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2272 Cards in this Set

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Question
Answer
What is the difference between a Summary Courts Martial and a Special Courts Martial?
The distinction between the levels of Court-Martial is in many respects a function of the jurisdictional limits of punishment that can be imposed by the Court.
In dealing with fear, what is the primary difference between the coping strategies of morale and dicipline?
Morale is the state of mind while dicipline is the ability of the individual or group to iniate appropriate action in following orders.
How is a Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB) different than a Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU)?
All of the Above
Which of the following are not part of the Marine Corps Mission?
1. Provide combined arms for the seizure or defense of advanced naval bases 2. Provide Security Detachments for the protection of Navy Vessels and Property 3. Develop Amphibious Operations 4. Provide airborne Operations. 5. Develop airborne operations 6. Expand peacetime readiness and mobilization efforts 7. Perform other duties as directed by the President
On the NAVPERS 1070/602, Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data what data goes in part I?
Part I serves as an application for dependency allowances and is used to capture military spouse data.
Explain the shape, colors and purposes of the standard NATO Nuclear, Biological, and Chemical contamination markers and the information contained on them.
Triangle marker pointing downward.
Which of the following do not belong in the same category?
Cyanogen chloride (CK), Hydrogen cyanide (AC), and Arsine (SA) are all blood agents while Chloropicrin (PS) is a choking agent.
How many guidelines are there for the observation of a field of fire?
There are 8
What is MOPP level 3?
Mask, overgarments, and overboots worn. Gloves kept ready.
Regardings Hearing protection what db level over 8 hours must sound be at to wear hearing protection?
"greater than 84 db over 8 hours
140 bd pea sound pressure level"
The Marine Corps has seven Missions. What are they?
"1. Provide combined arms for the seizure or defense of advanced naval bases
7. Perform other duties as directed by the President"
Which of the following are not the Mission of the United States Marine Corps?
"1. Provide combined arms for the seizure or defense of advanced naval bases
7. Perform other duties as directed by the President"
What is MOPP Level 1?
Overgarments worn, chemical agent detectors worn, mask worn in carrier at side. Gloves and overboots readily accessible.
How much can the M88A1 lift when trying to recover damaged parts or armor?
The M88's primary role is to repair or replace damaged parts in fighting vehicles while under fire, as well as extricate vehicles that have become bogged down or entangled. The main winch on the M88A2 is capable of a 70 ton, single line recovery, and a 140 ton 2:1 recovery when used with the 140 ton pulley. The A-frame boom of the A2 can lift 35 tons when used in conjunction with the spade down. The spade can be used for light earth moving, and can be used to anchor the vehicle when using the main winch.
What is the birthday of the United States Marine Corps?
The Marine Corps was created on 10 November 1775
Where was the birthplace of the Marine Corps?
Philadelphia, Pennsylvania at Tun Tavern
Who was the first commandant of the Marine Corps?
Captain Samuel Nicholas
What was the name of the bar the United States Marines were founded in?
Tun Tavern
Where did the first Marine Landing Take Place?
New Providence Island
Where did the name leatherneck come from?
During the Revolutionary War Marines had a stiff leather stock around their necks to protect them against their throats being slit in battle.
What Year Did the Marines Storm The Barbary Coast
1805
<p>True or False. Marines stormed the island of New Providence in 1777 during the revolutionary war</p>
<p>False. 1776.</p>
Where is Derna Located?
This is where the Barbary Pirates stronghold was and where the Marine raised the "Stars and Stripes" in the Eastern Hemisphere for the first time in 1805. This is where the lyrics "Shores of Tripoli" reference in the Marine Corps Hymn.
What year did Marines invade Mexico City?
1847
What are the lyrics referencing in the Marine Corps Hymn, "From the Halls of Montezuma?"
The Mexican War in 1847, where Marines invaded Mexico City
What year the Marines Storm Harper's Ferry
1859
Who commanded the Marines at Harper's Ferry?
Col. Robert E. Lee
What were the Marine's doing at Harper's Ferry?
They were putting down a slave revolt led by abolitionist John Brown
What year did the Marine Corps Institute the Eagle Globe and Anchor Emblem?
The Eagle Globe and Anchor Emblem or EGA as it is commonly called was instituted in 1868
Who instituted the Eagle Globe and Anchor as a symbol of the United States Marine Corps?
Brigadier General Jacob Zeilin who was the 7th Commandant
What is the official motto of the Marine Corps?
Semper Fidelis which means always faithful
What year was the motto "Semper Fidelis" instituted in the Marine Corps?
1883
Where did the Marine Corps get its Eagle Globe and Anchor Symbol from?
From the British Royal Marines
What year did Marines defend Peking, China in the Boxer Rebellion?
1900
What year did Marine Aviation take flight?
1913
Who was the first Marine Corps pilot?
Marine Major Alfred A. Cunningham
What year did the Marines land in France during World War I?
1917
What groups of Marines still wear the French Forragere on their uniforms for their valor in the liberation of France during the 1st World War?
The 5th and 6th Marines
What year was the FMF Organized?
1933
What year did Marines land in South Vietnam?
1965
What year were Marine deployed to Lebanon?
1982
What year did the Marines draw down from Lebanon?
They with drew in July of 1984
<p>Where was the first Gulf War Fought?</p>
The first Gulf War was fought against the armies of Saddam Hussein in Iraq who had invaded Kuwait. The multi-national effort was focused on the liberation of Kuwait.
What was the First Gulf War Called?
Operation Desert Shield and Operation Desert Storm
What country were U.S. Forces attempting to liberate in Operation Desert Storm?
Kuwait
What war was the Battle of Belle Wood Fought?
World War I
Who were the Marines fighting at the Battle of Belle Wood?
German Army during World War I.
Who won the battle of Belle Wood?
The Marines and Allies did against the Germans in France.
What did the Germans call the United States Marines at Belle Wood?
"Teufelhunden" which means Devil Dog
When was the Battle of Guadalcanal fought?
August 07, 1942.
What Marine Division landed on Guadalcanal in 1942?
1st Marine Division
Where is Guadalcanal located?
In the Solomon Islands in the South Pacific
What was the first land offensive conducted by the United States in World War II?
The Battle of Gudalcalcanal
Why was the Battle of Guadalcanal important in August of 1942?
This battle marked the first combat test of the new amphibious doctrine and also provided a crucial turning point of the war in the Pacific by providing a base to launch further invasions of Japanese-held islands.
How many hours did it take for the Marines to secure the Island of Tarwa?
76 hours
When was the battle of Tarawa fought?
20-Nov-43
What group of Islands is Tarwa located where the Marines fought in 1943?
The Gilbert Islands
What made the Battle of Tarwa difficult for Marines on November 20, 1943?
An extended reef made the landing difficult. Craft could not cross it and Marines were offloaded hundreds of yards from the beaches. This led to heavy losses from enemy fire. Also many Marines drowned while attempting to wade ashore.
From what war did the Marines invade the Mariana Islands?
The air-force needed airfields to operate from to be able to bomb mainland Japan.
Which of the Mariana Islands were invaded?
Landsin on Saipan, Guam and Tinian facilitated the bombing of mainland Japan.
<p>How many troops did Lt. General Holland M. Smith lead in the invasion of the Mariana Islands?</p>
<p>136,000</p>
The largest number of troops operated under a Marine Command during what key battle of World War II?
The Battle of Mariana Islands
When was the Battle of Iwo Jima Fought?
On February 19, 1945
What was the largest all-Marine battle in history?
The Battle of Iwo Jima on February 19, 1945 against the Japanese in World War II
What was the bloodiest battle in Marine Corps history?
The Battle of Iwo Jima on February 19, 1945
How many casualties were suffered by the United States Marine Corps in the battle of Iwo Jima
23,000
Who said, "Among the Americans who served on Iwo Island, uncommon valor was a common virtue?"
Admiral Chester Nimitz
The Chosin Reservior was fought during what military conflict?
The Korean War in November of 1950
Who also fought with the Koreans in the Battle of the Chosin Reservior?
The Communist Chinese
Why was the Battle of the Chosin Reservoir significant in the Korean conflict?
"In the period between 27 November and 13 December 1950, 30,000 United Nations (UN) troops (nicknamed ""The Chosin Few"") under the command of Major General Edward Almond were encircled by approximately 60,000 Chinese troops under the command of Song Shi-Lun. Although Chinese troops managed to surround and outnumber the UN forces, the UN forces broke out of the encirclement while inflicting crippling losses on the Chinese.
"
What country was the Tet offensive fought?
Vietnam in January of 1968
What is significant about the Battle of Hue City?
The Battle of Huế during 1968, was one of the bloodiest and longest battles of the Vietnam War (1959–1975). The Army of the Republic of Vietnam and three understrength U.S. Marine Corps battalions attacked and defeated more than 10,000 entrenched People's Army of Vietnam (PAVN) and National Front for the Liberation of South Vietnam (NLF, also known as, Viet Cong) guerilla forces.
How many years was Archibald Henderson commandant of the Marine Corps?
39 years
What is Brigadier General Archibald Henderson's nick name?
The "Grand Old Man of the Marine Corps."
When did Archibald Henderson become Commandant of the Marine Corps?
1820
What did SgtMaj John Quick win the Medal of Honor for?
His performance at Cuzco Well, near Guitanimo bay, Cuba, seized and advance base for Marines was done by a semaphore for an emergency lift of the naval bombardment while under Spanish and American shellfire. This was also significant because it demonstrated the use of Marines as assault troops.
How many Medals of Honor did SgtMaj John Daily Win?
Two. One for valor in the Chinese Boxer Rebellion and in the First Caco War in Haiti.
What famous Marine said, Come on, you sons of a bitches, do you want to live forever?"
Sergeant Major Dan Daly
What famous Marine was known as the tiger of the mountains in Nicaragua and Honduras?
Louis B. "Chesty" Puller
What is the "B" stand for in Chesty B. Puller?
Burwell
Who is the only Marine to have ever received 5 Navy Crosses?
Louis B. "Chesty" Puller
Who commanded the "Black Sheep Squadron?"
Col. Gregory R. "Pappy" Boyington
How many confirmed kills did ace pilot Gregory R. "Pappy" Boyington attain before the end of World War II?
28
Who was Ira H. Hayes?
He was a Marine Corporeal, and a Pima Indian who were immortalized in th enow famous photograph taken of the second flag-raising incident on Mount Suribachi (Iwo Jima).
Who was the first woman to enlist in the United States Marine Corps?
Private Johnson became the Marine Corps first enlisted woman on August 13, 1918.
Who was the first female General officer of the United States Marine Corps?
General Margaret A. Brewer
What year did Private Opha Mae Johnson, the first enlisted female Marine enlist?
1918
What year did Brigadier General Brewer become the first female General in the United States Marine Corps?
1978
Yes.No. Should you salute at work indoors?
No
Yes. No. If you are taken prisoner should you salute while in a POW status?
No
Yes. No. You should salute while you are in Battle Conditions
No.
Yes. No. When you are rendering an individual salute is it appropriate to look at the member or flag being saluted squarely?
Yes
Yes. No. Is it appropriate to render a salute when smoking a cigarette or cigar?
No
Yes/No. Is a salute rendered to military officials of foreign powers who's governments are not recognized by the United States?
No. Only officers, regular and reserve of the Navy, Army, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, and foreign military and naval officers whose governments are formally recognized by the U.S. Government.
When rendering a salute how long should you hold it?
Hold your salute until it is returned or acknowledged.
Besides a salute what is a customary accompaniment when saluting an officer?
Accompany the salute with a greeting such as "Good Morning sir or ma'am."
Question
Answer
Hint
Under what circumstances would you salute an officer twice in the same conversation?
When meeting or greeting the officer and again when they are departing the vicinity of the conversation.
What is the difference between a Summary Courts Martial and a Special Courts Martial?
The distinction between the levels of Court-Martial is in many respects a function of the jurisdictional limits of punishment that can be imposed by the Court.
Yes. No. If the officer you are speaking to, who is senior to you, comes to attention and salutes a senior should you interrupt that conversation?
No.
In dealing with fear, what is the primary difference between the coping strategies of morale and dicipline?
Morale is the state of mind while dicipline is the ability of the individual or group to iniate appropriate action in following orders.
Yes/No. Should the first person in a group to notice the approaching senior not in ranks, render the appropriate greeting and salute?
Yes
How is a Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB) different than a Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU)?
All of the Above
If your group is in formation who should render the appropriate greeting and salute?
The senior person should call the formation to attention and the they should salute for the group.
Which of the following are not part of the Marine Corps Mission?
1. Provide combined arms for the seizure or defense of advanced naval bases 2. Provide Security Detachments for the protection of Navy Vessels and Property 3. Develop Amphibious Operations 4. Provide airborne Operations. 5. Develop airborne operations 6. Expand peacetime readiness and mobilization efforts 7. Perform other duties as directed by the President
Yes/No. Should you salute an officer when passing them in the same direction?
Yes. Come abreast of the officer and render a salute and say, "By your leave, sir (ma'am)."
On the NAVPERS 1070/602, Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data what data goes in part I?
Part I serves as an application for dependency allowances and is used to capture military spouse data.
Yes/No. Are appropriate honors rendered in a salute and greeting to officers of the United States Coast Guard?
Yes
Explain the shape, colors and purposes of the standard NATO Nuclear, Biological, and Chemical contamination markers and the information contained on them.
Triangle marker pointing downward.
Yes/No. If you are in a working party and your uniform blouse is unbuttoned should you render a salute?
No
Which of the following do not belong in the same category?
Cyanogen chloride (CK), Hydrogen cyanide (AC), and Arsine (SA) are all blood agents while Chloropicrin (PS) is a choking agent.
Yes/No. If you are in a crowded place and you see your unit CO while wearing civilian attire should an enlisted person render a salute?
No. Salutes will not be rendered at crowded gatherings, in public conveyances, or in congested areas, unless you are addressing or are being directly addressed by a senior.
How many guidelines are there for the observation of a field of fire?
There are 8
Yes/No. Regarding Marine Corps Rank, does a private have any chevrons?
No
What is MOPP level 3?
Mask, overgarments, and overboots worn. Gloves kept ready.
What is the difference in rank between a Master Sergeant and a First Sergeant?
A first Sergeant has a diamond in the middle of the chevrons while the Master Sergeant has crossed rifles. Both have three Chevrons up and three Chevrons down.
What is MOPP Level 1?
Overgarments worn, chemical agent detectors worn, mask worn in carrier at side. Gloves and overboots readily accessible.
What Marine Corps rank is represented by three chevrons up and one down?
Staff Sergeant
How much can the M88A1 lift when trying to recover damaged parts or armor?
The M88's primary role is to repair or replace damaged parts in fighting vehicles while under fire, as well as extricate vehicles that have become bogged down or entangled. The main winch on the M88A2 is capable of a 70 ton, single line recovery, and a 140 ton 2:1 recovery when used with the 140 ton pulley. The A-frame boom of the A2 can lift 35 tons when used in conjunction with the spade down. The spade can be used for light earth moving, and can be used to anchor the vehicle when using the main winch.
What Marine Corps rank is represented by three Chevrons and a set of crossed rifles?
Sergeant (E5)
What is the birthday of the United States Marine Corps?
The Marine Corps was created on 10 November 1775
What Marine Corps rank is represented by two Chevrons and a set of crossed rifles?
Corporal (E4)
Where was the birthplace of the Marine Corps?
Philadelphia, Pennsylvania at Tun Tavern
What Marine Corps rank is represented by three Chevrons up and four down and the Marine Corps Eagle Globe and Anchor in the Middle?
Sergeant Major of the Marine Corps
What Marine Corps Rank is represented by three chevrons up and four chevrons down with a set of crossed rifles in the Middle?
There is no rank in the Marine Corps like that
Who was the first commandant of the Marine Corps?
Captain Samuel Nicholas
A Master Gunnery Sergeant of Marines rank insignia is delineated by the following icon?
Three Chevrons up. Four Chevrons Down and a bomb in the middle.
What was the name of the bar the United States Marines were founded in?
Tun Tavern
When looking at the Marine ranks of Warren Officer what characteristic makes the W-1 and W-3 ranks different from the W-2 and W-4 ranks?
The 1 and 3 have three segments while the 2 and 4 have five segments.
Where did the first Marine Landing Take Place?
New Providence Island
What is the key difference between the W-2 rank insignia and the W-4?
The W-2 is gold and the W-4 is silver
Where did the name leatherneck come from?
During the Revolutionary War Marines had a stiff leather stock around their necks to protect them against their throats being slit in battle.
What is a key difference between the Marine Rank insignia's of W-1 and W-3?
The W-1 is gold and the W-3 is silver.
What Year Did the Marines Storm The Barbary Coast
1805
What is unique about the W-5 rank insignia for Marine Warrant Officers?
A thin red bar runs the length of the insignia (parallel with the long end) instead of the bars that traverse is on the ranks from W-1 to W-4
<p>True or False. Marines stormed the island of New Providence in 1777 during the revolutionary war</p>
<p>False. 1776.</p>
What distinguishes the Marine Corps Ranks of Major and Lieutenant Colonel?
Both are oak leafs but the major is gold and the Lieutenant Colonel is silver
Where is Derna Located?
This is where the Barbary Pirates stronghold was and where the Marine raised the "Stars and Stripes" in the Eastern Hemisphere for the first time in 1805. This is where the lyrics "Shores of Tripoli" reference in the Marine Corps Hymn.
Put the Marine Corps Flag Ranks in Order
Brigadier, Major, Lieutenant, General (BMLG)
What year did Marines invade Mexico City?
1847
What acronym makes it easy to remember the order of the ranks of General in the United States Marine Corps?
"Be My Little General (BMLG).
What are the lyrics referencing in the Marine Corps Hymn, "From the Halls of Montezuma?"
The Mexican War in 1847, where Marines invaded Mexico City
General"
What year the Marines Storm Harper's Ferry
1859
What is the difference in insignia between the Second Lieutenant and First Lieutenant?
The 2nd Lieutenant has a gold bar and is lower rank (O-1).
Who commanded the Marines at Harper's Ferry?
Col. Robert E. Lee
Rendering Honors. Scenario: You and your Marines are at the smoke pit and are uncovered. The call for colors is sounded. What should you do?
Stand at attention. Face the point of reference (colors, music, etc.) and do NOT render a salute.
What were the Marine's doing at Harper's Ferry?
They were putting down a slave revolt led by abolitionist John Brown
Yes/No. Rendering Honors. Should you render military honors when in a vehicle?
No
What year did the Marine Corps Institute the Eagle Globe and Anchor Emblem?
The Eagle Globe and Anchor Emblem or EGA as it is commonly called was instituted in 1868
<p>Rendering Honors. If you are passing or being passed: How long before and after should honors be rendered?</p>
<p>6 paces before and 6 paces after</p>
Who instituted the Eagle Globe and Anchor as a symbol of the United States Marine Corps?
Brigadier General Jacob Zeilin who was the 7th Commandant
Rendering Honors. When the flag is raised or lowered at morning and evening colors what trigger or key should be used to render honors?
On the first note of the National Anthem or the call, "To The Colors."
What is the official motto of the Marine Corps?
Semper Fidelis which means always faithful
Rendering Honors. What order of customs should be observed when boarding a Navy Vessel?
"Face Aft
What year was the motto "Semper Fidelis" instituted in the Marine Corps?
1883
request permission to come aboard"
Where did the Marine Corps get its Eagle Globe and Anchor Symbol from?
From the British Royal Marines
What are the two chains of command in the United States Marine Corps?
Service and Operational
What year did Marines defend Peking, China in the Boxer Rebellion?
1900
How is the Operational Chain of command different than the Service?
The Operational Command goes from the Secretary of Defense directly to the Operational Commanders while the Service goes from the Secretary of the Navy to the Commandant of the Marine Corps
What year did Marine Aviation take flight?
1913
What three components are the Marine Corps Operating Forces Consisted of?
1. The Marine Corps Forces which are made up of Marine Air Ground Task Forces 2. The Marine Corps Security Forces. 3. Marine Security Guard Detachments
Who was the first Marine Corps pilot?
Marine Major Alfred A. Cunningham
What are Marine Corps Security Forces?
The Marine Corps Security Forces (MCSF) include approximately 3,400 Marines who protect key naval installations and facilities worldwide. Although not assigned to combatant commands, they are part of the operating forces of the Marine Corps.
What year did the Marines land in France during World War I?
1917
What are Marine Security Guard Detachments?
These detachments serve at embassies and consulates around the globe. The Marine security guard battalion provides forces to the Department of State for embassy security. These Marines are currently assigned to 121 diplomatic posts in 115 countries through out the world.
What groups of Marines still wear the French Forragere on their uniforms for their valor in the liberation of France during the 1st World War?
The 5th and 6th Marines
What is the difference between Marine Corps Security Forces and Marine Security Guard Detachments?
Security Forces guard Naval installations while the Security Guard Detachments guard embassies.
What year was the FMF Organized?
1933
<p>How many countries are Marine Security Guard Detachments assigned to support?</p>
<p>The Marine Security Guard Detachments support embassies and consulates around the globe. The Marine Security Guard battalion provides forces to the Department of State for embassy security. These Marines are currently assigned to 121 diplomatic posts in 115 countries throughout the world.</p>
What year did Marines land in South Vietnam?
1965
How many diplomatic posts are Marine Security Guard Detachments supporting through out the globe?
The Marine Security Guard Detachments support embassies and consulates around the globe. The Marine Security Guard battalion provides forces to the Department of State for embassy security. These Marines are currently assigned to 121 diplomatic posts in 115 countries throughout the world.
What year were Marine deployed to Lebanon?
1982
What three elements are contained in a MAGTF?
The Marine Air-Ground Task Force (MAGTF) is the principle organization for the conduct of all missions across the range of military operations. MAGTFs are balanced, combined arms forces with organic ground, aviation and sustainment elements.
What year did the Marines draw down from Lebanon?
They with drew in July of 1984
Yes/No. Can MAGTF's conduct both expeditionary or sustained operations ashore?
Yes
<p>Where was the first Gulf War Fought?</p>
The first Gulf War was fought against the armies of Saddam Hussein in Iraq who had invaded Kuwait. The multi-national effort was focused on the liberation of Kuwait.
The MAGTF has a command element with six parts. What are those six parts?
"G1- Division (Personnel and administration)
What was the First Gulf War Called?
Operation Desert Shield and Operation Desert Storm
G6- Division (Communications and Information Systems)"
What country were U.S. Forces attempting to liberate in Operation Desert Storm?
Kuwait
What is the difference between the MEF, MEB, and MEU?
Each are MAGTF organizations of various sizes. The MEF is a Force Level, the MEB is composed of Regimental sized elements and the MEU is composed of Battalion sized elements.
What war was the Battle of Belle Wood Fought?
World War I
Where are the three MEF's located?
"I MEF- based in southern California and Arizona
Who were the Marines fighting at the Battle of Belle Wood?
German Army during World War I.
III MEF- based in Japan and Hawaii"
Who won the battle of Belle Wood?
The Marines and Allies did against the Germans in France.
How is a Marine Expeditionary Force (MEF) different from a Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB)?
The MEF is a MAGTF built around a GCE of a division size.
What did the Germans call the United States Marines at Belle Wood?
"Teufelhunden" which means Devil Dog
True/False. The Marine Aircraft Wing is the Air Combat Element of a Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB)?
False. The size of the ACE in the MEB is a group.
When was the Battle of Guadalcanal fought?
August 07, 1942.
True/False. A squadron sized ACE Element supports a Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB).
False. The squadron sized element supports the Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU).
What Marine Division landed on Guadalcanal in 1942?
1st Marine Division
What is the difference between the Combat Support Services Group (CSSG) and the Brigade Support Service Group (BSSG)?
The Brigade Support Service Group (BSSG) is the logistics portion of the Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB) MAGTF?
Where is Guadalcanal located?
In the Solomon Islands in the South Pacific
If there are three basic MAGTF's the MEF, MEB, and MEU what is the fourth?
A Special Purpose MAFTF (SPMAGTF). This is usually used for a special purpose such as disaster relief, humanitarian assistance, noncombatant evacuation operations, or security operations where one of the other three elements would be inappropriate.
What was the first land offensive conducted by the United States in World War II?
The Battle of Gudalcalcanal
What is the minimum sized element of the Ground Combat Element a Special Purpose MAGTF?
Platoon sized GCE. An Aircraft Asset for the ACE and customized support services for the CSSE.
Why was the Battle of Guadalcanal important in August of 1942?
This battle marked the first combat test of the new amphibious doctrine and also provided a crucial turning point of the war in the Pacific by providing a base to launch further invasions of Japanese-held islands.
How many MEU's are in the Marine Corps?
"There are seven standing MEU's in the Marine Corps.
How many hours did it take for the Marines to secure the Island of Tarwa?
76 hours
III MEF has the 31st MEU"
When was the battle of Tarawa fought?
20-Nov-43
Which of the following are not a mission of the United States Marine Corps?
1. Provide combined arms for the seizure or defense of advanced naval bases 2. Provide Security Detachments for the protection of Navy Vessels and Property 3. Develop Amphibious Operations 4. Provide airborne Operations. 5. Develop airborne operations 6. Expand peacetime readiness and mobilization efforts 7. Perform other duties as directed by the President
What group of Islands is Tarwa located where the Marines fought in 1943?
The Gilbert Islands
On a Navy Performance Evaluation who is the reporting Senior?
Commanding Officers are reporting seniors by virtue of their command authority. Commanding officers may submit properly authorized fitness and evaluation reports on any member who has reported to them for duty, whether junior or senior to them in grade. The term "Commanding officer" includes commanding officers of all services, and their civilian equivalents with in the U.S. Federal Government.
What made the Battle of Tarwa difficult for Marines on November 20, 1943?
An extended reef made the landing difficult. Craft could not cross it and Marines were offloaded hundreds of yards from the beaches. This led to heavy losses from enemy fire. Also many Marines drowned while attempting to wade ashore.
What is the lowest grade officer that can be delegated as a reporting senior for enlisted reports service members E5 to E9 and those frocked to E5?
O4 or GS12.
From what war did the Marines invade the Mariana Islands?
The air-force needed airfields to operate from to be able to bomb mainland Japan.
What is the lowest grade that a reporting senior may be delegated to members in the grades of E4 and below?
Chief Petty Officer (E7) or GS11
Which of the Mariana Islands were invaded?
Landsin on Saipan, Guam and Tinian facilitated the bombing of mainland Japan.
What is the purpose of a rater in the evaluation process of an E6 and below?
Evaluation reports on E6 and below require the signatures of a rater and senior rater as well as the reporting senior. This ensures that the Navy's senior enlisted and junior officer supervisors are properly included in the enlisted evaluation process. The rater should be a Navy chief petty officer whenever possible, but if none is available within the command, may be a military or civilian supervisor who is an E7 equivalent or higher. Typically, the senior rater will be the member's division officer or department head. The senior rater may be omitted where the reporting senior is the raters immediate supervisor.
<p>How many troops did Lt. General Holland M. Smith lead in the invasion of the Mariana Islands?</p>
<p>136,000</p>
How is performance Counseling different than performance evaluations?
Counseling is conducted by the command at the half way point of the interval process.
The largest number of troops operated under a Marine Command during what key battle of World War II?
The Battle of Mariana Islands
Regarding evaluation reports how many types are there?
Three.
When was the Battle of Iwo Jima Fought?
On February 19, 1945
Regarding Evaluations, what is the difference between Regular Reports and Concurrent Reports?
Concurrent reports are done for members on additional duty or temporary additional duty while regular reports are consistent with annual regular performance in their job.
What was the largest all-Marine battle in history?
The Battle of Iwo Jima on February 19, 1945 against the Japanese in World War II
Regarding Performance Evaluations, what kind of report would you issue for temporary additional duty?
A concurrent report provides a record of significant performance in an additional duty (ADDU) or temporary additional duty (TEMADD) status. They are optional unless directed by higher authority, and may not be submitted by anyone in the regular reporting senior's direct chain of command.
What was the bloodiest battle in Marine Corps history?
The Battle of Iwo Jima on February 19, 1945
Yes/No. Are Operational Commander's reports submitted on E7 and above?
No. Operational Commander's reports are optional, and may only be submitted on commanding officers or officer in charge by operational commanders who are not also their regular reporting seniors.
How many casualties were suffered by the United States Marine Corps in the battle of Iwo Jima
23,000
Yes/No. Are Concurrent Reports Mandatory?
No. Concurrent Reports are optional and submitted for ADDU or TEMADD status.
Who said, "Among the Americans who served on Iwo Island, uncommon valor was a common virtue?"
Admiral Chester Nimitz
<p>Yes/No. Regarding Periodic evaluations, are Regular Reports mandatory?</p>
<p>Yes. They are the foundation of the performance record. Regular reports are submitted periodically according to the schedule below, and on other occasions as specified in the EVAL manual. They must cover, day-for-day, all Naval service on active duty or in the drilling Reserve programs, except for enlisted inital entry training and other limited circumstances.</p>
The Chosin Reservior was fought during what military conflict?
The Korean War in November of 1950
Regarding periodic evaluations, what month are E5 evaluations due?
March
Who also fought with the Koreans in the Battle of the Chosin Reservior?
The Communist Chinese
Regarding periodic evaluations, what month are E9 evaluations due?
April
What country was the Tet offensive fought?
Vietnam in January of 1968
Regarding Periodic Evaluations, what months are E4 evaluations due?
June
What is significant about the Battle of Hue City?
The Battle of Huế during 1968, was one of the bloodiest and longest battles of the Vietnam War (1959–1975). The Army of the Republic of Vietnam and three understrength U.S. Marine Corps battalions attacked and defeated more than 10,000 entrenched People's Army of Vietnam (PAVN) and National Front for the Liberation of South Vietnam (NLF, also known as, Viet Cong) guerilla forces.
Regarding periodic evaluations, what month are E3/2/1 evaluations due?
July
How many years was Archibald Henderson commandant of the Marine Corps?
39 years
Regarding Periodic Evaluations, when are E7 and E8 evaluations due?
September
What is Brigadier General Archibald Henderson's nick name?
The "Grand Old Man of the Marine Corps."
Regarding periodic evaluations what month are E6 evaluations due?
November
When did Archibald Henderson become Commandant of the Marine Corps?
1820
Yes/No. Regarding fitness reports, if a member has been exonerated of an offense, can the incident be reflected in a fitness report?
No. Adverse or downgraded fitness and evaluation reports may not be directed as punishment or used as an alternative to the report disposition of misconduct under the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). Reports may not mention non-punitive censure, or investigatory, judicial or other proceedings which have not been concluded or which have exonerated the member. Subject to these limitations, fitness and evaluation reports should take into account misconduct which has been established through reliable evidence to the reporting senior's satisfaction.
What did SgtMaj John Quick win the Medal of Honor for?
His performance at Cuzco Well, near Guitanimo bay, Cuba, seized and advance base for Marines was done by a semaphore for an emergency lift of the naval bombardment while under Spanish and American shellfire. This was also significant because it demonstrated the use of Marines as assault troops.
On performance evaluations what is the highest marks reserved for performance which is far above standards and is notable for its exemplary or leadership quality?
5
How many Medals of Honor did SgtMaj John Daily Win?
Two. One for valor in the Chinese Boxer Rebellion and in the First Caco War in Haiti.
On performance evaluations, the trait grade of 1.0 is given for what purpose?
The performance trait grade of 1.0 is for sailors who are struggling at their required duties and tasks. They create conflict, are unwilling to work with others, puts themselves above the team, they neglect growth and development of subordinates, and usually need excessive supervision. Furthemore, they have marginal knowledge of their jobs and their actions are counter to the Navy's retention and reenlistment goals.
What famous Marine said, Come on, you sons of a bitches, do you want to live forever?"
Sergeant Major Dan Daly
On periodic evaluations, why should "two-blocking" be avoided by reporting seniors?
First, the reporting seniors average trait grade will be available to detailers and selection boards for comparison purposes. Second, it will be difficult for the reporting senior to allocate promotion recommendations if everyone's trait grades are the same.
What famous Marine was known as the tiger of the mountains in Nicaragua and Honduras?
Louis B. "Chesty" Puller
Yes/No. Regarding personal evaluations, are handwritten entries allowed?
Only on E4 and below evaluations
What is the "B" stand for in Chesty B. Puller?
Burwell
Yes/No. Regarding periodic evaluations, can changes or supplements be made after submission?
Yes. The reporting senior can, for good cause, submit administrative changes or evaluative supplements with in 2 years from the ending date of the report.
Who is the only Marine to have ever received 5 Navy Crosses?
Louis B. "Chesty" Puller
Regarding Fitness Reporting, how long must they be retained?
The reporting senior must retain copies of officer FITREPs for 5 years. The command must retain copies of enlisted FITREPs and EVALs for 2 years. Counseling worksheets must be held in a Privacy Act records system until the member detaches, then destroyed.
Who commanded the "Black Sheep Squadron?"
Col. Gregory R. "Pappy" Boyington
Yes/No. Regarding periodic evaluations, can adverse or downgraded fitness and evaluation reports be directed as punishment or used as an alternative to NJP?
No. Adverse or downgraded fitness and evaluation reports may not be directed as punishment or used as an alternative to the proper disposition of misconduct under the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). Reports may not mention non-punitive censure, or investigatory, judicial, or other proceedings which have not been concluded or which have exonerated the member.
How many confirmed kills did ace pilot Gregory R. "Pappy" Boyington attain before the end of World War II?
28
Regarding navy correspondence, what is the difference between a standard letter and an endorsement?
Endorsement is similar to a letter but used for transmitting correspondence through the chain of command and sometimes provides command comments or may be returned to the originator requesting more information while the standard letter is used to conduct official correspondence.
Who was Ira H. Hayes?
He was a Marine Corporeal, and a Pima Indian who were immortalized in th enow famous photograph taken of the second flag-raising incident on Mount Suribachi (Iwo Jima).
Regarding Navy Correspondence, is a memorandum formal or informal?
Informal. a memorandum provides an informal way to correspond within an activity or between DON activities. Subordinates may use it to correspond directly with each other on routine official business.
Who was the first woman to enlist in the United States Marine Corps?
Private Johnson became the Marine Corps first enlisted woman on August 13, 1918.
What is the NAVPERS 1070/602?
The Dependency Application /Record of Emergency Data
Who was the first female General officer of the United States Marine Corps?
General Margaret A. Brewer
Name three types of Navy Correspondence
Standard Letter. Endorsements. Memorandums.
What year did Private Opha Mae Johnson, the first enlisted female Marine enlist?
1918
How many parts does a NAVPERS 1070/602 Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data have?
Two
What year did Brigadier General Brewer become the first female General in the United States Marine Corps?
1978
On the NAVPERS 1070/602, Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data what information goes on part II?
"Part II provides an immediately accessible, up-to-date record of emergency data and is the official document used to determine the following:
Yes.No. Should you salute at work indoors?
No
- National Service Life Insurance, Servicemen's Group Life Insurance, and Veterans Group Life Insurance in effect."
Yes. No. If you are taken prisoner should you salute while in a POW status?
No
What is the NAVPERS 1070/602 commonly called?
Page 2
Yes. No. You should salute while you are in Battle Conditions
No.
What information is contained on the NAVPERS 1070/604
The NAVPERS 1070/604 is the Enlisted Qualification History and it contains a chronological history of the members occupational and training related qualifications and their awards and commendations.
Yes. No. When you are rendering an individual salute is it appropriate to look at the member or flag being saluted squarely?
Yes
What is the 1070/604 commonly called?
Page 4
Yes. No. Is it appropriate to render a salute when smoking a cigarette or cigar?
No
What is the difference between the NAVPERS 1070/604 and the NAVPERS 1070/605?
The 604 is your qualifications and the 605 is your history of assignments
Yes/No. Is a salute rendered to military officials of foreign powers who's governments are not recognized by the United States?
No. Only officers, regular and reserve of the Navy, Army, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, and foreign military and naval officers whose governments are formally recognized by the U.S. Government.
What is the NAVPERS 1070/605?
The NAVPERS 1070/605, history of assignments is a chronological record of duty assignments and is maintained through out member's active and inactive duty career.
When rendering a salute how long should you hold it?
Hold your salute until it is returned or acknowledged.
What is the difference between the NAVPERS 1070/613 and the NAVPERS 1070/602?
A NAVPERS 1070/613 or "page 13" is a document that contains Administrative Remarks. Is it a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries which are not provided for elsewhere or where more detailed information may be required to clarify entries onto other pages. Entries are required for civil misdemeanors and felonies that come to the command's attention, and for Non-Judicial punishment that does not result in a loss of pay.
Besides a salute what is a customary accompaniment when saluting an officer?
Accompany the salute with a greeting such as "Good Morning sir or ma'am."
What is the UCMJ?
The Uniform Code of Military Justice
Under what circumstances would you salute an officer twice in the same conversation?
When meeting or greeting the officer and again when they are departing the vicinity of the conversation.
What is the purpose of the UCMJ?
The Uniform Code of Military Justice promotes good order and discipline, and provides a basis for the administration of justice for the armed forces.
Yes. No. If the officer you are speaking to, who is senior to you, comes to attention and salutes a senior should you interrupt that conversation?
No.
Who is responsible for upholding the UCMJ?
All members of the Armed Forces.
Yes/No. Should the first person in a group to notice the approaching senior not in ranks, render the appropriate greeting and salute?
Yes
Who is subject to the Uniformed Code of Military Justice?
"Members of a regular or reserve component of the Armed Forces
If your group is in formation who should render the appropriate greeting and salute?
The senior person should call the formation to attention and the they should salute for the group.
"
Yes/No. Should you salute an officer when passing them in the same direction?
Yes. Come abreast of the officer and render a salute and say, "By your leave, sir (ma'am)."
What are the three types of Courts-Martial?
Summary, Special, General
Yes/No. Are appropriate honors rendered in a salute and greeting to officers of the United States Coast Guard?
Yes
Yes/No. Can jurors attending to a Special Court-Martial or General Court-Martial recommend any suspension of sentence?
No. Members of these courts have no power to direct, or even recommend on the record that any part of the sentence be suspended.
Yes/No. If you are in a working party and your uniform blouse is unbuttoned should you render a salute?
No
In a Special Courts-Martial proceeding, what is the difference between an enlisted member at E5 and above and an Enlisted accused in the rank of E4 and below.
For an enlisted accused in the pay grade of E5 and above, the accused may be reduced one pay-grade, be restricted for a period of 60 days, and face a forfeiture of two-thirds of basic pay for one month. For an accused in the rank of E4 and below, the accused may be sentenced to confinement for up to 30 days hard labor with out confinement for a period of 45 days, restriction for a period of 60 days, reduction to the pay grade of E-1 and forfeiture of two-thirds of basic pay for one month.
Yes/No. If you are in a crowded place and you see your unit CO while wearing civilian attire should an enlisted person render a salute?
No. Salutes will not be rendered at crowded gatherings, in public conveyances, or in congested areas, unless you are addressing or are being directly addressed by a senior.
In a special courts martial how many members sit on the board?
A special courts martial may be composed of a military judge and not less than 3 active-duty armed service members.
Yes/No. Regarding Marine Corps Rank, does a private have any chevrons?
No
Yes/No. Regarding Courts Martial, are there appeals of convictions in the military?
"Yes. Each branch of service has its own court, i.e., the Air Force Court of Criminal Appeals. The judges on these courts are made up of military attorneys. There is a possibility of a second appeal to the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces. The judges on this court are civilians.
What is the difference in rank between a Master Sergeant and a First Sergeant?
A first Sergeant has a diamond in the middle of the chevrons while the Master Sergeant has crossed rifles. Both have three Chevrons up and three Chevrons down.
"
What Marine Corps rank is represented by three chevrons up and one down?
Staff Sergeant
What does it take to be convicted in a courts-martial?
In most cases, only two-thirds of the members need to find you guilty of an offense in order to be convicted. This is very different than in a civilian world where an unanimous jury verdict is necessary.
What Marine Corps rank is represented by three Chevrons and a set of crossed rifles?
Sergeant (E5)
Besides a courts-martial, how else can the military discipline its members?
There are a host of options available. The most serious is a non-judicial punishments (NJP) under Article 15, UCMJ; this procedure is referred to as a Captain's Mast in the Navy, an NJP in the Marine Corps, and an Article 15 in the Army and Air Force. If you accept the NJP, then you are accepting the forum for your possible discipline. Your commander will then act as the judge and jury. Remember that you have a right to turn down a non-judicial punishment and request a trial by court-martial (except sailors on a ship). Doing this may or may not result in court-martial charges, depending upon the strength of the evidence against you and your prior disciplinary record. Think carefully before rejecting an NJP, and never do it without personally talking to an attorney.
What Marine Corps rank is represented by two Chevrons and a set of crossed rifles?
Corporal (E4)
Regarding Courts Martial, can a civilian lawyer be hired instead of the military lawyers available?
"Yes. Article 31 rights specifically allow a service member to hire any attorney they desire. This may become more important if the attorney appointed by the military may be inexperienced.
What Marine Corps rank is represented by three Chevrons up and four down and the Marine Corps Eagle Globe and Anchor in the Middle?
Sergeant Major of the Marine Corps
"
What Marine Corps Rank is represented by three chevrons up and four chevrons down with a set of crossed rifles in the Middle?
There is no rank in the Marine Corps like that
Yes/No. Regarding Courts Martial, are military members subject to double jepordy?
"Yes. constitutionally there is no double jeopardy or double punishment. Both the Federal government and a State may prosecute a uniformed service member for the same conduct.
A Master Gunnery Sergeant of Marines rank insignia is delineated by the following icon?
Three Chevrons up. Four Chevrons Down and a bomb in the middle.
"
When looking at the Marine ranks of Warren Officer what characteristic makes the W-1 and W-3 ranks different from the W-2 and W-4 ranks?
The 1 and 3 have three segments while the 2 and 4 have five segments.
Yes/No. Regarding court martial proceedings may a summary court martial confine a member for more than 6 months?
No. A summary court martial may only confine for 30 days with hard labor and no more than 45 days with out hard labor.
What is the key difference between the W-2 rank insignia and the W-4?
The W-2 is gold and the W-4 is silver
Yes/No. Regarding court martial proceedings, may a special court martial confine a member for more than a year?
No. A special court martial may only confine a person for up to 6 months with out hard labor and only 3 months with hard labor.
What is a key difference between the Marine Rank insignia's of W-1 and W-3?
The W-1 is gold and the W-3 is silver.
Yes/No. Regarding Summary Court Martial: Can a commissioned officer be tried for any capital offense?
No. A summary court-martial may not try a commissioned officer, warrent officer,cadet, or midshipmen for any capital offense.
What is unique about the W-5 rank insignia for Marine Warrant Officers?
A thin red bar runs the length of the insignia (parallel with the long end) instead of the bars that traverse is on the ranks from W-1 to W-4
Yes/No. Regarding a summary court marital, if you are aboard a ship can you refuse a summary court martial?
No. Except on a ship, a member may refuse the right to a summary court martial.
What distinguishes the Marine Corps Ranks of Major and Lieutenant Colonel?
Both are oak leafs but the major is gold and the Lieutenant Colonel is silver
Regarding a General Court martial what is the lowest rank of the convening authority?
The lowest rank is usually the rank of the commanding general of the wing, division, group or the equivelant.
Put the Marine Corps Flag Ranks in Order
Brigadier, Major, Lieutenant, General (BMLG)
Yes/No. Regarding a court martial if the accused is an officer can enlisted members be present on the court?
No. if the accused is a commisisoned or warrant officer, the group of the peers on the court must be of a similar rank and grade. If they are a warrant, then at least warrant officers may be present. If they are enlisted then the enlisted may request up to 1/3 of the court be enlisted.
What is the difference in insignia between the Second Lieutenant and First Lieutenant?
The 2nd Lieutenant has a gold bar and is lower rank (O-1).
What does NJP Stand for?
Non Judicial Punishment.
Rendering Honors. Scenario: You and your Marines are at the smoke pit and are uncovered. The call for colors is sounded. What should you do?
Stand at attention. Face the point of reference (colors, music, etc.) and do NOT render a salute.
Yes/No. Regarding NJP and Court Martial, does the accused have a right to refuse the NJP and demand a trial by court martial?
Yes. The accused has the right of refusal before the imposition of the NJP proceedings.
Yes/No. Rendering Honors. Should you render military honors when in a vehicle?
No
Under what circumstnaces is NJP Administered?
For minor offenses of the UCMJ where the maximum sentence, if tried by a general courtmartial, does not include a dishonorable discharge or confinement or greater than one year.
<p>Rendering Honors. If you are passing or being passed: How long before and after should honors be rendered?</p>
<p>6 paces before and 6 paces after</p>
Yes/No. Can the accused appeal an NJP decision?
Yes. The accused may appeal the pnishment if he considers it unjust or disproportionate to the offense by sumiting a written statement describing why he considers the punishment unjust or disproportionate within 5 days of imposition of punishment throuhg the chain of command to the next superior authority.
Rendering Honors. When the flag is raised or lowered at morning and evening colors what trigger or key should be used to render honors?
On the first note of the National Anthem or the call, "To The Colors."
What are the two chains of command in the United States Marine Corps?
Service and Operational
What is the definition of sexual harassment?
Sexual harrassment is influencing, offering to influence, or threatening the career, pay or job of another person in exchange for sexual favors; deliberate or repeated offenseive comments, gestures, or physical contact of a (percieved) sexual nature in a work or work-related environment.
Is sexual harassment subjective or objective?
Subjective. The criteria for something being harassing versus complimentary is entirely up to the interpretation of the victim.
How is the Operational Chain of command different than the Service?
The Operational Command goes from the Secretary of Defense directly to the Operational Commanders while the Service goes from the Secretary of the Navy to the Commandant of the Marine Corps
What is the definition of equal opportunity?
Equal opportunity means that every Marine is provided fair and equal treatment, having equal opportunity regardless of race, ethnicity, age, sex, national origin or religious conviction?
What three components are the Marine Corps Operating Forces Consisted of?
1. The Marine Corps Forces which are made up of Marine Air Ground Task Forces 2. The Marine Corps Security Forces. 3. Marine Security Guard Detachments
Yes/No. In the spirit of equal opportunity does the Marine Corps promote on racial quotas as in the case of affirmative action?
No. The Marine Corps promotes on merit and not quotas.
What are Marine Corps Security Forces?
The Marine Corps Security Forces (MCSF) include approximately 3,400 Marines who protect key naval installations and facilities worldwide. Although not assigned to combatant commands, they are part of the operating forces of the Marine Corps.
List all that fit the definition of hazing
"(1) Any form of initiation or congratulatory act that involves physically striking.
What are Marine Security Guard Detachments?
These detachments serve at embassies and consulates around the globe. The Marine security guard battalion provides forces to the Department of State for embassy security. These Marines are currently assigned to 121 diplomatic posts in 115 countries through out the world.
"
What is the difference between Marine Corps Security Forces and Marine Security Guard Detachments?
Security Forces guard Naval installations while the Security Guard Detachments guard embassies.
Which of the following are refelctive of the Marine Corps Policy of Equal Opportunity?
"(1) Treat each Marine with Respect
<p>How many countries are Marine Security Guard Detachments assigned to support?</p>
<p>The Marine Security Guard Detachments support embassies and consulates around the globe. The Marine Security Guard battalion provides forces to the Department of State for embassy security. These Marines are currently assigned to 121 diplomatic posts in 115 countries throughout the world.</p>
(6) Establish and ensure open channels of communication."
How many diplomatic posts are Marine Security Guard Detachments supporting through out the globe?
The Marine Security Guard Detachments support embassies and consulates around the globe. The Marine Security Guard battalion provides forces to the Department of State for embassy security. These Marines are currently assigned to 121 diplomatic posts in 115 countries throughout the world.
Yes/No. Regarding Hazing, does the Marine Corps consider individual consent to the activity an exuse?
No. Consent to hazing is not a defense. Any violation, attempted violation, or soclitation of another to violate the MCO subjects involved members to disciplinary action under Article 92 of the Uniform Code of military justice.
What three elements are contained in a MAGTF?
The Marine Air-Ground Task Force (MAGTF) is the principle organization for the conduct of all missions across the range of military operations. MAGTFs are balanced, combined arms forces with organic ground, aviation and sustainment elements.
What is the definition of fraternization?
Defined as duty reltaionships and social and business contacts between and among Marines of different grades. Theese relationships are inconsistent with the traditional standards of good order, discipline, and mutual respect that have always existed between Marines of senior and lesser grade.
Yes/No. Can MAGTF's conduct both expeditionary or sustained operations ashore?
Yes
Describe behavior that would be considered fraternization?
Any behavior which would present the appearance of undue familarity or informality between and among the ranks.
What is the difference between the MEF, MEB, and MEU?
Each are MAGTF organizations of various sizes. The MEF is a Force Level, the MEB is composed of Regimental sized elements and the MEU is composed of Battalion sized elements.
What is the EDVR?
The EDVR is a monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account.
How is a Marine Expeditionary Force (MEF) different from a Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB)?
The MEF is a MAGTF built around a GCE of a division size.
How many parts are in the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR)?
12
True/False. The Marine Aircraft Wing is the Air Combat Element of a Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB)?
False. The size of the ACE in the MEB is a group.
What does section III of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Record (EDVR)contain?
EDVR sefction 3 contains an alphabetic listing of all enslisted memebrs assigned to the activity.
True/False. A squadron sized ACE Element supports a Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB).
False. The squadron sized element supports the Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU).
What does sections 1 through 3 of the Enlisted Distribution Verifcation Report (EDVR) contain?
EDVR sections 1 through 3 contain information that has been extracted from the acocunt because it requires special attention or action by the activity. Additionally, the EDVR section 3 contains an alphabetic listing of all enlisted members assigned to the activity.
What is the difference between the Combat Support Services Group (CSSG) and the Brigade Support Service Group (BSSG)?
The Brigade Support Service Group (BSSG) is the logistics portion of the Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB) MAGTF?
What does section 12 of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) contain?
Section 12 contains a listeing of both office rand enlisted personnel in an embarked or Temporary Additional Duty (TAD) status to augment normal manning. This listing also includes commands that are embarked onboard another command.
If there are three basic MAGTF's the MEF, MEB, and MEU what is the fourth?
A Special Purpose MAFTF (SPMAGTF). This is usually used for a special purpose such as disaster relief, humanitarian assistance, noncombatant evacuation operations, or security operations where one of the other three elements would be inappropriate.
What does section 4 of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) contian?
EDVR section 4 takes the total personnel account of the activity, including those members reflected in sections 1 through 3.
What is the minimum sized element of the Ground Combat Element a Special Purpose MAGTF?
Platoon sized GCE. An Aircraft Asset for the ACE and customized support services for the CSSE.
True/False. The Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) is similar to the Marine Corps Table of Organization (TO).
True. The Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) is a document for command's so that they can see all levels of their manning, their NEC requirements and where billets are gapped including advancements, and pay entry base dates. The Marine Corps TO document does the same thing for MOS's and unit manning requirements.
Which of the following are not a mission of the United States Marine Corps?
1. Provide combined arms for the seizure or defense of advanced naval bases 2. Provide Security Detachments for the protection of Navy Vessels and Property 3. Develop Amphibious Operations 4. Provide airborne Operations. 5. Develop airborne operations 6. Expand peacetime readiness and mobilization efforts 7. Perform other duties as directed by the President
What section/s of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) contains the duty preference list?
Section 9/10 contains the Diary Message Summary and Duty Preference Listing.
On a Navy Performance Evaluation who is the reporting Senior?
Commanding Officers are reporting seniors by virtue of their command authority. Commanding officers may submit properly authorized fitness and evaluation reports on any member who has reported to them for duty, whether junior or senior to them in grade. The term "Commanding officer" includes commanding officers of all services, and their civilian equivalents with in the U.S. Federal Government.
What does section 11 of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) contain?
Section 11 of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) contains individual security data, citizenship codes, involunary extension months, Pay Entry Base Dates (PEBD), time in Rate (TIR), Advancement Effective Date, and FORMAN Status and Action Date.
What is the lowest grade officer that can be delegated as a reporting senior for enlisted reports service members E5 to E9 and those frocked to E5?
O4 or GS12.
On a standard Navy Letter how wide are the left/right margins?
1 inch
What is the lowest grade that a reporting senior may be delegated to members in the grades of E4 and below?
Chief Petty Officer (E7) or GS11
Yes/No. On a standard Navy Leter are there any spaces between the From, To, and Via sections.
No. The From, To and Via sections are single spaced and follow each other. There is a double space between the Via and Subject Lines.
What is the purpose of a rater in the evaluation process of an E6 and below?
Evaluation reports on E6 and below require the signatures of a rater and senior rater as well as the reporting senior. This ensures that the Navy's senior enlisted and junior officer supervisors are properly included in the enlisted evaluation process. The rater should be a Navy chief petty officer whenever possible, but if none is available within the command, may be a military or civilian supervisor who is an E7 equivalent or higher. Typically, the senior rater will be the member's division officer or department head. The senior rater may be omitted where the reporting senior is the raters immediate supervisor.
Yes/No. In a Navy Letter, are the subject, reference and enclosure paragraphs double spaced?
Yes. Between the subject, reference and enclosure portions of hte letter the paragraphs each have a single blank space between the paragrphs. This is different from the From, To and Via blocks which have no blank paragraph spacing.
How is performance Counseling different than performance evaluations?
Counseling is conducted by the command at the half way point of the interval process.
Yes/No. In a navy letter, the main body of the letter is numbered. Are the paragraphs double spaced?
Yes. The paragraphs have a single space between each paragraph similar to the Subject, Reference, and Enclosure sections of the letter. They are different than the From, To and Via sections whose paragraphs are next to each other with out the white space between paragraphs.
Regarding evaluation reports how many types are there?
Three.
Yes/No. In a Navy Letter, in the From, To, and Via sections, should the Title of Activity of each section be aligned?
Yes. The From section is followed by 2 spaces, the To section is followed by 4 spaces and the via section is followed by 3 spaces (2-4-3) so that the Title of Activity can line up in the format.
Regarding Evaluations, what is the difference between Regular Reports and Concurrent Reports?
Concurrent reports are done for members on additional duty or temporary additional duty while regular reports are consistent with annual regular performance in their job.
Yes/No. In a Navy Letter should the alignment of the Subject, References, and Enclosures, paragraphs line up with the from, to, and via blocks?
Yes. The Subject should be followed by 2 spaces, the reference should be followed by 2 spaces, and the enclosure section s/b followed by 2 spaces so that the body of each of those paragraphs line up with the from to and via bodies above.
Regarding Performance Evaluations, what kind of report would you issue for temporary additional duty?
A concurrent report provides a record of significant performance in an additional duty (ADDU) or temporary additional duty (TEMADD) status. They are optional unless directed by higher authority, and may not be submitted by anyone in the regular reporting senior's direct chain of command.
On a Navy Standard Letter how may lines from the top of the page, on the 2nd page of the letter should the Subject block Be?
5. The 6th line is the subject block.
Yes/No. Are Operational Commander's reports submitted on E7 and above?
No. Operational Commander's reports are optional, and may only be submitted on commanding officers or officer in charge by operational commanders who are not also their regular reporting seniors.
On a standard Navy Letter how many spaces from the final paragraph does the signature line happen?
4. Three blank spaced lines and the signature line is on the 4th.
Yes/No. Are Concurrent Reports Mandatory?
No. Concurrent Reports are optional and submitted for ADDU or TEMADD status.
Yes/No. On a standard Navy letter are complimentary closures like, 'sincerely,' 'respectfully,' 'regrettably,' ever used?
No. Complimentary closures are not used on official standard navy letters
<p>Yes/No. Regarding Periodic evaluations, are Regular Reports mandatory?</p>
<p>Yes. They are the foundation of the performance record. Regular reports are submitted periodically according to the schedule below, and on other occasions as specified in the EVAL manual. They must cover, day-for-day, all Naval service on active duty or in the drilling Reserve programs, except for enlisted inital entry training and other limited circumstances.</p>
Yes/No.Regarding Navy Letters and endorsements, can an endorsement omit the SSIC code (the part of the letter referencing the relevant section)?
Yes but only if its a same page endorsement. Otherwise the endorsement on a new page must include new letterhead and the titleSecond Endorsment must go on the 2nd line underneath the SSIC/Date section of the correspondence.
Regarding periodic evaluations, what month are E5 evaluations due?
March
What does ORM stand for?
Operational Risk Management
Regarding periodic evaluations, what month are E9 evaluations due?
April
True/False. ORM is a supply system that empowers leaders at the Battlion level in making sure that all members of their unit have appropriate uniforms.
"False.
Regarding Periodic Evaluations, what months are E4 evaluations due?
June
ORM is a decision making tool used by people at all levels to increase operational effectiveness by anticipating hazards and reducing the potential for loss, thereby increasing the probability of a sucessful misison."
Regarding periodic evaluations, what month are E3/2/1 evaluations due?
July
True/False. ORM increases the units ability o make informed decisions by providing the best baseline of knowledge and expeirence avaialble.
True. It also minimizes the riks to acceptable levels, commensurate with mission accomplishment. The amount of risk we will take in war is much greater than that we should in peace, but the process is the same. Applying the ORM process will reduce mishaps, lower costs, and provide for more efficient use of resources.
Regarding Periodic Evaluations, when are E7 and E8 evaluations due?
September
True/False. A Hazard is an expression of possible loss in terms of sevirty and probability.
False. A risk is an expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability.
Regarding periodic evaluations what month are E6 evaluations due?
November
True/False. a Risk is the process of detecting hazards and assessing associated risks.
False. Risk assessment is the process of detecting hazards and assesing associated risks.
Yes/No. Regarding fitness reports, if a member has been exonerated of an offense, can the incident be reflected in a fitness report?
No. Adverse or downgraded fitness and evaluation reports may not be directed as punishment or used as an alternative to the report disposition of misconduct under the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). Reports may not mention non-punitive censure, or investigatory, judicial or other proceedings which have not been concluded or which have exonerated the member. Subject to these limitations, fitness and evaluation reports should take into account misconduct which has been established through reliable evidence to the reporting senior's satisfaction.
True/False. Hazards are the process of detecting risks.
False. Risk assessment is the process of detecting hazards and assessing associated risks.
On performance evaluations what is the highest marks reserved for performance which is far above standards and is notable for its exemplary or leadership quality?
5
Yes/No. Does ORM minimize risks to acceptable levels, commensurate with mission accomplishment?
Yes. It also is the amount of wisk members are willing to take in war which wich is much greater than in peace, but the process is the same. Applying the ORM proecss will reduce mishaps, lower ocsts, and provide for more efficient use of resources.
On performance evaluations, the trait grade of 1.0 is given for what purpose?
The performance trait grade of 1.0 is for sailors who are struggling at their required duties and tasks. They create conflict, are unwilling to work with others, puts themselves above the team, they neglect growth and development of subordinates, and usually need excessive supervision. Furthemore, they have marginal knowledge of their jobs and their actions are counter to the Navy's retention and reenlistment goals.
What are the 5 steps of ORM?
"1. Identify Hazards
On periodic evaluations, why should "two-blocking" be avoided by reporting seniors?
First, the reporting seniors average trait grade will be available to detailers and selection boards for comparison purposes. Second, it will be difficult for the reporting senior to allocate promotion recommendations if everyone's trait grades are the same.
"
Yes/No. Regarding personal evaluations, are handwritten entries allowed?
Only on E4 and below evaluations
Regarding ORM, what is the difference between Identification of Hazards and the Assessment of Hazards?
The assessment of the hazards determins the associated risk while the identification merely lists the type or kind of hazard present in a situation.
Yes/No. Regarding periodic evaluations, can changes or supplements be made after submission?
Yes. The reporting senior can, for good cause, submit administrative changes or evaluative supplements with in 2 years from the ending date of the report.
In ORM, what are the three types of controls?
Engineering, Administrative and Personal Protective Equipment
Regarding Fitness Reporting, how long must they be retained?
The reporting senior must retain copies of officer FITREPs for 5 years. The command must retain copies of enlisted FITREPs and EVALs for 2 years. Counseling worksheets must be held in a Privacy Act records system until the member detaches, then destroyed.
In ORM, what is the difference between Administrative Controls and Engineering Controls?
Administrative controls provide the mechanism of reducing risk by process, markings, notificaitons while engineering controls reduce risks by design, materials, and physical resources.
Yes/No. Regarding periodic evaluations, can adverse or downgraded fitness and evaluation reports be directed as punishment or used as an alternative to NJP?
No. Adverse or downgraded fitness and evaluation reports may not be directed as punishment or used as an alternative to the proper disposition of misconduct under the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). Reports may not mention non-punitive censure, or investigatory, judicial, or other proceedings which have not been concluded or which have exonerated the member.
Regarding ORM, what kind of contorls provide suitable warnings, markings, placards or signs?
Administrative
Regarding navy correspondence, what is the difference between a standard letter and an endorsement?
Endorsement is similar to a letter but used for transmitting correspondence through the chain of command and sometimes provides command comments or may be returned to the originator requesting more information while the standard letter is used to conduct official correspondence.
Regarding ORM, what kind of controls reduce risk by selection of materials used in the process?
Engineering
Regarding Navy Correspondence, is a memorandum formal or informal?
Informal. a memorandum provides an informal way to correspond within an activity or between DON activities. Subordinates may use it to correspond directly with each other on routine official business.
Regarding ORM, which kinds of controls establish written policies, programs or instructions and standards of operating procedures?
Administrative Controls
What is the NAVPERS 1070/602?
The Dependency Application /Record of Emergency Data
Regarding ORM, what kidn of control would ear plugs be?
Personal Protective Equipment
Name three types of Navy Correspondence
Standard Letter. Endorsements. Memorandums.
Regarding ORM, why must the assessor make a risk decision before implimenting controls?
Because risk decisions involve mitigating the most severe risk factors first and implimenting controls for those risks to mitigate the greatest amount of risk.
How many parts does a NAVPERS 1070/602 Dependency Application/Record of Emergency Data have?
Two
Regarding ORM, why is important to supervise the implimentation of Administrative Controls, Engineering Controls, or Personal Protective Equipment?
Because it ensures that controls remain in place and that they have the desired effect.
What is the NAVPERS 1070/602 commonly called?
Page 2
Regarding ORM, what kind of controls limited the expsure to the hazard?
Administrative Controls (either by reducing the number of personnel/assets or the length of time they are exposed.)
What information is contained on the NAVPERS 1070/604
The NAVPERS 1070/604 is the Enlisted Qualification History and it contains a chronological history of the members occupational and training related qualifications and their awards and commendations.
What are the four principles or Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
"(1) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost
What is the 1070/604 commonly called?
Page 4
"
What is the difference between the NAVPERS 1070/604 and the NAVPERS 1070/605?
The 604 is your qualifications and the 605 is your history of assignments
Regarding ORM, what should a unit leader do when the risk associated with that mission cannot be controlled at his/her level or goes beyond the commander's stated intent?
As a principle of ORM. Make risk decisions at the right level. When this happens the unit leader should elevate the decision to their chain of command.
What is the NAVPERS 1070/605?
The NAVPERS 1070/605, history of assignments is a chronological record of duty assignments and is maintained through out member's active and inactive duty career.
Regarding ORM, what is the difference between hazardous material and hazardous waste?
Hazardous Materials are items that are used but because of their quantity or quality are considered hazardous to human use or exposure while Hazardous Waste is material that has been disgarded and then determined by the EPA or State Authority as waste.
What is the difference between the NAVPERS 1070/613 and the NAVPERS 1070/602?
A NAVPERS 1070/613 or "page 13" is a document that contains Administrative Remarks. Is it a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries which are not provided for elsewhere or where more detailed information may be required to clarify entries onto other pages. Entries are required for civil misdemeanors and felonies that come to the command's attention, and for Non-Judicial punishment that does not result in a loss of pay.
Regarding ORM, head protection, hearing protection, foot and eye protection are examples of what kind of controls?
Personal Protective Equipment.
What is the UCMJ?
The Uniform Code of Military Justice
What is PPE
Personal Protective Equipment
What is the purpose of the UCMJ?
The Uniform Code of Military Justice promotes good order and discipline, and provides a basis for the administration of justice for the armed forces.
What does MSDS stand for?
Material Safety Data Sheets
Who is responsible for upholding the UCMJ?
All members of the Armed Forces.
What kinds of information do MSDS sheets convey?
They are technical bullitins containing information about materials, such as composition, chemical, and phyusical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precaustions, for safe handling and use.
What are the three types of Courts-Martial?
Summary, Special, General
True/False. Regarding HAZMAT: MSDS's should be maintained for all elements of HAZMAT on board.
True. MSDS's should be maintained for all elements of HAZMAT on board.
Yes/No. Can jurors attending to a Special Court-Martial or General Court-Martial recommend any suspension of sentence?
No. Members of these courts have no power to direct, or even recommend on the record that any part of the sentence be suspended.
What are the (8) common elements experienced by all on the battlefield?
(1) Violence (2) Casualties (3) Confusion (4) Miscommunication (5) Fatigue (6) Fear (7) Continous Operations (8) Homesickness *** Mnemonic: Violet's Conundrum Casually Marched For Fifty Continous Hours
In a Special Courts-Martial proceeding, what is the difference between an enlisted member at E5 and above and an Enlisted accused in the rank of E4 and below.
For an enlisted accused in the pay grade of E5 and above, the accused may be reduced one pay-grade, be restricted for a period of 60 days, and face a forfeiture of two-thirds of basic pay for one month. For an accused in the rank of E4 and below, the accused may be sentenced to confinement for up to 30 days hard labor with out confinement for a period of 45 days, restriction for a period of 60 days, reduction to the pay grade of E-1 and forfeiture of two-thirds of basic pay for one month.
Which of the following are not of the 8 elements of expeirences on the battlefield?
None of the Above. Note: (1) Violence (2) Casualties (3) Confusion (4) Miscommunication (5) Fatigue (6) Fear (7) Continous Operations (8) Homesickness *** Mnemonic: Violet's Conundrum Casually Marched For Fifty Continous Hours
In a special courts martial how many members sit on the board?
A special courts martial may be composed of a military judge and not less than 3 active-duty armed service members.
Which of the following are not of the 8 elements experienced in a combat environment?
Mindlessness. Note: (1) Violence (2) Casualties (3) Confusion (4) Miscommunication (5) Fatigue (6) Fear (7) Continous Operations (8) Homesickness *** Mnemonic: Violet's Conundrum Casually Marched For Fifty Continous Hours
What does it take to be convicted in a courts-martial?
In most cases, only two-thirds of the members need to find you guilty of an offense in order to be convicted. This is very different than in a civilian world where an unanimous jury verdict is necessary.
Which of the following are listed as the (8) elements experienced in a combat environment?
All of the Above. Note: (1) Violence (2) Casualties (3) Confusion (4) Miscommunication (5) Fatigue (6) Fear (7) Continous Operations (8) Homesickness *** Mnemonic: Violet's Conundrum Casually Marched For Fifty Continous Hours
Besides a courts-martial, how else can the military discipline its members?
There are a host of options available. The most serious is a non-judicial punishments (NJP) under Article 15, UCMJ; this procedure is referred to as a Captain's Mast in the Navy, an NJP in the Marine Corps, and an Article 15 in the Army and Air Force. If you accept the NJP, then you are accepting the forum for your possible discipline. Your commander will then act as the judge and jury. Remember that you have a right to turn down a non-judicial punishment and request a trial by court-martial (except sailors on a ship). Doing this may or may not result in court-martial charges, depending upon the strength of the evidence against you and your prior disciplinary record. Think carefully before rejecting an NJP, and never do it without personally talking to an attorney.
What five factors help Sailors and Marines deal with fear?
"(1) Morale
Yes/No. Regarding court martial proceedings may a summary court martial confine a member for more than 6 months?
No. A summary court martial may only confine for 30 days with hard labor and no more than 45 days with out hard labor.
Mnemonic: My Dead Elephant Plans Monthly"
Yes/No. Regarding court martial proceedings, may a special court martial confine a member for more than a year?
No. A special court martial may only confine a person for up to 6 months with out hard labor and only 3 months with hard labor.
In coping with fear what is the primary difference between proficiency and motivation?
Proficiency is the ability of the individual or unit to complete the required task while motivation is reflective of the needs, desires and impulses that cause a person to act often felt as pride and committement.
Yes/No. Regarding Summary Court Martial: Can a commissioned officer be tried for any capital offense?
No. A summary court-martial may not try a commissioned officer, warrent officer,cadet, or midshipmen for any capital offense.
Regarding coping strategies for fear, whic of the following does not belong with the (5)?
Esprit de Corps instead of Empathy. is teh loyalty to, pride in, and enthusiasm for theunit shown by its members. It implies devotion and loyalty to the unit and deep regard for the unit's history, traditions and honor.
Yes/No. Regarding a summary court marital, if you are aboard a ship can you refuse a summary court martial?
No. Except on a ship, a member may refuse the right to a summary court martial.
Regarding coping strategies for fear, which of the following does not belong with the (5) noted in the study guide?
***Motivation*** not Manipulation is the answer and is based on psychological factors such as needs, desires, and impulese that cause a person to act. For a marine, commitment and pride in the unit and Corps is generally the basis for combat motivation.
Regarding a General Court martial what is the lowest rank of the convening authority?
The lowest rank is usually the rank of the commanding general of the wing, division, group or the equivelant.
What does the acronym BAMCIS mean?
Begin Planning. Arrange for Reconnaissance. Make reconnaissance. Complete the plan. Issue the order. Supervise.
Yes/No. Regarding a court martial if the accused is an officer can enlisted members be present on the court?
No. if the accused is a commisisoned or warrant officer, the group of the peers on the court must be of a similar rank and grade. If they are a warrant, then at least warrant officers may be present. If they are enlisted then the enlisted may request up to 1/3 of the court be enlisted.
Which of the following is not part of the acronym BAMCIS
Continue to Resolve
What does NJP Stand for?
Non Judicial Punishment.
Which of the following is not part of the Acronym BAMCIS?
Begin Participation
Yes/No. Regarding NJP and Court Martial, does the accused have a right to refuse the NJP and demand a trial by court martial?
Yes. The accused has the right of refusal before the imposition of the NJP proceedings.
Which of the following is not part of the acronym BAMCIS?
Complete the Reconnaissance
Under what circumstnaces is NJP Administered?
For minor offenses of the UCMJ where the maximum sentence, if tried by a general courtmartial, does not include a dishonorable discharge or confinement or greater than one year.
What of the following do not belong in the acronym BAMCIS?
Make Plans should be Make Reconnassiance
Yes/No. Can the accused appeal an NJP decision?
Yes. The accused may appeal the pnishment if he considers it unjust or disproportionate to the offense by sumiting a written statement describing why he considers the punishment unjust or disproportionate within 5 days of imposition of punishment throuhg the chain of command to the next superior authority.
Which of the following are not important steps of Begin Planning in the Troop Leadership steps of the acronym BAMCIS
"1. Plan use of available time
What is the definition of sexual harassment?
Sexual harrassment is influencing, offering to influence, or threatening the career, pay or job of another person in exchange for sexual favors; deliberate or repeated offenseive comments, gestures, or physical contact of a (percieved) sexual nature in a work or work-related environment.
"
Is sexual harassment subjective or objective?
Subjective. The criteria for something being harassing versus complimentary is entirely up to the interpretation of the victim.
It the troop leadership strategy contained in the acronym BAMCIS, what are the three steps of Arranging For Reconnaissance?
"1. Arrange for where, when and how unit will be moved
What is the definition of equal opportunity?
Equal opportunity means that every Marine is provided fair and equal treatment, having equal opportunity regardless of race, ethnicity, age, sex, national origin or religious conviction?
3. After the platoon commander's briefing, make arrangements to coordinate with adjacent unit leaders, leaders of supporting units, and other unit leaders as necessary."
Yes/No. In the spirit of equal opportunity does the Marine Corps promote on racial quotas as in the case of affirmative action?
No. The Marine Corps promotes on merit and not quotas.
How many articles are in the Code of Conduct?
Six.
Yes/No. Regarding Hazing, does the Marine Corps consider individual consent to the activity an exuse?
No. Consent to hazing is not a defense. Any violation, attempted violation, or soclitation of another to violate the MCO subjects involved members to disciplinary action under Article 92 of the Uniform Code of military justice.
What is the Code of Conduct?
"The Code of Conduct (CoC) is the legal guide for the behavior of military members who are captured by hostile forces.
What is the definition of fraternization?
Defined as duty reltaionships and social and business contacts between and among Marines of different grades. Theese relationships are inconsistent with the traditional standards of good order, discipline, and mutual respect that have always existed between Marines of senior and lesser grade.
The Code of Conduct, in six brief Articles, addresses those situations and decision areas that, to some degree, all military personnel could encounter. It includes basic information useful to U.S. POWs in their efforts to survive honorably while resisting their captor's efforts to exploit them to the advantage of the enemy's cause and their own disadvantage. Such survival and resistance requires varying degrees of knowledge of the meaning of the six Articles of the CoC."
Describe behavior that would be considered fraternization?
Any behavior which would present the appearance of undue familarity or informality between and among the ranks.
Yes/No. In the Code of Conduct are Americans fighting in the armed forces that defend their country allowed to surrender?
No. Article II. "I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist.
What is the EDVR?
The EDVR is a monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account.
Yes/No. In the Code of Conduct are Americans fighting in the armed forces that defend their country encouraged to remain in captivity if captured?
No. Article III, "If I am captured, I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy."
How many parts are in the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR)?
12
Yes/No. In the Code of Conduct are Americans fighting in the armed forces that defend their country encouraged to negotiate for favores while in captivity?
No. Article III, "If I am captured, I wil lcontinue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escae. I will acept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy."
What does section III of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Record (EDVR)contain?
EDVR sefction 3 contains an alphabetic listing of all enslisted memebrs assigned to the activity.
Yes/No. In the Code of Conduct are Americans fighting in the armed forces that defend their country supposed to provide their next of kin information to the enemy if they are captured?
No. Article V. When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required ot give name, rank, service number and date of birth. I will evade answering further quetsions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies, or harmful to their cause."
What does sections 1 through 3 of the Enlisted Distribution Verifcation Report (EDVR) contain?
EDVR sections 1 through 3 contain information that has been extracted from the acocunt because it requires special attention or action by the activity. Additionally, the EDVR section 3 contains an alphabetic listing of all enlisted members assigned to the activity.
Yes/No. In the Code of Conduct what is article one primarily about?
Article I, "I am an American, fighting in the armed forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life i ntheir defense."
What does section 12 of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) contain?
Section 12 contains a listeing of both office rand enlisted personnel in an embarked or Temporary Additional Duty (TAD) status to augment normal manning. This listing also includes commands that are embarked onboard another command.
In the code of conduct what is article II primarily about?
"ARTICLE II:
What does section 4 of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) contian?
EDVR section 4 takes the total personnel account of the activity, including those members reflected in sections 1 through 3.
I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist."
True/False. The Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) is similar to the Marine Corps Table of Organization (TO).
True. The Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) is a document for command's so that they can see all levels of their manning, their NEC requirements and where billets are gapped including advancements, and pay entry base dates. The Marine Corps TO document does the same thing for MOS's and unit manning requirements.
Regarding the Code of Conduct, what is Article III About?
"ARTICLE III:
What section/s of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) contains the duty preference list?
Section 9/10 contains the Diary Message Summary and Duty Preference Listing.
If I am captured I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and to aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy."
What does section 11 of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) contain?
Section 11 of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) contains individual security data, citizenship codes, involunary extension months, Pay Entry Base Dates (PEBD), time in Rate (TIR), Advancement Effective Date, and FORMAN Status and Action Date.
Regarding the code of conduct, Article IV talks about what set of ethics?
"ARTICLE IV:
On a standard Navy Letter how wide are the left/right margins?
1 inch
If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information nor take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades. If I am senior, I will take command. If not, I will obey lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them in every way."
Yes/No. On a standard Navy Leter are there any spaces between the From, To, and Via sections.
No. The From, To and Via sections are single spaced and follow each other. There is a double space between the Via and Subject Lines.
Regarding the Code of Conduct, what is article V about?
"ARTICLE V:
Yes/No. In a Navy Letter, are the subject, reference and enclosure paragraphs double spaced?
Yes. Between the subject, reference and enclosure portions of hte letter the paragraphs each have a single blank space between the paragrphs. This is different from the From, To and Via blocks which have no blank paragraph spacing.
When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number, and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country or its allies or harmful to their cause."
Yes/No. In a navy letter, the main body of the letter is numbered. Are the paragraphs double spaced?
Yes. The paragraphs have a single space between each paragraph similar to the Subject, Reference, and Enclosure sections of the letter. They are different than the From, To and Via sections whose paragraphs are next to each other with out the white space between paragraphs.
Regarding the Code of Conduct, what is Article VI about?
"ARTICLE VI:
Yes/No. In a Navy Letter, in the From, To, and Via sections, should the Title of Activity of each section be aligned?
Yes. The From section is followed by 2 spaces, the To section is followed by 4 spaces and the via section is followed by 3 spaces (2-4-3) so that the Title of Activity can line up in the format.
I will never forget that I am an American, fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions, and dedicated to the principles which made my country free. I will trust in my God and in the United States of America."
Yes/No. In a Navy Letter should the alignment of the Subject, References, and Enclosures, paragraphs line up with the from, to, and via blocks?
Yes. The Subject should be followed by 2 spaces, the reference should be followed by 2 spaces, and the enclosure section s/b followed by 2 spaces so that the body of each of those paragraphs line up with the from to and via bodies above.
What is the primary difference between the Geneva Conventions and the Six Articles of the Code of Conduct for War?
"Unlike the Geneva Conventions, which are an international legal guide regarding POWs, the Code of Conduct is a moral guide," Erickson said. "If you follow it, it enables you to best serve yourself, the nation and your fellow POWs."
On a Navy Standard Letter how may lines from the top of the page, on the 2nd page of the letter should the Subject block Be?
5. The 6th line is the subject block.
<p>What kinds of rights are afforded a prisoner of war?</p>
"<p>The right to receive sanitary, protective housing and clothing
On a standard Navy Letter how many spaces from the final paragraph does the signature line happen?
4. Three blank spaced lines and the signature line is on the 4th.
The right to receive camp regulations, notices, orders in a language the POW's can understand</p>"
Yes/No. On a standard Navy letter are complimentary closures like, 'sincerely,' 'respectfully,' 'regrettably,' ever used?
No. Complimentary closures are not used on official standard navy letters
Which of these are not afforded to Prisoners of War?
"Note, POW's receive the following:
Yes/No.Regarding Navy Letters and endorsements, can an endorsement omit the SSIC code (the part of the letter referencing the relevant section)?
Yes but only if its a same page endorsement. Otherwise the endorsement on a new page must include new letterhead and the titleSecond Endorsment must go on the 2nd line underneath the SSIC/Date section of the correspondence.
The right to receive camp regulations, notices, orders in a language the POW's can understand</p>"
What does ORM stand for?
Operational Risk Management
Which of the following are not part of the Geneva Conventions?
"<p>The right to receive sanitary, protective housing and clothing
True/False. ORM increases the units ability o make informed decisions by providing the best baseline of knowledge and expeirence avaialble.
True. It also minimizes the riks to acceptable levels, commensurate with mission accomplishment. The amount of risk we will take in war is much greater than that we should in peace, but the process is the same. Applying the ORM process will reduce mishaps, lower costs, and provide for more efficient use of resources.
The right to receive camp regulations, notices, orders in a language the POW's can understand</p>"
True/False. A Hazard is an expression of possible loss in terms of sevirty and probability.
False. A risk is an expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability.
Which of the following are part of the Geneva Conventions?
"<p>The right to receive sanitary, protective housing and clothing
True/False. a Risk is the process of detecting hazards and assessing associated risks.
False. Risk assessment is the process of detecting hazards and assesing associated risks.
The right to receive camp regulations, notices, orders in a language the POW's can understand</p>"
True/False. Hazards are the process of detecting risks.
False. Risk assessment is the process of detecting hazards and assessing associated risks.
Yes/No. Regarding the Geneva Conventions, if your captors provide you with a copy of the Geneva conventions in a language that is not yours are they compliant?
No. The right to have a copy of all camp regulations, notices, orders, and publications about POW conduct posted where it can be read. Regulations, notices, etc. must be in the proper language for POW's to understand and available upon request.
Yes/No. Does ORM minimize risks to acceptable levels, commensurate with mission accomplishment?
Yes. It also is the amount of wisk members are willing to take in war which wich is much greater than in peace, but the process is the same. Applying the ORM proecss will reduce mishaps, lower ocsts, and provide for more efficient use of resources.
Yes/No. Regarding the Geneva Conventions, must your captors provide you a toilet and shaving facility?
Yes. Prisoners of war shall be quartered under conditions as favorable as those for the forces of the Detaining Power who are billeted in the same area. The said conditions shall make allowance for the habits and customs of the prisoners and shall in no case be prejudicial to their health.
Regarding ORM, what is the difference between Identification of Hazards and the Assessment of Hazards?
The assessment of the hazards determins the associated risk while the identification merely lists the type or kind of hazard present in a situation.
Yes/No. Regarding the Geneva Conventions, if you become ill are you entitled to medical care by your captors?
Yes. Every camp shall have an adequate infirmary where POWs may have the attention they require as well as appropriate diet. Isolation wards, shall, if necessary be set aside for cases of contagious or mental disease.
In ORM, what are the three types of controls?
Engineering, Administrative and Personal Protective Equipment
Yes/No. May POW's practice their religious faith with out interference from their captors?
Yes. Prisoners of war shall enjoy complete latitude in the exercise of their religious duties, including attendance at the service of their faith on condition that they comply with the disciplinary routine prescribed by the military authorities. Adequate premises shall be provided where religious services may be held.
In ORM, what is the difference between Administrative Controls and Engineering Controls?
Administrative controls provide the mechanism of reducing risk by process, markings, notificaitons while engineering controls reduce risks by design, materials, and physical resources.
Yes/No. Regarding the Geneva Conventions, may prisoners write and receive mail?
Yes. Prisoners of war shall be allowed to send and receive letters and cards.
Regarding ORM, what kind of contorls provide suitable warnings, markings, placards or signs?
Administrative
Yes/No. Regarding the Geneva Conventions, can prisoners of war receive a care package from their mother containing cookies and foodstuffs that would otherwise not be considered contraband?
Yes. Prisoners of war shall be allowed to receive, by post, or by any other means, individual parcels or collective shipments containing in particular foodstuffs, clothing, medical supplies, and articles of a religious nature.
Regarding ORM, what kind of controls reduce risk by selection of materials used in the process?
Engineering
Yes/No. Regarding the Geneva Conventions, when performing manual labor as a prisoner of war, can the POW perform labor on behalf of the enemies military?
No.
Regarding ORM, which kinds of controls establish written policies, programs or instructions and standards of operating procedures?
Administrative Controls
How many rules are there in General First Aid?
Nine.
Regarding ORM, what kidn of control would ear plugs be?
Personal Protective Equipment
Which of the following are general rules of first aid
"Organize.
Regarding ORM, why must the assessor make a risk decision before implimenting controls?
Because risk decisions involve mitigating the most severe risk factors first and implimenting controls for those risks to mitigate the greatest amount of risk.
"
Regarding ORM, why is important to supervise the implimentation of Administrative Controls, Engineering Controls, or Personal Protective Equipment?
Because it ensures that controls remain in place and that they have the desired effect.
Which of the following are not part of the 9 general rules of first aid?
"The following are the 9 general rules of first aid:
Regarding ORM, what kind of controls limited the expsure to the hazard?
Administrative Controls (either by reducing the number of personnel/assets or the length of time they are exposed.)
Nemonic: OLAF CReated The Super Fudge"
Regarding ORM, what should a unit leader do when the risk associated with that mission cannot be controlled at his/her level or goes beyond the commander's stated intent?
As a principle of ORM. Make risk decisions at the right level. When this happens the unit leader should elevate the decision to their chain of command.
Yes/No. Regarding the 9 general rules of first aid, should you use critical seconds to get organized?
Yes. Take a moment to get organized. On your way to an accident scene use a few of the basic rules of first aid. Remain calm as you take charge of the situation, and act quickly but efficiently. Decide as soon as possible what has to be done and which one of the patient's injuries needs attention first.
Regarding ORM, what is the difference between hazardous material and hazardous waste?
Hazardous Materials are items that are used but because of their quantity or quality are considered hazardous to human use or exposure while Hazardous Waste is material that has been disgarded and then determined by the EPA or State Authority as waste.
Yes/No. Regarding the 9 general rules of first aid, should you move your victim when you find them so you can do your preliminary exam?
No. Unless contraindicated, make your preliminary examination in the position and place you find the victim. Moving the victim before this check could gravely endanger life, especially if the neck, back or ribs are broken. Of course, if the situations is such that you or the victim is in danger, you must weigh this threat against the potential damage caused by premature transportation. If you decide to move the victim, do it quickly and gently to a safe location where proper first aid can be administered.
Regarding ORM, head protection, hearing protection, foot and eye protection are examples of what kind of controls?
Personal Protective Equipment.
Regarding the 9 General Rules of First Aid, which of the following do not belong?
"The following are the 9 general rules of first aid:
What is PPE
Personal Protective Equipment
Nemonic: OLAF CReated The Super Fudge"
What does MSDS stand for?
Material Safety Data Sheets
Regarding the 9 general rules of first aid and when examining the patient for fractures why should you initally avoid moving the patient?
You may compound the injury by movement especially if its a fracture.
What kinds of information do MSDS sheets convey?
They are technical bullitins containing information about materials, such as composition, chemical, and phyusical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precaustions, for safe handling and use.
What is the origin of the word "Triage?"
It is French and it means to sort.
True/False. Regarding HAZMAT: MSDS's should be maintained for all elements of HAZMAT on board.
True. MSDS's should be maintained for all elements of HAZMAT on board.
Why are there two different protocols for Tactical and Non-Tactical Triage?
Tactical situations require maintaining the greatest amount of firepower and arms online while non-tactical situations will address the ability to treat the patient based upon their medical condition.
What are the (8) common elements experienced by all on the battlefield?
(1) Violence (2) Casualties (3) Confusion (4) Miscommunication (5) Fatigue (6) Fear (7) Continous Operations (8) Homesickness *** Mnemonic: Violet's Conundrum Casually Marched For Fifty Continous Hours
How many phases of Triage are there?
Four for both Tactical and Non-Tactical Triage
Which of the following are not of the 8 elements of expeirences on the battlefield?
None of the Above. Note: (1) Violence (2) Casualties (3) Confusion (4) Miscommunication (5) Fatigue (6) Fear (7) Continous Operations (8) Homesickness *** Mnemonic: Violet's Conundrum Casually Marched For Fifty Continous Hours
What are the two types of Triage?
Tactical and Non-Tactical
Which of the following are not of the 8 elements experienced in a combat environment?
Mindlessness. Note: (1) Violence (2) Casualties (3) Confusion (4) Miscommunication (5) Fatigue (6) Fear (7) Continous Operations (8) Homesickness *** Mnemonic: Violet's Conundrum Casually Marched For Fifty Continous Hours
What are the four classes of Tactical Triage?
"Tactical Triage Classes:
Which of the following are listed as the (8) elements experienced in a combat environment?
All of the Above. Note: (1) Violence (2) Casualties (3) Confusion (4) Miscommunication (5) Fatigue (6) Fear (7) Continous Operations (8) Homesickness *** Mnemonic: Violet's Conundrum Casually Marched For Fifty Continous Hours
Class IV- Patients whose wounds or injuries would require extensive treatment beyond the immediate medical capabilities."
In coping with fear what is the primary difference between proficiency and motivation?
Proficiency is the ability of the individual or unit to complete the required task while motivation is reflective of the needs, desires and impulses that cause a person to act often felt as pride and committement.
In tactical triage, what does class I mean?
"Class I- Patients whose injuries require minor professional treatment that can be done on an outpatient or ambulatory basis. these personnel can be returned to duty in a short period of time.
Regarding coping strategies for fear, whic of the following does not belong with the (5)?
Esprit de Corps instead of Empathy. is teh loyalty to, pride in, and enthusiasm for theunit shown by its members. It implies devotion and loyalty to the unit and deep regard for the unit's history, traditions and honor.
Regarding coping strategies for fear, which of the following does not belong with the (5) noted in the study guide?
***Motivation*** not Manipulation is the answer and is based on psychological factors such as needs, desires, and impulese that cause a person to act. For a marine, commitment and pride in the unit and Corps is generally the basis for combat motivation.
"
In Tactical Triage what Class requires patients whose injures require immediate life-sustaining measures or are of a MODERATE nature. Initially, they require a minimum amount of time, personnel, and supplies?
II
What does the acronym BAMCIS mean?
Begin Planning. Arrange for Reconnaissance. Make reconnaissance. Complete the plan. Issue the order. Supervise.
Regarding Tactical Triage, what are the protocols for rating a patient Class III?
Class III- Patients for whom definitive treatment can be delayed with out jeopardy to life or loss of limb.
Which of the following is not part of the acronym BAMCIS
Continue to Resolve
Regarding Tactical Triage, Are Class III or Class IV patients whose wounds or injuries requires extensive treatment beyond the immediate medical capabilities.
Class IV
Which of the following is not part of the Acronym BAMCIS?
Begin Participation
Regarding Non-Tactical Triage, which of the following represent the four protocols?
I- Critical, II- Serious, III- Minor, IV- Fatal
Which of the following is not part of the acronym BAMCIS?
Complete the Reconnaissance
Regarding Non-Tactical Triage , what is the protocol requirements for Priority I patients?
Priority I- Patients with correctable life-threatening illnesses or injuries such as respiratory arrest or obstruction, open chest wounds, or abdomen wounds, femur fractures, or critical or complicated burns.
What of the following do not belong in the acronym BAMCIS?
Make Plans should be Make Reconnassiance
Regarding Non-tactical Triage, Patients with serious but non-life-threatening illnesses or injuries such as moderate blood loss, open or multiple fractures, or eye injuries are categorized under what protocol?
Priority II
How many articles are in the Code of Conduct?
Six.
Regarding Non-Tactical Triage, what kind of patients are categorized as Priority III?
Priority III- Patients with minor injuries such as soft tissue injuries, simple fractures, or minor to moderate burns.
Yes/No. In the Code of Conduct are Americans fighting in the armed forces that defend their country allowed to surrender?
No. Article II. "I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist.
True/False. Regarding, Non-Tactical Triage, Priority IV patients are patents with minor injuries such as soft tissue injures, simple fractures, or minor to moderate burns.
False. Priority IV. Patients who are dead or fatally injured. Fatal injuries include exposed brain matter, decapitation, and incineration.
Yes/No. In the Code of Conduct are Americans fighting in the armed forces that defend their country encouraged to remain in captivity if captured?
No. Article III, "If I am captured, I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy."
Yes/No. Once a patient has been categorized as a Class I, II, III, IV as a matter of Triage, can the classification change over time?
Yes. A Patents condition can improve or decline based upon their injuries.
Yes/No. In the Code of Conduct are Americans fighting in the armed forces that defend their country encouraged to negotiate for favores while in captivity?
No. Article III, "If I am captured, I wil lcontinue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escae. I will acept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy."
In First Aid, what is the difference between a primary and secondary survey?
The primary is a less thorough assessment designed to highlight the nature of the injuries to a patient, where a secondary survey is a more in depth concerning the examination process.
Yes/No. In the Code of Conduct are Americans fighting in the armed forces that defend their country supposed to provide their next of kin information to the enemy if they are captured?
No. Article V. When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required ot give name, rank, service number and date of birth. I will evade answering further quetsions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies, or harmful to their cause."
Regarding first aid, what is the primary survey?
The primary survey is a rapid initial assessment to detect and treat life-threatening conditions that require immediate care, followed by a status decision about the patients stability and priority for immediate transport to a medical facility.
Yes/No. In the Code of Conduct what is article one primarily about?
Article I, "I am an American, fighting in the armed forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life i ntheir defense."
In regards to first aid and a primary assessment what does the ABCDE stand for?
"A. Airway
What is the primary difference between the Geneva Conventions and the Six Articles of the Code of Conduct for War?
"Unlike the Geneva Conventions, which are an international legal guide regarding POWs, the Code of Conduct is a moral guide," Erickson said. "If you follow it, it enables you to best serve yourself, the nation and your fellow POWs."
E. Expose"
Yes/No. Regarding the Geneva Conventions, if your captors provide you with a copy of the Geneva conventions in a language that is not yours are they compliant?
No. The right to have a copy of all camp regulations, notices, orders, and publications about POW conduct posted where it can be read. Regulations, notices, etc. must be in the proper language for POW's to understand and available upon request.
As soon as the ABCDE portion of the primary assessment in first aid is completed what should the provider do?
A status decision of the patients condition, which is a judgement about the severity of the patient's condition and whether the patient requires immediate transport to a medical facility with out a secondary survey at the scene. Ideally, the ABCDE steps, status, and transport decision should be completed with in 10 minutes of your arrival on the scene.
Yes/No. Regarding the Geneva Conventions, must your captors provide you a toilet and shaving facility?
Yes. Prisoners of war shall be quartered under conditions as favorable as those for the forces of the Detaining Power who are billeted in the same area. The said conditions shall make allowance for the habits and customs of the prisoners and shall in no case be prejudicial to their health.
Regarding the primary assessment, how long should the decision to transport or not take from the arrival on scene?
A status decision of the patients condition, which is a judgement about the severity of the patient's condition and whether the patient requires immediate transport to a medical facility with out a secondary survey at the scene. Ideally, the ABCDE steps, status, and transport decision should be completed with in 10 minutes of your arrival on the scene.
Yes/No. Regarding the Geneva Conventions, if you become ill are you entitled to medical care by your captors?
Yes. Every camp shall have an adequate infirmary where POWs may have the attention they require as well as appropriate diet. Isolation wards, shall, if necessary be set aside for cases of contagious or mental disease.
What are the signs and symptoms of shock?
"Restlessness
Yes/No. May POW's practice their religious faith with out interference from their captors?
Yes. Prisoners of war shall enjoy complete latitude in the exercise of their religious duties, including attendance at the service of their faith on condition that they comply with the disciplinary routine prescribed by the military authorities. Adequate premises shall be provided where religious services may be held.
"
Yes/No. Regarding the Geneva Conventions, may prisoners write and receive mail?
Yes. Prisoners of war shall be allowed to send and receive letters and cards.
Which of the following signs and/or symptoms are not exemplary of shock?
elevated blood pressure
Yes/No. Regarding the Geneva Conventions, can prisoners of war receive a care package from their mother containing cookies and foodstuffs that would otherwise not be considered contraband?
Yes. Prisoners of war shall be allowed to receive, by post, or by any other means, individual parcels or collective shipments containing in particular foodstuffs, clothing, medical supplies, and articles of a religious nature.
Which of the following are not signs and symptoms of shock?
none of the above
Yes/No. Regarding the Geneva Conventions, when performing manual labor as a prisoner of war, can the POW perform labor on behalf of the enemies military?
No.
What three methods are used to control hemorrhage?
Pressure Dressing, Pressure Points, Tourniquets
How many rules are there in General First Aid?
Nine.
What is a Pressure Dressing?
The best way to control external bleeding is by applying a compress to the wound and exerting pressure directly to the wound.
Yes/No. Regarding the 9 general rules of first aid, should you use critical seconds to get organized?
Yes. Take a moment to get organized. On your way to an accident scene use a few of the basic rules of first aid. Remain calm as you take charge of the situation, and act quickly but efficiently. Decide as soon as possible what has to be done and which one of the patient's injuries needs attention first.
What are Pressure Points?
Bleeding can often be controlled by applying hand pressure to the appropriate pressure point. A pressure point is the spot where the main artery to an injured part lies near the skin surface and over a bone. This is between the heart and the point of injury.
Yes/No. Regarding the 9 general rules of first aid, should you move your victim when you find them so you can do your preliminary exam?
No. Unless contraindicated, make your preliminary examination in the position and place you find the victim. Moving the victim before this check could gravely endanger life, especially if the neck, back or ribs are broken. Of course, if the situations is such that you or the victim is in danger, you must weigh this threat against the potential damage caused by premature transportation. If you decide to move the victim, do it quickly and gently to a safe location where proper first aid can be administered.
How many pressure points are there on each side of the body?
11
Regarding the 9 general rules of first aid and when examining the patient for fractures why should you initally avoid moving the patient?
You may compound the injury by movement especially if its a fracture.
Yes/No. When trying to control bleeding is the use of pressure points usually adequate for long term hemorrhaging control?
No. It is very tiring to apply digital pressure, and it can seldom be maintained for more than 15 minutes.
What is the origin of the word "Triage?"
It is French and it means to sort.
What is a tourniquet used for?
A tourniquet is a constricting band that is used to cut off the supply of blood to an injured limb between the site of the injury and the heart.
Why are there two different protocols for Tactical and Non-Tactical Triage?
Tactical situations require maintaining the greatest amount of firepower and arms online while non-tactical situations will address the ability to treat the patient based upon their medical condition.
When using a tourniquet should it be applied closer to trunk or a joint?
Trunk. avoid placing close to a joint.
How many phases of Triage are there?
Four for both Tactical and Non-Tactical Triage
Why shouldn't rope, wire or thin straps of cord be used in the application of a tourniquet?
They can cut into skin and tissue
What are the two types of Triage?
Tactical and Non-Tactical
Yes/No. When treating a head wound should you apply direct pressure to the site of the wound?
No. They may have a crushing skull injury which can cause brain damage.
In Tactical Triage what Class requires patients whose injures require immediate life-sustaining measures or are of a MODERATE nature. Initially, they require a minimum amount of time, personnel, and supplies?
II
Yes/No. When treating head wounds should you give any medications?
No. Never give any medications when treating head wounds.
Regarding Tactical Triage, what are the protocols for rating a patient Class III?
Class III- Patients for whom definitive treatment can be delayed with out jeopardy to life or loss of limb.
Yes/No. Regarding facial wounds should you ever try to dislodge an embedded object in the eyeball?
No. Use a loose, dry, sterile bandage to cover both eyes, and hold the compress in place with a loose bandage. Transport this patient immediately.
Regarding Tactical Triage, Are Class III or Class IV patients whose wounds or injuries requires extensive treatment beyond the immediate medical capabilities.
Class IV
How do you treat a sucking chest wound?
"Seal the wound with airtight material
Regarding Non-Tactical Triage, which of the following represent the four protocols?
I- Critical, II- Serious, III- Minor, IV- Fatal
transport immediately"
Regarding Non-Tactical Triage , what is the protocol requirements for Priority I patients?
Priority I- Patients with correctable life-threatening illnesses or injuries such as respiratory arrest or obstruction, open chest wounds, or abdomen wounds, femur fractures, or critical or complicated burns.
Yes/No. Should you administer oxygen to a patient with a sucking chest wound?
Yes. When clinically feasible.
Regarding Non-tactical Triage, Patients with serious but non-life-threatening illnesses or injuries such as moderate blood loss, open or multiple fractures, or eye injuries are categorized under what protocol?
Priority II
Yes/No. In an abdominal wound, where the intestines are showing, should the care provider attempt to push the intestines back into the abdominal cavity?
No. Do not attempt to push the intesting back into or manipulate them. Draw the patients knees up, and apply a sterile compress moistened with sterile water. Hold the compress in place with a sterile bandage.
Regarding Non-Tactical Triage, what kind of patients are categorized as Priority III?
Priority III- Patients with minor injuries such as soft tissue injuries, simple fractures, or minor to moderate burns.
Yes/No. In the case of an abdominal wound the patient may request a drink of water or complain of thirst. Should the care provider give water?
No. Do not pass anything orally to a person with an intestinal or abdominal injury.
True/False. Regarding, Non-Tactical Triage, Priority IV patients are patents with minor injuries such as soft tissue injures, simple fractures, or minor to moderate burns.
False. Priority IV. Patients who are dead or fatally injured. Fatal injuries include exposed brain matter, decapitation, and incineration.
What is the difference between an open and closed fracture?
A break in a bone is called a fracture. A closed fracture is one where the entire injury is internal. This is where the bone is broken but you can not see it from the outside of the body. an open fracture is one in which there is an open wound in the tissues and the skin.
Yes/No. Once a patient has been categorized as a Class I, II, III, IV as a matter of Triage, can the classification change over time?
Yes. A Patents condition can improve or decline based upon their injuries.
Why is it important when handling a closed fracture to be gentle?
Because the closed fracture can turn into an open fracture.
In First Aid, what is the difference between a primary and secondary survey?
The primary is a less thorough assessment designed to highlight the nature of the injuries to a patient, where a secondary survey is a more in depth concerning the examination process.
Yes/No. If you have any open fracture should the care provider attempt to control the bleeding?
Yes. If the fracture is open, attempt to control bleeding with a dressing. Apply a splint.
Regarding first aid, what is the primary survey?
The primary survey is a rapid initial assessment to detect and treat life-threatening conditions that require immediate care, followed by a status decision about the patients stability and priority for immediate transport to a medical facility.
Yes/No. When treating a fracture of the forearm should the care provider attempt to set the break by straitening the joint to splint it?
Yes. Carefully straighten the forearm. Apply a pneumatic splint if available; if not, apply two well-padded splints to the forearm, one on the top and one on the bottom.
As soon as the ABCDE portion of the primary assessment in first aid is completed what should the provider do?
A status decision of the patients condition, which is a judgement about the severity of the patient's condition and whether the patient requires immediate transport to a medical facility with out a secondary survey at the scene. Ideally, the ABCDE steps, status, and transport decision should be completed with in 10 minutes of your arrival on the scene.
Yes/No. When treating a fracture of the upper arm should you splint the arm against the body for support?
Yes. This splint should extend from the shoulder to the elbow. Fasten the splinted arm firmly to the body and support the forearm in a narrow sling, which you find it. This will prevent further nerve and blood vessel damage.
Regarding the primary assessment, how long should the decision to transport or not take from the arrival on scene?
A status decision of the patients condition, which is a judgement about the severity of the patient's condition and whether the patient requires immediate transport to a medical facility with out a secondary survey at the scene. Ideally, the ABCDE steps, status, and transport decision should be completed with in 10 minutes of your arrival on the scene.
Yes/No. If you suspect an upper arm fracture, should you attempt to straighten the fracture before splinting it?
No. Do not attempt to straighten it or move it in any way.
Which of the following signs and/or symptoms are not exemplary of shock?
elevated blood pressure
Yes/No. Can a person with a femur fracture go into shock from internal bleeding of the blood vessels in that portion of the leg?
Yes.
Which of the following are not signs and symptoms of shock?
none of the above
Yes/No. Should you apple gentle traction to the femur if you suspect a femur fracture?
Yes.
What three methods are used to control hemorrhage?
Pressure Dressing, Pressure Points, Tourniquets
When the provider suspects a pelvis fracture, what (5) points should the splints be attached?
<p>Ankle, Knee, Hip, Pelvis, Armpit</p>
What is a Pressure Dressing?
The best way to control external bleeding is by applying a compress to the wound and exerting pressure directly to the wound.
What is a Green Stick Fracture?
Incomplete fracture like a GREEN STICK
What are Pressure Points?
Bleeding can often be controlled by applying hand pressure to the appropriate pressure point. A pressure point is the spot where the main artery to an injured part lies near the skin surface and over a bone. This is between the heart and the point of injury.
What is a commuted fracture?
Shattered bone with fragments
How many pressure points are there on each side of the body?
11
What is a fissured fracture?
Down the long axes
Yes/No. When trying to control bleeding is the use of pressure points usually adequate for long term hemorrhaging control?
No. It is very tiring to apply digital pressure, and it can seldom be maintained for more than 15 minutes.
What is a traverse fracture?
Fractured at a right angle
What is a tourniquet used for?
A tourniquet is a constricting band that is used to cut off the supply of blood to an injured limb between the site of the injury and the heart.
What is an oblique fracture?
"Fractured at any angle other than 90 degrees
When using a tourniquet should it be applied closer to trunk or a joint?
Trunk. avoid placing close to a joint.
"
Why shouldn't rope, wire or thin straps of cord be used in the application of a tourniquet?
They can cut into skin and tissue
What is a spiral fracture?
Twisted Fraction
Yes/No. When treating a head wound should you apply direct pressure to the site of the wound?
No. They may have a crushing skull injury which can cause brain damage.
What is a depressed fracture?
broken bone portion is pressed inward. typical of skull fractures.
Yes/No. When treating head wounds should you give any medications?
No. Never give any medications when treating head wounds.
What is an impacted fracture?
broken bone ends are forced into each other. happens when attempts to break a fall. similar to compression vertebrae
Yes/No. Regarding facial wounds should you ever try to dislodge an embedded object in the eyeball?
No. Use a loose, dry, sterile bandage to cover both eyes, and hold the compress in place with a loose bandage. Transport this patient immediately.
Regarding Fractures, what is an open reduction?
It is a fracture that requires surgery
Yes/No. Should you administer oxygen to a patient with a sucking chest wound?
Yes. When clinically feasible.
What is an impacted fracture?
It's a fracture where one bone driven into another
Yes/No. In an abdominal wound, where the intestines are showing, should the care provider attempt to push the intestines back into the abdominal cavity?
No. Do not attempt to push the intesting back into or manipulate them. Draw the patients knees up, and apply a sterile compress moistened with sterile water. Hold the compress in place with a sterile bandage.
What is a Pott's fracture?
Break at distal end of fibula
Yes/No. In the case of an abdominal wound the patient may request a drink of water or complain of thirst. Should the care provider give water?
No. Do not pass anything orally to a person with an intestinal or abdominal injury.
What is a Colles fracture?
Distal end of radius breaks and is displaced backwards
What is the difference between an open and closed fracture?
A break in a bone is called a fracture. A closed fracture is one where the entire injury is internal. This is where the bone is broken but you can not see it from the outside of the body. an open fracture is one in which there is an open wound in the tissues and the skin.
What is a non-displaced fracture?
Bones that are not out of alignment after a break
Why is it important when handling a closed fracture to be gentle?
Because the closed fracture can turn into an open fracture.
What is a stress fracture?
"Partial fracture, esp. from pounding while running hard surface, 1/4 occur at distal end of fibula"
Yes/No. If you have any open fracture should the care provider attempt to control the bleeding?
Yes. If the fracture is open, attempt to control bleeding with a dressing. Apply a splint.
What is a clot hematoma?
Clot that forms after 6 to 8 hours after break
Yes/No. When treating a fracture of the forearm should the care provider attempt to set the break by straitening the joint to splint it?
Yes. Carefully straighten the forearm. Apply a pneumatic splint if available; if not, apply two well-padded splints to the forearm, one on the top and one on the bottom.
How many degrees of burns are there?
III
Yes/No. When treating a fracture of the upper arm should you splint the arm against the body for support?
Yes. This splint should extend from the shoulder to the elbow. Fasten the splinted arm firmly to the body and support the forearm in a narrow sling, which you find it. This will prevent further nerve and blood vessel damage.
What is the difference between I and II degree burns?
With a first degree, the epidermal layer is irritated, reddened, and tingling. A second degree burn is characterized by epidermal blisters, mottled appearance, and a red base. Damage extends into- but not through- the dermis.
Yes/No. If you suspect an upper arm fracture, should you attempt to straighten the fracture before splinting it?
No. Do not attempt to straighten it or move it in any way.
Yes/No. Are first degree burns characterized by blisters?
No. The epidermal layer is irritated, reddened, and tingling. The skin is sensitive to touch and blanches with pressure. Pain is mild to severe, edema is minimal, and healing usually occurs naturally with in a week.
Yes/No. Can a person with a femur fracture go into shock from internal bleeding of the blood vessels in that portion of the leg?
Yes.
True/False. Second degree burns are characterized by nerve damage and black charring around the sight of the burn.
False. Third degree burns are a full-thickness injury penetrating into muscles and fatty connective tissues, or even down to the bone. Tissues and nerves are destroyed.
Yes/No. Should you apple gentle traction to the femur if you suspect a femur fracture?
Yes.
What are the three types of heat injuries?
Cramps, Exhaustion, Stroke
When the provider suspects a pelvis fracture, what (5) points should the splints be attached?
<p>Ankle, Knee, Hip, Pelvis, Armpit</p>
Which of the following is characterized by excessive sweating may result in painful cramps in the muscles of the abdomen, legs, and arms?
None of the Above
What is a Green Stick Fracture?
Incomplete fracture like a GREEN STICK
Regarding Security Fundamentals, what are the function(s) of the interior guard?
"1. Preserve Order
What is a commuted fracture?
Shattered bone with fragments
3. Enforce Regulations with in the jurisdiction of command"
What is a fissured fracture?
Down the long axes
To Take Charge of this post and all government property in view
1st General Order
What is a traverse fracture?
Fractured at a right angle
<p>What phrase is the beginning of the second general order?</p>
<p>To walk my post in a military manner....</p>
What is a spiral fracture?
Twisted Fraction
Yes/No. Does the third general order require that you report all violations of orders that you are instructed to enforce?
Yes.
What is a depressed fracture?
broken bone portion is pressed inward. typical of skull fractures.
What General order states, "To quit my post only when properly relieved."
5th General Order
What is an impacted fracture?
broken bone ends are forced into each other. happens when attempts to break a fall. similar to compression vertebrae
What does the 6th general order state?
To receive, obey, and pass on to the sentry who relieves me all orders from the commanding officer, officer of the day, and officers and officers and noncommissioned officers of the guard only.
Regarding Fractures, what is an open reduction?
It is a fracture that requires surgery
Which general order states that the sentry is to talk to no one except in the line of duty?
General Order 7
What is an impacted fracture?
It's a fracture where one bone driven into another
Yes/No. Does the 8th General Order state that the sentry is to give the alarm in case of fire or disorder?
Yes
What is a Pott's fracture?
Break at distal end of fibula
What is the 8th General Order?
To give the alarm in case of fire or disorder.
What is a Colles fracture?
Distal end of radius breaks and is displaced backwards
In the 9th General Order, are you supposed to call the corporeal or the sergeant of the guard?
Corporeal
What is a non-displaced fracture?
Bones that are not out of alignment after a break
Which General Order states, that all officers and all colors and standards not cased.
General Order 10
What is a stress fracture?
"Partial fracture, esp. from pounding while running hard surface, 1/4 occur at distal end of fibula"
What General Order states that the watch is to be especially watchful at night and during the time for challenge to all persons on or near my post, and to allow no one to pass without proper authority?
General Order 11
What is a clot hematoma?
Clot that forms after 6 to 8 hours after break
What is the interior guard's chain of command?
Commanding Officer --> Field officer of the day --> Officer of the Day --> Commander of the Guard --> Sergeant of the guard --> Corporal of the guard
How many degrees of burns are there?
III
Regarding the interior chain of command, what is the responsibility of the commanding officer?
To ensure the security of the command
What is the difference between I and II degree burns?
With a first degree, the epidermal layer is irritated, reddened, and tingling. A second degree burn is characterized by epidermal blisters, mottled appearance, and a red base. Damage extends into- but not through- the dermis.
Regarding the interior chain of command, what are the responsibilities of the field officer of the day?
Ensures the security of the command
Yes/No. Are first degree burns characterized by blisters?
No. The epidermal layer is irritated, reddened, and tingling. The skin is sensitive to touch and blanches with pressure. Pain is mild to severe, edema is minimal, and healing usually occurs naturally with in a week.
Regarding the interior guard's chain of command, what is the responsibility of the Officer of the day?
Supervises the main guard
True/False. Second degree burns are characterized by nerve damage and black charring around the sight of the burn.
False. Third degree burns are a full-thickness injury penetrating into muscles and fatty connective tissues, or even down to the bone. Tissues and nerves are destroyed.
Regarding the interior guard's chain of command, what are the responsibilities of the commander of the guard?
ensures proper instruction, discipline, and performance
What are the three types of heat injuries?
Cramps, Exhaustion, Stroke
Regarding the interior guard's chain of command which is the responsibility of the sergeant of the guard?
Ensures proper instruction, discipline, and performance
Which of the following is characterized by excessive sweating may result in painful cramps in the muscles of the abdomen, legs, and arms?
None of the Above
Regarding the interior guard's chain of command, which are the responsibilities of the corporal of the guard?
in charge of relief
To Take Charge of this post and all government property in view
1st General Order
Yes/No. Regarding the interior guard's chain of command, are the responsibilities of the commanding officer and field officer of the day similar in statement?
Yes. The both ensure the security of the command.
<p>What phrase is the beginning of the second general order?</p>
<p>To walk my post in a military manner....</p>
Yes/No. Regarding the interior of the guard chain of command, are the responsibilities of the commander of the guard and the sergeant of the guard similar?
Yes. Both the commander and sergeant of the guard ensure proper instruction, discipline and performance of duty of the main guard.
Yes/No. Does the third general order require that you report all violations of orders that you are instructed to enforce?
Yes.
Yes/No. Regarding the interior chain of command, are the responsibilities of the sergeant of the guard and corporal of the guard?
No. The sergeant of the guard is responsible for proper instruction, discipline, and performance of duty of the main guard and the corporeal of the guard is in charge of the relief.
What General order states, "To quit my post only when properly relieved."
5th General Order
Regarding, rules of engagement, what are the six conditions that justify the use of deadly force?
(1) Defend yourself. (2) Defense Property not involving national security. (3) Defend property not involving national security but inherently dangerous to other. (4) Prevent crimes against people (5) Apprehend individuals (6) Establish and/or maintain lawful order
What does the 6th general order state?
To receive, obey, and pass on to the sentry who relieves me all orders from the commanding officer, officer of the day, and officers and officers and noncommissioned officers of the guard only.
Which of the following are not a condition to authorize the use of deadly force regarding the rules of engagement?
Defense of non-governmental organizations for peace
Which general order states that the sentry is to talk to no one except in the line of duty?
General Order 7
Regarding the use of deadly force which of the following conditions must exist as a rule of engagement.
In self defense
Yes/No. Does the 8th General Order state that the sentry is to give the alarm in case of fire or disorder?
Yes
Yes/No. Is self defense a condition that justifies the use of deadly force as a rule of engagement?
Yes. To prevent military law enforcement or security personnel who reasonably believe themselves to be in imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.
What is the 8th General Order?
To give the alarm in case of fire or disorder.
Yes/No. Can deadly force be used to defend property that doesn't involve national security?
Yes. To prevent the theft, damage, or espionage aimed at property or information, which through not vital to the national threatened security is of substantial importance to the national security.
In the 9th General Order, are you supposed to call the corporeal or the sergeant of the guard?
Corporeal
Yes/No. Regarding the use of deadly force, may it be used to defend property not involving national security but deadly to others?
Yes. To prevent actual theft or sabotage of property, such as operable weapons or ammunition, which is inherently dangerous to others.
Which General Order states, that all officers and all colors and standards not cased.
General Order 10
Yes/No. Can deadly force be used to prevent or interrupt the commission of a serious offense?
Yes. To prevent or to interrupt the commission of a serious offense observed by the sentry, which threatens death or serious bodily harm to other persons. Such offenses include, but are not limited to murder, rape or armed robbery.
What General Order states that the watch is to be especially watchful at night and during the time for challenge to all persons on or near my post, and to allow no one to pass without proper authority?
General Order 11
Yes/No. Can deadly force be used in the rules of engagement to apprehend individuals who are trying to escape?
Yes. To apprehend or to prevent the escape of a person reasonably believed to have committed an offense involving national security, or to prevent the escape of a designated prisoner.
What is the interior guard's chain of command?
Commanding Officer --> Field officer of the day --> Officer of the Day --> Commander of the Guard --> Sergeant of the guard --> Corporal of the guard
Yes/No. Is deadly force authorized regarding rules of engagement in the establishment or maintenance of a lawful order?
Yes. Establish and/or maintain lawful order when it has been directed by the lawful order of a superior authority.
Regarding the interior chain of command, what is the responsibility of the commanding officer?
To ensure the security of the command
What is the definition of terrorism?
Terrorism is the unlawful use or threatened use of violence to force or to intimidate governments or societies to achieve political, religious, or ideological objectives.
Regarding the interior chain of command, what are the responsibilities of the field officer of the day?
Ensures the security of the command
Why is terrorism a preferred tactic of sub-national organizations or state-sponsored groups?
Terrorism is a cheap, low-risk, highly effective way for weak nations, individuals, or groups to challenge stronger nations or groups and achieve objectives beyond their own abilities.
Regarding the interior guard's chain of command, what is the responsibility of the Officer of the day?
Supervises the main guard
What are the long range goals of terrorists?
Terrorists have sought to topple governments, influence top-level decisions, and gain recognition for their cause
Regarding the interior guard's chain of command, what are the responsibilities of the commander of the guard?
ensures proper instruction, discipline, and performance
What are some of the short-range goals of terrorism?
Focus on gaining recognition, reducing government credibility, obtaining funds and equipment, disrupting communications, demonstrating power, delaying the political process, reducing the government's economy, influencing elections, freeing prisoners, demoralizing and discrediting the security force, intimidation, and causing a government to over react.
Regarding the interior guard's chain of command which is the responsibility of the sergeant of the guard?
Ensures proper instruction, discipline, and performance
What are the short term goals of terrorist acts?
Focus on gaining recognition, reducing government credibility, obtaining funds and equipment, disrupting communications, demonstrating power, delaying the political process, reducing the government's economy, influencing elections, freeing prisoners, demoralizing and discrediting the security force, intimidation, and causing a government to over react.
Regarding the interior guard's chain of command, which are the responsibilities of the corporal of the guard?
in charge of relief
What are common motivations for terrorism?
Terrorists are motivated by religion, prestige, power, political change, and material gain. Terrorists believe that they are an elite society and act in the name of the people.
Yes/No. Regarding the interior guard's chain of command, are the responsibilities of the commanding officer and field officer of the day similar in statement?
Yes. The both ensure the security of the command.
How are terrorist groups organized?
Terrorists operate in small secret groups with little interaction and tight central control held by a few individuals? Each groups may have smaller functional units that have command, intelligence, support and tactical responsibilities. Each unit may have only two to six persons. Terrorists operate with the good will and support of sympathetic foreign governments. Terrorist groups share resources, expertise, and safe havens, Tactics and methods of operation may vary from group-to-group, by they all seek to achieve their objectives through fear, intimidation, and force
Yes/No. Regarding the interior of the guard chain of command, are the responsibilities of the commander of the guard and the sergeant of the guard similar?
Yes. Both the commander and sergeant of the guard ensure proper instruction, discipline and performance of duty of the main guard.
How many THREATCON levels are there?
Four
Yes/No. Regarding the interior chain of command, are the responsibilities of the sergeant of the guard and corporal of the guard?
No. The sergeant of the guard is responsible for proper instruction, discipline, and performance of duty of the main guard and the corporeal of the guard is in charge of the relief.
What does THREATCON stand for?
Threat Condition
Regarding, rules of engagement, what are the six conditions that justify the use of deadly force?
(1) Defend yourself. (2) Defense Property not involving national security. (3) Defend property not involving national security but inherently dangerous to other. (4) Prevent crimes against people (5) Apprehend individuals (6) Establish and/or maintain lawful order
What does THREATCON (Threat Condition) mean?
The THREATCON system is designed to standardize security measures so that inter-service coordination and support of anti-terrorism activities are simplified. An overseas command will reduce, increase, or cancel declared THREATCONs as demanded by changes in the terrorist threat.
Which of the following are not a condition to authorize the use of deadly force regarding the rules of engagement?
Defense of non-governmental organizations for peace
What are the four levels of a THREATCON?
Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
Regarding the use of deadly force which of the following conditions must exist as a rule of engagement.
In self defense
Regarding THREATCON which is the highest level of readiness and alert: Alpha or Delta?
Delta: A terrorist attack has occurred or that intelligence indicates that a terrorist action against a specific location is likely. Normally, this THREATCON is declared as a localized warning.
Yes/No. Is self defense a condition that justifies the use of deadly force as a rule of engagement?
Yes. To prevent military law enforcement or security personnel who reasonably believe themselves to be in imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.
Regarding THREATCON conditions, what is the difference between Alpha and Bravo
Bravo means that there is an increased risk of terrorist threats of terrorist action where Alpha notes that there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity.
Yes/No. Can deadly force be used to defend property that doesn't involve national security?
Yes. To prevent the theft, damage, or espionage aimed at property or information, which through not vital to the national threatened security is of substantial importance to the national security.
Regarding threat conditions (THREATCON) what is the primary difference between Charlie and Bravo?
THREATCON Charlie indicates that a terrorist attack is imminent or that one has occured where Bravo denotes an increased threat.
Yes/No. Regarding the use of deadly force, may it be used to defend property not involving national security but deadly to others?
Yes. To prevent actual theft or sabotage of property, such as operable weapons or ammunition, which is inherently dangerous to others.
Regarding threat conditions (THREATCON) what is a primary difference between Charlie and Delta?
Both indicate that an attack may have happened where Charlie notes that an attack may be imminent and Delta is more localized. An example might be that a region may have THREATCON Charlie because FOB 'A' was attacked while FOB 'A' is under THREATCON Delta because of the attack.
Yes/No. Can deadly force be used to prevent or interrupt the commission of a serious offense?
Yes. To prevent or to interrupt the commission of a serious offense observed by the sentry, which threatens death or serious bodily harm to other persons. Such offenses include, but are not limited to murder, rape or armed robbery.
Regarding preventative measures and postures towards terrorist activities which of the following measures can protect against attack?
Vary transportation methods, routes and times. Park in well-lighted areas with multiple exits, lock unattended vehicles, report unusual activities to local security officials, avoid traveling alone, travel only on busy, well-traveled thoroughfares whenever possible, take proper security precautions at home during travel, attend periodic threat awareness briefings and hostage survival training, avoid establishing a pattern of attendance at certain events, locations, etc., Keep a low profile and avoid calling attention to yourself. Seek knowledge of the local situation and be aware of your surroundings. Be sensitive to the possibility of surveillance.
Yes/No. Can deadly force be used in the rules of engagement to apprehend individuals who are trying to escape?
Yes. To apprehend or to prevent the escape of a person reasonably believed to have committed an offense involving national security, or to prevent the escape of a designated prisoner.
What are some common rules to protect against a terrorist attack?
Vary transportation methods, routes and times. Park in well-lighted areas with multiple exits, lock unattended vehicles, report unusual activities to local security officials, avoid traveling alone, travel only on busy, well-traveled thoroughfares whenever possible, take proper security precautions at home during travel, attend periodic threat awareness briefings and hostage survival training, avoid establishing a pattern of attendance at certain events, locations, etc., Keep a low profile and avoid calling attention to yourself. Seek knowledge of the local situation and be aware of your surroundings. Be sensitive to the possibility of surveillance.
Yes/No. Is deadly force authorized regarding rules of engagement in the establishment or maintenance of a lawful order?
Yes. Establish and/or maintain lawful order when it has been directed by the lawful order of a superior authority.
True/False. Regarding the mitigation of risk in terrorist attacks maintaining a low profile means that you ensure that your dress, conduct and mannerisms do not attract attention.
True. Maintain a low profile. Ensure that your dress, conduct and mannerisms do not attract attention. Make an effort to blend into the local environment. Avoid publicity. Do not go out in big groups. Stay away from civil disturbances and demonstrations.
What is the definition of terrorism?
Terrorism is the unlawful use or threatened use of violence to force or to intimidate governments or societies to achieve political, religious, or ideological objectives.
Regarding the mitigation of risk when dealing with a terrorist attack does remaining unpredictable mean that you are to wear your same clothes and style repeatedly such as your lucky t-shirt or favorite hat?
No. Be unpredictable means that you vary your routes and the time you leave and return home during your daily routine. vary your style of dress. Avoid deserted streets or country roads. AVoid traveling alone. Let people close to you know where you are going and what you will be doing.
Why is terrorism a preferred tactic of sub-national organizations or state-sponsored groups?
Terrorism is a cheap, low-risk, highly effective way for weak nations, individuals, or groups to challenge stronger nations or groups and achieve objectives beyond their own abilities.
Yes/No. If you receive a phone call attempting to identify you should you provide your personal information to that caller?
No. Remaining vigilant means that you should watch for anything suspicious or out of place. Do not give out personal information over the telephone. Preselect a secure area in which you can take refuge if you are being followed. Report any incident of being followed to the military police and to your command duty officer.
What are the long range goals of terrorists?
Terrorists have sought to topple governments, influence top-level decisions, and gain recognition for their cause
Yes/No. When mitigating risk against terrorist attack, should you call the police when getting in and out of your vehicle?
No. To Protect your automobile, avoid leaving the vehicle unattended and in the open. Lock the doors, the trunk, and the gas cap when leaving the vehicle. Upon returning to the vehicle, search it before operating (or driving). Check the exterior of the vehicle for: packages left on the ground, disturbances around the vehicle, loose wiring, string, or tape, check the interior of the vehicle for objects out of place or anything out of the ordinary.
What are some of the short-range goals of terrorism?
Focus on gaining recognition, reducing government credibility, obtaining funds and equipment, disrupting communications, demonstrating power, delaying the political process, reducing the government's economy, influencing elections, freeing prisoners, demoralizing and discrediting the security force, intimidation, and causing a government to over react.
Regarding the classification of information, what is meant by access?
Access- the ability and opportunity to obtain knowledge or possession of classified information.
What are the short term goals of terrorist acts?
Focus on gaining recognition, reducing government credibility, obtaining funds and equipment, disrupting communications, demonstrating power, delaying the political process, reducing the government's economy, influencing elections, freeing prisoners, demoralizing and discrediting the security force, intimidation, and causing a government to over react.
Regarding the classification of information, what is meant by classification?
Classification- The determination by an authorized official that official information requires, in the interests of national security, a specific degree of protection against unauthorized disclosure.
What are common motivations for terrorism?
Terrorists are motivated by religion, prestige, power, political change, and material gain. Terrorists believe that they are an elite society and act in the name of the people.
Regarding the classification of information, what is meant by compromise of the information?
Compromise- An unauthorized disclosure of classified information to one or more persons who do not possess a current valid security clearance.
How are terrorist groups organized?
Terrorists operate in small secret groups with little interaction and tight central control held by a few individuals? Each groups may have smaller functional units that have command, intelligence, support and tactical responsibilities. Each unit may have only two to six persons. Terrorists operate with the good will and support of sympathetic foreign governments. Terrorist groups share resources, expertise, and safe havens, Tactics and methods of operation may vary from group-to-group, by they all seek to achieve their objectives through fear, intimidation, and force
What are the three levels of security classifications?
Top Secret, Secret, Confidential.
How many THREATCON levels are there?
Four
What is the difference between Secret and Top Secret Classifications?
Top Secret is given when the nature of the information if improperly disclosed can be considered exceptionally grave in the damage that can be caused while Secret information is serious.
What does THREATCON stand for?
Threat Condition
Yes/No. Can the term For Official Use Only be used in the identification of classified US Information?
No.
What does THREATCON (Threat Condition) mean?
The THREATCON system is designed to standardize security measures so that inter-service coordination and support of anti-terrorism activities are simplified. An overseas command will reduce, increase, or cancel declared THREATCONs as demanded by changes in the terrorist threat.
Yes/No. Can the term Secret Sensitive be used in the identification of U.S. classified information?
No.
What are the four levels of a THREATCON?
Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
What should you do if you find sensitive and UNSECURED classified material?
Protect it from further compromise and notify the custodian or security manager
Regarding THREATCON which is the highest level of readiness and alert: Alpha or Delta?
Delta: A terrorist attack has occurred or that intelligence indicates that a terrorist action against a specific location is likely. Normally, this THREATCON is declared as a localized warning.
Regarding THREATCON conditions, what is the difference between Alpha and Bravo
Bravo means that there is an increased risk of terrorist threats of terrorist action where Alpha notes that there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity.
If information was sensitive enough to cause armed hostilities between countries what level of security classification would it most likely be?
Top Secret.
Would information potentially relating to the disruption of foreign relations instead of potential hostilities be classified as Top Secret, Secret or Confidential?
Secret.
Regarding threat conditions (THREATCON) what is the primary difference between Charlie and Bravo?
THREATCON Charlie indicates that a terrorist attack is imminent or that one has occured where Bravo denotes an increased threat.
Regarding Counter-Intelligence what methods do foreign agents use in collecting information about US Forces?
They Observe, Eavesdrop, Read, Listen, and Obtain...
Regarding threat conditions (THREATCON) what is a primary difference between Charlie and Delta?
Both indicate that an attack may have happened where Charlie notes that an attack may be imminent and Delta is more localized. An example might be that a region may have THREATCON Charlie because FOB 'A' was attacked while FOB 'A' is under THREATCON Delta because of the attack.
On the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS), when programming SC Frequencies how much time do you have to perform each step?
7 Seconds
Regarding preventative measures and postures towards terrorist activities which of the following measures can protect against attack?
Vary transportation methods, routes and times. Park in well-lighted areas with multiple exits, lock unattended vehicles, report unusual activities to local security officials, avoid traveling alone, travel only on busy, well-traveled thoroughfares whenever possible, take proper security precautions at home during travel, attend periodic threat awareness briefings and hostage survival training, avoid establishing a pattern of attendance at certain events, locations, etc., Keep a low profile and avoid calling attention to yourself. Seek knowledge of the local situation and be aware of your surroundings. Be sensitive to the possibility of surveillance.
Regarding the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS) how many battery types are there?
Three. 5372 - Non-Rechargable, 5590- Lithium Non-Recharge, 590 -- Rechargable
What are some common rules to protect against a terrorist attack?
Vary transportation methods, routes and times. Park in well-lighted areas with multiple exits, lock unattended vehicles, report unusual activities to local security officials, avoid traveling alone, travel only on busy, well-traveled thoroughfares whenever possible, take proper security precautions at home during travel, attend periodic threat awareness briefings and hostage survival training, avoid establishing a pattern of attendance at certain events, locations, etc., Keep a low profile and avoid calling attention to yourself. Seek knowledge of the local situation and be aware of your surroundings. Be sensitive to the possibility of surveillance.
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters A, B, and C over the radio?
Alpha, Bravo, Charlie
True/False. Regarding the mitigation of risk in terrorist attacks maintaining a low profile means that you ensure that your dress, conduct and mannerisms do not attract attention.
True. Maintain a low profile. Ensure that your dress, conduct and mannerisms do not attract attention. Make an effort to blend into the local environment. Avoid publicity. Do not go out in big groups. Stay away from civil disturbances and demonstrations.
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters D, E, and F over the radio?
Delta, Echo, Foxtrot
Regarding the mitigation of risk when dealing with a terrorist attack does remaining unpredictable mean that you are to wear your same clothes and style repeatedly such as your lucky t-shirt or favorite hat?
No. Be unpredictable means that you vary your routes and the time you leave and return home during your daily routine. vary your style of dress. Avoid deserted streets or country roads. AVoid traveling alone. Let people close to you know where you are going and what you will be doing.
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters G, H, and I over the radio?
Golf, Hotel, India
Yes/No. If you receive a phone call attempting to identify you should you provide your personal information to that caller?
No. Remaining vigilant means that you should watch for anything suspicious or out of place. Do not give out personal information over the telephone. Preselect a secure area in which you can take refuge if you are being followed. Report any incident of being followed to the military police and to your command duty officer.
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters J, K, and L over the radio?
Juliet, Kilo, Lima
Yes/No. When mitigating risk against terrorist attack, should you call the police when getting in and out of your vehicle?
No. To Protect your automobile, avoid leaving the vehicle unattended and in the open. Lock the doors, the trunk, and the gas cap when leaving the vehicle. Upon returning to the vehicle, search it before operating (or driving). Check the exterior of the vehicle for: packages left on the ground, disturbances around the vehicle, loose wiring, string, or tape, check the interior of the vehicle for objects out of place or anything out of the ordinary.
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters M, N, and O over the radio?
Mike, November, Oscar
Regarding the classification of information, what is meant by access?
Access- the ability and opportunity to obtain knowledge or possession of classified information.
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters P, Q, and R over the radio?
Papa, Quebec, Romeo
Regarding the classification of information, what is meant by classification?
Classification- The determination by an authorized official that official information requires, in the interests of national security, a specific degree of protection against unauthorized disclosure.
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters S, T, and U over the radio?
Sierra, Tango, Uniform
Regarding the classification of information, what is meant by compromise of the information?
Compromise- An unauthorized disclosure of classified information to one or more persons who do not possess a current valid security clearance.
<p>Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters V, W, and X over the radio?</p>
<p>Victor, Wiskey, X-Ray</p>
What are the three levels of security classifications?
Top Secret, Secret, Confidential.
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters X, Y, and Z over the radio?
x-ray, yankee, zulu
What is the difference between Secret and Top Secret Classifications?
Top Secret is given when the nature of the information if improperly disclosed can be considered exceptionally grave in the damage that can be caused while Secret information is serious.
What does the mnemonic FICAL stand for regarding Radio Transmitters?
Feel. Inspect. Clean. Adjust. Lubricate.
Yes/No. Can the term For Official Use Only be used in the identification of classified US Information?
No.
What is the purpose of the mnemonic FITCAL when referring to radio transmitters?
FITCAL is used to perform an preventative maintenance on a radio. Feel. Inspect. Clean. Adjust. Lubricate.
Yes/No. Can the term Secret Sensitive be used in the identification of U.S. classified information?
No.
What area of operational expertise does the term CINGARS refer to?
Communications
What should you do if you find sensitive and UNSECURED classified material?
Protect it from further compromise and notify the custodian or security manager
What does the Acronym CINGARS stand for?
Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System
If information was sensitive enough to cause armed hostilities between countries what level of security classification would it most likely be?
Top Secret.
Would information potentially relating to the disruption of foreign relations instead of potential hostilities be classified as Top Secret, Secret or Confidential?
Secret.
How many modes of operations does the CINGARS radio system have?
Two. Single Channel and Frequency Hopping.
Regarding the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (CINGARS), what is Single Channel mode?
When using the SC mode of operations, the radio technician communicates on one frequency.
Regarding Counter-Intelligence what methods do foreign agents use in collecting information about US Forces?
They Observe, Eavesdrop, Read, Listen, and Obtain...
On the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS), when programming SC Frequencies how much time do you have to perform each step?
7 Seconds
When discussing the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (CINGARS), what is meant by the frequency hopping mode?
SINGARS has the ability to secure transmissions through the use of a transmission security key and frequently hopping to reduce or eliminate the threat of jamming and direction-finding equipment.
Regarding the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS) how many battery types are there?
Three. 5372 - Non-Rechargable, 5590- Lithium Non-Recharge, 590 -- Rechargable
What are the 4 power modes of the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio Systems (CINGARS)?
Lo, M, HI, PA
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters A, B, and C over the radio?
Alpha, Bravo, Charlie
Regarding the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS) what is the range of Low Power?
200 Meters to 400 Meters.
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters D, E, and F over the radio?
Delta, Echo, Foxtrot
Regarding the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS), what is the transmission range of Medium Power?
400 Meters to 5 Kilometers
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters G, H, and I over the radio?
Golf, Hotel, India
Regarding the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (CINGARS), what is the maximum transmission range of the high power setting?
5 Kilometers to 10 Kilometers
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters J, K, and L over the radio?
Juliet, Kilo, Lima
Regarding, the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS), what is the maximum transmission range of the Power Amplifier setting?
10 Kilometers to 40 Kilometers. This setting is unique because its for a Vehicle mount of the radio.
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters M, N, and O over the radio?
Mike, November, Oscar
True/False. Ranges of the Singel Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System are based on line of sight.
True.
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters P, Q, and R over the radio?
Papa, Quebec, Romeo
Yes/No. Can weather conditions influence the range of a Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System?
Yes.
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters S, T, and U over the radio?
Sierra, Tango, Uniform
Yes/No. If the battery on the CINGARS radio has been shot in combat, was it designed to withstand moderate incidents of trauma prior to installation?
No. DOT not heat, incinerate, crush, puncture, disassemble, or otherwise mutilate the battery.
<p>Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters V, W, and X over the radio?</p>
<p>Victor, Wiskey, X-Ray</p>
Yes/No. When picking up the CINGARS radio from the ground can the antenna be used to pick it up?
No. Do NOT use the antenna as a handle. Equipment damage may result.
Regarding the Phoenitic pronunciation of the alphabet when spelling over the radio, how does the radio operator say the letters X, Y, and Z over the radio?
x-ray, yankee, zulu
Yes/No. During periods of intermittent non-use can the battery be stored inside the CINGARS radio?
No. Do NOT store the battery in the CINGARS radio during periods of unuse.
What does the mnemonic FICAL stand for regarding Radio Transmitters?
Feel. Inspect. Clean. Adjust. Lubricate.
<p>What Connector should the antenna be attached to on the CINGARS radio?</p>
<p>The RT ANT Connector</p>
What is the purpose of the mnemonic FITCAL when referring to radio transmitters?
FITCAL is used to perform an preventative maintenance on a radio. Feel. Inspect. Clean. Adjust. Lubricate.
Yes/No. Can the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINCGARS) be used with a handset?
Yes
What area of operational expertise does the term CINGARS refer to?
Communications
How does the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS) attach a handset to the Radio Transmitter (RT)?
Connect and secure handset to connector to AUD/DATA connector. Make sure that the keys line up on handset connector and RT AUD/DATA connector; the push handset connector onto AUD/DATA connector and twist right (clockwise) to lock in place. Push handset connector in and twist left (counterclockwise) to remove handset.
What does the Acronym CINGARS stand for?
Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System
What are the four methods to tying down an antenna on a Single Channel Ground and Airborn Radio System (SINGARS)?
(1) stay-down clamps, (2) snap-free clamp, (3) stay-down clip, (4) snap-free clip
How many modes of operations does the CINGARS radio system have?
Two. Single Channel and Frequency Hopping.
Yes/No. Can the RT user of the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS) input the SC Frequencies?
Yes
Regarding the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (CINGARS), what is Single Channel mode?
When using the SC mode of operations, the radio technician communicates on one frequency.
True/False. The Corpsman can install a Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS)?
False. Vehicle radios are installed and removed by maintenance personnel
When discussing the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (CINGARS), what is meant by the frequency hopping mode?
SINGARS has the ability to secure transmissions through the use of a transmission security key and frequently hopping to reduce or eliminate the threat of jamming and direction-finding equipment.
When using the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS), what position is the Function (FCTN) key set to?
LD for Load
What are the 4 power modes of the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio Systems (CINGARS)?
Lo, M, HI, PA
When loading frequencies in the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS) which position should the mode switch be set to?
SC
Regarding the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS) what is the range of Low Power?
200 Meters to 400 Meters.
Regarding the loading of frequencies on the Single Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS), what should the Channel Button/Knob be set to?
MAN, CUE or desired channel (1 thru 6) where frequency is to be stored.
Regarding the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS), what is the transmission range of Medium Power?
400 Meters to 5 Kilometers
When loading frequencies into the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS), after you've set the FCTN, MODE, and Channels, what happens when you press the CLR button?
It will clear out the frequency and the display will show five lines for you to program the numbers of the new frequency.
Regarding the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (CINGARS), what is the maximum transmission range of the high power setting?
5 Kilometers to 10 Kilometers
What are the four weapons safety rules?
1. Treat every weapon as if it were loaded. 2. Never point a weapon at something you don't intend to shoot. 3. Keep your finger straight and off trigger until you are ready to fire. 4. Keep weapon on safe until you are ready to fire.
Regarding, the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS), what is the maximum transmission range of the Power Amplifier setting?
10 Kilometers to 40 Kilometers. This setting is unique because its for a Vehicle mount of the radio.
Yes/No. The caliber of the M9 is 9mm NATO rounds?
Yes
True/False. Ranges of the Singel Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System are based on line of sight.
True.
What is the M9?
The M9 is a semiautomatic, magazine fed, recoil operated, double action pistol, chambered for the 9mm cartridge.
Yes/No. Can weather conditions influence the range of a Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System?
Yes.
What is the Condition #1 readiness status of the M9 Service Pistol
All of the Above
Yes/No. If the battery on the CINGARS radio has been shot in combat, was it designed to withstand moderate incidents of trauma prior to installation?
No. DOT not heat, incinerate, crush, puncture, disassemble, or otherwise mutilate the battery.
True/False. Condition #2 of the M9 Pistol is Magazine Inserted and Chamber is empty?
False. Condition 2 does not apply to the M9 pistol.
Yes/No. When picking up the CINGARS radio from the ground can the antenna be used to pick it up?
No. Do NOT use the antenna as a handle. Equipment damage may result.
Which condition of the M9 pistol has the magazine removed, chamber empty and the slide forward with the safety on?
Four.
Yes/No. During periods of intermittent non-use can the battery be stored inside the CINGARS radio?
No. Do NOT store the battery in the CINGARS radio during periods of unuse.
Which Condition Code of the M9 pistol has the chamber empty, a magazine inserted, the slide forward and the safety on?
Three
<p>What Connector should the antenna be attached to on the CINGARS radio?</p>
<p>The RT ANT Connector</p>
What is the maximum range of the M9 9mm NATO round?
1800 meters
Yes/No. Can the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINCGARS) be used with a handset?
Yes
How many rounds are kept in the M9 pistols magazine?
15. Staggered.
How does the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS) attach a handset to the Radio Transmitter (RT)?
Connect and secure handset to connector to AUD/DATA connector. Make sure that the keys line up on handset connector and RT AUD/DATA connector; the push handset connector onto AUD/DATA connector and twist right (clockwise) to lock in place. Push handset connector in and twist left (counterclockwise) to remove handset.
What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
50 Meters
What are the four methods to tying down an antenna on a Single Channel Ground and Airborn Radio System (SINGARS)?
(1) stay-down clamps, (2) snap-free clamp, (3) stay-down clip, (4) snap-free clip
Yes/No. When loading a M9 Pistol will the magazine click when its placed in the well?
Yes. Insert the loaded magazine into the well of the pistol until a click of the magazine catch is heard.
Yes/No. Can the RT user of the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS) input the SC Frequencies?
Yes
What is the M16A2 maximum effective range?
550 Meters
True/False. The Corpsman can install a Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS)?
False. Vehicle radios are installed and removed by maintenance personnel
What is the Maximum range of the M16A2?
3600 Meters
When using the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS), what position is the Function (FCTN) key set to?
LD for Load
Describe the M16A2 Service Rifle:
The M16A2 is a lightweight, gas-operated, air-cooled, magazine-fed, shoulder-fired, weapon that can be fired in the semi-auto and auto (3 round burst).
When loading frequencies in the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS) which position should the mode switch be set to?
SC
The M9 shoots what caliber round?
9mm
Regarding the loading of frequencies on the Single Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS), what should the Channel Button/Knob be set to?
MAN, CUE or desired channel (1 thru 6) where frequency is to be stored.
Does the M16A2 shoot a 5.56 round or a 7.62?
5.56 NATO
When loading frequencies into the Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINGARS), after you've set the FCTN, MODE, and Channels, what happens when you press the CLR button?
It will clear out the frequency and the display will show five lines for you to program the numbers of the new frequency.
Yes/No. With the M16A2 in a Condition 1 Setting is the safety on and the magazine inserted?
Yes. Condition 1: Safety On. Magazine Inserted. Round in chamber. Bolt forward, ejection port closed.
What are the four weapons safety rules?
1. Treat every weapon as if it were loaded. 2. Never point a weapon at something you don't intend to shoot. 3. Keep your finger straight and off trigger until you are ready to fire. 4. Keep weapon on safe until you are ready to fire.
Yes/No. Regarding a M16A2 Rifle, Does a Condition 2 Code mean that the safety is on?
"No. Condition 2 does not apply to the M16A2
Yes/No. The caliber of the M9 is 9mm NATO rounds?
Yes
What is the M9?
The M9 is a semiautomatic, magazine fed, recoil operated, double action pistol, chambered for the 9mm cartridge.
"
On an M16A2 Rifle, what is the difference between Condition 1 and Condition 3?
Condition 1 Weapons have a round in the chamber while Condition 3 weapons do not.
What is the Condition #1 readiness status of the M9 Service Pistol
All of the Above
True/False. Condition #2 of the M9 Pistol is Magazine Inserted and Chamber is empty?
False. Condition 2 does not apply to the M9 pistol.
Regarding the M16A2 rifle, what is the primary difference between a Condition 3 and a Condition 4 weapon?
On Condition 3 the magazine is inserted and on Condition 4 the magazine is not inserted.
Yes/No. Regarding the M16A2 is there ever a condition code (1,2,3 or 4) where the safety is off?
No. But Condition 2 does not apply to the M16A2.
Which condition of the M9 pistol has the magazine removed, chamber empty and the slide forward with the safety on?
Four.
Which Condition Code of the M9 pistol has the chamber empty, a magazine inserted, the slide forward and the safety on?
Three
Yes/No. Regarding the M16A2 is there ever a condition codes (I, II, III, IV) where the ejection port cover is NOT closed?
No.
Regarding the M9 pistol condition codes what is the primary difference between a condition 3 and condition 4 weapon?
On a Condition 3 weapon, the magazine is inserted while on the condition 4 weapon it is not.
What is the maximum range of the M9 9mm NATO round?
1800 meters
What is the M203?
a Lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon attached to either an M16A1 or an M16A2 rifle.
How many rounds are kept in the M9 pistols magazine?
15. Staggered.
What is the Maximum range of the M203 grenade launcher while attached to an M16A1/A2/M4, rifle?
400 Meters
What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
50 Meters
What is the Maximum Effective Range of the M203 Grenade Launcher for a Fire-Team Sized Area Target?
350 Meters
Yes/No. When loading a M9 Pistol will the magazine click when its placed in the well?
Yes. Insert the loaded magazine into the well of the pistol until a click of the magazine catch is heard.
What is the Maximum Effective Range for the M203 Grenade Launcher against a Vehicle or Weapon Point Target?
150 Meters
What is the M16A2 maximum effective range?
550 Meters
When firing the M203 Grenade Launcher, what is the minimum safe range of this weapon.
165 meters for training and 31 for combat
What is the Maximum range of the M16A2?
3600 Meters
Regarding the M203 Grenade Launcher, what is unique about Condition Codes II and III?
Condition Codes II and III do NOT apply to the M203 Grenade Launcher.
Describe the M16A2 Service Rifle:
The M16A2 is a lightweight, gas-operated, air-cooled, magazine-fed, shoulder-fired, weapon that can be fired in the semi-auto and auto (3 round burst).
What is an M249?
The machine gun, light, squad automatic weapon, M249, is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt or magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the open-bolt position.
The M9 shoots what caliber round?
9mm
What is the round size of the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW)?
5.56
Does the M16A2 shoot a 5.56 round or a 7.62?
5.56 NATO
Yes/No. Can the M249 fire rounds from a 30 round magazine usually used in a M16A2?
Yes.
Yes/No. With the M16A2 in a Condition 1 Setting is the safety on and the magazine inserted?
Yes. Condition 1: Safety On. Magazine Inserted. Round in chamber. Bolt forward, ejection port closed.
What is the Maximum Range of the M249 squad automatic weapon?
3600 Meters
On an M16A2 Rifle, what is the difference between Condition 1 and Condition 3?
Condition 1 Weapons have a round in the chamber while Condition 3 weapons do not.
What is the Maximum Effective Range of the M249 Squad Automatic Weapon against a Point Target?
800 Meters
Regarding the M16A2 rifle, what is the primary difference between a Condition 3 and a Condition 4 weapon?
On Condition 3 the magazine is inserted and on Condition 4 the magazine is not inserted.
<p>What is the maximum effective range of the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW) against an area target?</p>
<p>1000 Meters</p>
Yes/No. Regarding the M16A2 is there ever a condition code (1,2,3 or 4) where the safety is off?
No. But Condition 2 does not apply to the M16A2.
What is the maximum effective range of the M249 squad automatic weapon for grazing fire?
600 Meters
Yes/No. Regarding the M16A2 is there ever a condition codes (I, II, III, IV) where the ejection port cover is NOT closed?
No.
Regarding the use of the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW), what are the three rates of fire?
Sustained, Rapid, Cyclic
Regarding the M9 pistol condition codes what is the primary difference between a condition 3 and condition 4 weapon?
On a Condition 3 weapon, the magazine is inserted while on the condition 4 weapon it is not.
What is the primary difference in rates of fire in using the M249 between Sustained and Rapid?
Sustained 85 Rounds Per Minute, Rapid 200 Rounds Per Minute
What is the M203?
a Lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon attached to either an M16A1 or an M16A2 rifle.
Regarding the rates of fire for the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW), what is the difference between Rapid and Cyclic
Rapid= 200, Cyclic= 850
What is the Maximum range of the M203 grenade launcher while attached to an M16A1/A2/M4, rifle?
400 Meters
Regarding the rates of fire for the M249, squad automatic weapon (SAW), what is the difference between the Sustained and Cyclic
Sustained= 85 RPM, Cyclic= 850 RPM
What is the Maximum Effective Range of the M203 Grenade Launcher for a Fire-Team Sized Area Target?
350 Meters
What is a primary difference between the Condition codes of the M16A2, the M9 and the squad automatic weapon (SAW)
The SAW's Conditions 3 and 4 have the safety off while the safety on the M9 and the M16A1/A2 are on in Conditions 3 and 4.
What is the Maximum Effective Range for the M203 Grenade Launcher against a Vehicle or Weapon Point Target?
150 Meters
Describe Condition 1 Code of the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW)
Bolt locked to the rear, safety on, ammunition in feed tray, cover closed.
When firing the M203 Grenade Launcher, what is the minimum safe range of this weapon.
165 meters for training and 31 for combat
What is the rate of fire for the M203 Grenade Launcher?
5 to 7 rounds per minute
Regarding the M203 Grenade Launcher, what is unique about Condition Codes II and III?
Condition Codes II and III do NOT apply to the M203 Grenade Launcher.
Yes/No. Regarding the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW), does Condition 4 of the weapon have the ammunition in the feed tray?
No. Condition 4 has the bolt forward. The Chamber is empty. The safety is off. The feed tray is empty. The cover is closed.
What is an M249?
The machine gun, light, squad automatic weapon, M249, is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt or magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the open-bolt position.
What are the two most common types of malfunction associated with the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW)?
Sluggish Operation and Runaway Gun
What is the round size of the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW)?
5.56
Regarding the malfunctions of the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW), what is a runaway gun?
The gun continues to fire after you release the trigger; firing is uncontrolled.
Yes/No. Can the M249 fire rounds from a 30 round magazine usually used in a M16A2?
Yes.
Regarding the malfunction of fire-arms what is a hang fire?
A hang fire occurs when the cartridge primer has detonated after being struck by the firing pin but some problem with the propellant powder causes it to burn too slowly and this delays the firing of the projectile.
What is the Maximum Range of the M249 squad automatic weapon?
3600 Meters
Yes/No. Regarding the Condition code readiness of the M240G, is the bolt locked to the rear in a Condition 1 Weapon?
Yes. Condition 1: The bolt is locked to the rear. The safety is on. The source of ammunition is in position on the feed tray. The cover is closed.
What is the Maximum Effective Range of the M249 Squad Automatic Weapon against a Point Target?
800 Meters
Yes/No. Regarding the Condition codes of the M240G, is condition 2 applicable to the weapon?
No.
<p>What is the maximum effective range of the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW) against an area target?</p>
<p>1000 Meters</p>
Yes/No. Regarding the Condition Codes of the M240G, is the bolt to the rear in condition 3 of the weapon?
No. The bold is forward. The chamber is empty. The safety is off. The source of ammunition is in position on the feed tray. The cover is closed.
What is the maximum effective range of the M249 squad automatic weapon for grazing fire?
600 Meters
Regarding the Condition Codes of the M240G what is a primary difference between Condition Code I and III?
I- Bolt to Rear, III- Bolt forward
Regarding the use of the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW), what are the three rates of fire?
Sustained, Rapid, Cyclic
Regarding the Condition Codes of the M240G what is the primary different between Condition III and Condition IV of the weapon?
Both A and B are correct
What is the primary difference in rates of fire in using the M249 between Sustained and Rapid?
Sustained 85 Rounds Per Minute, Rapid 200 Rounds Per Minute
Yes/No. Regarding condition codes of the M240G, is the cover closed for all conditions?
Yes.
Regarding the rates of fire for the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW), what is the difference between Rapid and Cyclic
Rapid= 200, Cyclic= 850
Yes/No. Are the remedial methods for the M249 SAW and M240G machine guns the same?
Yes
Regarding the rates of fire for the M249, squad automatic weapon (SAW), what is the difference between the Sustained and Cyclic
Sustained= 85 RPM, Cyclic= 850 RPM
What is the M2 50 Cal?
The machine gun, caliber .50, Browning, M2HB (M2 .50 cal), is a belt-fed, recoil-operated, air-cooled, crew-served machine gun. The gun is capable of single shot as well as automatic fire.
What is a primary difference between the Condition codes of the M16A2, the M9 and the squad automatic weapon (SAW)
The SAW's Conditions 3 and 4 have the safety off while the safety on the M9 and the M16A1/A2 are on in Conditions 3 and 4.
What is the maximum range of the M2 .50 cal weapon?
7400 meters
Describe Condition 1 Code of the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW)
Bolt locked to the rear, safety on, ammunition in feed tray, cover closed.
What is the maximum effective range of the M2 .50 cal weapon?
1830 meters
What is the rate of fire for the M203 Grenade Launcher?
5 to 7 rounds per minute
Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon, what is the maximum effective range of the weapon for grazing fire?
700 meters
Yes/No. Regarding the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW), does Condition 4 of the weapon have the ammunition in the feed tray?
No. Condition 4 has the bolt forward. The Chamber is empty. The safety is off. The feed tray is empty. The cover is closed.
Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon, what is the sustained rate of fire?
40 rounds
What are the two most common types of malfunction associated with the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW)?
Sluggish Operation and Runaway Gun
Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon, what are the three rates of fire?
sustained, rapid, and cyclic
Regarding the malfunctions of the M249 squad automatic weapon (SAW), what is a runaway gun?
The gun continues to fire after you release the trigger; firing is uncontrolled.
Regarding the M2 .50 cal what is the difference between the sustained and rapid rates of fire?
sustained is 40 RPM and Rapid >40 RPM
Regarding the malfunction of fire-arms what is a hang fire?
A hang fire occurs when the cartridge primer has detonated after being struck by the firing pin but some problem with the propellant powder causes it to burn too slowly and this delays the firing of the projectile.
Yes/No. Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon condition codes, do any of them involve the use of the safety?
No. The M2 .50 cal weapon does not have a safety.
Yes/No. Regarding the Condition code readiness of the M240G, is the bolt locked to the rear in a Condition 1 Weapon?
Yes. Condition 1: The bolt is locked to the rear. The safety is on. The source of ammunition is in position on the feed tray. The cover is closed.
Yes/No. Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon, condition codes, does condition II apply to the weapon?
No. Condition II does not apply.
Yes/No. Regarding the Condition codes of the M240G, is condition 2 applicable to the weapon?
No.
Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon, in condition 1, is the bolt forward or back?
Condition 1: The ammunition is in a position on the feed-tray. The bolt is locked to the rear and the bolt latch release lock us up.
Yes/No. Regarding the Condition Codes of the M240G, is the bolt to the rear in condition 3 of the weapon?
No. The bold is forward. The chamber is empty. The safety is off. The source of ammunition is in position on the feed tray. The cover is closed.
Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon, what is the primary difference between Condition III and Condition IV of the weapon?
Both A and C are correct
Regarding the Condition Codes of the M240G what is a primary difference between Condition Code I and III?
I- Bolt to Rear, III- Bolt forward
Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon what is the difference between half load and full load?
The full load has the gunner pulling the bolt twice.
Regarding the Condition Codes of the M240G what is the primary different between Condition III and Condition IV of the weapon?
Both A and B are correct
What is the MK19?
The Mk19 is a self-powered, air-cooled, belt-fed, blowback operated weapon, the MK19 is designed to deliver accurate, intense, and decisive firepower against enemy personnel and lightly armored vehicles.
Yes/No. Regarding condition codes of the M240G, is the cover closed for all conditions?
Yes.
Regarding the Mk 19 Machine Gun, what is the maximum range of the weapon?
2212
Yes/No. Are the remedial methods for the M249 SAW and M240G machine guns the same?
Yes
Regarding the Mk 19 machine gun, what is the maximum effective range on a point target?
1500 meters
What is the M2 50 Cal?
The machine gun, caliber .50, Browning, M2HB (M2 .50 cal), is a belt-fed, recoil-operated, air-cooled, crew-served machine gun. The gun is capable of single shot as well as automatic fire.
Regarding the Mk 19 machine gun, what is the maximum effective range of the weapon for grazing fire?
2212
What is the maximum range of the M2 .50 cal weapon?
7400 meters
What is the size of the Mk 19 machine gun round?
40 mm
What is the maximum effective range of the M2 .50 cal weapon?
1830 meters
Regarding the Mk 19 machine gun, what is the sustained rate of fire of the weapon?
40 RPM
Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon, what is the maximum effective range of the weapon for grazing fire?
700 meters
What are the three rates of fire for the Mk 19 machine gun?
Sustained, Rapid, Cyclic
Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon, what is the sustained rate of fire?
40 rounds
What is the Condition I code of the Mk 19 machine gun?
Ammunition is in the position on the feed tray. The weapon has been charged twice. The bolt is locked to the rear and the safety is on.
Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon, what are the three rates of fire?
sustained, rapid, and cyclic
What is the Rapid rate of fire for the MK 19 machine gun?
60 Rounds Per Minute
Regarding the M2 .50 cal what is the difference between the sustained and rapid rates of fire?
sustained is 40 RPM and Rapid >40 RPM
Regarding the Mk19 machine gun, what is the cyclic rate of fire?
325-375 Rounds per minute
Yes/No. Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon condition codes, do any of them involve the use of the safety?
No. The M2 .50 cal weapon does not have a safety.
Yes/No. Regarding the Mk 19 machine gun, does the condition II condition status of the weapon apply?
No. Condition II of the Mk 19 does not apply
Yes/No. Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon, condition codes, does condition II apply to the weapon?
No. Condition II does not apply.
Regarding the Mk 19 machine gun, what is the primary difference between Condition I and III of the weapon?
Condition I- the weapon has been charged twice. Condition III- the weapon has been charged once.
Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon, in condition 1, is the bolt forward or back?
Condition 1: The ammunition is in a position on the feed-tray. The bolt is locked to the rear and the bolt latch release lock us up.
Yes/No. Regarding the Mk 19 machine gun, and the condition codes of III and IV, is the chamber empty for both codes?
Yes
Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon, what is the primary difference between Condition III and Condition IV of the weapon?
Both A and C are correct
Yes/No. Regarding the mk 19 machine gun condition codes, is there a condition where the safety is off?
No. Codes I, III, and IV all have the safety on.
Regarding the M2 .50 cal weapon what is the difference between half load and full load?
The full load has the gunner pulling the bolt twice.
Regarding tactical field measures, why is it important to avoid all unnecessary movement.
Movement attracts the eye.
What is the MK19?
The Mk19 is a self-powered, air-cooled, belt-fed, blowback operated weapon, the MK19 is designed to deliver accurate, intense, and decisive firepower against enemy personnel and lightly armored vehicles.
Regarding, tactical measures of observation, what is the off-center vision method?
This technique requires viewing an object by looking 6 to 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of the object rather than directly at it.
Regarding the Mk 19 Machine Gun, what is the maximum range of the weapon?
2212
Regarding tactical measures and observation techniques, what is the scanning method?
Scanning enables the Marines to overcome many of the physiological limitations of their eyes. It can also reduce confusing visual illusions. This technique involves looking from right to left or left to right using a slow, regular scanning movement. At night, it is essential to avoid looking directly at a faintly visible object when trying to confirm its presence.
Regarding tactical measures and observation techniques, what is the strip method?
In daylight, look first at the ground nearest you. Begin observing close to your post and search a narrow strip 50 meters or less deep, going from right to left parallel to your front. Then search from left to right a second and similar strip farther away, but overlapping the first. Continue to observe until the entire field of view has been searched.
Regarding the Mk 19 machine gun, what is the maximum effective range on a point target?
1500 meters
Regarding tactical measures and observation techniques, how do you preserve night vision?
Keep one eye closed when observing a temporarily lighted area. Use red light.
Regarding the Mk 19 machine gun, what is the maximum effective range of the weapon for grazing fire?
2212
Regarding tactical measures, what techniques can improve hearing?
All of the Above
What is the size of the Mk 19 machine gun round?
40 mm
Regarding tactical measures and intelligence gathering, what does the acronym SALUTE stand for?
"(S)ize and/or strength
Regarding the Mk 19 machine gun, what is the sustained rate of fire of the weapon?
40 RPM
(E) quipment and weapons"
What are the three rates of fire for the Mk 19 machine gun?
Sustained, Rapid, Cyclic
Regarding tactical measures and the intelligence acronym, what does the "S" in SALUTE stand for?
Size and/or strength
What is the Condition I code of the Mk 19 machine gun?
Ammunition is in the position on the feed tray. The weapon has been charged twice. The bolt is locked to the rear and the safety is on.
Regarding tactical measures and the intelligence acronym, what does the "A" in SALUTE stand for?
Activity or actions
What is the Rapid rate of fire for the MK 19 machine gun?
60 Rounds Per Minute
Regarding tactical measures and the intelligence acronym, what does the "L" in SALUTE stand for?
Location and direction of movement
Regarding the Mk19 machine gun, what is the cyclic rate of fire?
325-375 Rounds per minute
Regarding tactical measures and the intelligence acronym, what does the "U" in SALUTE stand for?
Unit Identification (The enemy unit may be derived from unit markings, uniforms worn, or through prisoner interrogation)
Yes/No. Regarding the Mk 19 machine gun, does the condition II condition status of the weapon apply?
No. Condition II of the Mk 19 does not apply
Regarding tactical measures and the intelligence acronym, what does the "T" in SALUTE stand for?
Time of Observation
Regarding the Mk 19 machine gun, what is the primary difference between Condition I and III of the weapon?
Condition I- the weapon has been charged twice. Condition III- the weapon has been charged once.
Regarding tactical measures and the intelligence acronym, what does the "E" in SALUTE stand for?
Equipment and Weapons
Yes/No. Regarding the Mk 19 machine gun, and the condition codes of III and IV, is the chamber empty for both codes?
Yes
What is the Acronym associated with the five paragraph order?
SMEAC
Yes/No. Regarding the mk 19 machine gun condition codes, is there a condition where the safety is off?
No. Codes I, III, and IV all have the safety on.
What does the acronym SMEAC stand for?
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Command and Signal
Regarding tactical field measures, why is it important to avoid all unnecessary movement.
Movement attracts the eye.
In a (5) paragraph order, define Situation in the acronym SMEAC.
Situation: Environment. Enemy Forces. Friendly Forces. Attachments and Detachments.
Regarding, tactical measures of observation, what is the off-center vision method?
This technique requires viewing an object by looking 6 to 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of the object rather than directly at it.
Regarding the (5) paragraph order, define Mission from the acronym SMEAC?
Mission. A clear, concise statement of the task that the organization must accomplish.
Regarding tactical measures and observation techniques, what is the scanning method?
Scanning enables the Marines to overcome many of the physiological limitations of their eyes. It can also reduce confusing visual illusions. This technique involves looking from right to left or left to right using a slow, regular scanning movement. At night, it is essential to avoid looking directly at a faintly visible object when trying to confirm its presence.
Regarding the (5) paragraph order, define Execution from the acronym SMEAC.
Concept of operations. Subordinate Tasks (Missions). In each succeeding paragraph, missions are assigned to each element and any attached units. Coordinating instructions.
Regarding tactical measures and observation techniques, what is the strip method?
In daylight, look first at the ground nearest you. Begin observing close to your post and search a narrow strip 50 meters or less deep, going from right to left parallel to your front. Then search from left to right a second and similar strip farther away, but overlapping the first. Continue to observe until the entire field of view has been searched.
Regarding the (5) paragraph order, define Administration and Logistics from the acronym SMEAC.
This paragraph contains information pertaining to rations and ammunition; location of the distribution point, corpsman, and aid stations; the handling of prisoners of war; and other administrative and supply matters.
Regarding tactical measures and observation techniques, how do you preserve night vision?
Keep one eye closed when observing a temporarily lighted area. Use red light.
Regarding the (5) paragraph order, define Command and Signal from the acronym SMEAC.
"Special instructions on communications, including prearranged signals, password and countersign, radio call signs and frequencies, emergency signals, radio procedures, pyrotechnics, and restrictions on teh use of communications.
Regarding tactical measures, what techniques can improve hearing?
All of the Above
-Location of subordinate leaders"
Regarding tactical measures and the intelligence acronym, what does the "S" in SALUTE stand for?
Size and/or strength
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the column formation.
Raise either arm to the vertical position. Drop the arm to the rear, describing complete circles in a vertical plane parallel to the body. The signal may be used to indicate either a troop or vehicular column.
Regarding tactical measures and the intelligence acronym, what does the "A" in SALUTE stand for?
Activity or actions
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the Echelon left/right
The leader may give this signal either facing towards or away from the unit. Extend one arm 45 degrees below the horizontal, palms to the front. The lower arm indicates the direction of echelon. (Example for echelon right, if the leader is facing in the direction of the forward movement, the right arm is lowered; if the leader is facing the unit, the left is lowered.) Supplementary commands may be given to ensure prompt and proper execution.
Regarding tactical measures and the intelligence acronym, what does the "L" in SALUTE stand for?
Location and direction of movement
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the Skirmishers left/right
Raise both arms lateral until horizontal, arms and hands extended, palms down. If it is necessary to indicate a direction, move in the desired direction at the same time. when signaling for fire team skirmishers, indicate skirmishers right or left by moving the appropriate hand up and down. The appropriate hand does not depend on the direction the signaler is facing. Skirmishers left will always be indicated by moving the left hand up and down; skirmishers right, the right hand.
Regarding tactical measures and the intelligence acronym, what does the "U" in SALUTE stand for?
Unit Identification (The enemy unit may be derived from unit markings, uniforms worn, or through prisoner interrogation)
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the wedge formation
Extend both arms downward and to the side at an angle of 45 degrees below the horizontal, palms to the front.
Regarding tactical measures and the intelligence acronym, what does the "T" in SALUTE stand for?
Time of Observation
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the fire-team
The right arm should be placed diagonally across the chest.
Regarding tactical measures and the intelligence acronym, what does the "E" in SALUTE stand for?
Equipment and Weapons
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the Squad
Extend the hand and arm toward the squad leader, palm of the hand down; distinctly move the hand up and down several times from the wrist, holding the arm steady.
What is the Acronym associated with the five paragraph order?
SMEAC
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the Platoon
Extend both arms forward, palms of the hands down toward the leaders (or units) for whom the signal is intended, and describe large vertical circles with hands.
What does the acronym SMEAC stand for?
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Command and Signal
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the close up
Start the signal with both arms extended sideward, palms forward, and bring palms together in front of the body momentarily. When repetition of this signal is necessary, the arms are returned to the starting position by movement along the front of the body.
In a (5) paragraph order, define Situation in the acronym SMEAC.
Situation: Environment. Enemy Forces. Friendly Forces. Attachments and Detachments.
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the open up
Start the signal with the arms extended in front of the body, palms together, and bring the arms to the horizontal position at the sides, palms forward. When repetition of this signal is necessary, the arms are returned along the front of the body to the starting position and the signal is repeated until understood.
Regarding the (5) paragraph order, define Mission from the acronym SMEAC?
Mission. A clear, concise statement of the task that the organization must accomplish.
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the halt/stop.
Carry the hand to the shoulder, palm to the front; then thrust the hand upward vertically to the full extent of the arm and hold it in that position until the signal is understood;
Regarding the (5) paragraph order, define Execution from the acronym SMEAC.
Concept of operations. Subordinate Tasks (Missions). In each succeeding paragraph, missions are assigned to each element and any attached units. Coordinating instructions.
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the Dismount/Take Cover?
Extend the arm sideward at an angle of 45 degrees above the horizontal, palm down, and lower it to side. Both arms may be used in giving this signal. Repeat until understood.
Regarding the (5) paragraph order, define Administration and Logistics from the acronym SMEAC.
This paragraph contains information pertaining to rations and ammunition; location of the distribution point, corpsman, and aid stations; the handling of prisoners of war; and other administrative and supply matters.
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the hasty ambush left/right?
Raise fist to shoulder level and thrust is several times in the desired direction
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the column formation.
Raise either arm to the vertical position. Drop the arm to the rear, describing complete circles in a vertical plane parallel to the body. The signal may be used to indicate either a troop or vehicular column.
When constructing a fighting position, what does the acronym SAFE mean?
(S) security, (A) utomatic, (F) ield of fire, (E)ntrenchement
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the Echelon left/right
The leader may give this signal either facing towards or away from the unit. Extend one arm 45 degrees below the horizontal, palms to the front. The lower arm indicates the direction of echelon. (Example for echelon right, if the leader is facing in the direction of the forward movement, the right arm is lowered; if the leader is facing the unit, the left is lowered.) Supplementary commands may be given to ensure prompt and proper execution.
Regarding the acronym SAFE and building a fighting position, what does the (S) stand for?
Security. Set up security before digging in.
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the Skirmishers left/right
Raise both arms lateral until horizontal, arms and hands extended, palms down. If it is necessary to indicate a direction, move in the desired direction at the same time. when signaling for fire team skirmishers, indicate skirmishers right or left by moving the appropriate hand up and down. The appropriate hand does not depend on the direction the signaler is facing. Skirmishers left will always be indicated by moving the left hand up and down; skirmishers right, the right hand.
Regarding the acronym SAFE and building a fighting position, what does the (A) stand for?
Automatic Weapons: Set up your automatic weapons so that they are oriented to the most likely avenues of approach.
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the wedge formation
Extend both arms downward and to the side at an angle of 45 degrees below the horizontal, palms to the front.
Regarding the acronym SAFE and building a fighting position, what does the (F) stand for?
Field of Fire. Clear your fields of fire
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the fire-team
The right arm should be placed diagonally across the chest.
Regarding the acronym SAFE and building a fighting position, what does the (E) stand for?
Entrenchment: Dig in your positions
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the Squad
Extend the hand and arm toward the squad leader, palm of the hand down; distinctly move the hand up and down several times from the wrist, holding the arm steady.
What are some important characteristics about an individual fighting position?
The size and shape of the fighting hole are affected by certain important considerations. It is as small as practicable, exposing a minimum target to the enemy fire; wide enough to accommodate the shoulders of a man sitting on the fire step; long enough to permit use of an entrenching tool; and at least 4 feet deep to the fire step. The marine should be able to aim and fire his or her weapon when standing on the fire step.
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the Platoon
Extend both arms forward, palms of the hands down toward the leaders (or units) for whom the signal is intended, and describe large vertical circles with hands.
Yes/No. A two-man fighting hole is essentially two one-man fighting holes side by side?
Yes
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the close up
Start the signal with both arms extended sideward, palms forward, and bring palms together in front of the body momentarily. When repetition of this signal is necessary, the arms are returned to the starting position by movement along the front of the body.
Yes/No. Can a two-man fighting hole protect against a tank?
Yes. It provides protection against crushing action of tanks provided the occupant crouches at least 2 feet below the ground surface.
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the open up
Start the signal with the arms extended in front of the body, palms together, and bring the arms to the horizontal position at the sides, palms forward. When repetition of this signal is necessary, the arms are returned along the front of the body to the starting position and the signal is repeated until understood.
Regarding fighting holes, what does it mean to revet the sides?
To retain the walls with a layer of stones, concrete or other supporting material, which may be required with loose stones or gravel that the fighting hole is placed in.
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the halt/stop.
Carry the hand to the shoulder, palm to the front; then thrust the hand upward vertically to the full extent of the arm and hold it in that position until the signal is understood;
Regarding fighting holes, where is the soil removed from the holes placed?
The soil is piled around the hole as a parapet, approximately 3-feet thick and 1/2 foot high, leaving a berm or shelf wide enough for the Marine to use as an elbow rest while firing. If turf or topsoil is used to camouflage the parapet, the Marine first removes sufficient ground cover and sets it aside until the fighting hole is completed. Once complete the ground cover can then be laid on the top and side of the parapet so that it will better blend in with surrounding ground.
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the Dismount/Take Cover?
Extend the arm sideward at an angle of 45 degrees above the horizontal, palm down, and lower it to side. Both arms may be used in giving this signal. Repeat until understood.
When silencing gear, what procedures should the user take?
All of the Above
Regarding troop movements and hand signals, what is the signal for the hasty ambush left/right?
Raise fist to shoulder level and thrust is several times in the desired direction
Regarding 782 gear, what procedures must be taken to waterproof the gear?
All of the Above
When constructing a fighting position, what does the acronym SAFE mean?
(S) security, (A) utomatic, (F) ield of fire, (E)ntrenchement
What is the difference between Camouflage and Cover?
Camoflauge is what you can use that makes you and your items look like the surrounding area. Cover gives protection from bullets and fragmentation.
Regarding the acronym SAFE and building a fighting position, what does the (S) stand for?
Security. Set up security before digging in.
What is the difference between camouflage and concealment?
Camouflage keeps you from looking like what it really is. Concealment hides you from enemy observation. Note: Concealment does not protect you from enemy fire.
Regarding the acronym SAFE and building a fighting position, what does the (A) stand for?
Automatic Weapons: Set up your automatic weapons so that they are oriented to the most likely avenues of approach.
What is the difference between Cover and Concealment?
Cover gives you protection from bullets and fragmentation. Concealment hides you from enemy observation.
Regarding the acronym SAFE and building a fighting position, what does the (F) stand for?
Field of Fire. Clear your fields of fire
Regarding individual movements, what are the differences between the high crawl and low crawl?
"Regarding Cover/Concealment: High-Available Low- Unavailable
Regarding the acronym SAFE and building a fighting position, what does the (E) stand for?
Entrenchment: Dig in your positions
"
What are some important characteristics about an individual fighting position?
The size and shape of the fighting hole are affected by certain important considerations. It is as small as practicable, exposing a minimum target to the enemy fire; wide enough to accommodate the shoulders of a man sitting on the fire step; long enough to permit use of an entrenching tool; and at least 4 feet deep to the fire step. The marine should be able to aim and fire his or her weapon when standing on the fire step.
Regarding individual movements, when you do the back crawl are you crawling feet or head first?
Feet First
Yes/No. A two-man fighting hole is essentially two one-man fighting holes side by side?
Yes
Regarding individual movements, why is it important when performing a Rush to roll over after hitting the ground near your stopping point?
When Hitting The Deck: Stop, Plant both feet in place. Drop quickly to the knees and slide the hand to the heel of the rifle. Fall forward, breaking your fall with the butt of the rifle. Keep you rhead down if you do not intend to fire. Roll over swiftly to confuse any enemy observers as to your final intended location. Never reappear at the same place you went down.
Yes/No. Can a two-man fighting hole protect against a tank?
Yes. It provides protection against crushing action of tanks provided the occupant crouches at least 2 feet below the ground surface.
Regarding individual movement and when you're walking at night should you place your heel down first or last when stepping at night.
Place the heel down first. Balance the weight of your body on the rear foot until a secure spot is found.
Regarding fighting holes, what does it mean to revet the sides?
To retain the walls with a layer of stones, concrete or other supporting material, which may be required with loose stones or gravel that the fighting hole is placed in.
Regarding individual movements, what is the difference between a night move and creeping?
Creeping uses hands and knees while night walking involves movement on foot.
Regarding fighting holes, where is the soil removed from the holes placed?
The soil is piled around the hole as a parapet, approximately 3-feet thick and 1/2 foot high, leaving a berm or shelf wide enough for the Marine to use as an elbow rest while firing. If turf or topsoil is used to camouflage the parapet, the Marine first removes sufficient ground cover and sets it aside until the fighting hole is completed. Once complete the ground cover can then be laid on the top and side of the parapet so that it will better blend in with surrounding ground.
Regarding individual movements and creeping, why is it important to be mindful of twigs and leaves?
Twigs and Leaves while crawling about at night, can impede noise discipline.
When silencing gear, what procedures should the user take?
All of the Above
Regarding individual movement techniques, what should you do before crossing a wall or going around a corner?
Reconnaissance the wall or around the corner before crossing.
Regarding 782 gear, what procedures must be taken to waterproof the gear?
All of the Above
Regarding individual movement techniques what are the two kinds of techniques for looking around a corner?
Short Stock and Popping the Corner
What is the difference between Camouflage and Cover?
Camoflauge is what you can use that makes you and your items look like the surrounding area. Cover gives protection from bullets and fragmentation.
Regarding individual movement techniques, what are some primary differences between the Short Stock and Popping the Corner Technique?
Popping the corner is turkey popping. It is a quick peep around the corner with the barrel facing down range so a round can go down range. The short stock technique allows the shooter to stand back from the corner and "pie off" the room a piece at a time with the barrel facing down range to engage a target.
What is the difference between camouflage and concealment?
Camouflage keeps you from looking like what it really is. Concealment hides you from enemy observation. Note: Concealment does not protect you from enemy fire.
How many categories of Medical Evacuation (MEDEVAC) are there?
Four
What is the difference between Cover and Concealment?
Cover gives you protection from bullets and fragmentation. Concealment hides you from enemy observation.
True or False. There are more than 1 type of priority 1 MEDEVAC categories?
True. Priority 1- Urgent. Priority 1a- Urgent-Surgical.
Regarding individual movements, when you do the back crawl are you crawling feet or head first?
Feet First
Regarding MEDEVAC categorization which is requesting a higher priority 1 or 4?
1. Priority- Urgent verus 4. which is Convenience.
Regarding individual movements, why is it important when performing a Rush to roll over after hitting the ground near your stopping point?
When Hitting The Deck: Stop, Plant both feet in place. Drop quickly to the knees and slide the hand to the heel of the rifle. Fall forward, breaking your fall with the butt of the rifle. Keep you rhead down if you do not intend to fire. Roll over swiftly to confuse any enemy observers as to your final intended location. Never reappear at the same place you went down.
Regarding MEDEVAC categories, what is the difference between priority 2- priority and priority-3 routine?
Priority 2 needs to be evacuated with in 4 hours and Priority 3 needs to be evacuated with in 24 hours.
Regarding individual movement and when you're walking at night should you place your heel down first or last when stepping at night.
Place the heel down first. Balance the weight of your body on the rear foot until a secure spot is found.
Regarding MEDEVAC priorities, what is a fundamental difference between Priority 3- Routine and Priority 4- Convenience
Priority 3 must be evacuated with in 24 hours and priority 4 is for patients who can be evacuated as a matter of convenience;
Regarding individual movements, what is the difference between a night move and creeping?
Creeping uses hands and knees while night walking involves movement on foot.
Regardging MEDEVAC procedures, what is the primary difference between Priority 1 and Priority 1A?
Priority 1 s/b evacuated with in 2 hours to save a life, limb or eyesight and 1A denotes the necessity of surgical intervention to accomplish this task.
Regarding individual movements and creeping, why is it important to be mindful of twigs and leaves?
Twigs and Leaves while crawling about at night, can impede noise discipline.
Regarding MEDEVAC categories what is the primary difference between category 1 and category 2?
Category 1- Urgent, requires medical intervention with in 2 hours to save a life while Category 2- Priority requires intervention with in 4 hours including a specialist.
Regarding individual movement techniques, what should you do before crossing a wall or going around a corner?
Reconnaissance the wall or around the corner before crossing.
Regarding MEDEVAC prioritization, if a Marine becomes injured and is stable enough to wait up to 4 hours for an evacuation what priority should they be?
Priority 2- Priority. Assigned to sick and wounded personnel requiring prompt medical care. this precedence is used when the individual should be evacuated within 4 hours or his medical condition could deteriorate to such a degree that he will become an URGENT precedence, or whose requirements for special treatment are not available locally, or who will suffer unnecessary pain or disability.
Regarding individual movement techniques what are the two kinds of techniques for looking around a corner?
Short Stock and Popping the Corner
Regarding MEDEVAC prioritization, if a Marine becomes injured and is stable enough to wait up to 24 hours for an evacuation what priority should they be?
Priority 3- Routine. Assigned to sick and wounded personnel requiring evacuation but whose condition is not expected to deteriorate significantly. The sick and wounded in this category should be evacuated within 24 hours.
Regarding individual movement techniques, what are some primary differences between the Short Stock and Popping the Corner Technique?
Popping the corner is turkey popping. It is a quick peep around the corner with the barrel facing down range so a round can go down range. The short stock technique allows the shooter to stand back from the corner and "pie off" the room a piece at a time with the barrel facing down range to engage a target.
Regarding MEDEVAC prioritization, if a Marine becomes injured and is unstable and requires immediate evacuation to save their life and may not require surgery?
Priority 1- Urgent- Assigned to emergency cases that should eb evacuated as soon as possible and within a maximum of 2 hours in order to save life, limb, or eyesight, to prevent complications of serious illness, or to avoid permanent disability.
How many categories of Medical Evacuation (MEDEVAC) are there?
Four
Regarding MEDEVAC prioritization, if a Marine becomes injured and is unstable and requires immediate evacuation to save their life and MAY require surgery?
Priority 1A- Urgent Surgical. Assigned to patients who must receive far forward surgical intervention to save life and to stabilize them for further evacuation.
True or False. There are more than 1 type of priority 1 MEDEVAC categories?
True. Priority 1- Urgent. Priority 1a- Urgent-Surgical.
Regarding landing zones for MEDEVAC Marines, what are some important considerations
All of the above
Regarding MEDEVAC categorization which is requesting a higher priority 1 or 4?
1. Priority- Urgent verus 4. which is Convenience.
When establishing a landing zone, when the platoon commander communicates with the pilot on the location o of the LZ, besides his position what else should he inform the pilot of?
All of the above
Regarding MEDEVAC categories, what is the difference between priority 2- priority and priority-3 routine?
Priority 2 needs to be evacuated with in 4 hours and Priority 3 needs to be evacuated with in 24 hours.
True/False. Helicopter requests are normally run through the Battalion.
True. They are normally run through the BN, however, the platoon and rifle company commanders should be aware of their availability under all circumstances.
Regarding MEDEVAC priorities, what is a fundamental difference between Priority 3- Routine and Priority 4- Convenience
Priority 3 must be evacuated with in 24 hours and priority 4 is for patients who can be evacuated as a matter of convenience;
<p>How many lines are there in a MEDEVAC request?</p>
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
Regardging MEDEVAC procedures, what is the primary difference between Priority 1 and Priority 1A?
Priority 1 s/b evacuated with in 2 hours to save a life, limb or eyesight and 1A denotes the necessity of surgical intervention to accomplish this task.
<p>Regarding a 9-line MEDEVAC request, what is the first thing that must be communicated to the pilot?</p>
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
Regarding MEDEVAC categories what is the primary difference between category 1 and category 2?
Category 1- Urgent, requires medical intervention with in 2 hours to save a life while Category 2- Priority requires intervention with in 4 hours including a specialist.
<p>Regarding a 9-Line MEDEVAC Request, what is the second item recorded on the request</p>
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
Regarding MEDEVAC prioritization, if a Marine becomes injured and is stable enough to wait up to 4 hours for an evacuation what priority should they be?
Priority 2- Priority. Assigned to sick and wounded personnel requiring prompt medical care. this precedence is used when the individual should be evacuated within 4 hours or his medical condition could deteriorate to such a degree that he will become an URGENT precedence, or whose requirements for special treatment are not available locally, or who will suffer unnecessary pain or disability.
<p>Regarding a 9-line MEDEVAC What is the 3rd item communicated to the pilot (after Location and Radio Frequency).</p>
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
Regarding MEDEVAC prioritization, if a Marine becomes injured and is stable enough to wait up to 24 hours for an evacuation what priority should they be?
Priority 3- Routine. Assigned to sick and wounded personnel requiring evacuation but whose condition is not expected to deteriorate significantly. The sick and wounded in this category should be evacuated within 24 hours.
<p>Regarding 9-line MEDEVAC Requests, what is the 4th item communicated to the pilot (following Location, Radio Freq, and # of Patients by Precedence)</p>
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
Regarding MEDEVAC prioritization, if a Marine becomes injured and is unstable and requires immediate evacuation to save their life and may not require surgery?
Priority 1- Urgent- Assigned to emergency cases that should eb evacuated as soon as possible and within a maximum of 2 hours in order to save life, limb, or eyesight, to prevent complications of serious illness, or to avoid permanent disability.
<p>Regarding the 9-line MEDEVAC request, what is the 5th item communicated to the pilot? (Follows the Location, Radio Frequency, # of Patience by Precedence, Special Equipment)...</p>
<p>1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description</p>
Regarding MEDEVAC prioritization, if a Marine becomes injured and is unstable and requires immediate evacuation to save their life and MAY require surgery?
Priority 1A- Urgent Surgical. Assigned to patients who must receive far forward surgical intervention to save life and to stabilize them for further evacuation.
<p>Regarding a 9-Line MEDEVAC request, what is the 6th item communicated to the pilot. (following, Location, Radio Frequency, Number of Patients by Precedence, Special Equipment, # of patients by types.)</p>
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
Regarding landing zones for MEDEVAC Marines, what are some important considerations
All of the above
Regarding the 9-line MEDEVAC request what is the 6th line passed to the pilot? (Follows Location, Radio Freq, # of Pt by Precedence, Special Equip, # of pt by type)
"1. Location
When establishing a landing zone, when the platoon commander communicates with the pilot on the location o of the LZ, besides his position what else should he inform the pilot of?
All of the above
9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description"
True/False. Helicopter requests are normally run through the Battalion.
True. They are normally run through the BN, however, the platoon and rifle company commanders should be aware of their availability under all circumstances.
Regarding MEDEVAC Request, what is the 7th line passed to the pilot?
"1. Location
<p>How many lines are there in a MEDEVAC request?</p>
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description"
<p>Regarding a 9-line MEDEVAC request, what is the first thing that must be communicated to the pilot?</p>
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
Regarding the MEDEVAC request, what is the 8th line passed to the pilot?
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patients by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
<p>Regarding a 9-Line MEDEVAC Request, what is the second item recorded on the request</p>
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
Regarding 9-Line MEDEVAC Requests, which is the 9th line passed to the pilot?
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patients by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
<p>Regarding a 9-line MEDEVAC What is the 3rd item communicated to the pilot (after Location and Radio Frequency).</p>
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
What is the mission of the CH-53E?
Heavy Lift Troop Transport and Assault Helicopter
<p>Regarding 9-line MEDEVAC Requests, what is the 4th item communicated to the pilot (following Location, Radio Freq, and # of Patients by Precedence)</p>
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
What is the Primary Mission of the UH-1N?
Utility Helicopter
<p>Regarding the 9-line MEDEVAC request, what is the 5th item communicated to the pilot? (Follows the Location, Radio Frequency, # of Patience by Precedence, Special Equipment)...</p>
<p>1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description</p>
What is the Primary Mission of the MV-22?
The V-22 Osprey is a multi-engine, dual-piloted, self-deployable, medium lift, vertical takeoff and landing (VTOL) tilt-rotor aircraft designed for combat, combat support, combat service support, and Special Operations missions worldwide. It will replace the Corps' aged fleet of CH-46E and CH-53D medium lift helicopters.
<p>Regarding a 9-Line MEDEVAC request, what is the 6th item communicated to the pilot. (following, Location, Radio Frequency, Number of Patients by Precedence, Special Equipment, # of patients by types.)</p>
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patience by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
What is the EA-6B?
Airborne Electronic Warfare (EW) support to Fleet Marine Forces to include electronic attack (EA), tactical electronic support (ES), electronic protection (EP) and high-speed anti-radiation missile (HARM)
Regarding the MEDEVAC request, what is the 8th line passed to the pilot?
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patients by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
What is the AV-8B?
The mission of the VMA STOVL is to attack and destroy surface and air targets, to escort helicopters, and to conduct other such air operations as may be directed.
Regarding 9-Line MEDEVAC Requests, which is the 9th line passed to the pilot?
1. Location 2. Radio Freq/Call Sign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence 4. Special Equip Required 5. Number of Patients by Types 6. Security of Pick-up Site and Number and Type of Wound, Injury or illness 7. Method of Marking Pickup site 8. Patient Nationality Status 9. NBC Contamination and Terrain Description
What is the primary mission KC130F/R/T?
The KC-130 is a multi-role, multi-mission, tactical tanker/transport which provides the support required by Marine Air Ground Task Forces.
What is the mission of the CH-53E?
Heavy Lift Troop Transport and Assault Helicopter
What is the primary mission of the F-18A/B/C?
Intercept and destroy enemy aircraft under all-weather conditions and attack and destroy surface targets.
What is the Primary Mission of the UH-1N?
Utility Helicopter
What is a primary difference between the CH-53D Sea Stallion and CH-53E Super Sea Stallion?
The super stallion can lift 16 tons of cargo while the stallion can lift 7 tons.
What is the Primary Mission of the MV-22?
The V-22 Osprey is a multi-engine, dual-piloted, self-deployable, medium lift, vertical takeoff and landing (VTOL) tilt-rotor aircraft designed for combat, combat support, combat service support, and Special Operations missions worldwide. It will replace the Corps' aged fleet of CH-46E and CH-53D medium lift helicopters.
What airframe/platform did the F-18 A/B/C Hornet replace?
The F-4 Fantom
What is the EA-6B?
Airborne Electronic Warfare (EW) support to Fleet Marine Forces to include electronic attack (EA), tactical electronic support (ES), electronic protection (EP) and high-speed anti-radiation missile (HARM)
Yes/No. F/A-18 Hornets and Super Hornets can be both sea and land based air craft?
Yes. They can take-off and land on air-craft carriers as well as expeditionary air fields.
What is the AV-8B?
The mission of the VMA STOVL is to attack and destroy surface and air targets, to escort helicopters, and to conduct other such air operations as may be directed.
Which of the following aircraft have very short take off and landing capabilities?
The mission of the VMA STOVL squadron is to attack and destroy surface and air targets, to escort helecopters, and to conduct other such air operations as may be directed.
What is the primary mission KC130F/R/T?
The KC-130 is a multi-role, multi-mission, tactical tanker/transport which provides the support required by Marine Air Ground Task Forces.
Which of the following are not a helicopter airframe of the United States Marine Corps?
MV-22B
What is the primary mission of the F-18A/B/C?
Intercept and destroy enemy aircraft under all-weather conditions and attack and destroy surface targets.
Which of the following air platforms used by the Marine Corps has a dual tilt rotor configuration?
MV-22B
What is a primary difference between the CH-53D Sea Stallion and CH-53E Super Sea Stallion?
The super stallion can lift 16 tons of cargo while the stallion can lift 7 tons.
Which of the following aircraft are used by the United States Marine Corps for tanker/transport missions?
KC130 F/R/T
What airframe/platform did the F-18 A/B/C Hornet replace?
The F-4 Fantom
True/False. The UH-1N Huey can be used for medical transport missions.
TRUE
Yes/No. F/A-18 Hornets and Super Hornets can be both sea and land based air craft?
Yes. They can take-off and land on air-craft carriers as well as expeditionary air fields.
True/False. The Marine Corps KC130F/R/T can land on aircraft carriers.
FALSE
Which of the following aircraft have very short take off and landing capabilities?
The mission of the VMA STOVL squadron is to attack and destroy surface and air targets, to escort helecopters, and to conduct other such air operations as may be directed.
True/False. The Marine Corps Ch-46E Sea Knight can carry 15 litters and 2 attendants for medical lift missions.
TRUE
Which of the following are not a helicopter airframe of the United States Marine Corps?
MV-22B
Regarding the Marine Corps CH-46E Helicopter Airframe, what is the maximum load?
It can carry between 2000-4000 pounds of internal or external gear.
Which of the following air platforms used by the Marine Corps has a dual tilt rotor configuration?
MV-22B
How many gallons can the KC130 F/R/T Hercules pump to refuel Marine Corps aircraft?
300 Gallons Per Minute
Which of the following aircraft are used by the United States Marine Corps for tanker/transport missions?
KC130 F/R/T
True/False. The UH-1N Huey can be used for medical transport missions.
TRUE
Regarding the Marine Corps KC-130 Hercules refueling aircraft, how many gallons is in their stainless steel refueling tank?
Remember that a gallon of gas weighs about 6.42 pounds.
Yes/No. Can the CH-53E Super Sea Stallion be refueled in-flight?
Yes
True/False. The Marine Corps KC130F/R/T can land on aircraft carriers.
FALSE
Yes/No. If a CH-53E Super Sea Stallion crashes can another CH-53E be sent to retrieve it given its heavy lift capabilities?
Yes
True/False. The Marine Corps Ch-46E Sea Knight can carry 15 litters and 2 attendants for medical lift missions.
TRUE
Regarding the CH-53E Super Sea Stallion, how many passengers can be seated?
It seats 37 normally and 55 with a centerline seat installed.
Regarding the Marine Corps CH-46E Helicopter Airframe, what is the maximum load?
It can carry between 2000-4000 pounds of internal or external gear.
Regarding the CH-53E Super Sea Stallion, how far can a heavy load be carried before returning?
50 miles
How many gallons can the KC130 F/R/T Hercules pump to refuel Marine Corps aircraft?
300 Gallons Per Minute
Which is a bigger ship, the LHA or LHD?
The LHD is the largest class of Amphibious Ship in the World! LHD carries three vice the one LCAC. The flight deck carries two more helicopters than the LHA.
Regarding the Marine Corps KC-130 Hercules refueling aircraft, how many gallons is in their stainless steel refueling tank?
Remember that a gallon of gas weighs about 6.42 pounds.
A unique feature of the LPD 4 Austin class is that it combines the features of the following ships:
The LPD 4 Austin class of the ship combines the functions of three different classes of ships: the landing ship (LSD), the tank landing ship (LST), and the attack cargo ship (LKA). The amphibious Transport Dock is used to transport and land Marines, their equipment and supplies by embarked landing craft or amphibious vehicles augmented by helicopters in amphibious assault.
Yes/No. Can the CH-53E Super Sea Stallion be refueled in-flight?
Yes
What is the primary mission of the LSD Harper's Ferry Cargo ship?
To dock, transport and launch the Navy's Landing Craft, Air Cushion (LCAC).
Yes/No. If a CH-53E Super Sea Stallion crashes can another CH-53E be sent to retrieve it given its heavy lift capabilities?
Yes
What is the primary function of the LCAC?
Transport weapons systems, equipment, cargo and personnel of the assault elements of the Marine Air/Ground Task Force from sea to shore.
Regarding the CH-53E Super Sea Stallion, how many passengers can be seated?
It seats 37 normally and 55 with a centerline seat installed.
What is a T-AH?
Hospital Ship
Regarding the CH-53E Super Sea Stallion, how far can a heavy load be carried before returning?
50 miles
How many hospital ships does the United States Navy have?
Two. The Comfort and Mercy
Which is a bigger ship, the LHA or LHD?
The LHD is the largest class of Amphibious Ship in the World! LHD carries three vice the one LCAC. The flight deck carries two more helicopters than the LHA.
How many T-AK ships does the Marine Corps and the Navy employ?
There are five of the TAK-3000
A unique feature of the LPD 4 Austin class is that it combines the features of the following ships:
The LPD 4 Austin class of the ship combines the functions of three different classes of ships: the landing ship (LSD), the tank landing ship (LST), and the attack cargo ship (LKA). The amphibious Transport Dock is used to transport and land Marines, their equipment and supplies by embarked landing craft or amphibious vehicles augmented by helicopters in amphibious assault.
Yes/No. Does the Marine Corps T-AK 3000 cargo ships have both roll-on/roll-off and lift-on/lift-off cabilities?
Yes
What is the primary mission of the LSD Harper's Ferry Cargo ship?
To dock, transport and launch the Navy's Landing Craft, Air Cushion (LCAC).
How many ships are in the Marine Corps Maritime Pre-Positioning Force?
Thirteen MSC pre-positioning ships are specially configured to transport supplies for the US Marine Corps. They are on location through out the world. They contain everything the Marines need for an initial military operation from tanks and ammunition to food and fuel. They carry spare parts and engine oil.
What is the primary function of the LCAC?
Transport weapons systems, equipment, cargo and personnel of the assault elements of the Marine Air/Ground Task Force from sea to shore.
What does the acronym MOOTW stand for?
Military Operations Other Than War
What is a T-AH?
Hospital Ship
What is war?
When instruments of national power are unable to achieve national objectives or protect national interests any other way by conducting hostilities to obtain those objectives.
How many hospital ships does the United States Navy have?
Two. The Comfort and Mercy
Yes/No. Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) may have similar characteristics of war including active combat oeprations.
Yes
How many T-AK ships does the Marine Corps and the Navy employ?
There are five of the TAK-3000
Which of the following are types of MOOTW?
All of the above
Yes/No. Does the Marine Corps T-AK 3000 cargo ships have both roll-on/roll-off and lift-on/lift-off cabilities?
Yes
Which of the following MOOTW missions relieve or reduce the results of natural or manmade disasters?
Humanitarian Assistance. HA operations relieve or reduce the results of natural or manmade disasters or other endemic conditions such as human pain, disease, hunger or privation in countries or regions outside the US.
How many ships are in the Marine Corps Maritime Pre-Positioning Force?
Thirteen MSC pre-positioning ships are specially configured to transport supplies for the US Marine Corps. They are on location through out the world. They contain everything the Marines need for an initial military operation from tanks and ammunition to food and fuel. They carry spare parts and engine oil.
Which of the MOOTW activities are governed by the Posse Comitatus Act, Title 18, of the US Code?
This act prohibits the use of Federal military forces unless authorized by the Constitution of Act of Congress. Examples of this are when service members provide for disaster relief as in Hurricanes Andrew in Florida and Iniki in Hawaii in 1992.
What does the acronym MOOTW stand for?
Military Operations Other Than War
<p>What type of MOOTW operations serve to search for, locate, identify, rescue and return personnel or human remains, sensitive equipment, or items critical to national security?</p>
Recovery Operations
What is war?
When instruments of national power are unable to achieve national objectives or protect national interests any other way by conducting hostilities to obtain those objectives.
Regarding Military Operations Other than War, what type would encompass operations that seize Weapons of Mass Destruction?
"Although it may be viewed as a diplomatic mission, the military can play an important role in arms control. US military personnel may be involved in verifying an arms control treaty; seizing WMD, escorting deliveries of weapons and other materials, or dismantling, destroying these kinds of assets
Yes/No. Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) may have similar characteristics of war including active combat oeprations.
Yes
"
Which of the following are types of MOOTW?
All of the above
Regarding Military Operations Other than War (MOOTW), what type of operations would take defensive measures taken to reduce vulnerability to terrorist attacks?
Combating Terrorism
Which of the following MOOTW missions relieve or reduce the results of natural or manmade disasters?
Humanitarian Assistance. HA operations relieve or reduce the results of natural or manmade disasters or other endemic conditions such as human pain, disease, hunger or privation in countries or regions outside the US.
Regarding Military Operations Other Than War, what kind of operation would involve the interdiction in open water of cargo ships carrying contraband?
Enforcement of Sanctions/Martime Intercept
Which of the MOOTW activities are governed by the Posse Comitatus Act, Title 18, of the US Code?
This act prohibits the use of Federal military forces unless authorized by the Constitution of Act of Congress. Examples of this are when service members provide for disaster relief as in Hurricanes Andrew in Florida and Iniki in Hawaii in 1992.
Regarding Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW), what type was involved when the United States ensured that Iraqi Jets didn't fly over Kurdish Airspace in Northern Iraq after the first Gulf War?
An exclusion zone is established by a sanctioning body to prohibit specified activities in a specific geographic area. Exclusion zones can be establisehd in the air, sea or on land.
<p>What type of MOOTW operations serve to search for, locate, identify, rescue and return personnel or human remains, sensitive equipment, or items critical to national security?</p>
Recovery Operations
Regarding Military Operations Other Than War, what type deals with a government that attempts to enforce its borders beyond international norms?
These operations are conducted to demonstrate US or international rights to navigate sea or air routes. Freedom of navigation is a sovereign right according to international law. Passage through common seas and air is innocent as long as it is not prejudicial to the peace, good order, or security of the coastal state.
Regarding Military Operations Other than War (MOOTW), what type of operations would take defensive measures taken to reduce vulnerability to terrorist attacks?
Combating Terrorism
Regarding Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW), what type focuses on using military resources to provide food and clean water in the aftermath of a natural disaster?
HA Operations relieve or reduce the results of natural or man made disasters or other endemic conditions such as human pain, disease, hunger, or privation in countries or regions outside the United States.
Regarding Military Operations Other Than War, what kind of operation would involve the interdiction in open water of cargo ships carrying contraband?
Enforcement of Sanctions/Martime Intercept
<p>Regarding military operations other than war (MOOTW), what Act requires an act of Congress or the Constitution to have the military assist in the suppression of civil rebellion in the United States?</p>
<p>Posse Comitatus Act, Title 18, US Code Section 1385</p>
Regarding Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW), what type was involved when the United States ensured that Iraqi Jets didn't fly over Kurdish Airspace in Northern Iraq after the first Gulf War?
An exclusion zone is established by a sanctioning body to prohibit specified activities in a specific geographic area. Exclusion zones can be establisehd in the air, sea or on land.
Yes/No. Can the US military support a country Regarding Military Operations Other than War (MOOTW), in Counterinsurgency Operations?
Yes
Regarding Military Operations Other Than War, what type deals with a government that attempts to enforce its borders beyond international norms?
These operations are conducted to demonstrate US or international rights to navigate sea or air routes. Freedom of navigation is a sovereign right according to international law. Passage through common seas and air is innocent as long as it is not prejudicial to the peace, good order, or security of the coastal state.
Yes/No. Regarding military operations other than war (MOOTW), can the US military assist in the evacuation of non-combatants from a country?
Yes
Regarding Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW), what type focuses on using military resources to provide food and clean water in the aftermath of a natural disaster?
HA Operations relieve or reduce the results of natural or man made disasters or other endemic conditions such as human pain, disease, hunger, or privation in countries or regions outside the United States.
Which of the following are not Military Operations Other than War (MOOTW)?
Drug-Smuggling
<p>Regarding military operations other than war (MOOTW), what Act requires an act of Congress or the Constitution to have the military assist in the suppression of civil rebellion in the United States?</p>
<p>Posse Comitatus Act, Title 18, US Code Section 1385</p>
What is MOUT?
It is the Marine Corps ability to conduct operations in an urban environment.
Yes/No. Can the US military support a country Regarding Military Operations Other than War (MOOTW), in Counterinsurgency Operations?
Yes
What does the acronym MOUT stand for?
Military Operations in Urbanized Terrain
Yes/No. Regarding military operations other than war (MOOTW), can the US military assist in the evacuation of non-combatants from a country?
Yes
True/False. The US military has been deployed more than 200 times since World War II.
True.
Which of the following are not Military Operations Other than War (MOOTW)?
Drug-Smuggling
Why have 4 out of 5 of the military actions of the United States since World War II involved Marines?
Adaptability and Availability
What is MOUT?
It is the Marine Corps ability to conduct operations in an urban environment.
What important MOUT lesson was learned from the Russian defense of Stalingrad?
The Soviet defense cost the attacking Germans dearly in every way and set up conditions for a decisive counter offensive. This classic urban battle involved large forces and resulted in innovative urban and combat techniques and the creation of highly successful storm groups.
What does the acronym MOUT stand for?
Military Operations in Urbanized Terrain
Regarding MOUT, what was significant about the German defense of Berlin?
The German defense of Berlin was not well coordinated due to poor preparation in part of the Germans. This was the last battle for the Russians in World War II.
True/False. The US military has been deployed more than 200 times since World War II.
True.
Regarding MOUT, what was significant regarding the battle over Seoul in 1950?
Following the Inchon landing, the US and ROK forces recaptured the South Korean capital from the North Koreans. The fighting was unusual because the combat centered around barricades rather than buildings.
Why have 4 out of 5 of the military actions of the United States since World War II involved Marines?
Adaptability and Availability
Regarding MOUT, what was significant about the Southern Defenses of Quang Tri in 1972?
The North Vietnamese initially captured the city and then the south with coordinated fires from Artillery and air support recaptured the city.
What important MOUT lesson was learned from the Russian defense of Stalingrad?
The Soviet defense cost the attacking Germans dearly in every way and set up conditions for a decisive counter offensive. This classic urban battle involved large forces and resulted in innovative urban and combat techniques and the creation of highly successful storm groups.
Regarding MOUT, what was significant about the Israeli incursion of Beirut in 1982?
The siege of Beirut culminated the Israeli campaign to evict the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) from Lebanon. Fighting under domestic and world pressures, the Israeli Defense Forces (IDF) besieged the PLO, selectively applying heavy ground and air firepower in conjunction with psychological warfare and limited-objective ground operations. The PLO eventually evacuated.
Regarding MOUT, what was significant about the German defense of Berlin?
The German defense of Berlin was not well coordinated due to poor preparation in part of the Germans. This was the last battle for the Russians in World War II.
What four effects do noncombatants have on military operations?
Mobility, Firepower, Security, and Obstacles
Regarding MOUT, what was significant regarding the battle over Seoul in 1950?
Following the Inchon landing, the US and ROK forces recaptured the South Korean capital from the North Koreans. The fighting was unusual because the combat centered around barricades rather than buildings.
How does the mobility of noncombatants affect military operations?
Noncombatants and civilians, attempting to escape the battle-space, can block military movement. Commanders plan routes to be used by civilians and seek the assistance of the civil police in refugee control.
Regarding MOUT, what was significant about the Southern Defenses of Quang Tri in 1972?
The North Vietnamese initially captured the city and then the south with coordinated fires from Artillery and air support recaptured the city.
How do non-combatants and civilians affect firepower of military operations?
The presence of noncombatants can restrict the use of firepower. Areas may be designated no-fire areas to prevent noncombatant casualties. The Control of fire-missions are complicated by civilians.
Regarding MOUT, what was significant about the Israeli incursion of Beirut in 1982?
The siege of Beirut culminated the Israeli campaign to evict the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) from Lebanon. Fighting under domestic and world pressures, the Israeli Defense Forces (IDF) besieged the PLO, selectively applying heavy ground and air firepower in conjunction with psychological warfare and limited-objective ground operations. The PLO eventually evacuated.
How do civilians and noncombatants affect the security of military operations?
The presence of noncombatants increases security requirements in an urban environment to preclude noncombatants entering defensive areas, pilferage of equipment, sabotage and terrorism.
What four effects do noncombatants have on military operations?
Mobility, Firepower, Security, and Obstacles
How do non-combatants affect obstacle employment in military operations?
The presence and movement of noncombatants will influence the MAGTFs commander's obstacle plan. Minefields may not be allowed on designated refugee routes or if allowed must be guarded until the passage of refugees is completed.
How does the mobility of noncombatants affect military operations?
Noncombatants and civilians, attempting to escape the battle-space, can block military movement. Commanders plan routes to be used by civilians and seek the assistance of the civil police in refugee control.
What does OMFTS stand for?
Operations Maneuver from the Sea
How do non-combatants and civilians affect firepower of military operations?
The presence of noncombatants can restrict the use of firepower. Areas may be designated no-fire areas to prevent noncombatant casualties. The Control of fire-missions are complicated by civilians.
Regarding the Marine Corps Aviation Platforms, what is the primary function of the AH-1W?
Attack Helicopter
How do civilians and noncombatants affect the security of military operations?
The presence of noncombatants increases security requirements in an urban environment to preclude noncombatants entering defensive areas, pilferage of equipment, sabotage and terrorism.
What is the primary function of the CH-46E?
Medium Life Assault Support Helicopter
How do non-combatants affect obstacle employment in military operations?
The presence and movement of noncombatants will influence the MAGTFs commander's obstacle plan. Minefields may not be allowed on designated refugee routes or if allowed must be guarded until the passage of refugees is completed.
What is the primary mission of the CH-53D
Medium Life Assault Support Helicopter
What does OMFTS stand for?
Operations Maneuver from the Sea
<p>What words are printed on the NATO NBC Marker for radioactive conatamination</p>
<p>ATOM</p>
Regarding the Marine Corps Aviation Platforms, what is the primary function of the AH-1W?
Attack Helicopter
<p>What words are printed on the NATO NBC Marker for biological conatamination</p>
BIO
What is the primary function of the CH-46E?
Medium Life Assault Support Helicopter
<p>What words are printed on the NATO NBC Marker for chemical conatamination</p>
It should be a downward facing yellow triangle with the word gas
What is the primary mission of the CH-53D
Medium Life Assault Support Helicopter
What color is the NATO CBR marker for radioactive contamination?
White
<p>What words are printed on the NATO NBC Marker for radioactive conatamination</p>
<p>ATOM</p>
What color is the downward pointing triangle for the NATO CBR marker for BIO?
Blue
<p>What words are printed on the NATO NBC Marker for biological conatamination</p>
BIO
What color is the NATO NBC marker for gas?
yellow
<p>What words are printed on the NATO NBC Marker for chemical conatamination</p>
It should be a downward facing yellow triangle with the word gas
What is the M40?
The M40 field protective mask is designed to protect the wearer from field concentrations of chemical and biological agents.
What color is the NATO CBR marker for radioactive contamination?
White
What are the three types of alarms for NBC attacks?
Vocal, Visual, and Percussion
What color is the downward pointing triangle for the NATO CBR marker for BIO?
Blue
Describe the Vocal Alarm for NBC attacks
Gas, Gas, Gas
What color is the NATO NBC marker for gas?
yellow
What is the visual alarm for a NBC attack
The arms are extended straight out to the side and the hands made into a fist. As the word GAS is said, bend at the elbows so the fists are placed to the ears, then repeat three times.
What is the M40?
The M40 field protective mask is designed to protect the wearer from field concentrations of chemical and biological agents.
What is the percussion alarm during an NBC attack?
Metal on Metal. Metal triangles are used to give the NBC alarm by striking them repeatedly. Sirens, intermittent horns, biological/chemical alarm systems, or other devices as outlines by unit's SOP.
What are the three types of alarms for NBC attacks?
Vocal, Visual, and Percussion
<p>Yes/No. When putting on a gas mask for a CBR attack, should you take one last breath as you would with a dive mask?</p>
<p>Stop breathing, close your eyes and mouth. Do NOT take one last breath.</p>
Describe the Vocal Alarm for NBC attacks
Gas, Gas, Gas
When donning a gas mask, will you leave your glasses on or off.
Do not wear contact lenses with any field protective mask. Wearing contact lenses with the optical inserts will over correct your vision.
What is the visual alarm for a NBC attack
The arms are extended straight out to the side and the hands made into a fist. As the word GAS is said, bend at the elbows so the fists are placed to the ears, then repeat three times.
Yes/No. When donning the M40 gas mask, if the faceplate collapses when you cover the air in port, is it airtight?
Clear the field protective mask by covering the outlet valve with the palm of one hand. Exhale sharply so the air escapes around the edges of the faceplate. Cover the air inlet port of the canister with the palm of your free hand, and then breath in. The face piece should collapse against your face and remain there while holding your breath.
What is the percussion alarm during an NBC attack?
Metal on Metal. Metal triangles are used to give the NBC alarm by striking them repeatedly. Sirens, intermittent horns, biological/chemical alarm systems, or other devices as outlines by unit's SOP.
How often should you check your gas mask for leaks?
Each time you put it on
<p>Yes/No. When putting on a gas mask for a CBR attack, should you take one last breath as you would with a dive mask?</p>
<p>Stop breathing, close your eyes and mouth. Do NOT take one last breath.</p>
How quickly must a M40 Gas Mask be donned, cleared, and sealed?
9 seconds
When donning a gas mask, will you leave your glasses on or off.
Do not wear contact lenses with any field protective mask. Wearing contact lenses with the optical inserts will over correct your vision.
What does MOPP stand for?
Marine Operative Protective Posture
Yes/No. When donning the M40 gas mask, if the faceplate collapses when you cover the air in port, is it airtight?
Clear the field protective mask by covering the outlet valve with the palm of one hand. Exhale sharply so the air escapes around the edges of the faceplate. Cover the air inlet port of the canister with the palm of your free hand, and then breath in. The face piece should collapse against your face and remain there while holding your breath.
<p>How many levels of MOPP are there?</p>
<p>5</p>
How often should you check your gas mask for leaks?
Each time you put it on
What is MOPP Level 0
Protective mask worn in carrier, at side. Overgarments, gloves, and overboots accessible.
How quickly must a M40 Gas Mask be donned, cleared, and sealed?
9 seconds
What is MOPP level 2?
Overgarments and overboots worn. Gloves and mask readily accessible.
What does MOPP stand for?
Marine Operative Protective Posture
What is MOPP level 4?
All protection worn.
<p>How many levels of MOPP are there?</p>
<p>5</p>
Yes/No. Can the user wear contact lenses with the M40 field mask?
No. Contact lenses in the M40 will over correct the mask and contamination of CBR agents on the contact lens can present a health hazard.
What is MOPP Level 0
Protective mask worn in carrier, at side. Overgarments, gloves, and overboots accessible.
What is the primary difference between M8 and M9 Paper?
M8 comes in a booklet of 25 sheets while M9 comes in a roll of 10m tape. The M9 has a backing adhesive.
What is MOPP level 2?
Overgarments and overboots worn. Gloves and mask readily accessible.
Should the user blot or rub the M8 paper when trying to detect a chemical agent?
Blot
What is MOPP level 4?
All protection worn.
If the M8/M9 chemical detection paper turns yellow/gold what kind of agent is being detected?
Nerve
Yes/No. Can the user wear contact lenses with the M40 field mask?
No. Contact lenses in the M40 will over correct the mask and contamination of CBR agents on the contact lens can present a health hazard.
If the M8/M9 chemical detection paper turns dark green what kind of chemical agent has been detected?
Nerve
What is the primary difference between M8 and M9 Paper?
M8 comes in a booklet of 25 sheets while M9 comes in a roll of 10m tape. The M9 has a backing adhesive.
If the M8/M9 chemical detection tape turns pink/red, what kind of chemical has been detected?
Blister
Should the user blot or rub the M8 paper when trying to detect a chemical agent?
Blot
How many levels of decontamination are there?
Three. Immediate Decon. Operational Decon. Thorough Decon
If the M8/M9 chemical detection paper turns yellow/gold what kind of agent is being detected?
Nerve
What is the difference between immediate decon and operational decon?
Both immediate and Operational decontamination still require the use of MOPP Gear and are used for prolonged operations. Immediate is to save lives while operational is for sustained operations.
If the M8/M9 chemical detection paper turns dark green what kind of chemical agent has been detected?
Nerve
What are the three techniques associated with Immediate Decontamination?
skin decontamination, personnel wipe down and operaterator's spray down.
If the M8/M9 chemical detection tape turns pink/red, what kind of chemical has been detected?
Blister
What is the difference between Immediate Decontamination and Thorough Decontamination?
Immediate is used to minimize casualties, save lives and minimize the spread while thorough decontamination is used to eliminate the need for individual protective clothing.
How many levels of decontamination are there?
Three. Immediate Decon. Operational Decon. Thorough Decon
How many kinds of techniques are there for Operational Decon?
Two. Vehicle wash down and MOPP gear exchange
What is the difference between immediate decon and operational decon?
Both immediate and Operational decontamination still require the use of MOPP Gear and are used for prolonged operations. Immediate is to save lives while operational is for sustained operations.
Which Decontamination Level minimizes casualties, saves lives, and limits the spread of contamination?
Immediate
What are the three techniques associated with Immediate Decontamination?
skin decontamination, personnel wipe down and operaterator's spray down.
Which decontamination technique sustains operations, reduces the contact hazard, and limits the spread of contamination to eliminate the necessity or reduce the duration of wearing MOPP gear?
Operational
What is the difference between Immediate Decontamination and Thorough Decontamination?
Immediate is used to minimize casualties, save lives and minimize the spread while thorough decontamination is used to eliminate the need for individual protective clothing.
Which level of decontamination reduces or eliminates the need for individual protective clothing?
Thorough
How many kinds of techniques are there for Operational Decon?
Two. Vehicle wash down and MOPP gear exchange
In a nuclear explosion should your head face toward or away from the blast?
toward
Which Decontamination Level minimizes casualties, saves lives, and limits the spread of contamination?
Immediate
Why is it important to look for protective cover in the event of a nuclear explosion?
To reduce exposure to radiation
Which decontamination technique sustains operations, reduces the contact hazard, and limits the spread of contamination to eliminate the necessity or reduce the duration of wearing MOPP gear?
Operational
True/False. Nerve agents are cholinesterase inhibitors?
Pharmacologically, nerve agents are cholinesterase inhibitors. Their reaction with choline tends to be irreversible, and reaction times vary with the agent.
Which level of decontamination reduces or eliminates the need for individual protective clothing?
Thorough
Which materials can nerve agents penetrate better?
Both A and B
In a nuclear explosion should your head face toward or away from the blast?
toward
True/False. Myosis (constricted pupils) is a good clinical indicator to determine the severity of exposure to a nerve agent?
False. Miosis cannot be used as a marker for the severity of nerve agent exposure, because it depends on the route and time course of exposure. In inhalational exposures, miosis occurs early and frequently. In such exposures, normal pupil size is predictive of nontoxicity. However, in dermal exposures at sites distinct from the eye, miosis occurs later in the progression of toxicity and depends on whether significant systemic absorption has occurred.
Why is it important to look for protective cover in the event of a nuclear explosion?
To reduce exposure to radiation
True/False. Nerve agents are rendered ineffective by alkaline solutions?
True. Soap and Water as well as hypochlorite are effective measures against nerve agents.
True/False. Nerve agents are cholinesterase inhibitors?
Pharmacologically, nerve agents are cholinesterase inhibitors. Their reaction with choline tends to be irreversible, and reaction times vary with the agent.
<p>How do nerve agents cause death?</p>
<p>Nerve agents cause death via respiratory failure, which in turn is caused by increased airway resistance (bronchorrhea, bronchoconstriction), respiratory muscle paralysis, and most importantly, loss of central respiratory drive</p>
Which materials can nerve agents penetrate better?
Both A and B
Exposure to what kind of chemical agent produces immediate ocular symptoms, rhinorrhea, and in some patients, dyspnea. These ocular effects are secondary to the localized absorption of GB vapor across the outermost layers of the eye, causing lacrimal gland stimulation (tearing), pupillary sphincter contraction (miosis), and ciliary body spasm (ocular pain). As the exposure increases, dyspnea and gastrointestinal symptoms ensue?
Nerve Agents
True/False. Myosis (constricted pupils) is a good clinical indicator to determine the severity of exposure to a nerve agent?
False. Miosis cannot be used as a marker for the severity of nerve agent exposure, because it depends on the route and time course of exposure. In inhalational exposures, miosis occurs early and frequently. In such exposures, normal pupil size is predictive of nontoxicity. However, in dermal exposures at sites distinct from the eye, miosis occurs later in the progression of toxicity and depends on whether significant systemic absorption has occurred.
Are nerve agents delivered in a liquid or powder?
liquid
True/False. Nerve agents are rendered ineffective by alkaline solutions?
True. Soap and Water as well as hypochlorite are effective measures against nerve agents.
What kind of chemical agents are tabun, sarin, soman, and cyclosarin?
The organophosphate nerve agents tabun (GA), sarin (GB), soman (GD), and cyclosarin (GF) are among the most toxic chemical warfare agents known. Together they comprise the G-series nerve agents, thus named because German scientists first synthesized them, beginning with GA in 1936. GB was discovered next in 1938, followed by GD in 1944 and finally the more obscure GF in 1949. The only other known nerve agent, O-ethyl S-(2-diisopropylaminoethyl) methylphosphonothioate (VX), is discussed in a separate article of this journal (see CBRNE - Nerve Agents, V-series - Ve, Vg, Vm, Vx).
<p>How do nerve agents cause death?</p>
<p>Nerve agents cause death via respiratory failure, which in turn is caused by increased airway resistance (bronchorrhea, bronchoconstriction), respiratory muscle paralysis, and most importantly, loss of central respiratory drive</p>
True/False. Treatment for nerve agents should include the administration of atropine 2mg in 15 minute intervals.
Specific therapy for nerve agent casualties is atropine and acetylcholine blocker.
Exposure to what kind of chemical agent produces immediate ocular symptoms, rhinorrhea, and in some patients, dyspnea. These ocular effects are secondary to the localized absorption of GB vapor across the outermost layers of the eye, causing lacrimal gland stimulation (tearing), pupillary sphincter contraction (miosis), and ciliary body spasm (ocular pain). As the exposure increases, dyspnea and gastrointestinal symptoms ensue?
Nerve Agents
If Marines and sailors are going into a known area that is contaminated with nerve agent should nerve agent antidotes be given as prophylaxis?
DO NOT give nerve agent antidotes for preventative purposes before contemplated exposure to a nerve agent.
Are nerve agents delivered in a liquid or powder?
liquid
Why should oxime therapy be used in conjunction with atropinization therapy when exposed to a nerve agent?
A second auto-injector containing pralidoxime chloride (2-PAMCl) can be used for the regeneration of blocked cholinesterase.
What kind of chemical agents are tabun, sarin, soman, and cyclosarin?
The organophosphate nerve agents tabun (GA), sarin (GB), soman (GD), and cyclosarin (GF) are among the most toxic chemical warfare agents known. Together they comprise the G-series nerve agents, thus named because German scientists first synthesized them, beginning with GA in 1936. GB was discovered next in 1938, followed by GD in 1944 and finally the more obscure GF in 1949. The only other known nerve agent, O-ethyl S-(2-diisopropylaminoethyl) methylphosphonothioate (VX), is discussed in a separate article of this journal (see CBRNE - Nerve Agents, V-series - Ve, Vg, Vm, Vx).
When administering 2-PAM Cl and Atropine for a patient exposed to a nerve agent, should you put on their mask?
Yes. You should also don your MOPP gear.
True/False. Treatment for nerve agents should include the administration of atropine 2mg in 15 minute intervals.
Specific therapy for nerve agent casualties is atropine and acetylcholine blocker.
Vesicants are also known as what type of chemical agents?
Vesicants are a class of chemical weapons named for their ability to cause vesicular skin lesions. The 4 organic arsenicals are lewisite (L), methyldichloroarsine (MD), phenyldichloroarsine (PD), and ethyldichloroarsine (ED). These agents, together with the mustard agents and phosgene oxime, make up the vesicant class. Although not as well known as the mustards, the organic arsenicals are a group of potent vesicants that medical planners should not overlook
If Marines and sailors are going into a known area that is contaminated with nerve agent should nerve agent antidotes be given as prophylaxis?
DO NOT give nerve agent antidotes for preventative purposes before contemplated exposure to a nerve agent.
What family of chemical weaponry does lewisite (L), methyldichloroarsine (MD), phenyldichloroarsine (PD), and ethyldichloroarsine (ED) belong to?
Vesicants are a class of chemical weapons named for their ability to cause vesicular skin lesions. These agents, together with the mustard agents and phosgene oxime, make up the vesicant class. Although not as well known as the mustards, the organic arsenicals are a group of potent vesicants that medical planners should not overlook
Why should oxime therapy be used in conjunction with atropinization therapy when exposed to a nerve agent?
A second auto-injector containing pralidoxime chloride (2-PAMCl) can be used for the regeneration of blocked cholinesterase.
If the Corpsman sees severe conjunctival irritation and blepharospasm, sometimes including the loosening of corneal epithelium and swelling and edema of the cornea, it is likely that the patient was exposed to what kind of chemical agent?
Vapor contact with the conjunctiva may be the victims' first symptom. Severe conjunctival irritation and blepharospasm result upon eye contact. More severe exposure can cause loosening of corneal epithelial cells and swelling and edema of the cornea.
When administering 2-PAM Cl and Atropine for a patient exposed to a nerve agent, should you put on their mask?
Yes. You should also don your MOPP gear.
If a Marine experiencing symptoms of dyspnea reports that he may have stepped in a brown liquid and a small of geraniums what is the likely chemical agent?
British Lewisite (L)
Vesicants are also known as what type of chemical agents?
Vesicants are a class of chemical weapons named for their ability to cause vesicular skin lesions. The 4 organic arsenicals are lewisite (L), methyldichloroarsine (MD), phenyldichloroarsine (PD), and ethyldichloroarsine (ED). These agents, together with the mustard agents and phosgene oxime, make up the vesicant class. Although not as well known as the mustards, the organic arsenicals are a group of potent vesicants that medical planners should not overlook
If your patient is experiencing dyspnea and blistering and remembers smelling rotting fruit what is the likely chemical agent they were exposed to?
Both A and B
What family of chemical weaponry does lewisite (L), methyldichloroarsine (MD), phenyldichloroarsine (PD), and ethyldichloroarsine (ED) belong to?
Vesicants are a class of chemical weapons named for their ability to cause vesicular skin lesions. These agents, together with the mustard agents and phosgene oxime, make up the vesicant class. Although not as well known as the mustards, the organic arsenicals are a group of potent vesicants that medical planners should not overlook
If your patient presents with the following symptoms: burning skin and itching, erythema and vesicles; Severe Eye Pain w/ blepharospasm and/or photophobia; Extreme irritation of the nasal mucosa and upper airway induces coughing and sneezing-- it is likely that they were exposed to what kind of chemical agent?
Blister Agents
If the Corpsman sees severe conjunctival irritation and blepharospasm, sometimes including the loosening of corneal epithelium and swelling and edema of the cornea, it is likely that the patient was exposed to what kind of chemical agent?
Vapor contact with the conjunctiva may be the victims' first symptom. Severe conjunctival irritation and blepharospasm result upon eye contact. More severe exposure can cause loosening of corneal epithelial cells and swelling and edema of the cornea.
Does dimercaprol, in the treatment of a chemical weapons injury, work for exposure to mustard gas?
No. There is no specific antidotal treatment for mustard poisoning. Dimercaprol is used for patients exposed to Lewisite (L).
If a Marine experiencing symptoms of dyspnea reports that he may have stepped in a brown liquid and a small of geraniums what is the likely chemical agent?
British Lewisite (L)
What is the primary method of treatment for patients exposed to blistering agents?
"Remove liquids via any means available. The military has specially developed charcoal-based kits (eg, M258A1 kit, M291 kit). If specialized kits are not available, rags, leaves, sticks, or just about any other material can be used to blot off liquid agent.
If your patient is experiencing dyspnea and blistering and remembers smelling rotting fruit what is the likely chemical agent they were exposed to?
Both A and B
Flushing the eyes or skin is another solution. Dilute hypochlorite (0.5% solution) can be used on the skin. Live steam or alkaline solutions (eg, sodium hydroxide) can be used to decontaminate closed spaces."
If your patient presents with the following symptoms: burning skin and itching, erythema and vesicles; Severe Eye Pain w/ blepharospasm and/or photophobia; Extreme irritation of the nasal mucosa and upper airway induces coughing and sneezing-- it is likely that they were exposed to what kind of chemical agent?
Blister Agents
Which chemical agent below is arsenic-based?
Lewisite
Does dimercaprol, in the treatment of a chemical weapons injury, work for exposure to mustard gas?
No. There is no specific antidotal treatment for mustard poisoning. Dimercaprol is used for patients exposed to Lewisite (L).
What kind of oil is British Anti-Lewisite, dimercaprol suspended in?
Peanut
Which chemical agent below is arsenic-based?
Lewisite
Does distilled mustard or nitrogen mustard cause immediate pain on the skin?
No
What kind of oil is British Anti-Lewisite, dimercaprol suspended in?
Peanut
Yes/No. Does British Lewisite cause immediate pain and discomfort upon contact?
Yes
Does distilled mustard or nitrogen mustard cause immediate pain on the skin?
No
If your patient has Transient hyperpnea and hypertension 15 seconds after inhalation, Convulsions in 30-45 seconds, Loss of consciousness in 30 seconds, Respiratory arrest in 3-5 minutes, Bradycardia, hypotension, and cardiac arrest within 5-8 minutes of exposure it is likely that they were exposed to what kind of chemical weapon?
Key historic features for suspected hydrogen cyanide casualties include onset, severity, and time course of symptoms, time and nature of exposure, route of exposure, presence of smoke, odors and colors of gas, effects on surroundings (dead animals, other human casualties), and evidence of exposure to other chemicals or co-ingestants. As many as 50% of patients exposed to cyanide may describe an odor of bitter almonds
Yes/No. Does British Lewisite cause immediate pain and discomfort upon contact?
Yes
If your patients suffers from symptoms of apprehension or anxiety, Vertigo, Feeling of weakness, Nausea with or without vomiting, Muscular trembling, Progression of symptoms to unconsciousness, Headache, and/or Dyspnea they may have been exposed to what kind of chemical warfare agent?
Key historic features for suspected hydrogen cyanide casualties include onset, severity, and time course of symptoms, time and nature of exposure, route of exposure, presence of smoke, odors and colors of gas, effects on surroundings (dead animals, other human casualties), and evidence of exposure to other chemicals or co-ingestants. As many as 50% of patients exposed to cyanide may describe an odor of bitter almonds.
If your patient has Transient hyperpnea and hypertension 15 seconds after inhalation, Convulsions in 30-45 seconds, Loss of consciousness in 30 seconds, Respiratory arrest in 3-5 minutes, Bradycardia, hypotension, and cardiac arrest within 5-8 minutes of exposure it is likely that they were exposed to what kind of chemical weapon?
Key historic features for suspected hydrogen cyanide casualties include onset, severity, and time course of symptoms, time and nature of exposure, route of exposure, presence of smoke, odors and colors of gas, effects on surroundings (dead animals, other human casualties), and evidence of exposure to other chemicals or co-ingestants. As many as 50% of patients exposed to cyanide may describe an odor of bitter almonds
If the patient describes the smell of bitter almonds what is the likely chemical agent they were exposed to?
Blood Agents
If your patients suffers from symptoms of apprehension or anxiety, Vertigo, Feeling of weakness, Nausea with or without vomiting, Muscular trembling, Progression of symptoms to unconsciousness, Headache, and/or Dyspnea they may have been exposed to what kind of chemical warfare agent?
Key historic features for suspected hydrogen cyanide casualties include onset, severity, and time course of symptoms, time and nature of exposure, route of exposure, presence of smoke, odors and colors of gas, effects on surroundings (dead animals, other human casualties), and evidence of exposure to other chemicals or co-ingestants. As many as 50% of patients exposed to cyanide may describe an odor of bitter almonds.
If your patient has the following symptoms: Altered mental status, Convulsions, Hypotension, Transient hyperpnea, Bradypnea followed by apnea, Cardiac dysrhythmias followed by cardiac arrest, Severe respiratory distress, cherry-red skin suggests concomitant carbon monoxide poisoning or high venous oxygen content from failure of tissues to extract oxygen, diaphoresis with normal or dilated pupils, Initial hypertension and compensatory bradycardia are followed by hypotension and tachycardia, Terminal hypotension is accompanied by bradyarrhythmias prior to asystole, they have likely been exposed to what kind of chemical agent?
Blood Agent
If the patient describes the smell of bitter almonds what is the likely chemical agent they were exposed to?
Blood Agents
What a patient has been exposed to Hydrocyanic Acid (AC) or Cyanogen Chloride (CK) why are their symptoms not usually accompanied with bright red skin from the blood agents reacting to their body?
Bright red skin and absence of cyanosis seldom are described in patients with cyanide poisoning, most likely because of concomitant cardiovascular collapse. Patients may also present cyanotic after prolonged respiratory failure and shock.
If your patient has the following symptoms: Altered mental status, Convulsions, Hypotension, Transient hyperpnea, Bradypnea followed by apnea, Cardiac dysrhythmias followed by cardiac arrest, Severe respiratory distress, cherry-red skin suggests concomitant carbon monoxide poisoning or high venous oxygen content from failure of tissues to extract oxygen, diaphoresis with normal or dilated pupils, Initial hypertension and compensatory bradycardia are followed by hypotension and tachycardia, Terminal hypotension is accompanied by bradyarrhythmias prior to asystole, they have likely been exposed to what kind of chemical agent?
Blood Agent
What a patient has been exposed to a blood agent what is the first order of first aid?
Removal of the chemical from the patient, then ABC's.
What a patient has been exposed to Hydrocyanic Acid (AC) or Cyanogen Chloride (CK) why are their symptoms not usually accompanied with bright red skin from the blood agents reacting to their body?
Bright red skin and absence of cyanosis seldom are described in patients with cyanide poisoning, most likely because of concomitant cardiovascular collapse. Patients may also present cyanotic after prolonged respiratory failure and shock.
What is prescribed for patients who have been exposed to Cyanide Blood Agents (AC) and (CK)?
The Taylor (formerly Lily or Pasadena) Cyanide Antidote Package contains amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.
What a patient has been exposed to a blood agent what is the first order of first aid?
Removal of the chemical from the patient, then ABC's.
Why are nitrites given to patients who have been exposed to cyanide blood agents?
The nitrite components oxidize iron contained in hemoglobin to methemoglobin. This creates an additional site for cyanide binding and promotes dissociation from cytochrome oxidase. Resultant cyanomethemoglobin may then be converted to less toxic thiocyanate through enzymes such as rhodanese or other sulfurtransferases in the presence of sodium thiosulfate. Only use amyl nitrite perles as a temporizing measure if IV access has not been established, since administration of IV sodium nitrite is more effective in creating therapeutic methemoglobin levels
What is prescribed for patients who have been exposed to Cyanide Blood Agents (AC) and (CK)?
The Taylor (formerly Lily or Pasadena) Cyanide Antidote Package contains amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.
Why must the nitrites be administered to a cyanide victim with caution?
The use of the nitrite-containing components of the cyanide antidote kit must be done with caution, as they may result in significant hypotension and cardiovascular collapse.
Why are nitrites given to patients who have been exposed to cyanide blood agents?
The nitrite components oxidize iron contained in hemoglobin to methemoglobin. This creates an additional site for cyanide binding and promotes dissociation from cytochrome oxidase. Resultant cyanomethemoglobin may then be converted to less toxic thiocyanate through enzymes such as rhodanese or other sulfurtransferases in the presence of sodium thiosulfate. Only use amyl nitrite perles as a temporizing measure if IV access has not been established, since administration of IV sodium nitrite is more effective in creating therapeutic methemoglobin levels
True/False. Vitamin B12a can be used as an antidote for cyanide toxicity?
True. Administration of antidotes, which counteract the toxic effects of cyanide, is critical for life-threatening intoxication. Hydroxocobalamin (vitamin B-12a) has been recognized as an antidote for cyanide toxicity for more than 40 years and is in active use in France for cyanide poisoning
Why must the nitrites be administered to a cyanide victim with caution?
The use of the nitrite-containing components of the cyanide antidote kit must be done with caution, as they may result in significant hypotension and cardiovascular collapse.
What is the inital dose of Amyl Nitrate for a victim of cyanide poisoning?
1 ampule (0.2 mL) for 30-60 s administered by inhalation along with 100% oxygen
True/False. Vitamin B12a can be used as an antidote for cyanide toxicity?
True. Administration of antidotes, which counteract the toxic effects of cyanide, is critical for life-threatening intoxication. Hydroxocobalamin (vitamin B-12a) has been recognized as an antidote for cyanide toxicity for more than 40 years and is in active use in France for cyanide poisoning
If your patent describes the smell of newly mown hay it is likely that they have been exposed to what kind of chemical agent?
The odor of newly mown hay characterizes phosgene gas exposures, a choking agent, but this olfactory warning signal may not be appreciated by all individuals. Since the odor detection threshold concentration is approximately 0.5-1.5 ppm, which is at least 5 times the permissive exposure limit of 0.1 ppm1 set by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) and the American Conference of Government Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH), significant exposure may occur before any unusual scent is perceived.
What is the inital dose of Amyl Nitrate for a victim of cyanide poisoning?
1 ampule (0.2 mL) for 30-60 s administered by inhalation along with 100% oxygen
What kind of agent is Phosgene gas?
Choking Agent
If your patent describes the smell of newly mown hay it is likely that they have been exposed to what kind of chemical agent?
The odor of newly mown hay characterizes phosgene gas exposures, a choking agent, but this olfactory warning signal may not be appreciated by all individuals. Since the odor detection threshold concentration is approximately 0.5-1.5 ppm, which is at least 5 times the permissive exposure limit of 0.1 ppm1 set by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) and the American Conference of Government Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH), significant exposure may occur before any unusual scent is perceived.
What kind of chemical warfare agent is chlorine?
Choking
What kind of agent is Phosgene gas?
Choking Agent
Is there an antidote for choking agents?
No. The provider can only treat the symptoms, usually focused on pulmonary edema.
What kind of chemical warfare agent is chlorine?
Choking
The following: 3-Quinuclidinyl benzilate (BZ), Phencyclidine (SN), Lysergic acid diethylamide (K) belong to what family of chemical warfare agents?
These are substances that produce casualty effects though mental disturbances such as delerium or hallucination.
Is there an antidote for choking agents?
No. The provider can only treat the symptoms, usually focused on pulmonary edema.
When discussing incapacitating chemical agents of warfare, what is the primary difference between KOLOKOL-1 and 3-Quinuclidinyl benzilate (BZ), Phencyclidine (SN), Lysergic acid diethylamide (K)?
KOLOKOL-1 is a tranquilizer while BZ, SN and K incapacitate though mental disturbances such as delirium or hallucination.
The following: 3-Quinuclidinyl benzilate (BZ), Phencyclidine (SN), Lysergic acid diethylamide (K) belong to what family of chemical warfare agents?
These are substances that produce casualty effects though mental disturbances such as delerium or hallucination.
There are two types of blistering agents, Vesicants and Urticants. Which causes more pain and is more deadly?
The urticants are substances that produce a painful wheal on the skin. These are sometimes termed skin necrotizers and are known as the most painful substances produced. Notably: Phosgene oxime (CX)
When discussing incapacitating chemical agents of warfare, what is the primary difference between KOLOKOL-1 and 3-Quinuclidinyl benzilate (BZ), Phencyclidine (SN), Lysergic acid diethylamide (K)?
KOLOKOL-1 is a tranquilizer while BZ, SN and K incapacitate though mental disturbances such as delirium or hallucination.
What familiy of chemical warfare agents do Novichok agents and GV belong to?
They are both Nerve Agents.
There are two types of blistering agents, Vesicants and Urticants. Which causes more pain and is more deadly?
The urticants are substances that produce a painful wheal on the skin. These are sometimes termed skin necrotizers and are known as the most painful substances produced. Notably: Phosgene oxime (CX)
What are the three types of vesicant blistering agents in chemical warfare?
Nitrogen mustards, Sulfur mustards and Arsenicals
What familiy of chemical warfare agents do Novichok agents and GV belong to?
They are both Nerve Agents.
a-Chlorotoluene, Benzyl bromide, Bromoacetone (BA), Bromobenzylcyanide (CA), Bromomethyl ethyl ketone, Capsaicin (OC), Chloracetophenone (MACE; CN), Chloromethyl chloroformate, Dibenzoxazepine (CR), Ethyl iodoacetate, Ortho-chlorobenzylidene malononitrile (CS), Trichloromethyl chloroformate and Xylyl bromide belong to what family of chemical warfare agents?
Lacrimators
What are the three types of vesicant blistering agents in chemical warfare?
Nitrogen mustards, Sulfur mustards and Arsenicals
Which is more potent, CS or CN?
CS
a-Chlorotoluene, Benzyl bromide, Bromoacetone (BA), Bromobenzylcyanide (CA), Bromomethyl ethyl ketone, Capsaicin (OC), Chloracetophenone (MACE; CN), Chloromethyl chloroformate, Dibenzoxazepine (CR), Ethyl iodoacetate, Ortho-chlorobenzylidene malononitrile (CS), Trichloromethyl chloroformate and Xylyl bromide belong to what family of chemical warfare agents?
Lacrimators
Adamsite (DM), Diphenylchloroarsine (DA), Diphenylcyanoarsine (DC) belong to what family of chemical warfare agents?
Vomiting Agents
Which is more potent, CS or CN?
CS
Which of the following chemical warfare agents do not belong in this group?
Adamsite (DM) is a choking agent while BZ, SN, and K are all incapacitation agents.
Adamsite (DM), Diphenylchloroarsine (DA), Diphenylcyanoarsine (DC) belong to what family of chemical warfare agents?
Vomiting Agents
What are choking agents?
Choking agents inflict injury mainly on the respiratory tract including the nose, throat, and especially the lungs. Victims typically inhale these agents, which can all lead to pulmonary edema and respiratory failure. Examples of choking agents include chlorine, phosgene, diphosgene, and chloropicrin.
Which of the following chemical warfare agents do not belong in this group?
Adamsite (DM) is a choking agent while BZ, SN, and K are all incapacitation agents.
Describe what Chlorine looks like
Chlorine is a dense, pungent, greenish-yellow gas that is easily recognized by both color and odor. It is a choking agent.
What are choking agents?
Choking agents inflict injury mainly on the respiratory tract including the nose, throat, and especially the lungs. Victims typically inhale these agents, which can all lead to pulmonary edema and respiratory failure. Examples of choking agents include chlorine, phosgene, diphosgene, and chloropicrin.
What are the symptoms of exposure to choking agents?
Symptoms of exposure range from mild cough, chest tightness, and dyspnea to those of severe, rapidly developing pulmonary edema.Treatment and prognosis are similar to those in cases of chlorine exposure.
Describe what Chlorine looks like
Chlorine is a dense, pungent, greenish-yellow gas that is easily recognized by both color and odor. It is a choking agent.
What are lacrimator agents when describing chemical warfare?
Riot control agents are defined as any chemicals not listed in a specific chemical warfare schedule that can rapidly produce sensory irritation or disabling physical effects that disappear within a short time following termination of exposure. These compounds produce temporary disability because the extreme ocular irritation and blepharospasm cause the eyes to close temporarily, and the irritation of the airways causes coughing, shortness of breath, and sometimes retching or vomiting.
What are the symptoms of exposure to choking agents?
Symptoms of exposure range from mild cough, chest tightness, and dyspnea to those of severe, rapidly developing pulmonary edema.Treatment and prognosis are similar to those in cases of chlorine exposure.
Are dogs and horses as sensitive to lacrimator agents as humans?
"No. In contrast to human beings, animals generally have low sensitivity to tear gases. Dogs and horses can therefore be used by police for riot control even when tear gas is used.
What are lacrimator agents when describing chemical warfare?
Riot control agents are defined as any chemicals not listed in a specific chemical warfare schedule that can rapidly produce sensory irritation or disabling physical effects that disappear within a short time following termination of exposure. These compounds produce temporary disability because the extreme ocular irritation and blepharospasm cause the eyes to close temporarily, and the irritation of the airways causes coughing, shortness of breath, and sometimes retching or vomiting.
"
What is the primary method of treatment for patients exposed to lacrimator agents?
The mainstay of lacrimator exposure-related treatment is removal from the contaminated environment and the use of soap and water to wash the skin and clothes. No long-term effects of tear gas, riot-control or lacrimator exposure have been documented.
What is the primary method of treatment for patients exposed to lacrimator agents?
The mainstay of lacrimator exposure-related treatment is removal from the contaminated environment and the use of soap and water to wash the skin and clothes. No long-term effects of tear gas, riot-control or lacrimator exposure have been documented.
What are vomiting agents?
The chemical warfare agents diphenylchlorarsine (DA), diphenylcyanoarsine (DC), and diphenylaminearsine (DM, adamsite) belong to a group of chemicals classified as vomiting agents. DA appears as colorless crystals, DC as a white solid, and DM as light yellow-to-green crystals. DA and DM are odorless, and DC reportedly has an odor similar to garlic or bitter almonds. All 3 agents are insoluble in water.
What are vomiting agents?
The chemical warfare agents diphenylchlorarsine (DA), diphenylcyanoarsine (DC), and diphenylaminearsine (DM, adamsite) belong to a group of chemicals classified as vomiting agents. DA appears as colorless crystals, DC as a white solid, and DM as light yellow-to-green crystals. DA and DM are odorless, and DC reportedly has an odor similar to garlic or bitter almonds. All 3 agents are insoluble in water.
Why do military armies employ the use of vomiting agents?
These agents have been produced for 2 purposes: as riot-control agents and as emesis-inducing agents to promote removal of personal protective gear during chemical warfare.
Why do military armies employ the use of vomiting agents?
These agents have been produced for 2 purposes: as riot-control agents and as emesis-inducing agents to promote removal of personal protective gear during chemical warfare.
What are the chief concern of treatment with a patient exposed to a vomiting agent?
Getting the mask back on in spite of the aweful symptoms.
What are the chief concern of treatment with a patient exposed to a vomiting agent?
Getting the mask back on in spite of the aweful symptoms.
Can the use of screening smokes be considered deadly?
Yes.
What secondary treatment methods apply to treatment of a patient who has been exposed to choking agents?
"Irrigate eyes to remove irritation. Initial antiemetic therapy may begin with routine doses of drugs commonly used to combat vomiting, such as promethazine, prochlorperazine, or droperidol. High doses of metoclopramide may be administered. If these agents are unsuccessful, 5-HT3 receptor antagonists may be administered to control nausea and vomiting. This class of drugs is comparatively expensive but well tolerated with few adverse effects. These agents include dolasetron, ondansetron, and granisetron.
What is the chemical substance known as "Willey-Pete?"
White Phosphorous
"
What is White Phosphorus gas used for?
White Phosphorus (WP) is a pale, wax solid that ignites spontaneously on contact with air to give a hot, dense, white smoke composed of phosphorus pentoxide particles.
Can the use of screening smokes be considered deadly?
Yes.
What happens with White Phosphorus (WP) smoke particles come in contact with the skin?
When burning particles of WP embed in the skin, they must be covered with water, a wet cloth, or mud. A freshly mixed 0.5 percent solution of copper sulfate may be used. The coating needs to be airproof.
What is the chemical substance known as "Willey-Pete?"
White Phosphorous
After the burning particles of White Prosphorus (WP) have been covered in an airproof manner are they left in the skin?
No. They must be surgically removed.
What is White Phosphorus gas used for?
White Phosphorus (WP) is a pale, wax solid that ignites spontaneously on contact with air to give a hot, dense, white smoke composed of phosphorus pentoxide particles.
Which of the following are not a purpose of the close order drill?
Minimize Errors in Patrol Movements
What happens with White Phosphorus (WP) smoke particles come in contact with the skin?
When burning particles of WP embed in the skin, they must be covered with water, a wet cloth, or mud. A freshly mixed 0.5 percent solution of copper sulfate may be used. The coating needs to be airproof.
Yes/No. Does close order drill allow the commander to increase the confidence of his junior officers and senior enlisted leaders through the exercise of command, vai the proper commands and control of drilling of troops?
Yes.
After the burning particles of White Prosphorus (WP) have been covered in an airproof manner are they left in the skin?
No. They must be surgically removed.
Yes/No. Is close order drill important for providing simple formations from which combat formations may be readily assumed?
Yes
Which of the following are not a purpose of the close order drill?
Minimize Errors in Patrol Movements
Regarding Close Order Drill, what is an element?
An individual squad, section, platoon, or company
Yes/No. Does close order drill allow the commander to increase the confidence of his junior officers and senior enlisted leaders through the exercise of command, vai the proper commands and control of drilling of troops?
Yes.
Regarding Close Order Drill, what is a Formation?
an arrangement of elements on line or column
Yes/No. Is close order drill important for providing simple formations from which combat formations may be readily assumed?
Yes
Regarding Close Order Drill, what is a Line?
A formation in which the elements are abreast
Regarding Close Order Drill, what is an element?
An individual squad, section, platoon, or company
Regarding Close Order Drill what is Rank?
A line of Marines placed side by side
Regarding Close Order Drill, what is a Formation?
an arrangement of elements on line or column
Regarding close order drill, what is a column?
a formation of Marines one behind another
Regarding Close Order Drill, what is a Line?
A formation in which the elements are abreast
What is the difference between a column of Marines and a File of Marines?
A file is a single column of Marines one behind the other while a Column is a formation which may include a section like a platoon or company that is placed one behind the other.
Regarding Close Order Drill what is Rank?
A line of Marines placed side by side
Regarding close order drill, what is the flank?
The right or left extrmity of a unit either on line or in a column.
Regarding close order drill, what is a column?
a formation of Marines one behind another
Regarding close order drill, what is an interval?
The lateral space between elements on the same line.
What is the difference between a column of Marines and a File of Marines?
A file is a single column of Marines one behind the other while a Column is a formation which may include a section like a platoon or company that is placed one behind the other.
Regarding close order drill what is the difference between Normal Interval and Close Interval?
Normal interval is one arms length while close interval is the distance between the shoulder and elbow when the left hand is placed on the left hip.
Regarding close order drill, what is the flank?
The right or left extrmity of a unit either on line or in a column.
Regarding close order drill what is alignment?
The dressing of several elements on a straight line.
Regarding close order drill, what is an interval?
The lateral space between elements on the same line.
Regarding close order drill, what is the guide?
The individual (base) upon whom a formation or other elements, thereof regulates its march.
Regarding close order drill what is the difference between Normal Interval and Close Interval?
Normal interval is one arms length while close interval is the distance between the shoulder and elbow when the left hand is placed on the left hip.
Regarding close order drill, what is the difference between "Guide" and "To Guide"?
The guide is a person upon whom a formation regulates its march. To guide means to regulate the interval, direction or alignment and cadence on a base file (right, left, center).
Regarding close order drill what is alignment?
The dressing of several elements on a straight line.
Regarding close order drill, what is the definition of pace?
Pace is the length of a full step at quick tine, which is 30 inches and is measured from the abck of one heel to the back of the other heel
Regarding close order drill, what is the guide?
The individual (base) upon whom a formation or other elements, thereof regulates its march.
Regarding close order drill, what is the difference between Pace and Step?
A pace is the length of measure of a step of 30 inches from heel to heel. Steps can include half, back, right-left, quick and double time while marching.
Regarding close order drill, what is the difference between "Guide" and "To Guide"?
The guide is a person upon whom a formation regulates its march. To guide means to regulate the interval, direction or alignment and cadence on a base file (right, left, center).
Regarding close order drill, what is cadence?
A rhythmic rate of march at a uniform stop.
Regarding close order drill, what is the definition of pace?
Pace is the length of a full step at quick tine, which is 30 inches and is measured from the abck of one heel to the back of the other heel
What are the four characteristics of command voice?
Voice Control, Distinctness, Inflection, and Cadence
Regarding close order drill, what is the difference between Pace and Step?
A pace is the length of measure of a step of 30 inches from heel to heel. Steps can include half, back, right-left, quick and double time while marching.
Regarding Command Voice, when the throat is opened using the mouth to shape words and the diaphragm to control volume, which characteristic is being used?
Voice Control
Regarding close order drill, what is cadence?
A rhythmic rate of march at a uniform stop.
Regarding command voice, when all commands can be pronounced correctly without loss of effect, which characteristic is being used?
Distinctness
What are the four characteristics of command voice?
Voice Control, Distinctness, Inflection, and Cadence
Regarding command voice, the rise and fall in pitch and tone in the voice is exemplary of what characteristic?
Inflection
Regarding Command Voice, when the throat is opened using the mouth to shape words and the diaphragm to control volume, which characteristic is being used?
Voice Control
Regarding command voice, the interval between commands is generally of uniform length for any given troop unit, is descriptive of what characteristic?
Cadence
Regarding command voice, when all commands can be pronounced correctly without loss of effect, which characteristic is being used?
Distinctness
What are the two types of drill commands?
Preparatory command and command of execution
Regarding command voice, the rise and fall in pitch and tone in the voice is exemplary of what characteristic?
Inflection
Cadence is a characteristic of what?
Command Voice
Regarding command voice, the interval between commands is generally of uniform length for any given troop unit, is descriptive of what characteristic?
Cadence
What is the difference between Preparatory Command and Command of Execution?
Preparatory commands indicate the movement to be executed while the Command of Execution indicates when the movement is to be executed.
What are the two types of drill commands?
Preparatory command and command of execution
How many Marines are in a color guard?
Two
Cadence is a characteristic of what?
Command Voice
How many NCO's are involved in the color guard?
Two NCO's are the color bearers, and two other men, junior to the color bearers, are the color guards.
What is the difference between Preparatory Command and Command of Execution?
Preparatory commands indicate the movement to be executed while the Command of Execution indicates when the movement is to be executed.
Yes/No. Are color bearers in a color guard armed?
No. Only the 'Book-End' Marines are armed.
How many Marines are in a color guard?
Two
Which of the four members of the color guard commands the color guard?
The bearer of the national ensign.
How many NCO's are involved in the color guard?
Two NCO's are the color bearers, and two other men, junior to the color bearers, are the color guards.
In a color guard is the organizational color to the right or left of the national ensign?
To the left of the national color.
Yes/No. Are color bearers in a color guard armed?
No. Only the 'Book-End' Marines are armed.
How many color bearers are included in a color guard when a single national ensign is used?
One.
Which of the four members of the color guard commands the color guard?
The bearer of the national ensign.
In a Navy-Marine Corps Color Guard where does the Navy Flag sit in relation to the Marine Corps Flag?
To the left.
In a color guard is the organizational color to the right or left of the national ensign?
To the left of the national color.
In a Navy-Marine Corps Color Guard are both rifleman Marines?
No. The Rifleman on the left is Navy and the Rifleman on the right is Marine.
How many color bearers are included in a color guard when a single national ensign is used?
One.
In a Navy-Marine Corps Color guard which flag is to the right of the Marine Corps Colors?
The National Ensign
In a Navy-Marine Corps Color Guard where does the Navy Flag sit in relation to the Marine Corps Flag?
To the left.
In a Joint Armed Forces Color Guard what flag is to the right of the Marine Corps Colors?
The US Army
In a Navy-Marine Corps Color Guard are both rifleman Marines?
No. The Rifleman on the left is Navy and the Rifleman on the right is Marine.
In a joint armed forces color guard, are both riflemen from the Marine Corps?
No. One rifleman is from the Marine Corps and the other is from the Army.
In a Navy-Marine Corps Color guard which flag is to the right of the Marine Corps Colors?
The National Ensign
In a joint forces color guard which branches of service are to the right of the US Coast Guard?
The US Coast Guard in a joint armed forces color guard is flanked on the left only by the Marine Rifleman.
In a Joint Armed Forces Color Guard what flag is to the right of the Marine Corps Colors?
The US Army
Which branches of service are in the order of precedence away from the national ensign in a joint armed forces color guard
Army, Marine, Navy, Air Force, Coast Guard
In a joint armed forces color guard, are both riflemen from the Marine Corps?
No. One rifleman is from the Marine Corps and the other is from the Army.
True/False. A Wet down is an initiation?
False.
In a joint forces color guard which branches of service are to the right of the US Coast Guard?
The US Coast Guard in a joint armed forces color guard is flanked on the left only by the Marine Rifleman.
What traditional Marine Corps event is a party thrown for a newly promoted Staff NCO or officer to celebrate their new rank?
Wet Down
Which branches of service are in the order of precedence away from the national ensign in a joint armed forces color guard
Army, Marine, Navy, Air Force, Coast Guard
True/False. Traditionally, the amount spent on a Marine Corps Wet Down is equivalent to at least a round of drinks for all staff NCO's present.
False. The amount of money spent by the recently promoted Marine is normally one month's pay raise. If several Marines from the same unit have been promoted with in a short period of time, they can get together and have one single Wet Down. This permits a more lavish celebration.
True/False. A Wet down is an initiation?
False.
What traditional Marine Corps event is characterized by the brief introduction of any newly arrived SNCO with the comments on where they are coming from and where they will be working?
Hail and Fairwell
What traditional Marine Corps event is a party thrown for a newly promoted Staff NCO or officer to celebrate their new rank?
Wet Down
What is the primary difference between a hail and farewell?
The hail is for members coming into a command while the farewell is for members leaving.
True/False. Traditionally, the amount spent on a Marine Corps Wet Down is equivalent to at least a round of drinks for all staff NCO's present.
False. The amount of money spent by the recently promoted Marine is normally one month's pay raise. If several Marines from the same unit have been promoted with in a short period of time, they can get together and have one single Wet Down. This permits a more lavish celebration.
What Marine Corps traditional event is characterized by the Commanding Officer conducting a formal dinner?
Dining-In
What traditional Marine Corps event is characterized by the brief introduction of any newly arrived SNCO with the comments on where they are coming from and where they will be working?
Hail and Fairwell
Yes/No. At a commander's dining-in, while formal dinner dress is appropriate for females in attendance, are bare shoulders considered appropriate?
No
What is the primary difference between a hail and farewell?
The hail is for members coming into a command while the farewell is for members leaving.
What is the difference between Mess Night and Dining-In?
On a Mess Night, guests such as spouses, girlfriends, boyfriends and other non-military guests are not invited to the meal.
What Marine Corps traditional event is characterized by the Commanding Officer conducting a formal dinner?
Dining-In
When are non-military guests present at a Mess Night?
They are recognized guests
Yes/No. At a commander's dining-in, while formal dinner dress is appropriate for females in attendance, are bare shoulders considered appropriate?
No
What traditional Marine Corps event is characterized by the most junior and senior Marine present eating a cake?
Marine Corps Birthday Celebration
What is the difference between Mess Night and Dining-In?
On a Mess Night, guests such as spouses, girlfriends, boyfriends and other non-military guests are not invited to the meal.
At the Marine Corps Birthday celebration, when swords are not present, what will the escorts do in place of the swords?
Render a hand salute.
When are non-military guests present at a Mess Night?
They are recognized guests
When the commander announces, "POST" during a formation to the senior enlisted, does the senior enlisted line up on the left or the right of the commander?
The commander will then command "POST." The senior enlisted marches in a most direct route to the left of the Commander. The Senior Enlisted will then announce, "Personnel to receive awards, promotions, etc., Center. March."
What traditional Marine Corps event is characterized by the most junior and senior Marine present eating a cake?
Marine Corps Birthday Celebration
True/False. When persons to receive an award are marching towards the commander after the command of the senior enlisted to march do they salute the senior enlisted prior to the commander.
False. They will march to a position in front of the formation approximately 5 paces in front and centered on the commander. The awardee in charge of the detail marching will announce the commands, "Mark time march," "Detail halt" "Right Face" "Hand Salute." They will salute the commander. after the commander has returned the salute the senior enlisted will command, "Ready Two"
At the Marine Corps Birthday celebration, when swords are not present, what will the escorts do in place of the swords?
Render a hand salute.
What uniform will be worn at Marine Corps birthday celebrations?
Where practical, dinner dress mess will be worn
When the commander announces, "POST" during a formation to the senior enlisted, does the senior enlisted line up on the left or the right of the commander?
The commander will then command "POST." The senior enlisted marches in a most direct route to the left of the Commander. The Senior Enlisted will then announce, "Personnel to receive awards, promotions, etc., Center. March."
Regarding the components of a map, what is a sheet name?
A map is named after the most prominent cultural or geographical feature. Whenever possible, the name of the largest city on the map is used. The sheet name is found in two places: The center of the upper margin and either the right or left side of the lower margin.
True/False. When persons to receive an award are marching towards the commander after the command of the senior enlisted to march do they salute the senior enlisted prior to the commander.
False. They will march to a position in front of the formation approximately 5 paces in front and centered on the commander. The awardee in charge of the detail marching will announce the commands, "Mark time march," "Detail halt" "Right Face" "Hand Salute." They will salute the commander. after the commander has returned the salute the senior enlisted will command, "Ready Two"
Regarding components of a map, what is the sheet number?
The sheet number is used as a reference number for that map sheet. It is found in two place: the upper right margin and the lower left margin.
What uniform will be worn at Marine Corps birthday celebrations?
Where practical, dinner dress mess will be worn
Regarding components of a map, Scale can be defined as:
The scale note is a representative fraction that gives you the ratio of a distance on the map to the corresponding distance on the earth's surface. For example, the scale note 1:50,000 indicates that one inch on the map equals 50,000 inches on the ground. Maps with different scales will display different degrees of topographical detail.
Regarding the components of a map, what is a sheet name?
A map is named after the most prominent cultural or geographical feature. Whenever possible, the name of the largest city on the map is used. The sheet name is found in two places: The center of the upper margin and either the right or left side of the lower margin.
Regarding components of a map, what is the elevation guide:
The elevation guide is a miniature characterization of the terrain shown. The terrain is shown by bands of elevation, spot elevations, and major drainage features.
Regarding components of a map, what is the sheet number?
The sheet number is used as a reference number for that map sheet. It is found in two place: the upper right margin and the lower left margin.
Regarding Map Topography how can the reader know the relationship between true north, grid north and magnetic north.
The Declination Diagram indicates the angular relationships of true north, grid north and magnetic north. Recent edition maps have a note indicating how to convert azimuths from grid to magnetic north and back and forth.
Regarding components of a map, Scale can be defined as:
The scale note is a representative fraction that gives you the ratio of a distance on the map to the corresponding distance on the earth's surface. For example, the scale note 1:50,000 indicates that one inch on the map equals 50,000 inches on the ground. Maps with different scales will display different degrees of topographical detail.
What is the difference between the scale of a map and the bar scales on the map?
Bar scales are used to convert map distance to ground distance while the scale denotes the ratio of the map such as 1:50,000 and is a note stating such. The bar scale is usually a standard measurement like an inch or centimeter equaling an actual measurement of a mile or kilometer.
Regarding components of a map, what is the elevation guide:
The elevation guide is a miniature characterization of the terrain shown. The terrain is shown by bands of elevation, spot elevations, and major drainage features.
Yes/No. Is the scale note in the same place as the bar scale on a map?
Sometimes. a scale is in the center of the lower margin or the upper left margin. The bar scales are located in the center of the lower margin.
Regarding Map Topography how can the reader know the relationship between true north, grid north and magnetic north.
The Declination Diagram indicates the angular relationships of true north, grid north and magnetic north. Recent edition maps have a note indicating how to convert azimuths from grid to magnetic north and back and forth.
Regarding map components, what is a legend?
The legend illustrates and identifies the topographic symbols used to depict some of the more prominent features on the map, such as railroad tracks, buildings, and swamps. The symbols are not always the same on every map.
What is the difference between the scale of a map and the bar scales on the map?
Bar scales are used to convert map distance to ground distance while the scale denotes the ratio of the map such as 1:50,000 and is a note stating such. The bar scale is usually a standard measurement like an inch or centimeter equaling an actual measurement of a mile or kilometer.
Regarding components of a map, what are grid lines?
Grid lines are a series of straight lines intersected at right angels and forming a series of squares. It furnishes the map-reader with a system of squares similar to the block system of most city streets. Two digits are printed in large type at each end of the grid lines, and these same two digits appear at intervals along the grid lines on the face of the map. The are called principal digital. The are of major importance to the map-reader because they are numbers they will most use most often for referencing points.
Yes/No. Is the scale note in the same place as the bar scale on a map?
Sometimes. a scale is in the center of the lower margin or the upper left margin. The bar scales are located in the center of the lower margin.
Regarding, map components, what are grid squares?
These intersect at right angles of the horizontal and vertical grid lines. The most common military map contains grid squares that measure 1000 meters (not 100 square meters as many people think). Any point located within the grid square is considered to be part of the grid square.
Regarding map components, what is a legend?
The legend illustrates and identifies the topographic symbols used to depict some of the more prominent features on the map, such as railroad tracks, buildings, and swamps. The symbols are not always the same on every map.
What is the difference between grid lines and grid squares?
Grid lines intersect to form logical squares on map that represent grid squares.
Regarding components of a map, what are grid lines?
Grid lines are a series of straight lines intersected at right angels and forming a series of squares. It furnishes the map-reader with a system of squares similar to the block system of most city streets. Two digits are printed in large type at each end of the grid lines, and these same two digits appear at intervals along the grid lines on the face of the map. The are called principal digital. The are of major importance to the map-reader because they are numbers they will most use most often for referencing points.
Which is a more precise coordinate: (a) a four-digit or (b) a six-digit grid coordinate?
4-digit= with in 1000 meters; 6-digit= with in 100 meters
Regarding, map components, what are grid squares?
These intersect at right angles of the horizontal and vertical grid lines. The most common military map contains grid squares that measure 1000 meters (not 100 square meters as many people think). Any point located within the grid square is considered to be part of the grid square.
Which of the following points to a more precise point on a map: (a) a six-digit or (b) an eight-digit grid coordinate?
6-digit: with in 100 meters ; 8-digit with in 10 meters
What is the difference between grid lines and grid squares?
Grid lines intersect to form logical squares on map that represent grid squares.
What are the two types of military grids
Universal Transverse Mercator Grid & Universal Polar Stereographic Grid
Which is a more precise coordinate: (a) a four-digit or (b) a six-digit grid coordinate?
4-digit= with in 1000 meters; 6-digit= with in 100 meters
Regarding the military grid system what is the Universal Transverse Mercator Grid?
The UTM grid has been designed to cover that part of the world between latitude 84° N and latitude 80° S, and, as its name implies, is imposed on the transverse Mercator projection.
Which of the following points to a more precise point on a map: (a) a six-digit or (b) an eight-digit grid coordinate?
6-digit: with in 100 meters ; 8-digit with in 10 meters
What is the transverse mercator projection?
The Transverse Mercator map projection is an adaptation of the standard Mercator projection. The transverse version is widely used in national and international mapping systems around the world, including the UTM. When paired with a suitable geodetic datum, the Transverse Mercator delivers high accuracy in zones less than a few degrees in east-west extent. In constructing a map on any projection, a sphere is normally chosen to model the earth when the extent of the mapped region exceeds a few hundred kilometers in length in both dimensions. For maps of smaller regions, an ellipsoidal model must be chosen if greater accuracy is required; see next section. The spherical form of the Transverse Mercator projection was one of the seven 'new' projections presented, in 1772, by Johann Heinrich Lambert (also available in a modern English translation). Lambert did not name his projections; the name Transverse Mercator dates from the second half of the nineteenth century. The principal properties of the transverse projection are here presented in comparison with the properties of the normal projection.
What are the two types of military grids
Universal Transverse Mercator Grid & Universal Polar Stereographic Grid
How many zones is the world divided into on the Universal Transverse Mercator Grid?
60 zones. Each of the 60 zones (6 degrees wide) into which the globe is divided for the grid has its own origin at the intersection of its central meridian and the equator (Figure 4-8). The grid is identical in all 60 zones.
Regarding the military grid system what is the Universal Transverse Mercator Grid?
The UTM grid has been designed to cover that part of the world between latitude 84° N and latitude 80° S, and, as its name implies, is imposed on the transverse Mercator projection.
How are distances in the grid system always measured?
Up and to the right
What is the transverse mercator projection?
The Transverse Mercator map projection is an adaptation of the standard Mercator projection. The transverse version is widely used in national and international mapping systems around the world, including the UTM. When paired with a suitable geodetic datum, the Transverse Mercator delivers high accuracy in zones less than a few degrees in east-west extent. In constructing a map on any projection, a sphere is normally chosen to model the earth when the extent of the mapped region exceeds a few hundred kilometers in length in both dimensions. For maps of smaller regions, an ellipsoidal model must be chosen if greater accuracy is required; see next section. The spherical form of the Transverse Mercator projection was one of the seven 'new' projections presented, in 1772, by Johann Heinrich Lambert (also available in a modern English translation). Lambert did not name his projections; the name Transverse Mercator dates from the second half of the nineteenth century. The principal properties of the transverse projection are here presented in comparison with the properties of the normal projection.
How is the Universal Transverse Mercator Grid (UTM) divided?
The first major breakdown is the division of each zone into areas 6° wide by 8° high and 6° wide by 12° high.
How many zones is the world divided into on the Universal Transverse Mercator Grid?
60 zones. Each of the 60 zones (6 degrees wide) into which the globe is divided for the grid has its own origin at the intersection of its central meridian and the equator (Figure 4-8). The grid is identical in all 60 zones.
How are distances in the grid system always measured?
Up and to the right
What is the primary tool for plotting grid coordinates?
Grid Coordinate Scale. The primary tool for plotting grid coordinates is the grid coordinate scale. The grid coordinate scale divides the grid square more accurately than can be done by estimation, and the results are more consistent. When used correctly, it presents less chance for making errors.
How is the Universal Transverse Mercator Grid (UTM) divided?
The first major breakdown is the division of each zone into areas 6° wide by 8° high and 6° wide by 12° high.
Are grid reference coordinates and cartesian coordinates the same?
Yes. Grid references define locations on maps using Cartesian coordinates. Grid lines on maps define the coordinate system, and are numbered to provide a unique reference to features. The most common is a square grid with grid lines numbered sequentially from the origin at the bottom left of the map. The grid numbers on the east-west (horizontal) axis are called Eastings, and the grid numbers on the north-south (vertical) axis are called Northing. Numerical grid references consist of an even number of digits. Eastings are given before Northings. Thus in a 6 digit grid reference 123456, the Easting component is 123 and the Northing component is 456.
What is the primary tool for plotting grid coordinates?
Grid Coordinate Scale. The primary tool for plotting grid coordinates is the grid coordinate scale. The grid coordinate scale divides the grid square more accurately than can be done by estimation, and the results are more consistent. When used correctly, it presents less chance for making errors.
How would you read the grid coordinates 1181?
Start from the left and read right until you come to 11, the first half of your address. Then read up to 81, the other half. Your address is somewhere in grid square 1181.
How would you read the grid coordinates 113587?
Six digits. Take the first two: 11 and that will be your square from west to east. Then chose the 58 which will be your square from south to north. If you divide up that grid square by ten lines across and ten lines up and down you can see that the 3 is three lines from the left and the 7 is from the bottom of the square.
Are grid reference coordinates and cartesian coordinates the same?
Yes. Grid references define locations on maps using Cartesian coordinates. Grid lines on maps define the coordinate system, and are numbered to provide a unique reference to features. The most common is a square grid with grid lines numbered sequentially from the origin at the bottom left of the map. The grid numbers on the east-west (horizontal) axis are called Eastings, and the grid numbers on the north-south (vertical) axis are called Northing. Numerical grid references consist of an even number of digits. Eastings are given before Northings. Thus in a 6 digit grid reference 123456, the Easting component is 123 and the Northing component is 456.
How would you read the grid coordinates 1181?
Start from the left and read right until you come to 11, the first half of your address. Then read up to 81, the other half. Your address is somewhere in grid square 1181.
What is the most important consideration in using the grid scale?
The most accurate way to determine the coordinates of a point on a map is to use a coordinate scale. You do not have to use imaginary lines; you can find the exact coordinates using a Coordinate Scale and Protractor. This device has two coordinating scales, 1:25,000 meters and 1:50,000 meters. Make sure you use the correct scale.
How would you make grid square 1181 more accurate?
"Add two more digits by adding on to the end of the 11 and the 81 separately. Note: Grid square 1181 gives your general neighborhood, but there is a lot of ground inside that grid square. To make your address more accurate, just add another number to the first half and another number to the second half-so your address has six numbers instead of four.
Regarding reading a map, what is true north?
True north is a point on the earths surface that points towards the north pole. True north can be found at night by locating the North Star, which always points towards true north. True north is usually represented on the declination diagram by a line ending with a star. True north is used almost exclusively when navigating with out a compass
Suppose you are halfway between grid line 11 and grid line 12. Then the next number is 5 and the first half of your address is 115. Now suppose you are also 3/10 of the way between grid line 81 and grid line 82. Then the second half of your address is 813. (If you were exactly on line 81, the second part would be 810). Your address is 115813"
Regarding map-reading what is magnetic north?
The earth has a magnetic field that is close to (but not exactly on) the North Pole. THe north-seeking arrow of your lensatic compass indicates the direction to this north magnetic pole . Magnetic north is usually symbolized on the declination diagram by a line ending with half arrowhead. Anytime you use the compass to plan or follow an azimuth in the field, you must work with azimuths measured from magnetic north.
How would you read the grid coordinates 113587?
Six digits. Take the first two: 11 and that will be your square from west to east. Then chose the 58 which will be your square from south to north. If you divide up that grid square by ten lines across and ten lines up and down you can see that the 3 is three lines from the left and the 7 is from the bottom of the square.
Regarding map-reading what is grid north?
Grid North is established by using the vertical grid lines on the map. Grid north may be symbolized on the declination diagram by the letters HN. Anytime you use a protractor in conjunction with a vertical grid line to determine or plot an azimuth on a map, you must work with an azimuth measured from grid north.
Describe the terrain feature of a hill
a hill is an area of high ground. From a hilltop, the ground slopes down in all directions. A hill is shown on a map by contour lines forming concentric circles. The inside of the smallest circle is called the hilltop.
What is the most important consideration in using the grid scale?
The most accurate way to determine the coordinates of a point on a map is to use a coordinate scale. You do not have to use imaginary lines; you can find the exact coordinates using a Coordinate Scale and Protractor. This device has two coordinating scales, 1:25,000 meters and 1:50,000 meters. Make sure you use the correct scale.
Regarding map topology, describe a ridge?
A ridge is a series of hills that are connected to each other near the top. A ridge line may extend for many miles. It may be winding or quite straight. It may have a reasonable uniform elevation along its top or it may vary greatly in elevation.
Regarding reading a map, what is true north?
True north is a point on the earths surface that points towards the north pole. True north can be found at night by locating the North Star, which always points towards true north. True north is usually represented on the declination diagram by a line ending with a star. True north is used almost exclusively when navigating with out a compass
Regarding map-reading what is magnetic north?
The earth has a magnetic field that is close to (but not exactly on) the North Pole. THe north-seeking arrow of your lensatic compass indicates the direction to this north magnetic pole . Magnetic north is usually symbolized on the declination diagram by a line ending with half arrowhead. Anytime you use the compass to plan or follow an azimuth in the field, you must work with azimuths measured from magnetic north.
Regarding map topology please describe a Saddle.
This is a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground. A saddle is not necessarily the lower ground between two hilltops; it may be simply a dip or break along the a level ridge crest.
Regarding topologic features of a map, what is the difference between a hill and a ridge?
A hill has lower ground in all directions while a ridge may be a series of hill tops with lower ground in all directions except for the connected hill tops.
Regarding map-reading what is grid north?
Grid North is established by using the vertical grid lines on the map. Grid north may be symbolized on the declination diagram by the letters HN. Anytime you use a protractor in conjunction with a vertical grid line to determine or plot an azimuth on a map, you must work with an azimuth measured from grid north.
Regarding map topology what is a draw?
A draw is a short, continuous sloping line of low ground, normally cut into the side of a ridge or hill. Often, there is a small stream running down the draw. In a draw, there is essentially no level ground.
Describe the terrain feature of a hill
a hill is an area of high ground. From a hilltop, the ground slopes down in all directions. A hill is shown on a map by contour lines forming concentric circles. The inside of the smallest circle is called the hilltop.
Regarding map topology what is the difference between a finger/spur and a draw?
A draw is a short continuous sloping line of low ground while a finger/spur is on high ground. If you are in a draw, the land slopes up in three directions. If you are on a finger/spur it slopes down in three directions.
Regarding map topology, describe a ridge?
A ridge is a series of hills that are connected to each other near the top. A ridge line may extend for many miles. It may be winding or quite straight. It may have a reasonable uniform elevation along its top or it may vary greatly in elevation.
Regarding map topology please describe a Saddle.
This is a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground. A saddle is not necessarily the lower ground between two hilltops; it may be simply a dip or break along the a level ridge crest.
Regarding map topology what is a depression?
This is a low point in the ground or a sinkhole. It is an area of low ground a surrounded by higher in all directions, or simply a hole in the ground. Usually only depressions that are equal to or great than the contour interval will be shown on a map. On maps, depressions are represented by closed contour lines that have tick marks pointing towards low ground.
Regarding topologic features of a map, what is the difference between a hill and a ridge?
A hill has lower ground in all directions while a ridge may be a series of hill tops with lower ground in all directions except for the connected hill tops.
Regarding map topology what is the difference between a draw and a depression?
A depression is a low point in the ground that is surrounded on all sides by higher elevation as in a sink hole while a Draw it is a low point that is surrounded by three sides with higher elevation.
Regarding topographic features, what is a finger/spur?
"
Which part of the lensatic compass protects the floating dial and the glass encasement?
The cover protects the floating dial and the glass encasement. It contains the sighting wire and two luminous sighting dots for night navigation.
Which parts of the lensatic compass is mounted on a pivot so that it rotates freely when the compass is held level?
The floating dial is mounted on a pivot so that it rotates freely when the compass is held level. it contains the magnetic needle. A luminous arrow and the letters "E" and "W" are printed on the dial. The arrow points to magnetic north. There are two scales: Outer - denotes MILS (black); inner - denotes DEGREES (red).
A finger is a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge or hill. A finger is often formed by two roughly parallel draws."
Regarding map topology what is a draw?
A draw is a short, continuous sloping line of low ground, normally cut into the side of a ridge or hill. Often, there is a small stream running down the draw. In a draw, there is essentially no level ground.
Regarding a lensatic compass, what part houses the floating dial and contains a fixed black index line.
The glass encasement houses the floating dial and contains a fixed black index line.
Regarding map topology what is the difference between a finger/spur and a draw?
A draw is a short continuous sloping line of low ground while a finger/spur is on high ground. If you are in a draw, the land slopes up in three directions. If you are on a finger/spur it slopes down in three directions.
Regarding a lensatic compass, which part clicks when turned and contains 120 clicks when rotated fully, where each click equals 3 degrees?
The Bezel Ring, is a divice that clicks when turned. It contains 120 clicks when rotated fully. Each click equals 3 degrees. A short luminous line is used in conjunctions with the north-seeking arrow during night navigation.
Regarding map topology what is a depression?
This is a low point in the ground or a sinkhole. It is an area of low ground a surrounded by higher in all directions, or simply a hole in the ground. Usually only depressions that are equal to or great than the contour interval will be shown on a map. On maps, depressions are represented by closed contour lines that have tick marks pointing towards low ground.
What part of the lensatic compass is used to lock the floating dial and must be opened 45 degrees.
The rear site is used to lock the floating dial. The rear sight must be opened more than 45 degrees to allow the floating dial to float freely.
Regarding map topology what is the difference between a draw and a depression?
A depression is a low point in the ground that is surrounded on all sides by higher elevation as in a sink hole while a Draw it is a low point that is surrounded by three sides with higher elevation.
True/False. The four parts of the base include the Floating Dial, Glass Encasement and Bezel Ring and Thumb Loops.
True.
Which part of the lensatic compass protects the floating dial and the glass encasement?
The cover protects the floating dial and the glass encasement. It contains the sighting wire and two luminous sighting dots for night navigation.
Regarding a lensatic compass what is an azimuth?
The azimuth (az) angle is the compass bearing, relative to true (geographic) north, of a point on the horizon directly beneath an observed object. The horizon is defined as a huge, imaginary circle centered on the observer, equidistant from the zenith (point straight overhead) and the nadir (point exactly opposite the zenith). As seen from above the observer, compass bearings are measured clockwise in degrees from north. Azimuth angles can thus range from 0 degrees (north) through 90 (east), 180 (south), 270 (west), and up to 360 (north again).
Which parts of the lensatic compass is mounted on a pivot so that it rotates freely when the compass is held level?
The floating dial is mounted on a pivot so that it rotates freely when the compass is held level. it contains the magnetic needle. A luminous arrow and the letters "E" and "W" are printed on the dial. The arrow points to magnetic north. There are two scales: Outer - denotes MILS (black); inner - denotes DEGREES (red).
What is the difference directions on a map versus those used with a compass?
The grid azimuth or directions are true north while the compass directions are magnetic azimuths.
Regarding a lensatic compass, what part houses the floating dial and contains a fixed black index line.
The glass encasement houses the floating dial and contains a fixed black index line.
True/False. You can follow a grid azimuth with a compass.
False. You can not follow a grid azimuth with a compass, nor can you plot a magnetic azimuth with a protector because of the angular difference between grid north and magnetic north.
What is the G-M Angel?
It is the difference between true north on the map and the difference between magnetic north. It is different for each map.
Regarding a lensatic compass, which part clicks when turned and contains 120 clicks when rotated fully, where each click equals 3 degrees?
The Bezel Ring, is a divice that clicks when turned. It contains 120 clicks when rotated fully. Each click equals 3 degrees. A short luminous line is used in conjunctions with the north-seeking arrow during night navigation.
What acronymn do you use to convert GRID Azimuths (G) to magnetic azimuths (M).
LARS. Left Add. Right Subtract.
What part of the lensatic compass is used to lock the floating dial and must be opened 45 degrees.
The rear site is used to lock the floating dial. The rear sight must be opened more than 45 degrees to allow the floating dial to float freely.
What is the acronym LARS used for?
Converting grid north and magnetic north.
True/False. The four parts of the base include the Floating Dial, Glass Encasement and Bezel Ring and Thumb Loops.
True.
Regarding a lensatic compass what is an azimuth?
The azimuth (az) angle is the compass bearing, relative to true (geographic) north, of a point on the horizon directly beneath an observed object. The horizon is defined as a huge, imaginary circle centered on the observer, equidistant from the zenith (point straight overhead) and the nadir (point exactly opposite the zenith). As seen from above the observer, compass bearings are measured clockwise in degrees from north. Azimuth angles can thus range from 0 degrees (north) through 90 (east), 180 (south), 270 (west), and up to 360 (north again).
How do you use LARS to convert Magnetic Azimuths to Grid Azimuths?
When looking at the declination diagram, if the Magnetic North is to the left of the grid north on the bottom right of the map, then Add the G-M Angle. If the magnetic is to the right of the grid then subtract.
What are the two methods for orienting the map?
The Compass and the terrain association.
What is the difference directions on a map versus those used with a compass?
The grid azimuth or directions are true north while the compass directions are magnetic azimuths.
True/False. You can follow a grid azimuth with a compass.
False. You can not follow a grid azimuth with a compass, nor can you plot a magnetic azimuth with a protector because of the angular difference between grid north and magnetic north.
What is important about orienting the map with a compass?
The map has true north and the compass has magnetic north
When orienting a map what is terrain association?
It is a method to show the map reader where they are in relation to the map and to which direction they are facing. Identify prominent terrain features on the ground and align those terrain features with the map.
What is the G-M Angel?
It is the difference between true north on the map and the difference between magnetic north. It is different for each map.
<p>What are the two ways for determining your position on a map?</p>
<p>Location by Inspection and Location by One-Point or Two-Point Resection</p>
What acronymn do you use to convert GRID Azimuths (G) to magnetic azimuths (M).
LARS. Left Add. Right Subtract.
What is the acronym LARS used for?
Converting grid north and magnetic north.
What is Two Point Resection?
it is a method of determining your place on a map by finding two prominent features and plotting their back-azimuths. Where those two lines collide is your location.
What is One-Point Resection?
It is a method of determining a place on the map from a single back-azimuth of a prominent land feature. It is not as accurate as a the two-point method.
How do you use LARS to convert Magnetic Azimuths to Grid Azimuths?
When looking at the declination diagram, if the Magnetic North is to the left of the grid north on the bottom right of the map, then Add the G-M Angle. If the magnetic is to the right of the grid then subtract.
What are the two methods for orienting the map?
The Compass and the terrain association.
What is the primary difference in determining your location on a map from location by inspection vs. Location by One-Pont/Two-Point Resection?
The Resection determines your point on a map by triangulation and the inspection determines your place by prominatory feature selection.
What is the mission of the Marine Division?
it execute amphibious assault operations and such other operations as may be directed.
What is important about orienting the map with a compass?
The map has true north and the compass has magnetic north
When orienting a map what is terrain association?
It is a method to show the map reader where they are in relation to the map and to which direction they are facing. Identify prominent terrain features on the ground and align those terrain features with the map.
How many Infantry Regiments are in a Marine Division?
3
<p>What are the two ways for determining your position on a map?</p>
<p>Location by Inspection and Location by One-Point or Two-Point Resection</p>
True/False. A Marine Division has both a Tank Battalion and an Assault Amphibian Battalion.
A Marine Division consists of 3 Infantry Regiments, an Artillery Regiment, a Headquarters Battalion, A Tank Battalion, an Assault Amphibian Battalion, a Combat Engineer Battalion, and a Light Armored Reconnaissance Battalion.
What is Two Point Resection?
it is a method of determining your place on a map by finding two prominent features and plotting their back-azimuths. Where those two lines collide is your location.
Yes/No. Does a Marine Division include a Combat Engineer Regiment?
No. a Combat Engineer Battalion not Regiment. A Marine Division consists of 3 Infantry Regiments, an Artillery Regiment, a Headquarters Battalion, A Tank Battalion, an Assault Amphibian Battalion, a Combat Engineer Battalion, and a Light Armored Reconnaissance Battalion.
What is One-Point Resection?
It is a method of determining a place on the map from a single back-azimuth of a prominent land feature. It is not as accurate as a the two-point method.
Yes/No. Does a Marine Division include a Light Armored Reconnaissance Regiment?
No. A LAR Battalion not a regiment. A Marine Division consists of 3 Infantry Regiments, an Artillery Regiment, a Headquarters Battalion, A Tank Battalion, an Assault Amphibian Battalion, a Combat Engineer Battalion, and a Light Armored Reconnaissance Battalion.
What is the primary difference in determining your location on a map from location by inspection vs. Location by One-Pont/Two-Point Resection?
The Resection determines your point on a map by triangulation and the inspection determines your place by prominatory feature selection.
Does a Marine Division have an H&S Company, Battalion or Regiment?
An HQ Bn. A Marine Division consists of 3 Infantry Regiments, an Artillery Regiment, a Headquarters Battalion, A Tank Battalion, an Assault Amphibian Battalion, a Combat Engineer Battalion, and a Light Armored Reconnaissance Battalion.
What is the mission of the Marine Division?
it execute amphibious assault operations and such other operations as may be directed.
Yes/No. In a Marine Division there is an H&S Battalion. Does this Battalion include a truck company?
Yes. The Headquarters Battalion of the Marine Division includes an H&S Company, a Reconnaissance Company, The MP Company, the Communications Company, the Truck Company.
How many Infantry Regiments are in a Marine Division?
3
In a Marine Division which part of the headquarters Battalion provides control of enemy prisoners of war?
The MP Company provides route reconnaissance, evacuation and control of enemy prisoners of war (EPW), and beach and perimeter defense, area security, crowd control, and investigative services.
What parts of a Marine Division provide reconnaissance?
The Reconnaissance Company and the MP Company both provide reconnaissance to the Marine Division.
True/False. A Marine Division has both a Tank Battalion and an Assault Amphibian Battalion.
A Marine Division consists of 3 Infantry Regiments, an Artillery Regiment, a Headquarters Battalion, A Tank Battalion, an Assault Amphibian Battalion, a Combat Engineer Battalion, and a Light Armored Reconnaissance Battalion.
What is the purpose of the Truck Company in a Marine Division?
The truck company provides general support motor transport to the Marine Division.
Yes/No. Does a Marine Division include a Combat Engineer Regiment?
No. a Combat Engineer Battalion not Regiment. A Marine Division consists of 3 Infantry Regiments, an Artillery Regiment, a Headquarters Battalion, A Tank Battalion, an Assault Amphibian Battalion, a Combat Engineer Battalion, and a Light Armored Reconnaissance Battalion.
Yes/No. Does a Marine Division include a Light Armored Reconnaissance Regiment?
No. A LAR Battalion not a regiment. A Marine Division consists of 3 Infantry Regiments, an Artillery Regiment, a Headquarters Battalion, A Tank Battalion, an Assault Amphibian Battalion, a Combat Engineer Battalion, and a Light Armored Reconnaissance Battalion.
What is the primary mission of the HQ Battalion in a Marine Corps Division?
The primary mission is to execute amphibious assault operations and such other operations as may be directed. The Marine Division must be able to provide the ground amphibious forcible-entry capability to an amphibious task force (ATF) and conduct subsequent land operations in any operations environment. The division commander fights by using combined-arms tactics and tailors the force to the demands of each mission.
Does a Marine Division have an H&S Company, Battalion or Regiment?
An HQ Bn. A Marine Division consists of 3 Infantry Regiments, an Artillery Regiment, a Headquarters Battalion, A Tank Battalion, an Assault Amphibian Battalion, a Combat Engineer Battalion, and a Light Armored Reconnaissance Battalion.
Which is a larger organizational structure in the Marine Corps a Division or Regiment?
A Division.
Yes/No. In a Marine Division there is an H&S Battalion. Does this Battalion include a truck company?
Yes. The Headquarters Battalion of the Marine Division includes an H&S Company, a Reconnaissance Company, The MP Company, the Communications Company, the Truck Company.
What is the primary mission of the Marine Regiment?
The Mission of the Marine Regiment is to locate, close with, and destroy enemy by fire and maneuver or to repel his assault by fire and closed combat.
How many infantry battalions are normally found in a Marine Regiment?
At least two but normally three. The Marine Regiment normally consists of a headquarters company and two or more infantry battalions.
In a Marine Division which part of the headquarters Battalion provides control of enemy prisoners of war?
The MP Company provides route reconnaissance, evacuation and control of enemy prisoners of war (EPW), and beach and perimeter defense, area security, crowd control, and investigative services.
Does a Marine Regiment usually include an air assault Battalion?
No. The assault elements of a Marine Regiment include three infantry battalions. The primary means of transport are usually foot but they are air assault capable.
What parts of a Marine Division provide reconnaissance?
The Reconnaissance Company and the MP Company both provide reconnaissance to the Marine Division.
What is the purpose of the Truck Company in a Marine Division?
The truck company provides general support motor transport to the Marine Division.
Are medical elements for a Marine Regiment borrowed from their supporting Marine Battalions or does the regiment have an organic medical element?
They are organic. The regimental medical platoon provides preventative medicine, treatment for minor illnesses and injuries, and emergency lifesaving for battle and non-battle casualties. Injured and sick persons requiring hospitalization are readied and evacuated to the rear. Normally a Regimental Aid Station (RAS) serves as the hub for medical support.
Does a Marine Regiment have any reconnaissance assets?
Yes. The Marine Regiment's Headquarters Company contains a regimental headquarters and reconnaissance platoon.
What is the primary mission of the HQ Battalion in a Marine Corps Division?
The primary mission is to execute amphibious assault operations and such other operations as may be directed. The Marine Division must be able to provide the ground amphibious forcible-entry capability to an amphibious task force (ATF) and conduct subsequent land operations in any operations environment. The division commander fights by using combined-arms tactics and tailors the force to the demands of each mission.
Which is a larger organizational structure in the Marine Corps a Division or Regiment?
A Division.
Does a Marine Regimental Staff in an HQ Company have capabilities to support a forward, main and rear command echelons during displacment?
Yes.
Which is larger logical unit: a Marine Infantry Regiment or a Marine Infantry Battalion?
a Marine Regiment usually consists of two or more (usually three) infantry battalions.
What is the primary mission of the Marine Regiment?
The Mission of the Marine Regiment is to locate, close with, and destroy enemy by fire and maneuver or to repel his assault by fire and closed combat.
What is the primary mission of the Marine Infantry Battalion?
The mission is to locate, close with, and destroy the enemy by fire and maneuver or to repel his assault by fire and close combat.
How many infantry battalions are normally found in a Marine Regiment?
At least two but normally three. The Marine Regiment normally consists of a headquarters company and two or more infantry battalions.
Does a Marine Regiment usually include an air assault Battalion?
No. The assault elements of a Marine Regiment include three infantry battalions. The primary means of transport are usually foot but they are air assault capable.
Dopes this infantry battalion consist of three infantry regiments and a weapons company?
No Regiments are larger than a Battalion. The infantry regiment consists of an H&S Company, a Weapons Company, and three rifle companies. When a Battalion is combined with combat support and CSS units, it forms a battalion landing team (BLT.)
Are medical elements for a Marine Regiment borrowed from their supporting Marine Battalions or does the regiment have an organic medical element?
They are organic. The regimental medical platoon provides preventative medicine, treatment for minor illnesses and injuries, and emergency lifesaving for battle and non-battle casualties. Injured and sick persons requiring hospitalization are readied and evacuated to the rear. Normally a Regimental Aid Station (RAS) serves as the hub for medical support.
In a Marine Rifle Battalion, does the H&S Company have a communications platoon?
Yes. The H&S Company of a Marine Rifle Battalion has a company headquarters, , a BLT Headquarters, a Communications Platoon, A Service Platoon, A Medical Platoon (BAS), and a Chaplain Section. The Medical PLatoon consists of 2 Medical officers and 65 Corpsmen. The Chaplain Section consists of 1 Chaplain and 1 Religious Programming Specialist.
Does a Marine Regiment have any reconnaissance assets?
Yes. The Marine Regiment's Headquarters Company contains a regimental headquarters and reconnaissance platoon.
In a Marine Corps Infantry Battalion are there two Headquarters elements?
Yes. The H&S Company of a Marine Rifle Battalion has a company headquarters, , a BLT Headquarters, a Communications Platoon, A Service Platoon, A Medical Platoon (BAS), and a Chaplain Section. The Medical PLatoon consists of 2 Medical officers and 65 Corpsmen. The Chaplain Section consists of 1 Chaplain and 1 Religious Programming Specialist.
Does a Marine Regimental Staff in an HQ Company have capabilities to support a forward, main and rear command echelons during displacment?
Yes.
In a Marine Corps Infantry Battalion, does the medical platoon normally have 45 Corpsman as their TO?
No. The Medical PLatoon consists of 2 Medical officers and 65 Corpsmen. The Chaplain Section consists of 1 Chaplain and 1 Religious Programming Specialist.
Is a Marine Company or Marine Battalion a larger logistical element?
A Battalion is larger usually consisting of 3 rifle companies, an H&S Company and 1 Weapons Company.
Which is larger logical unit: a Marine Infantry Regiment or a Marine Infantry Battalion?
a Marine Regiment usually consists of two or more (usually three) infantry battalions.
What is the primary mission of the Marine Infantry Battalion?
The mission is to locate, close with, and destroy the enemy by fire and maneuver or to repel his assault by fire and close combat.
Describe the Elements of a Marine Weapons Company
The Marine Weapons Company has a company HQ, a Mortar Platoon, Anti-Armor Platoon and a heavy machine gun platoon.
Dopes this infantry battalion consist of three infantry regiments and a weapons company?
No Regiments are larger than a Battalion. The infantry regiment consists of an H&S Company, a Weapons Company, and three rifle companies. When a Battalion is combined with combat support and CSS units, it forms a battalion landing team (BLT.)
How many 81mm mortars are in the weapons company mortars section?
Eight.
In a Marine Rifle Battalion, does the H&S Company have a communications platoon?
Yes. The H&S Company of a Marine Rifle Battalion has a company headquarters, , a BLT Headquarters, a Communications Platoon, A Service Platoon, A Medical Platoon (BAS), and a Chaplain Section. The Medical PLatoon consists of 2 Medical officers and 65 Corpsmen. The Chaplain Section consists of 1 Chaplain and 1 Religious Programming Specialist.
Are there more 81mm mortars or M47 Dragons in a Marine Infantry Weapons Company?
There are more. 12 M47 Dragons vs. 8 81mm Mortars.
In a Marine Weapons Company, are there more Tube-Launched, Optically-tracked, Wire-guided Missiles (TOW) or 81mm Mortars?
Neither. There are 8 of each in a Marine Corps Weapons Company.
In a Marine Corps Infantry Battalion are there two Headquarters elements?
Yes. The H&S Company of a Marine Rifle Battalion has a company headquarters, , a BLT Headquarters, a Communications Platoon, A Service Platoon, A Medical Platoon (BAS), and a Chaplain Section. The Medical PLatoon consists of 2 Medical officers and 65 Corpsmen. The Chaplain Section consists of 1 Chaplain and 1 Religious Programming Specialist.
In a Marine Corps Infantry Battalion, does the medical platoon normally have 45 Corpsman as their TO?
No. The Medical PLatoon consists of 2 Medical officers and 65 Corpsmen. The Chaplain Section consists of 1 Chaplain and 1 Religious Programming Specialist.
How many .50 caliber Machine gunners are there in a Marine Infantry Company?
None. There are 6 .50 Cal. Machine gunners in a Marine Weapons Company.
Are there more Mk19 40mm Machine guns or .50 caliber machine guns in a Marine Corps Weapons company?
There are (6) MK19 gunners and (6) .50 Cal gunners.
Is a Marine Company or Marine Battalion a larger logistical element?
A Battalion is larger usually consisting of 3 rifle companies, an H&S Company and 1 Weapons Company.
Describe the Elements of a Marine Weapons Company
The Marine Weapons Company has a company HQ, a Mortar Platoon, Anti-Armor Platoon and a heavy machine gun platoon.
What are the logical parts of a Marine Rifle Company?
A Marine Corps Rifle Company consists of a company headquarters, a weapons platoon and 3 rifle platoons. The Weapons Platoon consists of a mortar section, an assault section and a machine gun section. Each Rifle Platoon consists of 3 squads composed of 3 four-man fire teams.
How many 81mm mortars are in the weapons company mortars section?
Eight.
What do the individual members of the Marine Corps Rifle team carry?
Squad leaders carries the M203 and their M16A2. The Squad Automatic Rifleman carries the M249 SAW while the other riflemen in the fire-team carry M16A2.
Are there more 81mm mortars or M47 Dragons in a Marine Infantry Weapons Company?
There are more. 12 M47 Dragons vs. 8 81mm Mortars.
Does the weapons platoon section a Marine Rifle Company fire the same automatic weapons as the squad automatic rifleman in the Marine Fire Team?
No. The M240G section fires machine guns and the M249 squad automatic weapon is used by the Marine Automatic Rifleman.
In a Marine Weapons Company, are there more Tube-Launched, Optically-tracked, Wire-guided Missiles (TOW) or 81mm Mortars?
Neither. There are 8 of each in a Marine Corps Weapons Company.
Do the mortal elements in a Marine Corps Rifle Company Weapons Platoon fire the same kinds of Mortars as the Weapons company Mortars Platoon?
No. The weapons element in the company fires the M224 60-mm mortar while the mortar element of the weapons company fires the 80mm mortars.
How many .50 caliber Machine gunners are there in a Marine Infantry Company?
None. There are 6 .50 Cal. Machine gunners in a Marine Weapons Company.
How many Mk-153 Shoulder-launched multipurpose assault weapons (SMAWs) does the typical Marine Corps Infantry Company have?
The assault section has six MK153 83-mm shoulder launched multipurpose assault weapons.
Are there more Mk19 40mm Machine guns or .50 caliber machine guns in a Marine Corps Weapons company?
There are (6) MK19 gunners and (6) .50 Cal gunners.
What is the SMAW?
The Shoulder-Launched Multipurpose Assault Weapon (SMAW) is a shoulder-launched rocket weapon, based on the Israeli B-300, with the primary function of being a portable assault weapon (e.g. bunker buster) and a secondary anti-armor rocket launcher. It was introduced to the United States armed forces in 1984. It has a maximum range of 500 metres (550 yd) against a tank-sized target.
What is the mission of the Marine Corps rifle squad?
To locate, close with, and destroy the enemy by fire and maneuver, or repel the enemy's assault by fire and close combat
What are the logical parts of a Marine Rifle Company?
A Marine Corps Rifle Company consists of a company headquarters, a weapons platoon and 3 rifle platoons. The Weapons Platoon consists of a mortar section, an assault section and a machine gun section. Each Rifle Platoon consists of 3 squads composed of 3 four-man fire teams.
What do the individual members of the Marine Corps Rifle team carry?
Squad leaders carries the M203 and their M16A2. The Squad Automatic Rifleman carries the M249 SAW while the other riflemen in the fire-team carry M16A2.
How many rifle fire teams are in a Marine Corps Rifle Squad?
Three.
Does the weapons platoon section a Marine Rifle Company fire the same automatic weapons as the squad automatic rifleman in the Marine Fire Team?
No. The M240G section fires machine guns and the M249 squad automatic weapon is used by the Marine Automatic Rifleman.
What are the duties of the squad leader?
The squad leader carries out the orders issued to him by the platoon commander. He is responsible for the discipline, appearance, training, control , conduct, and welfare of his squat at all times, as well as the condition, care and economical use of its weapons and equipment. In combat, he is responsible for the tactical employment, fire discipline, fire control, and maneuver of his squad. He takes position where he can best carry out his orders of the platoon commander and observe and control the squad.
Do the mortal elements in a Marine Corps Rifle Company Weapons Platoon fire the same kinds of Mortars as the Weapons company Mortars Platoon?
No. The weapons element in the company fires the M224 60-mm mortar while the mortar element of the weapons company fires the 80mm mortars.
What are the responsibilities of the Fire Team Leader?
He carries out the orders of the squad leader. Responsible for fire discipline and control of his fire team, economical use of weapons and equipment. Also functions as a grenadier.
Yes/No. Does the fire team leader function as the grenadier?
Yes. He carries the M203 Grenade launcher mounted on his M16A2.
How many Mk-153 Shoulder-launched multipurpose assault weapons (SMAWs) does the typical Marine Corps Infantry Company have?
The assault section has six MK153 83-mm shoulder launched multipurpose assault weapons.
What is the SMAW?
The Shoulder-Launched Multipurpose Assault Weapon (SMAW) is a shoulder-launched rocket weapon, based on the Israeli B-300, with the primary function of being a portable assault weapon (e.g. bunker buster) and a secondary anti-armor rocket launcher. It was introduced to the United States armed forces in 1984. It has a maximum range of 500 metres (550 yd) against a tank-sized target.
What are the responsibilities of the Automatic Rifleman?
He carries out the orders of the fire team leader. He is responsible for the effective employment of the autmoatic rifle and for the condition and care of his weapon or equipment.
How does the assistant automatic rifleman support the automatic rifleman?
He carries additional magazines and/or ammunition boxes for the automatic rifle.
What is the mission of the Marine Corps rifle squad?
To locate, close with, and destroy the enemy by fire and maneuver, or repel the enemy's assault by fire and close combat
What are the responsibilities of the Fire Team Rifleman?
He carries out the orders of the team leader. He is responsible for the effective employment of his rifle and for the condition and care of his weapon and equipment. The rifleman is trained as a scout.
How many rifle fire teams are in a Marine Corps Rifle Squad?
Three.
How many fireing positions are there?
Three.
What are the duties of the squad leader?
The squad leader carries out the orders issued to him by the platoon commander. He is responsible for the discipline, appearance, training, control , conduct, and welfare of his squat at all times, as well as the condition, care and economical use of its weapons and equipment. In combat, he is responsible for the tactical employment, fire discipline, fire control, and maneuver of his squad. He takes position where he can best carry out his orders of the platoon commander and observe and control the squad.
What are the responsibilities of the Fire Team Leader?
He carries out the orders of the squad leader. Responsible for fire discipline and control of his fire team, economical use of weapons and equipment. Also functions as a grenadier.
Which of the following are fighting positions?
Primary, Alternate, Supplementary
Yes/No. Does the fire team leader function as the grenadier?
Yes. He carries the M203 Grenade launcher mounted on his M16A2.
Regarding the (3) three what is the difference between the Primary and Alternate Fighting Position?
The alternate fighting position is used when the primary is unusable.
What are the responsibilities of the Automatic Rifleman?
He carries out the orders of the fire team leader. He is responsible for the effective employment of the autmoatic rifle and for the condition and care of his weapon or equipment.
Regarding the (3) fighting positions what is the difference between the primary fighting position and the supplementary fighting position?
The supplementary position is usually prepared to guard against attack from directions other than those from which the main attack is expected while the primary position is the best available position for the main attack.
How does the assistant automatic rifleman support the automatic rifleman?
He carries additional magazines and/or ammunition boxes for the automatic rifle.
Regarding the three fighting positions what is the primary difference between the Alternate Fighting Position and the Supplementary Fighting Position?
The Alternate allows the main attack to continue from an different vantage point while the Supplementary are prepared to guard against attack from a direction different than the main attack.
What are the responsibilities of the Fire Team Rifleman?
He carries out the orders of the team leader. He is responsible for the effective employment of his rifle and for the condition and care of his weapon and equipment. The rifleman is trained as a scout.
Yes/No. Is the Alternate fighting position one of the three fighting positions?
Yes. The alternate fighting position are not normally assigned to individuals or units with in a platoon. They are used primarily by crew-serve weapons. An alternate fighting position is located so that a crew-served weapon can continue to accomplish its original mission when the primary position becomes untenable or unsuited for carrying out the mission.
How many fireing positions are there?
Three.
Yes/No. Regarding the Three Fighting Positions is the Main Position one of them?
No. The three fighting positions are primary, alternate and supplementary
Which of the following are fighting positions?
Primary, Alternate, Supplementary
True/False. Regarding guidelines on firing positions, can excessive clearing result in revealing the squads firing position.
True. Do NOT disclose the squad's fighting position, by excessive or careless clearing.
When preparing a fighting position should the riflemen start close to the position of fire or away and work their way back?
Start close.
Regarding the (3) three what is the difference between the Primary and Alternate Fighting Position?
The alternate fighting position is used when the primary is unusable.
Regarding the preparation of a firing position, what should the firing team use to conceal the position?
natural foliage from the surrounding area.
Regarding the (3) fighting positions what is the difference between the primary fighting position and the supplementary fighting position?
The supplementary position is usually prepared to guard against attack from directions other than those from which the main attack is expected while the primary position is the best available position for the main attack.
Regarding the three fighting positions what is the primary difference between the Alternate Fighting Position and the Supplementary Fighting Position?
The Alternate allows the main attack to continue from an different vantage point while the Supplementary are prepared to guard against attack from a direction different than the main attack.
In preparing a firing position, what considerations should be different for heavily wooded or sparsely wooded areas?
In sparsely wooded areas, removed the lower branches of scattered large trees or entire trees while in heavily wooded areas focus more on a narrow field of fire for automatic weapons and clear undergrowth.
True/False. If practical demolish buildings and walls forward of the fighting position which may obstruct fields of fire or provide cover and concealment to the enemy.
True.
Yes/No. Is the Alternate fighting position one of the three fighting positions?
Yes. The alternate fighting position are not normally assigned to individuals or units with in a platoon. They are used primarily by crew-serve weapons. An alternate fighting position is located so that a crew-served weapon can continue to accomplish its original mission when the primary position becomes untenable or unsuited for carrying out the mission.
Yes/No. Regarding the Three Fighting Positions is the Main Position one of them?
No. The three fighting positions are primary, alternate and supplementary
What should you remember to consider when removing brush and undergrowth from the field of fire when preparing firing positions?
Remember not to place it in a position that can provide cover and concealment to the enemy.
True/False. Regarding guidelines on firing positions, can excessive clearing result in revealing the squads firing position.
True. Do NOT disclose the squad's fighting position, by excessive or careless clearing.
Because the fire team leader is also a grenadier what considerations must be taken in the preparation of a field of fire and firing position?
Extreme care must be taken by the fire team leader to insure that fields of fire are cleared of obstructions which might cause premature detonation of M203 Projectiles.
When preparing a fighting position should the riflemen start close to the position of fire or away and work their way back?
Start close.
What is a FPF?
Final Protective Fires are the final attempt to stop the enemy attack before he reaches the platoon's battle position. When final protective fires are called for, all squad members fire in their assigned sectors. Rifles and M203's continue to fire at normal rates and machine guns will increase their volume of fire to the rapid rate. The M203 is employed toward the largest concentration of the enemy.
Regarding the preparation of a firing position, what should the firing team use to conceal the position?
natural foliage from the surrounding area.
What is a check point?
A predetermined point on the ground used as a means of controlling movement. These are usually predetermined points for a patrol where the leader of the patrol to coordinate with the parent unit to monitor progress and movement.
In preparing a firing position, what considerations should be different for heavily wooded or sparsely wooded areas?
In sparsely wooded areas, removed the lower branches of scattered large trees or entire trees while in heavily wooded areas focus more on a narrow field of fire for automatic weapons and clear undergrowth.
What is the difference between a check point and a rally point?
A check point is a predetermined point on the ground that is used as a means of controlling movement and communicating progress with the parent activity or command while a rally point is a point on the ground where a patrol can reorganize if it becomes dispersed.
True/False. If practical demolish buildings and walls forward of the fighting position which may obstruct fields of fire or provide cover and concealment to the enemy.
True.
How many kinds of rally points are there?
Three. An initial, En Route, and Objective.
What should you remember to consider when removing brush and undergrowth from the field of fire when preparing firing positions?
Remember not to place it in a position that can provide cover and concealment to the enemy.
What is the difference between the initial and en route rally point?
The initial rally point is with in friendly area and the en route rally points are for when the unit is going to and from the objective. These rally points allow the unit to reassemble in the even that the unit becomes dispersed or requires reorganization.
What is the difference between the Initial Rally Point and the Objective Rally Point?
The objective rally point is nearest the objective and is the spot where the unit reassembles after the mission is accomplished while the Initial rally point is in friendly lines usually before departing or upon returning of the patrol.
Because the fire team leader is also a grenadier what considerations must be taken in the preparation of a field of fire and firing position?
Extreme care must be taken by the fire team leader to insure that fields of fire are cleared of obstructions which might cause premature detonation of M203 Projectiles.
What is a FPF?
Final Protective Fires are the final attempt to stop the enemy attack before he reaches the platoon's battle position. When final protective fires are called for, all squad members fire in their assigned sectors. Rifles and M203's continue to fire at normal rates and machine guns will increase their volume of fire to the rapid rate. The M203 is employed toward the largest concentration of the enemy.
If Marines are caught in the kill zone of a close or near ambush what is the protocol for reacting to an ambush?
Marines in the killing zone should immediately assault the enemies positions with out waiting for any order or signal. The assault should be swift, violent and destructive and done with out order.
What is a check point?
A predetermined point on the ground used as a means of controlling movement. These are usually predetermined points for a patrol where the leader of the patrol to coordinate with the parent unit to monitor progress and movement.
In a far ambush what should Marines reacting to the ambush do?
Far ambush precludes those being assaulted from conducting a counter-assault. Take the best available cover and continue firing unless directed otherwise. Marines not in the killing zone maneuver against the ambush force as directed. The patrol leader will assess and determine if contact should be broken or a counter-assault conducted.
How many types of patrols are conducted by the United States Marine Corps Infantry?
Five. Raid. Contact. Economy of Force. Ambush. Security.
What is the difference between a check point and a rally point?
A check point is a predetermined point on the ground that is used as a means of controlling movement and communicating progress with the parent activity or command while a rally point is a point on the ground where a patrol can reorganize if it becomes dispersed.
How many kinds of rally points are there?
Three. An initial, En Route, and Objective.
What kind of ambush destroys or captures enemy personnel or equipment?
A Raid Patrol destroys or captures enemy personnel or equipment, destroys installations or frees friendly personnel who have been captured by the enemy.
What is the difference between the initial and en route rally point?
The initial rally point is with in friendly area and the en route rally points are for when the unit is going to and from the objective. These rally points allow the unit to reassemble in the even that the unit becomes dispersed or requires reorganization.
What kind of raid establishes and/or maintains contact with friendly or enemy forces?
A Contact Patrol establishes and/or maintains contact with friendly or enemy forces.
What is the difference between the Initial Rally Point and the Objective Rally Point?
The objective rally point is nearest the objective and is the spot where the unit reassembles after the mission is accomplished while the Initial rally point is in friendly lines usually before departing or upon returning of the patrol.
What kind of raid performs a limited objective mission such as seizing and holding key terrain to allow maximum forces to be used elsewhere?
Economy of Force Patrols perform limited objective missions such as seizing and holding key terrain to allow maximum forces to be used elsewhere.
What kind of ambush conducts assaults on enemy patrols, carrying parties, foot columns and convoys?
Ambush patrols conduct ambushes of enemy patrols, carrying parties, foot columns and convoys.
If Marines are caught in the kill zone of a close or near ambush what is the protocol for reacting to an ambush?
Marines in the killing zone should immediately assault the enemies positions with out waiting for any order or signal. The assault should be swift, violent and destructive and done with out order.
In a far ambush what should Marines reacting to the ambush do?
Far ambush precludes those being assaulted from conducting a counter-assault. Take the best available cover and continue firing unless directed otherwise. Marines not in the killing zone maneuver against the ambush force as directed. The patrol leader will assess and determine if contact should be broken or a counter-assault conducted.
What kind of patrol detects infiltration by the enemy, kills or captures infiltrators and protects against surprise or ambush?
Security Patrols detect infiltration by the enemy, kill or capture infiltrators, and protect against surprise or ambush.
What kind of rally point is a point with in the friendly area where the patrol can reassemble if it becomes dispersed before departing the friendly area or before reaching the first rally point designated en route?
The initial rally point
How many types of patrols are conducted by the United States Marine Corps Infantry?
Five. Raid. Contact. Economy of Force. Ambush. Security.
Which rally points are selected along the patrol's route to the objective an from the objective back to friendly lines/area?
En Route
What kind of ambush destroys or captures enemy personnel or equipment?
A Raid Patrol destroys or captures enemy personnel or equipment, destroys installations or frees friendly personnel who have been captured by the enemy.
What kind of rally point is nearest the objective at which the patrol reassembles after the mission is accomplished?
The Objective Rally Point
What kind of raid establishes and/or maintains contact with friendly or enemy forces?
A Contact Patrol establishes and/or maintains contact with friendly or enemy forces.
What kind of raid performs a limited objective mission such as seizing and holding key terrain to allow maximum forces to be used elsewhere?
Economy of Force Patrols perform limited objective missions such as seizing and holding key terrain to allow maximum forces to be used elsewhere.
Which member of the rifle squad is responsible for deploying the M203 Grenade Launcher?
Fire Team leaders are also the Grenadier. This marine is responsible for the effective employment of the grenade launcher.
Which member of the Marine Corps Fire Team is responsible for the effective employment of the automatic rifle?
The Automatic Rifleman is responsible for the effective employment of the automatic rifle and for the condition and care of that weapon and equipment.
What kind of ambush conducts assaults on enemy patrols, carrying parties, foot columns and convoys?
Ambush patrols conduct ambushes of enemy patrols, carrying parties, foot columns and convoys.
What kind of patrol detects infiltration by the enemy, kills or captures infiltrators and protects against surprise or ambush?
Security Patrols detect infiltration by the enemy, kill or capture infiltrators, and protect against surprise or ambush.
Which member of the Marine Corps fire-team carries additional rounds of ammunition and magazines while being responsible for the effective employment of the automatic rifle?
The assistant automatic rifleman assists in the employment of the automatic rifle. He carries additional magazines and/or ammunition boxes for his automatic rifle and is prepared to assume the duties of the automatic rifleman.
What kind of rally point is a point with in the friendly area where the patrol can reassemble if it becomes dispersed before departing the friendly area or before reaching the first rally point designated en route?
The initial rally point
Which of the following members of the Marine Corps Rifle Squad are responsible for the employment of their rifle and is also trained as a scout?
The Marine Corps Rifleman carries out the orders of the fire team leader. They are responsible for the effective employment of their rifle and for the condition and care of their weapon and equipment. They are trained as a scout.
Which rally points are selected along the patrol's route to the objective an from the objective back to friendly lines/area?
En Route
Which of the following fighting position is the best available position from which the assigned sector of fire can be covered?
The Primary Fighting Position is the best available position from which the assigned sector of fire can be covered. Individuals, fire teams, squads and crew-served weapons are assigned primary fighting positions.
What kind of rally point is nearest the objective at which the patrol reassembles after the mission is accomplished?
The Objective Rally Point
Which of the following Fighting Positions are not normally assigned to individuals or units with in the position and are usually served by crew-served weapons?
Alternate Fighting Positions are not normally assigned to individuals or units with in a platoon. They are used primarily by crew-served weapons. An alternate fighting position is located so that a crew-served weapon can continue to accomplish its original mission when the primary position becomes untenable or unsuited for carrying out that mission.
Which member of the rifle squad is responsible for deploying the M203 Grenade Launcher?
Fire Team leaders are also the Grenadier. This marine is responsible for the effective employment of the grenade launcher.
Which part of the Headquarters of a Marine Division provides command, administrative, and security functions as well as organic supply for the headquarters battalion?
The H&S Company of a Marine Division provides command, administrative, and security functions as well as organic supply for the headquarters battalion.
Which member of the Marine Corps Fire Team is responsible for the effective employment of the automatic rifle?
The Automatic Rifleman is responsible for the effective employment of the automatic rifle and for the condition and care of that weapon and equipment.
Which of the following elements of a Marine Division provide ground reconnaissance and surveillance in support of the division or its subordinate elements?
The Reconnaissance Company provide ground reconnaissance and surveillance in support of the division or its subordinate elements.
Which member of the Marine Corps fire-team carries additional rounds of ammunition and magazines while being responsible for the effective employment of the automatic rifle?
The assistant automatic rifleman assists in the employment of the automatic rifle. He carries additional magazines and/or ammunition boxes for his automatic rifle and is prepared to assume the duties of the automatic rifleman.
Which of the following elements of a Headquarters Battalion of a Marine Division provides route reconnaissance, evacuation and control of enemy prisoners of war (EPW), beach and perimeter defense, area security, crowd control, and investigative services?
The MP Company provides route reconnaissance, evacuation and control of enemy prisoners of war (EPW), beach and perimeter defense, area security, crowd control, and investigative services.
Which of the following members of the Marine Corps Rifle Squad are responsible for the employment of their rifle and is also trained as a scout?
The Marine Corps Rifleman carries out the orders of the fire team leader. They are responsible for the effective employment of their rifle and for the condition and care of their weapon and equipment. They are trained as a scout.
Which of the following elements of an H&S Battalion of a Marine Corps Division installs, operates, and maintains communications facilities for the division headquarters, including multi-channel radio, wire and communications center facilities?
The communications company installs, operates, and maintains communications facilities for the division headquarters, including multi-channel radio, wire and communications center facilities?
Which of the following fighting position is the best available position from which the assigned sector of fire can be covered?
The Primary Fighting Position is the best available position from which the assigned sector of fire can be covered. Individuals, fire teams, squads and crew-served weapons are assigned primary fighting positions.
Which of the following elements of an Headquarters Battalion of a Marine Division provides general support and motor transport to the Marine Division?
The Truck Company provides general support and motor transport to the Marine Division.
What Marine Corps unit is supported by the Marine Corps Artillery Regiment?
Marine Division
Which of the following Fighting Positions are not normally assigned to individuals or units with in the position and are usually served by crew-served weapons?
Alternate Fighting Positions are not normally assigned to individuals or units with in a platoon. They are used primarily by crew-served weapons. An alternate fighting position is located so that a crew-served weapon can continue to accomplish its original mission when the primary position becomes untenable or unsuited for carrying out that mission.
How many M198 155mm Howitzers are employed by a typical Marine Corps Artillery Battalion?
An artillery battalion consists of a headquarters battery and firing batteries. They have 3 to 4 firing batteries of six M198 155mm howitzers.
Which part of the Headquarters of a Marine Division provides command, administrative, and security functions as well as organic supply for the headquarters battalion?
The H&S Company of a Marine Division provides command, administrative, and security functions as well as organic supply for the headquarters battalion.
How many artillery battalions are in the 10th and 11th Marine regiments?
There are four in each.
Which of the following elements of a Marine Division provide ground reconnaissance and surveillance in support of the division or its subordinate elements?
The Reconnaissance Company provide ground reconnaissance and surveillance in support of the division or its subordinate elements.
Which of the following elements of a Headquarters Battalion of a Marine Division provides route reconnaissance, evacuation and control of enemy prisoners of war (EPW), beach and perimeter defense, area security, crowd control, and investigative services?
The MP Company provides route reconnaissance, evacuation and control of enemy prisoners of war (EPW), beach and perimeter defense, area security, crowd control, and investigative services.
How are artillery battalions moved from point A to point B?
The are mobilized by vehicles.
Are Corpsmen assigned to Artillery Battalions?
Yes
Which of the following elements of an H&S Battalion of a Marine Corps Division installs, operates, and maintains communications facilities for the division headquarters, including multi-channel radio, wire and communications center facilities?
The communications company installs, operates, and maintains communications facilities for the division headquarters, including multi-channel radio, wire and communications center facilities?
Which of the following elements of an Headquarters Battalion of a Marine Division provides general support and motor transport to the Marine Division?
The Truck Company provides general support and motor transport to the Marine Division.
Yes/No. Are artillery battalions required to engage multiple targets?
Yes.
What Marine Corps unit is supported by the Marine Corps Artillery Regiment?
Marine Division
How many Marines man an individual M198 Howitzer?
9 Enlisted.
What is the maximum rate of fire for the M198 155mm Howitzer?
Maximum 4 rounds per minute
How many M198 155mm Howitzers are employed by a typical Marine Corps Artillery Battalion?
An artillery battalion consists of a headquarters battery and firing batteries. They have 3 to 4 firing batteries of six M198 155mm howitzers.
What is the sustained rate of fire for the M198 155mm Howitzer?
2 rounds per minute
How many artillery battalions are in the 10th and 11th Marine regiments?
There are four in each.
How are artillery battalions moved from point A to point B?
The are mobilized by vehicles.
Yes/No. Can the M198 155mm Howitzer fire more than 10 miles?
Yes. Using conventional ammunition it can fire 13.9 miles and using rocket assisted projectiles it can hit targets 18.6 miles away.
Are Corpsmen assigned to Artillery Battalions?
Yes
Yes/No. Can the M198 155mm Howitzer hit targets at a distance greater than 15 miles?
Yes but using rocket assisted rounds. Using conventional ammunition it can fire 13.9 miles and using rocket assisted projectiles it can hit targets 18.6 miles away.
How many artillery battalions are in the 12 Marine Regiment?
Two. There are four artillery battalions in the 10th and 11th Marine Regiments and there are two artillery regiments in the 12 Marine Regiment.
Yes/No. Are artillery battalions required to engage multiple targets?
Yes.
How many Marines man an individual M198 Howitzer?
9 Enlisted.
True/False. Can there be a qty. of 24 M198 155mm Howitzers in a Marine Artillery Battalion?
True. There are three or four firing batteries of six M198 155mm Howitzers in a Marine Artillery Battalion.
Yes/No. Besides a 7-ton truck, can a CH-53E helicopter transport a M198 Howitzer from point A to point B?
Yes.
What is the maximum rate of fire for the M198 155mm Howitzer?
Maximum 4 rounds per minute
What is the sustained rate of fire for the M198 155mm Howitzer?
2 rounds per minute
Yes/No. Can a M198 155mm Howitzer fit in the cargo area of a C-130 fixed wing air-craft for transportation?
Yes.
Yes/No. Can the M198 155mm Howitzer fire more than 10 miles?
Yes. Using conventional ammunition it can fire 13.9 miles and using rocket assisted projectiles it can hit targets 18.6 miles away.
Can the M198 155mm howitzer hit targets at 20 miles?
No. Using conventional ammunition it can fire 13.9 miles and using rocket assisted projectiles it can hit targets 18.6 miles away.
Yes/No. Can the M198 155mm Howitzer hit targets at a distance greater than 15 miles?
Yes but using rocket assisted rounds. Using conventional ammunition it can fire 13.9 miles and using rocket assisted projectiles it can hit targets 18.6 miles away.
Yes/No. Does the M198 provide fire support missions for a Marine Air Ground Task Force?
Yes.
What is the mission of a tank battalion?
The mission of the tank battalion is to close with and destroy the enemy by using armor-protected firepower, shock effect, and maneuver and to provide anti-mechanized fire in support of the Marine division.
How many artillery battalions are in the 12 Marine Regiment?
Two. There are four artillery battalions in the 10th and 11th Marine Regiments and there are two artillery regiments in the 12 Marine Regiment.
Yes/No. Does a tank battalion have an anti-tank element?
Yes. A platoon sized anti-tank element that supports a Marine Division.
True/False. Can there be a qty. of 24 M198 155mm Howitzers in a Marine Artillery Battalion?
True. There are three or four firing batteries of six M198 155mm Howitzers in a Marine Artillery Battalion.
Does a Tank Battalion in support of the Marine Division have an H&S Platoon or Company?
an H&S Company
Yes/No. Besides a 7-ton truck, can a CH-53E helicopter transport a M198 Howitzer from point A to point B?
Yes.
Yes/No. Are there more than 50 tanks in a Marine Corps Tank Battalion in support of a Marine Division?
Yes. There are 58 M1A1 tanks, 26 TOW weapons systems, and 5 M88A1 tank recovery vehicles.
Yes/No. Can a M198 155mm Howitzer fit in the cargo area of a C-130 fixed wing air-craft for transportation?
Yes.
Are there more than 30 TOW anti-tank missile systems in a typical tank battalion in support of a Marine Corps Division?
No. There are 58 M1A1 tanks, 26 TOW weapons systems, and 5 M88A1 tank recovery vehicles.
Can the M198 155mm howitzer hit targets at 20 miles?
No. Using conventional ammunition it can fire 13.9 miles and using rocket assisted projectiles it can hit targets 18.6 miles away.
Yes/No. Does the M198 provide fire support missions for a Marine Air Ground Task Force?
Yes.
Does a Marine Corps Tank Battalion have more than 3 M88A1 tank recovery vehicles?
Yes. There are 58 M1A1 tanks, 26 TOW weapons systems, and 5 M88A1 tank recovery vehicles.
What is the mission of a tank battalion?
The mission of the tank battalion is to close with and destroy the enemy by using armor-protected firepower, shock effect, and maneuver and to provide anti-mechanized fire in support of the Marine division.
What kind of tank does the Marine Corps use?
The M1A1
Can an M1A1 tank travel faster than 50 MPH?
No. Their maximum speed is 42 miles per hours and can go across country at 30 miles an hour
Yes/No. Does a tank battalion have an anti-tank element?
Yes. A platoon sized anti-tank element that supports a Marine Division.
Does a Tank Battalion in support of the Marine Division have an H&S Platoon or Company?
an H&S Company
How many crew members are in an M1A1 tank?
Four.
Yes/No. Are there more than 50 tanks in a Marine Corps Tank Battalion in support of a Marine Division?
Yes. There are 58 M1A1 tanks, 26 TOW weapons systems, and 5 M88A1 tank recovery vehicles.
Is the cruising range of a M1A1 tank greater than 300 miles?
No. The M1A1 can travel 289 miles with out the NBC system and M1A1 279 miles.
Are there more than 30 TOW anti-tank missile systems in a typical tank battalion in support of a Marine Corps Division?
No. There are 58 M1A1 tanks, 26 TOW weapons systems, and 5 M88A1 tank recovery vehicles.
What are the two types of rounds the M1A1 can fire?
Kinetic Energy (Sabot) and Chemical Energy (Heat) rounds.
Does a Marine Corps Tank Battalion have more than 3 M88A1 tank recovery vehicles?
Yes. There are 58 M1A1 tanks, 26 TOW weapons systems, and 5 M88A1 tank recovery vehicles.
What is the main weapon of the M1A1 tank in the Marine Corps?
The 120mm M256 Gun
What kind of tank does the Marine Corps use?
The M1A1
Yes/No. Does an M1A1 have a .50 caliber M2 machine gun as a secondary weapons
Yes. The M1A1 has both a .50 caliber M2 machine gun and 7.62 mm M240 machine guns.
Can an M1A1 tank travel faster than 50 MPH?
No. Their maximum speed is 42 miles per hours and can go across country at 30 miles an hour
Yes/No. Does the M1A1 main battle tank use a M240 machine gun as a secondary weapon system?
Yes. The M1A1 has both a .50 caliber M2 machine gun and 7.62 mm M240 machine guns.
Yes/No. Is the M1A1 abrams compatible with Amphibious ships and landing craft?
Yes.
How many crew members are in an M1A1 tank?
Four.
Is the cruising range of a M1A1 tank greater than 300 miles?
No. The M1A1 can travel 289 miles with out the NBC system and M1A1 279 miles.
What is the mission of the TOW Weapons System?
The TOW missile system's mission is to engage and destroy enemy armored vehicles, primary tanks.
What are the two types of rounds the M1A1 can fire?
Kinetic Energy (Sabot) and Chemical Energy (Heat) rounds.
When was the TOW Weapon system initially fielded?
1970
What is the main weapon of the M1A1 tank in the Marine Corps?
The 120mm M256 Gun
What is the purpose of the TOW weapons system?
The TOW missile weapons system is designed to attack and defeat tanks and other armored vehicles.
Yes/No. Does an M1A1 have a .50 caliber M2 machine gun as a secondary weapons
Yes. The M1A1 has both a .50 caliber M2 machine gun and 7.62 mm M240 machine guns.
What is the role of the M88A1E1 Herculese Vehicle?
The M88 supports the Tank Battalion in a Marine Division is a recovery vehicle for main battle tanks. The Hercules can be transported by highway, rail, marine, and air.
What is the M60A1 AVLB?
It is a engineering vehicle that can deploy a 60-foot scissors-type bridge.
Yes/No. Does the M1A1 main battle tank use a M240 machine gun as a secondary weapon system?
Yes. The M1A1 has both a .50 caliber M2 machine gun and 7.62 mm M240 machine guns.
Yes/No. Is the M1A1 abrams compatible with Amphibious ships and landing craft?
Yes.
<p>How many sections does the ALVB (Armored Vehicle Launched Bridge) consists of?
<p>Three: The launcher, the hull, and the bridge.</p>
What is the mission of the TOW Weapons System?
The TOW missile system's mission is to engage and destroy enemy armored vehicles, primary tanks.
What is the width of the M60A1 AVLB Armored Vehicle Launched Bridge?
12 feet 6 inches
When was the TOW Weapon system initially fielded?
1970
How quickly can a M60A1 AVLB Armored-Vehicle Launched Bridge be deployed?
Bridge emplacement cane be accomplished in 2 to 5 minutes and retrieval can be accomplished in 10 minutes.
What is the purpose of the TOW weapons system?
The TOW missile weapons system is designed to attack and defeat tanks and other armored vehicles.
What is size of the main gun on the M1A1 Main Battle Tank for the US Marine Corps?
The Rheinmetall 120 mm gun is a smoothbore tank gun designed and produced by the West German Rheinmetall-DeTec AG company, developed in response to Soviet advances in armor technology and development of new armored threats. Production began in 1974, with the first version of the gun, known as the L/44 as it was 44 calibers long, used on the German Leopard 2 tank and soon produced under license for the American M1A1 Abrams and other tanks. The American version, the M256, uses a coil spring recoil system instead of a hydraulic system. The gun has also been exported to South Korea and Japan for their indigenous tank designs, as well as other nations that have procured the Leopard 2 and the M1 Abrams. Rheinmetall's 120-millimeter (4.7 in) L/44 tank gun has a length of 5.28 meters (17.3 ft), and the gun system weighs approximately 3,317 kilograms (7,310 lb).
What is the role of the M88A1E1 Herculese Vehicle?
The M88 supports the Tank Battalion in a Marine Division is a recovery vehicle for main battle tanks. The Hercules can be transported by highway, rail, marine, and air.
What is the M829 round?
The M829 is an American first-generation Armor-Piercing, Fin-Stabilized, Discarding Sabot (APFSDS) tank round designed specifically for the 120 mm M256 main gun on the M1A1, M1A2. and M1A2 SEP Abrams main battle tanks.
What is the M60A1 AVLB?
It is a engineering vehicle that can deploy a 60-foot scissors-type bridge.
The T.O.W. in TOW Anti-tank missile system stands for what?
TOW is an acronym that stands for "Tube-launched, Optically-tracked, Wire command data link, guided missile"
<p>How many sections does the ALVB (Armored Vehicle Launched Bridge) consists of?
<p>Three: The launcher, the hull, and the bridge.</p>
Yes/No. Is the TOW anti-tank missile a fire and forget weapon?
No. The TOW missile in its current variations is not a fire-and-forget weapon, and like most second generation wire-guided missiles has Semi-Automatic Command Line of Sight guidance. This means that the guidance system is directly linked to the platform, and requires that the target be kept in the shooter's line of sight until the missile impacts.
What is the maximum time to target range of the TOW Missile?
Time to target at maximum range is 20 seconds therefore giving an average speed of 187.5 m/s.
What is the width of the M60A1 AVLB Armored Vehicle Launched Bridge?
12 feet 6 inches
How quickly can a M60A1 AVLB Armored-Vehicle Launched Bridge be deployed?
Bridge emplacement cane be accomplished in 2 to 5 minutes and retrieval can be accomplished in 10 minutes.
Does a Marine Corps Tank Battalion work for a Marine Corps Regiment or Division?
It is assigned to a Marine Corps Division.
How many crew members are aboard the MVLB M60A1 Armored Vehicle Launched Bridge?
The AVLB vehicle carries a crew of two
What is size of the main gun on the M1A1 Main Battle Tank for the US Marine Corps?
The Rheinmetall 120 mm gun is a smoothbore tank gun designed and produced by the West German Rheinmetall-DeTec AG company, developed in response to Soviet advances in armor technology and development of new armored threats. Production began in 1974, with the first version of the gun, known as the L/44 as it was 44 calibers long, used on the German Leopard 2 tank and soon produced under license for the American M1A1 Abrams and other tanks. The American version, the M256, uses a coil spring recoil system instead of a hydraulic system. The gun has also been exported to South Korea and Japan for their indigenous tank designs, as well as other nations that have procured the Leopard 2 and the M1 Abrams. Rheinmetall's 120-millimeter (4.7 in) L/44 tank gun has a length of 5.28 meters (17.3 ft), and the gun system weighs approximately 3,317 kilograms (7,310 lb).
What is the M829 round?
The M829 is an American first-generation Armor-Piercing, Fin-Stabilized, Discarding Sabot (APFSDS) tank round designed specifically for the 120 mm M256 main gun on the M1A1, M1A2. and M1A2 SEP Abrams main battle tanks.
How much does the M60A1 AVLB weigh?
The bridge and vehicle total weight is 58 tons.
Yes/No. Can the M60A1 Armored Vehicle Launched Bridge (M60A1 AVLB) travel 300 miles?
No. It has a range of 290 miles (464 kilometers)
The T.O.W. in TOW Anti-tank missile system stands for what?
TOW is an acronym that stands for "Tube-launched, Optically-tracked, Wire command data link, guided missile"
What is the mission of the Assault Amphibian Battalion?
The mission of the Assault Amphibian Battalion is to land the surface assault elements of the landing force and their equipment in a single lift from assault shipping during amphibious operations and related combat support in subsequent operations ashore.
Yes/No. Is the TOW anti-tank missile a fire and forget weapon?
No. The TOW missile in its current variations is not a fire-and-forget weapon, and like most second generation wire-guided missiles has Semi-Automatic Command Line of Sight guidance. This means that the guidance system is directly linked to the platform, and requires that the target be kept in the shooter's line of sight until the missile impacts.
What is the maximum time to target range of the TOW Missile?
Time to target at maximum range is 20 seconds therefore giving an average speed of 187.5 m/s.
How many amphibian companies make up an Amphibian Battalion?
Four plus an H&S company
Does a Marine Corps Tank Battalion work for a Marine Corps Regiment or Division?
It is assigned to a Marine Corps Division.
Who do the assault amphibious battalions support?
They support the MAGTF to provide ship-to-shore lift capability during the amphibious assault.
Yes/No. Does a typical assault amphibian Battalion have more than 200+ AAVs?
Yes. The Assault Amphibian Battalion has 213 AAVP7's, 14AAVC7's, and 6 AAVR7's.
How many crew members are aboard the MVLB M60A1 Armored Vehicle Launched Bridge?
The AVLB vehicle carries a crew of two
How much does the M60A1 AVLB weigh?
The bridge and vehicle total weight is 58 tons.
How many different Amphibious Assault Vehicles does the Marine Corps use?
Three. The AAVP7, AAVC7, and the AAVR7
Which of the AAV's are primary used for transporting personnel?
The AAVP7A is an armored assault amphibious full-tracked landing Vehicle. The vehicle carries troops in water operations from ship to shore, through rough water and surf zone. It also carries troops to inland objectives after ashore.
Yes/No. Can the M60A1 Armored Vehicle Launched Bridge (M60A1 AVLB) travel 300 miles?
No. It has a range of 290 miles (464 kilometers)
What is the mission of the Assault Amphibian Battalion?
The mission of the Assault Amphibian Battalion is to land the surface assault elements of the landing force and their equipment in a single lift from assault shipping during amphibious operations and related combat support in subsequent operations ashore.
Which of the following AAV's are used for communications capabilities in an amphibious assault?
The AAVC7A is an armored assault amphibious full-tracked landing Vehicle. The vehicle gives mobile task force communications centers in water operations from ship to shore and to inland objectives after ashore.
How many amphibian companies make up an Amphibian Battalion?
Four plus an H&S company
Which of the following AAV's are used in recovery processes?
The AAVR7 is an armored assault amphibious full-tracked vehicle. The vehicle is designed to recover similar or smaller sized vehicles. It also carries basic maintenance equipment to provide field support maintenance to vehicles in the field.
Who do the assault amphibious battalions support?
They support the MAGTF to provide ship-to-shore lift capability during the amphibious assault.
Which of the 3 AAV's are faster in water: the AAVP, AAVC, or AAVR model?
None of the Above. They all travel a cruising speed of 6MPH and a maximum speed of 8.2 MPH forward while going 4.5 MPH in reverse.
How many total AAV's are in an Amphibian Battalion?
There are 233 total AAV's in a Bn with 213 P's, 14 C's, and 6R's.
Yes/No. Does a typical assault amphibian Battalion have more than 200+ AAVs?
Yes. The Assault Amphibian Battalion has 213 AAVP7's, 14AAVC7's, and 6 AAVR7's.
How many different Amphibious Assault Vehicles does the Marine Corps use?
Three. The AAVP7, AAVC7, and the AAVR7
Which of the AAV has a HBM2 .50 caliber Machine gun as its main weapon?
The HBM 2 Caliber .50 machine gun and Mk 19 Mod 3 40 MM Machine gun are the armaments of the AAVP7A1
Which of the AAV's are primary used for transporting personnel?
The AAVP7A is an armored assault amphibious full-tracked landing Vehicle. The vehicle carries troops in water operations from ship to shore, through rough water and surf zone. It also carries troops to inland objectives after ashore.
Which of the following AAV's have the 7.62 machine gun as the primary weapon system?
The AAVC7A1 has a 7.62 Machine Gun as the armament of its primary weapons system
Which of the following AAV's are used for communications capabilities in an amphibious assault?
The AAVC7A is an armored assault amphibious full-tracked landing Vehicle. The vehicle gives mobile task force communications centers in water operations from ship to shore and to inland objectives after ashore.
Which of the following AAV's have the M60D as its primary weapon?
The AAVR7A1 has the M60D Machine Gun as its primary weapon.
Which of the AAV's used by the Marine Corps has the largest crew?
The AAVP and AAVC have a crew of 3 while the AAVR has a crew of 5
Which of the following AAV's are used in recovery processes?
The AAVR7 is an armored assault amphibious full-tracked vehicle. The vehicle is designed to recover similar or smaller sized vehicles. It also carries basic maintenance equipment to provide field support maintenance to vehicles in the field.
Which of the 3 AAV's are faster in water: the AAVP, AAVC, or AAVR model?
None of the Above. They all travel a cruising speed of 6MPH and a maximum speed of 8.2 MPH forward while going 4.5 MPH in reverse.
Are the ranges of the AAV-P/C/R-7's used for amphibious assault by the Marine Corps greater than 200 miles?
Yes. They have a cruising range of 300 miles at 25 MPH and can operate in the water for 7 hours at 2600 RPM.
How many total AAV's are in an Amphibian Battalion?
There are 233 total AAV's in a Bn with 213 P's, 14 C's, and 6R's.
Which of the AAV's is characterized by multiple antennae atop its hull?
The AAVC7
Which of the AAV's used by the Marine Corps is characterized by a large winch or crane atop its hull?
AAVR7A
Which of the AAV has a HBM2 .50 caliber Machine gun as its main weapon?
The HBM 2 Caliber .50 machine gun and Mk 19 Mod 3 40 MM Machine gun are the armaments of the AAVP7A1
Which of the following AAV's have the 7.62 machine gun as the primary weapon system?
The AAVC7A1 has a 7.62 Machine Gun as the armament of its primary weapons system
What is the mission of the Combat Engineer Battalion?
The mission of the Combat Engineer Battalion is to enhance the mobility, counter-mobility, and survivability of the Marine Division through close combat engineer support and to provide the limited general engineering support that is required for the functioning of the Marine Division.
Which of the following AAV's have the M60D as its primary weapon?
The AAVR7A1 has the M60D Machine Gun as its primary weapon.
How many Combat Engineer Companies are in the Combat Engineer Battalion?
Four. The H&S Company, an Engineer Support Company and Four Combat Engineer Companies make up the Engineer Battalion.
Which of the AAV's used by the Marine Corps has the largest crew?
The AAVP and AAVC have a crew of 3 while the AAVR has a crew of 5
Is the Combat Engineer Battalion a Regimental or Division Asset?
Division.
Are the ranges of the AAV-P/C/R-7's used for amphibious assault by the Marine Corps greater than 200 miles?
Yes. They have a cruising range of 300 miles at 25 MPH and can operate in the water for 7 hours at 2600 RPM.
Which of the following are mobility tasks of the Combat Engineer Battalion?
All of the Above
Which of the AAV's is characterized by multiple antennae atop its hull?
The AAVC7
Which of the following tasks of the combat engineer battalion supports intelligence collection within the division zone or sector?
Conduct Engineer Reconnaissance
Which of the six mobility tasks for the combat engineer battalion focuses on removing obstacles from the direction of the division?
Plan, organize and coordinate the assault breaching of explosive and non-explosive obstacles from the high water mark inland.
Which of the AAV's used by the Marine Corps is characterized by a large winch or crane atop its hull?
AAVR7A
Which of the six mobility task of the combat engineer battalion uses and builds systems to traverse rivers and ravines?
Employe Assault bridge Systems. When augmented, employ other standard bridge systems.
What is the mission of the Combat Engineer Battalion?
The mission of the Combat Engineer Battalion is to enhance the mobility, counter-mobility, and survivability of the Marine Division through close combat engineer support and to provide the limited general engineering support that is required for the functioning of the Marine Division.
Which of the six mobility tasks of the Combat Engineer Battalion focuses on mending existing structures that cover ravines and waterways?
Provide expedient Repair and Reinforcement of Existing Bridges
How many Combat Engineer Companies are in the Combat Engineer Battalion?
Four. The H&S Company, an Engineer Support Company and Four Combat Engineer Companies make up the Engineer Battalion.
Which of the following tasks of a combat engineering battalion employs the acquisition of local supplies to build structures across shorter distances like creeks, trenches and ditches?
Construct expedient short-span bridges from local materials in support of ground combat operations.
Is the Combat Engineer Battalion a Regimental or Division Asset?
Division.
Which of the following are mobility tasks of the Combat Engineer Battalion?
All of the Above
Which of the following six mobility tasks of a Marine Combat Engineer Battalion are focused on filling potholes caused by IED's?
Provide temporary repair of existing roads and limited new construction of combat roads and trails, including the maintenance that is necessary to support combat operations of the division.
Which of the following tasks of the combat engineer battalion supports intelligence collection within the division zone or sector?
Conduct Engineer Reconnaissance
What is the difference between the mobility and counter-mobility tasks of the Marine Engineering Battalion?
Counter mobility is designed to inhibit the enemy's progress with demolitions and constructed obstacles against the Division while mobility allows the Division to move forward with its objectives over ravines, across constructed bridges, repaired roads, and the destruction of the enemy's obstacles.
Which of the six mobility tasks for the combat engineer battalion focuses on removing obstacles from the direction of the division?
Plan, organize and coordinate the assault breaching of explosive and non-explosive obstacles from the high water mark inland.
How many counter mobility tasks does the Marine Combat Engineering Battalion have?
Three.
Which of the six mobility task of the combat engineer battalion uses and builds systems to traverse rivers and ravines?
Employe Assault bridge Systems. When augmented, employ other standard bridge systems.
Which of the three functions of the Marine Combat Engineer Battalion's Counter-Mobility Tasks would involve setting up 500 yards of barbed wire
Plan, Organize and Coordinate the construction of simple and compound explosive and nonexplosive obstacle systems.
Which of the six mobility tasks of the Combat Engineer Battalion focuses on mending existing structures that cover ravines and waterways?
Provide expedient Repair and Reinforcement of Existing Bridges
What are the three groups of tasks that a Marine Corps combat engineer battalion accomplishes?
Mobility Tasks, Counter-Mobility Tasks, Survivability Tasks
Which of the following tasks of a combat engineering battalion employs the acquisition of local supplies to build structures across shorter distances like creeks, trenches and ditches?
Construct expedient short-span bridges from local materials in support of ground combat operations.
Which of the three tasks of the Combat Engineer Battalion focuses on the development of temporary protective positions for the Marine Division?
Survivability Task
Which of the following six mobility tasks of a Marine Combat Engineer Battalion are focused on filling potholes caused by IED's?
Provide temporary repair of existing roads and limited new construction of combat roads and trails, including the maintenance that is necessary to support combat operations of the division.
True/False. The Marine Corps Combat Engineering Battalion provides general engineering capabilities to the Marine Division.
True. The Combat Engineer Battalion provides essential construction, utility support, and VTOL sites.
Which of the following tasks of a Marine Corps Combat Engineer Battalion supports the temporary construction of bomb shelter for a regimental armory or a hesco barrier?
The general utility task provides essential construction support that is temporary and designed to meet minimum combat requirements.
What is the difference between the mobility and counter-mobility tasks of the Marine Engineering Battalion?
Counter mobility is designed to inhibit the enemy's progress with demolitions and constructed obstacles against the Division while mobility allows the Division to move forward with its objectives over ravines, across constructed bridges, repaired roads, and the destruction of the enemy's obstacles.
<p>What is the mission of the H&amp;S Company of a Marine Combat Engineer Battalion?</p>
<p>is to provide command, control and administrative elements to supervise the operations of the battalion, including the provision of supply, food services, communications, chaplain services, administration and medical support.</p>
How many counter mobility tasks does the Marine Combat Engineering Battalion have?
Three.
Which of the three functions of the Marine Combat Engineer Battalion's Counter-Mobility Tasks would involve setting up 500 yards of barbed wire
Plan, Organize and Coordinate the construction of simple and compound explosive and nonexplosive obstacle systems.
What is the mission of the Engineering Support in a Marine Corps Engineering Battalion?
The Engineering Support Company provides power generation, Motor T support, water and bathing capabilities, and decontamination capabilities.
What is the difference between the Marine Corps Engineering Support Company and a Combat Engineer Battalion?
A combat Engineer Battalion contains an Engineering Support Company and the Engineering Support Company does not provide mobility and counter mobility capabilities since their mission is focused on electrical and water delivery to division assets.
What are the three groups of tasks that a Marine Corps combat engineer battalion accomplishes?
Mobility Tasks, Counter-Mobility Tasks, Survivability Tasks
How many key tasks do the Engineer Support Companies have?
Four. Provide Contstruction, Potable Water, Electrical Power, and Motor-Transport
Which of the three tasks of the Combat Engineer Battalion focuses on the development of temporary protective positions for the Marine Division?
Survivability Task
What Corpsman in the US Navy designed these cards?
Howard L. Salter
True/False. The Marine Corps Combat Engineering Battalion provides general engineering capabilities to the Marine Division.
True. The Combat Engineer Battalion provides essential construction, utility support, and VTOL sites.
What are the 13 tasks of the Marine Corps Combat Engineer Company?
Reconnaissance, help move vehicles cross country, erect temporary structures, construct light ferries, repair bridges, helipad construction, fabricate light obstacles, place minefields and booby-traps, perform demolition, breach obstacles, clear minefields, perform other engineering tasks.
What is the mission of the LAR Battalion?
The mission of the LAR Battalion is to conduct reconnaissance, security, and economy-of-force operations and, within capabilities conduct limited offensive or delaying operations that exploit the unit's mobility and firepower.
Which of the following tasks of a Marine Corps Combat Engineer Battalion supports the temporary construction of bomb shelter for a regimental armory or a hesco barrier?
The general utility task provides essential construction support that is temporary and designed to meet minimum combat requirements.
<p>What is the mission of the H&amp;S Company of a Marine Combat Engineer Battalion?</p>
<p>is to provide command, control and administrative elements to supervise the operations of the battalion, including the provision of supply, food services, communications, chaplain services, administration and medical support.</p>
Yes/No. Can Marine Corps Engineering Support Companies attached to the Division become regimental or company level assets?
Yes.
What is the mission of the Engineering Support in a Marine Corps Engineering Battalion?
The Engineering Support Company provides power generation, Motor T support, water and bathing capabilities, and decontamination capabilities.
Yes/No. While the LAR Battalion and its companies are Division level assets can they be employed separately or as part of a GCE?
Yes.
What is the primary function of the LAR Battalion?
To provide strategic mobility to reach and engage the threat, tactical mobility for effective use of fire power, fire power to defeat soft and armored targets, battlefield survivability to carry out combat missions.
What is the difference between the Marine Corps Engineering Support Company and a Combat Engineer Battalion?
A combat Engineer Battalion contains an Engineering Support Company and the Engineering Support Company does not provide mobility and counter mobility capabilities since their mission is focused on electrical and water delivery to division assets.
How many key tasks do the Engineer Support Companies have?
Four. Provide Contstruction, Potable Water, Electrical Power, and Motor-Transport
Is the range of the Light Armored Vehicle-25 (LAV-25) travel beyond 500 miles?
No. Its' range is 410 miles.
What Corpsman in the US Navy designed these cards?
Howard L. Salter
Can the Light Armored Vehicle-25 travel faster than 55 miles per hour?
Yes. It can travel 62 MPH on land and 6 MPH in the water
How many crew are in an LAV-25?
Three. Driver, Commander, and Gunner.
What are the 13 tasks of the Marine Corps Combat Engineer Company?
Reconnaissance, help move vehicles cross country, erect temporary structures, construct light ferries, repair bridges, helipad construction, fabricate light obstacles, place minefields and booby-traps, perform demolition, breach obstacles, clear minefields, perform other engineering tasks.
Yes/No. Can the LAV-25 traverse waterways as an amphibious vehicle?
Yes. With 3 minutes of preparation.
What is the mission of the LAR Battalion?
The mission of the LAR Battalion is to conduct reconnaissance, security, and economy-of-force operations and, within capabilities conduct limited offensive or delaying operations that exploit the unit's mobility and firepower.
How many troops can the LAV-25 carry in addition to its (3) crew members?
Six.
Yes/No. Can Marine Corps Engineering Support Companies attached to the Division become regimental or company level assets?
Yes.
Yes/No. Is the main armament on the Light Armored Reconnaissance Vehicle - 25 LAV-25 a 30 mm chain gun?
No. Its a M242 25mm chain gun.
Yes/No. While the LAR Battalion and its companies are Division level assets can they be employed separately or as part of a GCE?
Yes.
Yes/No. Does the LAV-25 have a secondary armament with an M240 7.62mm Machine Gun?
Yes. It's located coaxially.
What is the primary function of the LAR Battalion?
To provide strategic mobility to reach and engage the threat, tactical mobility for effective use of fire power, fire power to defeat soft and armored targets, battlefield survivability to carry out combat missions.
Yes/No. Can an LAV-25 be transported in a C-130?
Yes. It is air transportable in a C-130 as well as a C-141, C-5 and CH-53E;
Is the range of the Light Armored Vehicle-25 (LAV-25) travel beyond 500 miles?
No. Its' range is 410 miles.
How many variants of the Light Armored Vehicles does the United States Marine Corps Employ?
Six. LAV-25, LAV-AT (Anti-Tank),LAV-C2 (Command/Control), LAV-L (Logistics), LAV-M (Mortar), LAV-R (Recovery);
Can the Light Armored Vehicle-25 travel faster than 55 miles per hour?
Yes. It can travel 62 MPH on land and 6 MPH in the water
<p>Which of the Light Armored Vehicle variants does the Marine Corps use that employs the M901A! TOW II ATGM and M240E 7.62 Machine Gun?</p>
The LAV-AT is to provide highly mobile, protected anti-armor fire support to light infantry and reconnaissance forces; provide capability to defeat heavy, armored targets at long ranges.
How many crew are in an LAV-25?
Three. Driver, Commander, and Gunner.
<p>Which of the Light Armored Vehicle variants is characterized by additional antennae on the hull and employs an M240E 7.62 Machine Gun?</p>
<p>The LAV-C2 is a mobile command station providing field commanders with all necessary resources to control and coordinate light armored units in all assigned roles.</p>
Yes/No. Can the LAV-25 traverse waterways as an amphibious vehicle?
Yes. With 3 minutes of preparation.
Which of the following Light Armored Vehicles (LAV) are equipped to provide ammunition and rations?
The LAV-L provides ammunition, rations, and petroleum oil and lubricant supplies required to sustain operations of first-line armored vehicles with a 240E1 7.62mm machine gun.
How many troops can the LAV-25 carry in addition to its (3) crew members?
Six.
Which of the Light Armored Vehicles employed by the United States Marine Corps provides indirect fire support to light infantry and reconnaissance forces?
The primary function of the LAV-M is to provide indirect fire support to light infantry and reconnaissance forces; providing high explosive area fire, covering smoke and illumination for first line-units as well as other mortar functions.
Yes/No. Is the main armament on the Light Armored Reconnaissance Vehicle - 25 LAV-25 a 30 mm chain gun?
No. Its a M242 25mm chain gun.
What is the primary weapon of the LAV-M?
The M252 81 mm medium weight mortar is an American smooth bore, muzzle-loading, high-angle-of-fire weapon used for long-range indirect fire support to light infantry, air assault, and airborne units across the entire front of a battalion zone of influence. In the U.S. Army and U.S. Marine Corps, it is normally deployed in the mortar platoon of an infantry battalion.
Yes/No. Does the LAV-25 have a secondary armament with an M240 7.62mm Machine Gun?
Yes. It's located coaxially.
<p>Which of the LAV systems employed by the United States Marine Corps is used to recover other broken LAV's?</p>
<p>LAV-R is a tactical mobility vehicle to reach and recover/support disabled vehicles</p>
Yes/No. Can an LAV-25 be transported in a C-130?
Yes. It is air transportable in a C-130 as well as a C-141, C-5 and CH-53E;
How many LAR Companies are in an LAR Battalion?
Four in addition to an H&S Company
How many variants of the Light Armored Vehicles does the United States Marine Corps Employ?
Six. LAV-25, LAV-AT (Anti-Tank),LAV-C2 (Command/Control), LAV-L (Logistics), LAV-M (Mortar), LAV-R (Recovery);
<p>What is the mission of the Marine Reconnaissance Battalion?</p>
<p>The primary mission of the reconnaissance battalion is to conduct ground reconnaissance and observation in support of the Marine Division and its elements.</p>
<p>Which of the Light Armored Vehicle variants does the Marine Corps use that employs the M901A! TOW II ATGM and M240E 7.62 Machine Gun?</p>
The LAV-AT is to provide highly mobile, protected anti-armor fire support to light infantry and reconnaissance forces; provide capability to defeat heavy, armored targets at long ranges.
<p>What is the difference between the Reconnaissance Battalion and the Reconnaissance Force?</p>
<p>The Battalion element support division and is usually found closer to friendlier lines while the Force is a regimental asset and is usually found farther behind enemy lines.</p>
<p>Which of the Light Armored Vehicle variants is characterized by additional antennae on the hull and employs an M240E 7.62 Machine Gun?</p>
<p>The LAV-C2 is a mobile command station providing field commanders with all necessary resources to control and coordinate light armored units in all assigned roles.</p>
How many primary tasks are performed by the Reconnaissance Battalion?
Seven. Conduct Pre-H hour Recon, Engage the enemy, implant and monitor sensors, capture prisoners, conduct terrain recon, conduct terminal guidance, perform special missions
Which of the following Light Armored Vehicles (LAV) are equipped to provide ammunition and rations?
The LAV-L provides ammunition, rations, and petroleum oil and lubricant supplies required to sustain operations of first-line armored vehicles with a 240E1 7.62mm machine gun.
True/False. One of the seven stated tasks of the Marine Reconnaissance Battalion is to conduct specialized terrain reconnaissance including beach, road/route and HLZ/DZ reconnaissance missions.
True.
Which of the Light Armored Vehicles employed by the United States Marine Corps provides indirect fire support to light infantry and reconnaissance forces?
The primary function of the LAV-M is to provide indirect fire support to light infantry and reconnaissance forces; providing high explosive area fire, covering smoke and illumination for first line-units as well as other mortar functions.
What of these are the 7 seven tasks conducted by a Marine Corps Reconnaissance Battalion?
"•
Conduct pre-H-hour reconnaissance.
What is the primary weapon of the LAV-M?
The M252 81 mm medium weight mortar is an American smooth bore, muzzle-loading, high-angle-of-fire weapon used for long-range indirect fire support to light infantry, air assault, and airborne units across the entire front of a battalion zone of influence. In the U.S. Army and U.S. Marine Corps, it is normally deployed in the mortar platoon of an infantry battalion.
•
Perform special missions"
<p>Which of the LAV systems employed by the United States Marine Corps is used to recover other broken LAV's?</p>
<p>LAV-R is a tactical mobility vehicle to reach and recover/support disabled vehicles</p>
How many Reconnaissance Companies are in a Marine Corps Reconnaissance Battalion?
Four.
How many LAR Companies are in an LAR Battalion?
Four in addition to an H&S Company
How many Platoons are in each of the three Reconnaissance Companies in a Reconnaissance Battalion?
There is an HQ Platoon with (3) Reconnaissance Platoons.
<p>What is the mission of the Marine Reconnaissance Battalion?</p>
<p>The primary mission of the reconnaissance battalion is to conduct ground reconnaissance and observation in support of the Marine Division and its elements.</p>
Yes/No. Are the Marines in a Reconnaissance Platoon qualified and trained as underwater and surface swimmers?
Yes. Each platoon consists of surface swimmers and as many inflatable boat handlers as necessary. A limited number are trained as underwater swimmers and parachutists.
<p>What is the difference between the Reconnaissance Battalion and the Reconnaissance Force?</p>
<p>The Battalion element support division and is usually found closer to friendlier lines while the Force is a regimental asset and is usually found farther behind enemy lines.</p>
What is the sole objective of reconnaissance training?
The sole objective of reconnaissance training is successful execution of the reconnaissance combat mission. Successful employment of pre-assault and post-assault ground reconnaissance requires that training programs develop reconnaissance teams which are capable of conducting undetected activities on enemy ground under conditions of limited support from sources outside the teams. Such undetected activities include entry into a reconnaissance area of operations (RAO), patrol movement within the operating area, execution of information collection and terminal guidance tasks, submission of patrol reports from within the operating areas, debriefing, and submission of final reports. These training concepts are accomplished by stressing team integrity, balance, and realism throughout all phases of reconnaissance training
How many primary tasks are performed by the Reconnaissance Battalion?
Seven. Conduct Pre-H hour Recon, Engage the enemy, implant and monitor sensors, capture prisoners, conduct terrain recon, conduct terminal guidance, perform special missions
What are the four phases of Reconnaissance training?
Reconnaissance training progresses through four phases: basic individual training, advanced individual training, basic unit training and advanced unit training.
True/False. One of the seven stated tasks of the Marine Reconnaissance Battalion is to conduct specialized terrain reconnaissance including beach, road/route and HLZ/DZ reconnaissance missions.
True.
Which phase of Marine Reconnaissance training involves preliminary SCUBA training?
Basic Individual Training: Phase one – Basic Individual training provides the Marine with information in several areas: Preliminary SCUBA training: Basic SCUBA diver qualifications may be acquired only at a formal Navy school. The reconnaissance Marine may or may not have had such training prior to his assignment to the reconnaissance unit. Therefore, local pre-SCUBA conditioning and familiarization training is conducted for reconnaissance Marines before their assignment to a formal SCUBA school. This training includes pool and open water instruction and is conducted according to Navy standards.
What of these are the 7 seven tasks conducted by a Marine Corps Reconnaissance Battalion?
"•
What portion of Marine Reconnaissance training involves demolitions?
Basic Individual Training Phase one – Basic Individual training provides the Marine with information in several areas: Demolitions: Although reconnaissance units do not perform tasks requiring extensive use of demolitions, sometimes it may be necessary for them to carry out demolition assignments. Therefore, reconnaissance personnel should acquire basic training by attending demolition schools located throughout the Marine Corps.
•
Engage the enemy with supporting arms as directed or authorized by the division commander.
Yes/No. Is Submarine Training part of Advanced Individual Training of Marine Recon Training?
Yes. Inflatable boat handling: Marines are assigned to boat teams for training in handling inflatable boats during motorized, towing, launch, and recovery operations. Marines should remain with the same boat team throughout training.
•
Implant and monitor sensors.
What phase of training do Marines learn terminal guidance in Reconnaissance Training for Marines?
Phase Two: Advanced Individual Training. Initial terminal guidance training: Initial terminal guidance is conducted on both the platoon and the team level. The platoon or team provides initial terminal guidance to assault helicopters. Training consists primarily of reconnaissance techniques employed in the general area of the helicopter landing zone, including marking helicopter landing sites, using pyrotechnics, and clearing minor obstructions and obstacles within the landing zone.
•
Capture selected prisoners.
•
Conduct specialized terrain reconnaissance including beach, road/route, and HLZ/DZ reconnaissance missions.
•
Conduct initial terminal guidance.
•
Perform special missions"
Which of the following are NOT any of the seven tasks performed by a Reconnaissance Battalion?
"These are the Seven Tasks:
•
Conduct pre-H-hour reconnaissance.
•
Engage the enemy with supporting arms as directed or authorized by the division commander.
•
Implant and monitor sensors.
•
Capture selected prisoners.
•
Conduct specialized terrain reconnaissance including beach, road/route, and HLZ/DZ reconnaissance missions.
•
Conduct initial terminal guidance.
•
Perform special missions
"
How many Reconnaissance Companies are in a Marine Corps Reconnaissance Battalion?
Four.
How many Platoons are in each of the three Reconnaissance Companies in a Reconnaissance Battalion?
There is an HQ Platoon with (3) Reconnaissance Platoons.
Yes/No. Are the Marines in a Reconnaissance Platoon qualified and trained as underwater and surface swimmers?
Yes. Each platoon consists of surface swimmers and as many inflatable boat handlers as necessary. A limited number are trained as underwater swimmers and parachutists.
What is the sole objective of reconnaissance training?
The sole objective of reconnaissance training is successful execution of the reconnaissance combat mission. Successful employment of pre-assault and post-assault ground reconnaissance requires that training programs develop reconnaissance teams which are capable of conducting undetected activities on enemy ground under conditions of limited support from sources outside the teams. Such undetected activities include entry into a reconnaissance area of operations (RAO), patrol movement within the operating area, execution of information collection and terminal guidance tasks, submission of patrol reports from within the operating areas, debriefing, and submission of final reports. These training concepts are accomplished by stressing team integrity, balance, and realism throughout all phases of reconnaissance training
What are the four phases of Reconnaissance training?
Reconnaissance training progresses through four phases: basic individual training, advanced individual training, basic unit training and advanced unit training.
Which phase of training includes Preparatory Parachute Training?
"Basic Individual Training Phase one – Basic Individual training provides the Marine with information in several areas: Preparatory parachute training: Prior to assignment to Army airborne courses, marines should complete a concentrated parachute training course conducted by the reconnaissance unit. Completion of such a preparatory course ensures that the Marine will have no difficulty passing the actual airborne school.
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Which phase of Marine Reconnaissance training involves preliminary SCUBA training?
Basic Individual Training: Phase one – Basic Individual training provides the Marine with information in several areas: Preliminary SCUBA training: Basic SCUBA diver qualifications may be acquired only at a formal Navy school. The reconnaissance Marine may or may not have had such training prior to his assignment to the reconnaissance unit. Therefore, local pre-SCUBA conditioning and familiarization training is conducted for reconnaissance Marines before their assignment to a formal SCUBA school. This training includes pool and open water instruction and is conducted according to Navy standards.
What portion of Marine Reconnaissance training involves demolitions?
Basic Individual Training Phase one – Basic Individual training provides the Marine with information in several areas: Demolitions: Although reconnaissance units do not perform tasks requiring extensive use of demolitions, sometimes it may be necessary for them to carry out demolition assignments. Therefore, reconnaissance personnel should acquire basic training by attending demolition schools located throughout the Marine Corps.
Which of the following are NOT part of Basic Individual Training when examining Marine Corps Reconnaissance Training?
"Basic Individual Training Phase one – Basic Individual training provides the Marine with information in several areas:
Preliminary SCUBA training:"
Which of the following are NOT part of Marine Corps Basic Individual Training for Reconnaissance Marines?
"Basic Individual Training Phase one – Basic Individual training provides the Marine with information in several areas:
Preliminary SCUBA training:"
Yes/No. Is Submarine Training part of Advanced Individual Training of Marine Recon Training?
Yes. Inflatable boat handling: Marines are assigned to boat teams for training in handling inflatable boats during motorized, towing, launch, and recovery operations. Marines should remain with the same boat team throughout training.
What phase of training do Marines learn terminal guidance in Reconnaissance Training for Marines?
Phase Two: Advanced Individual Training. Initial terminal guidance training: Initial terminal guidance is conducted on both the platoon and the team level. The platoon or team provides initial terminal guidance to assault helicopters. Training consists primarily of reconnaissance techniques employed in the general area of the helicopter landing zone, including marking helicopter landing sites, using pyrotechnics, and clearing minor obstructions and obstacles within the landing zone.