1. There is no operating ATC facility on the field.
2. You are unable to obtain clearance using the telephone or radio.
3. Weather is reported as 1,000 / 3 miles.
4. VFR Cloud Separation is maintained.
5. Visual reference with the ground or a landmark is maintained at all times.
6. Clearance is received no later than 50 NM from departure airport.

DAY: The minimum altitude after takeoff is 1,000' above any obstruction.
NIGHT: The minimum altitude after takeoff is 1,000' above the highest obstruction within 5 SM of course.
(2,000' in "Mountainous Terrain")

Front 248

When may a flight conduct VFR operations while enroute?

Back 248

VFR Class 1 Navigation is permitted when:

1. The captain and dispatcher have "Duty Officer" approval.
2. VFR cruising altitudes are flown (at least 3,000 feet above ground level).
3. Pilots monitor the appropriate ATC frequencies.
4. VFR cloud separation is maintained.
5. Appropriate navigational equipment is operational.

Front 249

When is it practical to use "VFR Over-The-Top" operations?

Back 249

VFR Over-The-Top clearance is not recommended!

Front 250

On a published route what is the minimum altitude that you are allowed to fly?

Back 250

MEA or MRA (whichever is higher!)

Front 251

On a "Direct" route what is the minimum altitude that you are allowed to fly?

Back 251

NON MOUNTAINOUS TERRAIN:
- 1,000' above the highest obstacle within 5 SM of course.

MOUNTAINOUS TERRAIN:
- 2,000' above the highest obstacle within 5 SM of course.

Front 252

At what time may a flight be cleared below the MEA for the route of flight?

Back 252

A flight may be cleared to as low as MOCA when within 22 NM of the VOR.

Flights may "Never Be Cleared Below MOCA"!

Front 253

At what times are you required to record your "Time and Fuel" over waypoints?

Back 253

Only for flights of greater than 1 hour duration!

Record "Time and Fuel" beginning at the first waypoint after reaching "Top Of Climb" and ending at the last waypoint prior to "Top Of Descent"!

Front 254

What is the maximum flight level allowed?

Back 254

Never exceed a 10,000' cabin altitude except in an emergency!

Front 255

At what time is an approach considered "Stabilized"?

Back 255

The "maximum" rate of descent between 2,000' AGL/RA and 1,000' AFE/RA is 2,000 fpm.

1,000' AFE and below:
The maximum rate of descent cannot exceed the published glide path rate or 1,000 fpm if none is published.

Within 1,000' AGL:
- Aircraft in the landing configuration.
- Sink rate less than 1,000 fpm.
- Course deviation of 1 dot or less (ILS/FMS)
- Glidepath deviation of 1 dot high / 1/2 dot low (ILS/FMS)

Within 500' AGL:
- Airspeed +10 kts / -5 kts
- Bank angle of 15 degrees or less.

NOTE:
The non-flying pilot will call out any deviations from limits and the flying pilot will respond "Correcting".
Either pilot can call "missed approach" if the approach is out of tolerance!

Front 256

When does the "Final Approach Segment" begin?

Back 256

Non-Precision Approach:
- Begins at the FAF if published, "or" when the Procedure Turn intercepts the final approach course inbound.

Precision Approach:
- Begins when intercepting the glideslope at glideslope intercept altitude.

Front 257

When is an aircraft considered established on the final approach course?

Back 257

- Upon first indication of CDI movement.

"or"

- For an NDB approach when within 10 degrees of the final approach course.

Front 258

When may the approach be continued below the DH or MDA?

Back 258

1. The flight visibility must be at least that which is required.
2. A normal descent and landing can be made within the touchdown zone.
3. The approach environment is in sight!
a. REIL lights
b. Approach light system
c. Runway centerline lights
d. Runway markings

NOTE:
Descent below 100' HAT requires that the "Red Terminating Bars" or Red "Side Bars" are also in sight!

Front 259

What restrictions apply with regards to conducting a "Contact Approach"?

Back 259

1. The runway of intended landing must have an approved instrument approach procedure.

2.The reported visibility must be "at or above" that required for the "Non-Precision" approach for that runway "or" 1 mile (5000 RVR) whichever is greater.

3. The flight must remain "clear of clouds".

4. The flight visibility must be sufficient to see and avoid all obstacles and safely maneuver the aircraft to the runway.

5. The flight does not descend below the MEA, MSA, MVA or FAF altitude until established on a segment of the instrument approach procedure "and" the flight is below any cloud base which constitutes a ceiling.

6. The flight does not descend below the highest "circling MDA" (1,000 feet for the Q-400) until the aircraft is in a position to make a normal descent to landing.

7. ATC must authorize the approach.

8. The flight must operate under IFR.

Front 260

What is required to conduct a "circling approach"?

Back 260

Weather must be reported as 1,000' / 3 miles or that which is required for the approach, whichever is higher.

NOTE:
Approach minimums are based on the "highest speed" utilized by the aircraft during the circling maneuver!

Front 261

When are "Straight In Landings" allowed at an uncontrolled airport?

Back 261

Only when final is intercepted at least 5 SM out.

Front 262

At what times are VFR Arrivals authorized?

Back 262

1. Weather is reported as 3,000' / 5 miles.
2. VFR cloud separation is maintained.

CONTROLLED AIRPORTS:
- Flight must remain within controlled airspace.
- Flight must remain radar monitored if available.
- Flight must remain in communication with ATC at all times.
- Flight must be within 10 NM of airport.

UNCONTROLLED AIRPORTS:
- Ground communication is established.
- Flight remains within 10 NM of airport "or" the runway is clearly visible.

Front 263

What restrictions apply when conducting a "Visual Approach"?

Back 263

1. The flight must remain within controlled airspace.
2. The flight must remain within 35 NM of the airport (class "E" airspace only).
3. The flight must maintain the published V-Path, ILS glideslope or VASI.
4. Flight must remain under ATC control.
5. VFR cloud clearance must be maintained.

With a "charted" visual flight path:
- Each successive charted landmark must remain in sight
- Weather must be reported as 1,000' / 3 miles or the charted visual minimums, whichever is greater.

Without a "charted" visual flight path:
- The airport "or" preceding aircraft must be in sight.
- The airports weather must be reported as 1,000 / 3 miles.

Front 264

What restrictions apply when conducting a "Charted Visual" approach?

Back 264

1. Weather must be reported as 1,000' / 3 miles or the charted visual minimums, whichever is greater.
2. Each successive charted landmark must remain in sight.

Front 265

Can ATC issue a "Visual Approach" without the preceding aircraft in sight by the flight crew?

Back 265

YES ... but ATC will retain responsibility for aircraft separation.

If you report the preceding aircraft in sight then you will be required to provide your own separation.

Front 266

What items are required to be briefed on a "Visual Approach"?

Back 266

SERVED BY AN ELECTRONIC GLIDESLOPE:
- Heading Block
- Localizer frequency
- Planned Runway exit point.

NOT SERVED BY AN ELECTRONIC GLIDESLOPE:
- Only the runway of intended landing needs to be briefed.
- Planned runway exit point.

NOTE:
At uncontrolled airports you must also brief the pattern altitude and entry!

Front 267

What is required to be briefed during an "Instrument Approach" briefing?

Back 267

1. Heading Block
2. Briefing Strip
3. 100' Above TDZE (only if a "continue" call is possible)
4. MAP / VDP
5. Missed Approach Procedure
6. Planned Runway exit point.

Front 268

Are "Land and Hold Short" operations allowed?

Back 268

Not in the USA!

For Canada see "International Operations" section.

Front 269

What is the "Standard" missed approach gradient?

Back 269

200 feet per nautical mile

Front 270

If the airport of intended landing has a "Higher Than Standard" missed approach gradient what procedure should be followed when conducting a single engine missed approach?

Back 270

Follow the "Turn Procedure" and notify ATC of what you are doing!

Front 271

At what time is it permissible to call the airport "In Sight" for a visual approach clearance?

Back 271

It is desirable for both pilots to have the airport in sight prior to calling it in sight to ATC, however it is solely the captain's decision!

Front 272

What restrictions apply when the "reported" visibility for the landing runway is reported as 3/4 mile (4,000 RVR) or less?

Back 272

The runway must be considered a "Wet Runway".

All weather runway markings "or" runway centerline lights must be available on the runway of intended landing!

Front 273

If "Wet Runway" performance adjustments have been made by dispatch for the landing runway, how is it noted?

Back 273

Either "Low Vis" or "Wet Runway" will be noted on the "Remarks" section of the landing report.

Front 274

At what time will the "ATIS" broadcast "Braking Action Advisories Are In Effect"?

Back 274

Anytime that the braking action has been reported as "NIL" or "POOR".

Front 275

When are pilots "required" to report a braking action to ATC?

Back 275

Anytime following landing that the braking action appears to be NIL or Poor.

Anytime that ATIS broadcasts that "BRAKING ACTION ADVISORIES ARE IN EFFECT"

Front 276

At what times may the #2 engine remain operating while at the gate?

Back 276

1. APU is inoperative and no "Ground Power" unit is available.

2. APU is inoperative and "heating or cooling" is required.
a. The #2 engine must be at "Feather/Disc".
b. At least one (1) pilot must remain at his station with an engine operating.
c. A safety observer must be stationed at the nose of the aircraft to monitor passengers.

NOTE:
The engines must be shut down prior to deplaning or boarding passengers "unless" electrical power is needed and no ground power or APU is available.
With the right engine running it is "not permissible" to board/deplane from the aft passenger door!

Front 277

When conducting a "Single Engine Turn" what restrictions apply?

Back 277

1. At least one (1) pilot must remain in the cockpit.
2. The #2 engine must remain at "Disc/Feather".
3. All sunscreens must be removed from the cockpit windows.
4. Single engine turns are "prohibited" at restricted stations identified by bulletins or company notams.
5. Single engine turns are "prohibited" at "Hub Stations" except in approved spots.
6. A safety observer must be stationed at the nose of the aircraft to monitor the passengers.

Front 278

What is the "only time" that you are allowed to board/deplane passengers with an engine running?

Back 278

When the APU is inoperative and no ground power is available!

We are "not allowed" to board/deplane passengers with an engine running due to heating and cooling requirements!

Front 279

Is it permissible to conduct a single engine turn next to another flight that is in the boarding or de-planning process?

Back 279

No

Front 280

What is allowed with the #2 engine running with regards to aircraft servicing?

Back 280

1. Forward cargo loading and unloading provided the ala cart is placed perpendicular to the aircraft as a barrier just aft of the door.
Ground service agents must remain forward of the barrier!

2. Lavatory servicing provided that the service equipment is placed between the personnel and the #2 propeller.

NOTE:
Aft galley servicing is "NOT ALLOWED".
The door must remain closed!
Aft galley servicing may only be accomplished utilizing the aft passenger door on the left side of the aircraft!

Front 281

What is allowed with the #1 engine running with regards to aircraft servicing?

Back 281

Initial loading or unloading of cargo or last minute bags may occur from the aft cargo compartment "with the #1 propeller in feather"!

Front 282

At what time should passenger de-planning be considered if on the ground with no APU?

Back 282

After 30 minutes if a comfortable cabin cannot be maintained.

Front 283

How many pages are required to remain in the maintenance logbook for the crews review?

Back 283

1. At least the last 5 pink pages.
2. The last completed maintenance action.

Front 284

When is the captain required to start a new log page in the maintenance logbook?

Back 284

1. Anytime a discrepancy is entered.
2. Following a daily check entry by the captain.

Front 285

How may any mistake entered into the maintenance log be corrected?

Back 285

Draw a line through the entry and write "Entered In Error".

Write your initials and employee number!

Front 286

If a page in the maintenance log is "unusable" how should it be labeled?

Back 286

"VOID"

Front 287

For what items must the captain contact maintenance control for a de-brief following an entry in the maintenance log?

Back 287

1. In-flight emergency due to a mechanical failure.
2. In-flight shutdown or propeller feathering.
3. Airframe or engine vibration.
4. Unusual flight characteristics.
5. An engine limit is exceeded.

Front 288

What items are "Required Maintenance Write-Ups"?

Back 288

1. Runway Excursions
2. Overweight Landings
3. Bird Strikes
4. Lightning Strikes
5. Flight Through Volcanic Ash
6. Flight Through Severe Turbulence
7. Exceeding an aircraft operating limit
8. GPWS deactivation by pilot
9. Hard Landings.

- Above max landing weight: Descent rate in excess of 360 fpm.
- Below max landing weight: Descent rate in excess of 600 fpm.

NOTE:
Anytime that a hard landing is suspected and the descent rate was not noticed it "must be reported" in the maintenance log!

Front 289

What "Nuisance Messages" procedures are published in the FSM for the crews to accomplish?

Back 289

1. Bleed Hot Caution
2. Pusher Sys Fail Caution
3. Prop De-Ice Caution
4. PA Chime Reset
5. Pressure Controller "Fault" Reset
6. Start "Select Light" Reset

Note: These procedures may only be accomplished "on the ground" and under direction of maintenance control.

Front 290

Would it be appropriate to check light bulbs on the flight deck warning lights system?

Back 290

Yes ... It is considered to be a normal crew response prior to making a maintenance entry.

Front 291

If a maintenance item develops prior to "Block out", must it be corrected prior to departure?

Back 291

Yes

Front 292

If a malfunction occurs after push-back but prior to "TAXI", what must be accomplished?

Back 292

The malfunction must be recorded and cleared in the maintenance log prior to taxing under the aircraft's own power.

Front 293

At what time is it permissible to depart with a known maintenance item discrepancy?

Back 293

Never!

If the maintenance item has a "YES" next to it in the MEL then it must be MEL'd by the crew prior to departure.
If the maintenance item has a "NO" next to it then you must return to the gate for corrective action.

Front 294

What does "CDL" stand for?

Back 294

Configuration Deviation List

Front 295

Maintenance personnel will make every attempt to clear all RSI's within what time frame?

Back 295

120 days

Front 296

At what time is it required for the captain to notify "Dispatch" of a maintenance item?

Back 296

Anytime that a MEL is "added to or removed from" the aircraft!

All MEL items must be shown on the dispatch release.
An amended dispatch release is required!

Front 297

When do MEL items expire?

Back 297

CAT "A": Time Specified
CAT "B": 3 days
CAT "C": 10 days
CAT "D": 120 days

All MEL's will expire at midnight on the last day of the expiration date.

Front 298

If a MEL item is scheduled to expire at midnight, may a flight depart if it is not scheduled to arrive at the destination until after midnight?

Back 298

Yes .. as long as the flight departs prior to midnight (Pacific Time Zone).

Front 299

What is classified as a "Weak Echo"?

Back 299

Any echo not detectable beyond 50 NM.

Only has a "Green Core"

Front 300

What is classified as a "Moderate Echo"?

Back 300

A "transition stage echo".

Front 301

What is classified as a "Strong Echo"?

Back 301

Any echo detectable beyond 50 NM with a "yellow or red core".

Front 302

At what time is a "Steep Rainfall Gradient" indicated?

Back 302

Anytime that the distance between the edge of the green core and the red echo is 1 mile or less.

Front 303

Where is the maximum turbulence area within a thunderstorm?

Back 303

In the area of the steepest rainfall gradient.

Front 304

How are "Hail Echoes" indicated?

Back 304

Hail echoes are indicated by hooks, scallops or fingers on associated "red" echoes.

Front 305

How are the "Thunderstorm levels" categorized?

Back 305

LEVEL 1: Weak / only light rain or drizzle
LEVEL 2: Moderate / Moderate rain
LEVEL 3: Strong / Moderate to heavy rain
LEVEL 4: Very Strong / Moderate to heavy rain
LEVEL 5: Intense / Heavy thunderstorms
LEVEL 6: Extreme / Severe thunderstorms with hail.

Front 306

When must weather radars be selected to "OFF" for ground operations?

Back 306

1. When operating within 100 feet of personnel and large reflective surfaces.

2. When within 50' of refueling operations.

Front 307

What is the recommended distance to avoid thunderstorms?

Back 307

ABOVE 23,000':
- Avoid all echoes by 20 NM.

BELOW 23,000':
0 degrees or warmer: 5 NM
0 degrees or colder: 10 NM


- Clear all cloud tops by 5,000 feet.
- Increase distances by 50% for rapidly building cells.
- Use navigable corridors between cells that are reasonably straight when echoes cannot be avoided!

Front 308

How are the three (3) levels of turbulence defined?

Back 308

Occasional: Less that 1/3 of the time.
Intermittent: 1/3 to 2/3 of the time.
Continuous: More than 2/3 of the time.

Front 309

What airports are defined as "Turbulence Airports"?

Back 309

- Las Vegas
- Mammoth Lakes
- Palm Springs
- Reno
- Kodiak
- Anchorage
- Fairbanks

Front 310

What procedure must be followed when operating at "Turbulence Airports"?

Back 310

Departure:

- Brief the flight attendants.
- Make a PA to passengers informing them that the FA's will remain seated during departure due to turbulence conditions.
- Maintain a Type II climb profile (185 kts) until above 10,000 feet or higher (as required).
- Have the flight attendants remain seated until at least 10,000 feet AFE.
- Notify the flight attendants when it is safe to get up.

Arrival:

- Brief the flight attendants.
- Give 10 minute notification prior to descent.
- Verify the flight attendants are seated prior to descent.
- Check the seat belt sign "ON".

Front 311

If windshear is suspected on takeoff what precautions should be taken?

Back 311

1. Use the longest runway available.
2. Use "NTop Power".
3. Use the "least amount" of flaps required.
4. Delay the takeoff until conditions improve if necessary!

Front 312

If windshear is suspected on landing what precautions should be taken?

Back 312

1. Delay the landing until conditions improve or proceed to your alternate.
2. Use the longest runway available.
3. Stabilize the approach by 1,000 feet.
4. Use the minimum landing flaps allowed.
5. Fly the "Solid Bug".
6. Use the HGS to the fullest extent possible.

Front 313

What restrictions apply regarding operating near Volcanic activity?

Back 313

1. Aircraft will not operate into or out off airports where volcanic ash is falling.
2. Flights will not operate within 10 miles of a volcano assigned an Aviation Color Code of "RED".
3. Flights operating within 35 nm of volcanoes will consider the direction of ash clouds and surface winds.
4. Report all volcanic activity to ATC!

Front 314

When operating in volcanic ash what restrictions apply for:
GROUND OPERATIONS: ?
FLIGHT OPERATIONS: ?

Back 314

GROUND OPERATIONS:

- Conduct a preflight briefing with the dispatcher regarding areas of known volcanic ash!

1. Limit Reverse Thrust
2. Avoid engine operations above IDLE
3. Use minimum thrust for taxi.
4. Exercise caution on wet surfaces mixed with ash since braking effectiveness may be reduced.
5. Delay flap extension until necessary for takeoff
6. Avoid operations in visible dust
7. Restrict the use of the APU to Engine Starts Only!
8. Do not use windshield wipers
9. Make a maintenance log entry!

FLIGHT OPERATIONS:
1. Avoid flight through the ash cloud.
2. Accomplish the "Flight In Volcanic Ash" checklist.
3. Make a maintenance log entry!

Front 315

At what wind velocity are all operations suspended?

Back 315

1. Steady winds exceed 50 kts.
2. Wind gusts exceed 65 kts.

Front 316

At what times are "Field Reporting" in effect?

Back 316

1. The OAT is 5 degrees C (41F) or less.
"or"
2. There is visible or suspected runway contamination.
"or"
3. The braking action is less than "Good".

Front 317

At what times is it required that the pilots call in the braking action to station personnel?

Back 317

Anytime that:
1. Field reporting is in effect.
2. Braking action is "Less than Good".
3. Requested by stations.

Front 318

What is the minimum cleared width of the aircraft ramp for operations?

Back 318

Sufficient ramp area must exist so that the aircraft can maneuver and stop safely!

Front 319

What is the minimum plowed taxiway width?

Back 319

50 feet when the snow depth exceed 4 inches.

Front 320

What is the minimum cleared runway width for "all operations"?

Back 320

150 feet

Front 321

What is the minimum cleared runway width for "any operations"?

Back 321

100 feet

- If the runway is cleared less than 150 feet then the "Braking Action" must be "Fair or Better" if the crosswind exceeds 10 kts.

Front 322

What are the maximum crosswind and tailwind limitations with regards to the braking action for landing?

Back 322

GOOD
32 kts Crosswind
20 kts Tailwind

FAIR
15 kts Crosswind
5 kts Tailwind

POOR
10 kts Crosswind
less than 5 kts Tailwind

NIL - SUSPEND OPERATIONS

Front 323

The aircraft is approved to operate in the following meterolical conditions:

Back 323

Light Freezing Rain
Light to Moderate Freezing Drizzle
Moderate Snow
Ice Pellets

Front 324

Below what temperature is it required to compensate the "published procedure altitudes" for an approach?

Back 324

When OAT is 0 degrees C or less.

Front 325

Where can the cold weather compensation corrections be found to apply to approach altitudes?

Back 325

Flight Operations Manual

Front 326

Should cold weather compensation corrections ever be made to assigned altitudes by ATC?

Back 326

No ... only to published procedure altitudes for the approach!

Notify ATC of the corrections made!

Front 327

Does Canada require you to make the cold weather altitude compensation corrections while conducting an instrument approach?

Back 327

Always .... when OAT is 0 degrees C or below!

Front 328

What procedure must be used if the altimeter setting is reported above 31.00" HG?

Back 328

For all operations below FL180 use 31.00" as the altimeter setting.

At the beginning of the FAF reset the altimeter to normal if reported to be below 31.00" HG.

For all airports with altimeter settings above 31.00" HG only VFR operations are allowed!

Front 329

What is required if the destination or alternate airport has a missing altimeter setting?

Back 329

Only VFR operations are allowed at those airports!

Front 330

All maintenance, ferry and re-position flights are conducted under what part of FAR's?

Back 330

PART 91

Front 331

Who is responsible to ensure that the cabin is secure when "no flight attendants" are carried on a Part 91 ferry flight?

Back 331

The captain

Front 332

Is it required to complete all normal weight and balance paperwork for a Part 91 ferry flight?

Back 332

Yes

Front 333

What procedures must be followed if flight attendants are not carried on board during a Part 91 flight?

Back 333

The captain will insure that the cabin is secure prior to departure.

Front 334

What is the minimum fuel requirements for a Part 91 flight?

Back 334

Aircraft must have sufficient fuel to fly to the destination "PLUS":

DAY: 30 minute reserve
NIGHT: 45 minute reserve

Front 335

At what times is only "Minimum Crew" allowed to be carried on the aircraft?

Back 335

1. Unpressurized flight
2. Gear down flights
3. Inoperative Flaps
4. Flight Control Malfunctions
5. Anytime that the flight characteristics have appreciably been changed.
6. Airframe or powerplant vibrations
7. Damage to Structure

Front 336

Maintenance Ferry Flights out of Canada also require what?

Back 336

1. "Canadian Letter of Validation"

"AND"

2. Copy of "Ops Spec D84"

Front 337

Do "Operational Check Flights" require duty officer approval?

Back 337

No

Front 338

How long is the "Dispatch Release" valid for during a charter flight?

Back 338

6 hours from the "Original Flight Release Time".

Front 339

If during a charter flight the aircraft makes an intermediate stop must the flight be re-released again?

Back 339

No ... the flight release is valid for 6 hours from the original release time!

Front 340

What minimum fuel must be carried for a charter flight?

Back 340

WITHOUT ALTERNATE:
1. Fly to destination.
2. Two (2) hour reserve.

WITH ALTERNATE:
1. Fly to destination.
2. Add 10% of fuel required to destination.
3. Fly to most distant alternate.
4. Add an additional 30 minutes holding fuel at 1,500' AGL.

Front 341

During off-line fueling what must the captain do?

Back 341

1. Inspect general condition of the fueling facility and/or truck.
2. Copy and use the "Fuel Receiving" form in the FOM.
3. Review the fuel sumps records.
4. Check a fuel sample from the nozzle of the truck.

Front 342

What is the minimum "Flight Crew Experience" level required to fly a military charter?

Back 342

Both the captain and first officer must have a minimum of 250 hours in "TYPE".

Front 343

What are the minimum "Crew Pairing" hour requirements?

Back 343

At least one pilot must have 75 hours in type and seat position (including IOE)

Front 344

What does the term "LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICAL" mean?

Back 344

Land at the nearest Horizon or Alaska served airport.

Front 345

What does the term "LAND IMMEDIATELY" mean?

Back 345

Fly a direct course to the nearest airport.

Front 346

"Suitable Facilities" is defined as an airport having what?

Back 346

1. Required runway distance.
2. Medical Facilities.
3. Emergency / Fire / Rescue equipment.
4. The proximity of the airport to the current aircraft's location.

Front 347

Anytime that an engine fails while inflight the captain should do what?

Back 347

Land as soon as practical!

- Nearest Horizon/Alaska served airport with suitable facilities!

Front 348

What should the flight crew do following an accident to insure the integrity of the "Cockpit Voice Recorder"?

Back 348

Pull the circuit breaker for the cockpit voice recorder!

Front 349

If one pilot becomes incapacitated, what should the remaining pilot do?

Back 349

1. Land the aircraft as soon as possible.
2. Remain in Vmc conditions if possible.
3. Have the flight attendant assist in removing the incapacitated crewmember if necessary!

Front 350

If the "Captain" becomes incapacitated the succession of command is:

Back 350

1. A company qualified captain in "Type" which is on-board the aircraft.
2. The original first officer, assisted by another company captain or first officer if available.

Front 351

If one flight attendant becomes incapacitated what must the other flight attendant do?

Back 351

The remaining flight attendant will provide assistance as necessary!

Front 352

If an incident requires dispatch notification, when must that notification be accomplished and when must the incident report be submitted?

Back 352

Prior to the next flight!
Submit the HA-148 form within 4 hours!

Front 353

Horizon Air is required to make a report to the FAA within how many days for:
Disruptive Passengers?
Engine Shutdowns and Emergency Authority Incidents: ?

Back 353

Disruptive Passengers:
5 days

Engine Shutdowns and Emergency Authority Incidents:
10 days

Front 354

When is it required to declare a "Minimum Fuel Advisory"?

Back 354

Anytime that the aircraft is expected to land with less than 45 minutes of fuel!

Front 355

When is it required to declare an "Emergency" with regards to minimum fuel?

Back 355

Anytime the aircraft is expected to land with less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining!

Front 356

Is it permissible to allow access to the flight deck for a medical personnel to speak directly to Med Link?

Back 356

No!

Front 357

At what times is it permissible to use the Enhanced Emergency Medical Kit (EEMK)?

Back 357

Only under the direction of MED LINK!

In the event that you cannot contact Med Link then the captain may use his emergency authority to allow a properly trained, qualified individual to use the EEMK.

Front 358

If a medical emergency exist while in-flight what must the captain do?

Back 358

Coordinate with dispatch and declare an emergency!

Land the aircraft if necessary to obtain medical assistance.

Front 359

What procedure should be followed if a "Bomb Threat" is received while "ON THE GROUND"?

Back 359

1. Deplane the aircraft and evacuate the area to 100 yards.
2. Have all passengers take their carry-ons with them.

NOTE:
Crew bags may remain on-board the aircraft!

Front 360

What procedure should be followed if a "Bomb Threat" is received while "Taxiing"?

Back 360

1. Lock Down the cockpit.
2. Inform the flight attendants.
3. Taxi to the designated "Isolation Area".
4. Evacuate the aircraft to 100 yards.

Front 361

What procedure should be followed if a "Bomb Threat" is received while "INFLIGHT"?

Back 361

1. Lock down the cockpit.
2. Inform the flight attendants.
3. Covertly check the passengers for BD or EOD expertise.
4. Contact the TSA and dispatch for expert advice.
5. Search the aircraft prior to changing altitude.
6. Land the aircraft and taxi to the designated "Isolation Area".
7. Evacuate the aircraft to 100 yards.

Front 362

What should be accomplished if a bomb is found on board the aircraft while inflight?

Back 362

1. Move all passengers at least 4 rows from the bomb if possible.
2. Maintain the existing cabin altitude for as long as possible.
3. Adjust the cabin differential to "zero".
4. Configure the aircraft for landing.
5. Check the bomb for an anti-lift device.
6. Move the bomb to the "Least Risk Bomb Location".

- Build a platform in front of the galley service door using carry-on bags etc., so that the bomb will be elevated to the center of the door.
- Cover the bomb with plastic garbage can liner.
- Cover the plastic liner with 10 inches of wetted material.
- Build up the entire enclosure with more bags etc.

Front 363

If a bomb is located in the cabin while inflight should any wires ever be cut prior to moving the bomb to the LRBL?

Back 363

NO ... however, if it is possible to remove the main explosive from the power source without cutting any wires then do so and only move the main explosive to the LRBL.

Front 364

Where is the "Least Risk Bomb Location" (LRBL) located on the Q-400?

Back 364

Against the "Right/Rear Service Door".

Remove galley electrical power!

Front 365

If a hijacking is in process what should the flight crew do?

Back 365

1. Transmit in the clear to ATC if possible your predicament.
- The use of unusual words or stilted language is a recommended method to signal ATC if open communication is restricted.

2. Squawk 7500

NOTE:
If ATC asks you "Are You Being Methodical?", they are trying to verify that your communication with them is being restrained.
It is no longer required to extend the flaps after landing to request "Armed Intervention"!

Front 366

What procedure should be followed by the flight crew if an "Intercept Aircraft" approaches you?

Back 366

1. Try to establish communication with the Interceptor on 121.5.
2. Set Transponder to 7500 (only if you are being hijacked).

Front 367

What is meant if a "Intercept Aircraft" rocks their wings at you?

Back 367

It is a signal that they want you to follow them!

Rock your wings in acknowledgment.

Front 368

If you are intercepted at night and visual communication is difficult what is the alternate means of acknowledging a request?

Back 368

Flash your navigation lights at an irregular interval.

Front 369

What is meant if the "Intercept Aircraft" makes an abrupt breakaway maneuver of 90 degrees and starts climbing?

Back 369

It means you may proceed.

Rock your wings in acknowledgment!

Front 370

What is meant if the "Interceptor Aircraft" circles above the airport with his gear extended?

Back 370

He wants you to land in the direction indicated!

Front 371

What is the "ONLY" dangerous goods accepted by Horizon Air?

Back 371

Corrosive!

Aircraft batteries as "AOG" only.

Front 372

Is there any limit to the number of aircraft batteries that may be carried aboard a flight as "AOG"?

Back 372

No limit as to the number but only one (1) battery per leak proof case is allowed.

Front 373

Is a "Dangerous Goods Notification To Pilot In Command" form required when carrying aircraft batteries?

Back 373

YES ... Aircraft batteries are "Corrosive" and require the paperwork!

Front 374

What is the only "Dangerous Goods" label that we should ever see on a Horizon Air flight?

Back 374

CORROSIVE

Front 375

Is "Dry Ice" considered a dangerous good?

Back 375

Only when carried in quantities "Above" Horizon Air's limits.

Front 376

What items are permitted to be carried in the cargo compartment of Horizon Air aircraft?

Back 376

1. Tire assemblies (if not over inflated).
2. Wheel Chairs
- Battery terminals must be disconnected and isolated.
- If a spillable battery it must be removed from the wheelchair and the battery and packaged appropriately.
3. Dry Ice
- 440 lbs per compartment.
- Live animals must be placed at least 3 feet away from any dry ice. Maximum Dry ice amount cannot exceed 10 lbs when animals are carried.
- Each package of Dry Ice is limited to 5 lbs.
- The maximum dry ice allowed in carry-ons is 4.4 lbs.
4. Internal Combustion Engines
- Must have never contained fluids "or" has been drained and inspected.
5. Biological Specimens
6. Engine Oils
7. Hydraulic Fluids

Front 377

Is it permissible to carry engine oils and hydraulic fluids in the cargo compartment?

Back 377

Yes

Front 378

Where is the "Emergency Response Guidebook" located in the aircraft?

Back 378

In the Left/Forward storage compartment just ahead of the forward flight attendants jump seat.

Front 379

What is the purpose of the "Emergency Response Guidebook"?

Back 379

It provides a reference for initial action to be taken in the event that a hazardous spill takes place.

Front 380

What action should be taken if the "Emergency Response Guidebook" is not found on the aircraft?

Back 380

It is "not required" to be aboard the aircraft.
Contact the Duty Officer when convenient so that it may be replaced.

Front 381

When is a new dispatch release required when conducting "International Operations"?

Back 381

Anytime that the aircraft remains on the ground for over 6 hours from the initial release.

Front 382

How much fuel must be carried for "Flag Operations"?

VFR Operations?

IFR Operations with:
No alternate required: ?
With an alternate: ?

Back 382

VFR:
Day: Destination plus 30 minute reserve.
Night: Destination plus 45 minute reserve.

IFR:
NO ALTERNATE REQUIRED:
Sufficient fuel to reach the destination plus a 3 hour reserve at normal fuel consumption!

ALTERNATE REQUIRED:
1. Fly to destination.
2. Fly to most distant alternate.
3. Fly for 30 minutes at normal cruise
4. Add 15% total fuel required to fly to destination and most distant alternate "or" 90 minutes fuel whichever is less.

Front 383

What is the minimum visibility required to depart from a "Flag" airport?

Back 383

- Published visibility if it exists.
"or"
CAT A: 1 mile
CAT B: 1 1/2 mile
CAT C: 2 miles
CAT D: 2 miles

Front 384

What is the minimum visibility allowed to initiate an approach in "Flag Operations"?

Back 384

Listed visibility minimums
"or"
1200 RVR

Front 385

When are VFR flight plans required when flying in Canada?

Back 385

Any flight greater than 25 NM from departure requires a flight plan!

Front 386

Is it permissible to fly VFR while in Canada?

Back 386

All VFR flight plans must be approved by the Duty Officer!

Note:
All trans border flights must be conducted on an IFR flight plan!

Front 387

When "canceling" an IFR flight plan while in Canada, what transponder code should you squawk?

Back 387

Remain on the "last assigned" transponder code!

Front 388

Are "zero / zero" takeoffs allowed while in Canada?

Back 388

No

Front 389

Are "Look See" approaches authorized while operating in Canada?

Back 389

No ... the RVR must be at or above that required for the approach prior to the FAF.

Front 390

When is an "Alternate Airport" required while operating in Canada for "Domestic Operations"?

Back 390

No Alternate is required if:

- From 1 hour before to 1 hour after the flights ETA the appropriate weather forecasts indicate that:
1. There is no risk of fog or other restrictions to visibility reducing the visibility below 3 miles.
2. There is no risk of thunderstorms.
3. There is no risk of freezing rain, freezing drizzle or sleet forecast or reported.
4. The ceiling at the destination is reported as at least:
a. 1,000' above the FAF / 3 miles
"or"
b. 1,500' above airport elevation / 6 miles

- There must be at least two (2) separate "operational" runways suitable for landing (must be separate strips of asphalt).
- Emergency or Standby power is available at the airport.

Front 391

What is the airspeed limit when operating within Class "D" airspace in Canada?

Back 391

200 kts when within 10 NM and 3,000' AGL of an airport traffic area.

Front 392

What is the airspeed limit while operating below 10,000' MSL in Canada?

Back 392

There is no limit!

Front 393

What is the minimum altitude to "overfly" any airport in Canada?

Back 393

2,000' AGL unless approved by ATC!

Front 394

Is it permissible to cross a "CAT II Hold line" in Canada when only CAT I operations are in effect?

Back 394

No

You are required to hold short of CAT II hold lines at all times!

Front 395

What restrictions must be met for "Land and Hold Short" operations to be conducted in Canada?

Back 395

1. The landing distance available must be published on the Jeppessen charts.
2. The ceiling and visibility must be at least 1,000 / 3 miles.
3. The reported braking action must be reported as "Good" or better with the center 100' of runway bare.
4. The maximum tailwind component must be less than 5 kts.
5. The maximum crosswind component is:
Dry Runway: 25 kts
Wet Runway: 15 kts

Front 396

If a pilot "accepts" a hold short clearance while in Canada, he is expected to remain clear of the intersecting runway by ______ feet.

Back 396

200 feet

Front 397

Under what meteorological conditions is it not authorized to conduct LAHSO operations while in Canada?

Back 397

Thunderstorms, turbulence or windshear conditions are present!

Front 398

What inoperative aircraft components would not allow you to conduct LAHSO operations in Canada?

Back 398

1. Anti-Skid System
2. Ground Spoilers are inoperative
3. Any malfunctions with the aircraft's braking system.

Front 399

What documents are required for all operations into and out of Canada?

Back 399

1. General Declaration
2. Cargo Manifest
3. Customs Form for crew and passengers

Front 400

Who may sign the General Declaration "if changes are made"?

Back 400

Only the Captain or customer service manager.

Front 401

Whose responsibility is it to notify customs of the aircraft's arrival time?

Back 401

The Pilot In Command.

Normally dispatch will make the notification!

Front 402

When is it required for the crew to clear customs?

Back 402

Anytime the aircraft is on the ground for over 90 minutes.

Front 403

INTERNATIONAL OPERATIONS

For what purposes is the flight crew allowed to leave the aircraft?

Back 403

Only for the "Preflight Inspection".

Front 404

When is it permitted for the crew to meet one another during a crew change while operating in Canada?

Back 404

Only the captains may meet!
Applies to all Canadian airports.

Front 405

What are the speed limits while operating within Mexico?

Back 405

Below 10,000 feet: 250 Kts

Within 30 NM of any airport when within 10,000' above airport elevation: 250 Kts

Within 10 NM and 3,000 feet of any airport: 200 Kts

Front 406

What are the maximum "Holding Speeds" when operating in Mexico?

Back 406

Surface to 6,000' msl: 200 kts

6,000 to 14,000' msl: 210 Kts

Above 14,000' msl: 230 kts

Front 407

Most airspace below what altitude is "uncontrolled" while operating in Mexico?

Back 407

Below FL200

Front 408

What is required to descend below FL200 while in Mexico's airspace?

Back 408

You must remain on a published airway!

Front 409

Horizon Air's aircraft are not approved for extended overwater operations. What is the maximum distance allowed to fly from land?

Back 409

50 NM

Front 410

What is required to be carried onboard the aircraft while operating within Mexico's airspace?

Back 410

A portable ELT which operates on the 406 MHz frequency.

Front 411

What is the definition of a "CAT I" approach?

Back 411

An instrument approach to not less than 200' DA and 1/2 mile (1,800 RVR).

Front 412

What is the definition of a "SA CAT I" approach?

Back 412

- Also referred to as "Special Authorization CAT I".

- An instrument approach to not less than 200' DA and 1/2 mile (1,800 RVR).
- An SA CAT I approach requires the use of the HGS in AIII mode.

Front 413

What is the definition of a "CAT II" approach?

Back 413

An Instrument approach to not less than 100' DA and 1,000 RVR.

Front 414

What is the definition of a "CAT III" approach?

Back 414

An instrument approach to not less than 50' DA and 600/400 RVR (touchdown and midfield readings).

Front 415

How are geographical position markings indicated along "Low Visibility" taxi routes?

Back 415

- Pink Circular numbered "or" lettered markings painted on taxiway.

- Each marker contains 3 in-pavement amber lights for recognition.

Front 416

At what times are "Low Visibility Operations" in effect?

Back 416

Only when the RVR is below 1,200 feet and the ATIS states "LOW VISIBILITY OPERTIONS ARE IN EFFECT".

Front 417

What is the purpose of "Start" and "Stop" boxes on the low visibility taxi routes?

Back 417

They indicate the beginning and end of the low visibility route.

Front 418

What are the "Stop Bar Lights" used for when conducting Low Visibility taxi operations?

Back 418

They are stop lights at the approach end of the runway which are controlled by ATC.

Aircraft may not access the runway with the Stop Bar Lights illuminated!

Front 419

Is it permissible to enter the active runway if cleared for takeoff by ATC with the Stop Bar Lights still illuminated?

Back 419

NO ... It is never permissible to cross the Stop Bar Lights when illuminated!

Front 420

What occurs when ATC extinguishes the "Stop Bar Lights" during Low Visibility Taxi operations?

Back 420

Green lead-In lights will illuminate and lead the aircraft to runway centerline.

Front 421

When is a "Captain Monitored Approach" utilized?

Back 421

- Only during CAT I approaches.

- Used when the visibility is less than "twice that required" or the ceiling is within 300' of minimums.

- Use only when operating an aircraft with in inoperative HGS!!!!

Front 422

What is the minimum visibility you may conduct taxi operations "without" a low visibility taxi chart?

Back 422

You may taxi anytime the visibility is adequate to safely maneuver the aircraft.

Front 423

What is the minimum visibility required to taxi for departure while using a "Low Visibility Taxi Chart"?

Back 423

1. Comply with the provisions on the Low Vis Taxi Chart.
2. If ATIS does not indicate that "LOW VISIBILITY OPERATIONS ARE IN EFFECT" then the captain can taxi the aircraft anytime that adequate visibility exits to safely maneuver the aircraft.

NOTE:
If during taxi the weather conditions deteriorate below a safe condition to taxi the aircraft, then stop and ask for assistance!

Front 424

What special procedures are used in Seattle when the visibility is "below" 600 RVR for taxi?

Back 424

Below 600 RVR taxi operations require a marshaller and two wing walkers to escort the aircraft to the "Start Box".

Front 425

What is the minimum visibility you are allowed to conduct an instrument approach "without" the use of the HGS?

Back 425

1,800 RVR

Front 426

Is it permissible to continue a CAT III approach if the required runway or approach lights fail?

Back 426

Yes

The approach may continue if the required lights fail "while you are inside" of the FAF provided that the HGS Rollout system is operative.

Front 427

At what times is a "Missed Approach" required while conducting a CAT III approach?

Back 427

1. Engine failure occurs below 1,000' AFE.
2. HGS malfunction or loss of AIII mode.
3. "APCH WARN" is displayed.
4. Any required airborne equipment becomes inoperative.
5. Any required ground equipment becomes inoperative.
6. A standard callout is not made within 500' above DA.
7. The touchdown cannot be made within the touchdown zone.
8. HGS AIII wind limits are exceeded.
9. Visual reference with the runway is not made at the DA.
10. Visual reference with the runway is lost beyond the DA.

Front 428

Is the Q-400 allowed to dispatch under "Single Engine Category III Operations" authorizations?

Back 428

Yes

Front 429

What is the purpose of "Single Engine Category III Authorization"?

Back 429

It allows for lower minimums at the "First Listed Alternate".

Front 430

When dispatched under Single Engine Category III authorization, what must the release indicate?

Back 430

- There must be two (2) listed alternates.
- Both alternates must have operational CAT II or CAT III approaches.
- It must be reasonably expected that the runways will not be contaminated at ETA.

- Weather conditions for the 1st Alternate must be at least:
CAT II APPROACH: 300' hat / 4,000 RVR (3/4 mile)
CAT III APPROACH: 200' HAT / 1,800 RVR (1/2 mile)

- Weather conditions for the 2nd alternate must be at least:
a. Must comply with normal alternate minimums!

Front 431

What procedures must be followed anytime a crew member accesses the exterior ramp area while in Canada?

Back 431

A reflective vest must be worn at all times!
Both day and night operations!

Front 432

What procedures must be followed to "verify" crewmembers prior to a trip?

Back 432

1. The captain must verify the crew names listed on the trip print out or dispatch release with those of the crew present.
2. If the first officer picks up the flight release he must verify the captain's name prior to giving him the release!
3. In the absence of the captain the crew may complete the verification process through one of the comm ports in either Seattle or Portland.

Front 433

How is the "Crew Verification" procedure accomplished if the aircraft is taxied to the gate from the hanger?

Back 433

Once at the gate, all crew members are required to exit the aircraft and complete the normal verification process.

Front 434

What two (2) special security procedures must be followed for all flights "Out of Canada"?

Back 434

1. The captain must make an announcement asking the passengers cooperation to not congregate in any area of the cabin during the flight.
2. The lavatory must be checked at least every 2 hours!

Front 435

What is the proper procedure for securing the aircraft when it will be left "unattended"?

Back 435

1. Close the cockpit door (not necessarily locked).
2. Close all exterior doors including the Galley Service Door.
3. All Cargo Doors must be closed.
4. Stairs, ladders and service vehicles must be moved away from the aircraft.

Note:
If a jetway is against the aircraft you must ensure that entry doors into the jetway are secure. If not ... the jetway must be moved from the aircraft and aircraft doors secured.

Front 436

At what time is it not required to secure the aircraft?

Back 436

When a "security trained" company individual accepts responsibility to "monitor" the aircraft.

Front 437

How is "monitoring" an aircraft defined as?

Back 437

Any Horizon Air security trained individual must keep the aircraft under surveillance so as to detect unauthorized access!

Front 438

When is a "physical search" of the aircraft required?

Back 438

Anytime that the aircraft has been left unattended!

Front 439

What is the flight crew responsible to check during the security inspection of the aircraft?

Back 439

1. Wheel Wells
2. Nose compartment inspection doors (4).

Front 440

What is the ground crew responsible to check during the security inspection of the aircraft?

Back 440

Cargo Compartments only!

Front 441

When is the "Aircraft Security Inspection" required?

Back 441

1. First Flight of the Day, prior to boarding passengers.
2. Anytime the aircraft has been left "unattended".
3. Anytime there is evidence of tampering!

Front 442

At what stations is the aircraft sealing program in effect?

Back 442

Canadian stations and selected domestic stations!

NOTE:
Canadian station personnel may elect to complete a cabin security inspection prior to boarding passengers in lieu of sealing the aircraft!

Front 443

Who is responsible for conducting the "cabin security inspection" when the aircraft is picked up from the maintenance hangar?

Back 443

Fleet services will conduct the cabin inspection.

The flight crew is still responsible to conduct the exterior security inspection.

Front 444

What are the two types of aircraft security inspections conducted by the pilots?

Back 444

1. Full Search
2. Canada Search

Front 445

At what time is the "Full" security search required on the aircraft?

Back 445

1. Aircraft's first flight of the day.
2. All flights into or out of Mexico!
- Following a return from Mexico a full security search must be completed prior to further flight.
- The aircraft must be attended, secured or monitored following the completion of the search.

Front 446

What must be checked when conducting the "Canada" security inspection?

Back 446

A physical search of all air vents, compartments and access panels that can be opened by hand or by a common tool without causing visible damage to the compartment.

Front 447

What is the correct procedure that must be followed anytime a flight deck crewmember must exit the flight deck while inflight?

Back 447

1. Turn the "Seatbelt Sign" on.
2. Communicate with the flight attendant and ensure all passengers are seated and the cockpit door area is clear.
3. Confirm the galley area is clear by using the "Peep Hole".
4. Exchange places with the flight attendant.
5. Confirm that the cockpit door is secure after exit.

NOTE:
Procedure is not required if a jump seat rider is occupying the jump seat!

Front 448

What is the correct procedure to use when returning to the flight deck from the aircraft cabin?

Back 448

1. Call the flight deck on the interphone and state: "Entry Requested - Area is Clear".

2. Flight deck crewmember will confirm identity through the "Peep Hole" and that the area is clear.

3. Following cockpit entry the NFP must state: "Verify Door Locked".

Front 449

Are you required to turn the Fasten Seatbelt sign "ON" when receiving food and beverage in the flight deck?

Back 449

No

Front 450

Which armed individuals are required to complete the AAG-10 Form (Armed Individuals Notification Form)?

Back 450

All armed individuals except:

- Federal Air Marshals
- Federal Flight Deck Officers

Note: Federal Air Marshals "not on mission status" are required to fill out the AAG-10 Form!

Front 451

What restrictions apply to the carriage of a LEO's weapon?

Back 451

It must be carried on his person and not stored in his luggage or overhead bin.

Front 452

When presented a AAG-10 form for an armed individual, who may sign the form?

Back 452

The captain "or" first officer may sign the form.

Front 453

When multiple armed individuals are carried on a single flight what must the captain do?

Back 453

Each armed individual must be made aware of the presence and seat number of the others.

This is not required for a Federal Air Marshal while "on mission status".

- It is up to the Federal Air Marshal to identify himself to the other armed individuals if he so desires.

Front 454

What is the minimum number of Federal Air Marshals required while they are on "mission status"?

Back 454

2

Front 455

What other agency may assist a Federal Air Marshall during mission status?

Back 455

ICE (Immigration and Customs Enforcement)

Front 456

Will the flight crew be made aware of Federal Air Marshals on board their aircraft if on mission status?

Back 456

Yes ... At least one of the Federal Air Marshals will be introduced to the captain.

Front 457

What will Federal Air Marshals do prior to boarding the flight when on mission status?

Back 457

At least one member of the Federal Air Marshal team will conduct a briefing with the flight crew.

The briefing will last from 60 to 90 seconds and should include at a minimum at least the Captain and Flight Attendant "A".

Front 458

At what times may a Federal Flight Deck Officer carry his weapon?

Back 458

Only when assigned as a "required crewmember".

Front 459

What is the only time that a Federal Flight Deck Officer can remove his weapon and wear it?

Back 459

Only when the cockpit door is locked except for times when the door is open for food and beverage service.

Front 460

At what times will a Federal Flight Deck Officer have authority over the captain?

Back 460

Only at times regarding the security and defense of the flight deck!

Front 461

Do Federal Flight Deck Officers have authority over other armed individuals that may be riding in the cabin?

Back 461

No

Front 462

Which individuals is a Federal Flight Deck Officer required to identify themselves to?

Back 462

Federal Flight Deck officers are required to have a "face to face" meeting with all other armed individuals in the cabin.
Federal Flight Deck Officers are required to identify themselves to all other crewmembers.

Front 463

Are Federal Flight Deck Officers exempt from completing the AG-10 Form?

Back 463

Yes

Front 464

Lockdown procedures utilize a 4 tier system. What is the definition of each level?

Back 464

LEVEL 1: Disruptive Passenger
LEVEL 2: Physically Abusive Passenger
LEVEL 3: Imminent Threat of Death or Serious Bodily Injury
LEVEL 4: Attempted Breach of the Flight Deck

Front 465

During a "Level 1" (Disruptive Passenger) incident, what is the proper procedure to be followed?

Back 465

At Gate:
- Monitor the situation.
- Notify the station.
- Decide if passenger removal is necessary.
- Review level 2 response.

During Taxi:
- Stop the aircraft.
- Advise ATC and Station operations.
- Determine if a return to gate is necessary for passenger removal.
- Review level 2 response.

Inflight:
- Lockdown the cockpit.
- Turn the seatbelt sign "ON".
- Make a PA to diffuse the situation.
- Review your options.

Front 466

During a "Level 2" (Physically Abusive Passenger) incident, what is the proper procedure to be followed?

Back 466

At Gate:
- Notify Operations.
- Request Law enforcement.
- Remove passenger.

During Taxi:
- Lockdown the cockpit.
- Advise ATC and station operations.
- Return to gate if necessary for passenger removal.
- Review Level 3 response.

Inflight:
- Lockdown the cockpit.
- Turn seatbelt sign "ON".
- Advise ATC and Dispatch.
- Consider diverting to another airport.

Front 467

During a "Level 3" (Imminent Threat of Death or Serious Bodily Injury) incident, what is the proper procedure to be followed?

Back 467

At Gate:
- Lockdown the cockpit.
- Escape and disable the aircraft.
- Advise operations.
- Review Level 4 response.

During Taxi:
- Lockdown the cockpit.
- Stop the aircraft.
- Advise ATC and Operations.
- Review your options.
- Review Level 4 response.
Inflight:
- Lockdown the cockpit.
- Turn the "Seatbelt" sign "ON.
- Declare an emergency with ATC.
- Plan a possible diversion to the nearest "suitable" airport.
- Notify dispatch.

Front 468

During a "Level 4" (Attempted or Actual Breach of the Flight Deck) incident, what is the proper procedure to be followed?

Back 468

At Gate:
- Lockdown the cockpit.
- Declare an emergency with ATC.
- Defend the cockpit.
- Escape and disable the aircraft.

During Taxi:
- Lockdown the cockpit.
- Stop the aircraft.
- Defend the cockpit.
- Escape and disable the aircraft.

Inflight:
- Lockdown the cockpit.
- Turn the seatbelt sign "ON".
- Declare an emergency with ATC.
- Defend the cockpit.
- Land at the nearest "suitable" airport.
- Escape and disable the aircraft.

Front 469

Under what "Lockdown Levels" may the captain terminate the lockdown procedure?

Back 469

Only under Level 1 and Level 2.

Levels 3 and 4 require law enforcement action to resolve and terminate the procedure.

Front 470

Which airports have "special" airport specific operational procedures?

Back 470

Boise
Pullman
Reno
Sun Valley
Mammoth
Seattle

Front 471

What special airport procedure exists while operating at Boise?

Back 471

The CAT III approach to runway 10R is a "special" approach because it has a non-standard approach light system.

The landing "sight picture" will be different at minimums!

Front 472

What special procedure must be followed when operating at Pullman?

Back 472

Due to the close proximity of the taxiway to the runway, taxiing must be delayed until arriving aircraft have cleared the runway and taxiway.

Announce that you are a "CAT C" and your time until departure over the radio prior to entering the taxiway.

If there are other "CAT C" aircraft inbound for landing, delay your taxi until they are clear!

When arriving to Pullman announce that you are a "large" or "Approach Category C" aircraft over the radio to inform other outbound traffic.

Front 473

What special procedures exist for Reno when departing or arriving?

Back 473

Departure:
- Advise the flight attendants to remain seated until reaching FL180.
- Use a steeper Type II climb of 185 kts up to FL180 or until clear of the turbulence to expedite through the turbulent area.

Arrival:
- 10 minutes prior to descent advise the flight attendants to prepare the cabin for landing and take their seats.

Front 474

What special procedures exist for Sun Valley when departing or arriving?

Back 474

Requires an "alternate" anytime that from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the flights ETA the weather is reported below 5,000' ceiling and 6 miles visibility.

Departures from Sun Valley require:
- Daytime: VMC departures with no limitations!
- Night time: 2,000' ceiling / 3 miles

Arrivals to Sun Valley requires:
- Daytime: VMC arrivials with no limitations!
- Night time: 3,000' ceiling / 5 miles

Front 475

What special procedures exist for Mammoth when departing or arriving?

Back 475

Turbulence can be encountered unexpectedly!

Arrival:
- Inform the flight attendants to prepare the cabin and take their seats 10 minutes prior to descent.
- The flight should not descend below FL 180 until the flight attendants are seated!
- Because of close terrain, the maximum airspeed from the IAF is 200 kts.
- All landings must be made by the "captain" due to the close proximity of the hangars.
a. Night arrivals are limited to runway 27 "only" due to terrain!

Departures:
- Advise the flight attendants to remain seated until they are informed it's safe by the flignt crew (above FL 180).
- All takeoffs should be made by the captain! If the hangar doors are verified to be shut then the first officer may make the takeoff.
- A Type II climb of 185 kts should be maintained until FL 180 is reached.