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217 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the acronym: NC
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Non Combatant
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What is the acronym: DC
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Dislocated Civilian
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What is the acronym: HA
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Humanitarian Assistance/Holding Area
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What is the acronym: CMO
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Civil Military Operations
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What is the acronym: PRT
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Providential Reconstruction Team
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What is the acronym: GO
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Government Official/Organization
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What is the acronym: NGO
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Non-Government Organization
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What is the acronym: HN
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Host Nation
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What is the acronym: MOE
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Method of Evaluation
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What is the acronym: CCIR
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Commanders Critical Information Requirements
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What is the acronym: PAO
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Public Affairs Officer
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What is the acronym: HPT
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High Payoff Target
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What is the acronym: PSYOP
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Psychological Operations
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What is the acronym: EWG
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Electronic Warfare Grou[
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What is the acronym: IED
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Improvised Explosive Device
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What is the acronym: OPSEC
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Operational Security
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What is the acronym: UAV
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Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
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What is the acronym: PIR
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Priority Intelligence Requirements
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What is the acronym: IO
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Information Operations
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What is the acronym: GMLRS
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Guided Multiple Launch Rocket System
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What is the acronym: SINCGARS
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Single Channel Ground Air Radio System
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What are the elements of the CCA Check In?
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1. A/C Callsign
2. A/C Location 3. A/C Composition 4. Ordnance 5. Night Vision Capability 6. Time on Station |
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What are the elements of the CCA 5-Line?
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1. Observer / Warning Order (OVER)
2. Friendly Location / Mark 3. Target Location 4. Target Description / Mark 5. Remarks (OVER) |
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Who is the clearance authority for CCA danger close?
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Ground Commander
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What is Danger Close for NGF?
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5-inch or less: 750m
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What is Danger Close for Artillery
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600m
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What are ways to mark friendly location?
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a. VS-17 Panel
b. Signal Mirror c. Fire Fly d. Chemlight e. IR Strobe f. IR Pointer |
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What are ways to mark target with limited visibility?
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a. Ground Burst Illumination
b. IR Pointer c. IZLID |
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What are the elements of the 9-Line CAS Request?
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1. IP
2. Heading 3. Distance 4. Target Elevation 5. Target Description 6. Target Location 7. Mark 8. Closest Friendly Location 9. Egress |
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What aircraft are CAS platforms?
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a. A-10
b. F-16 c. F-18 d. AV-8B Harrier e. AC-130 f. B-1B g. B-52 |
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Does the F-18 have FM capabilities?
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Yes
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What are the Six Elements of the Call For Fire?
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1. Observer ID
2. Warning Order 3. Target Location 4. Target Description 5. Method of Engagement 6. Method of Fire and Control |
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What is the form number for a Conduct of Fire Worksheet?
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DA 5429 R
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What are two types of target (with respect to effects)?
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Hard and Soft
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HOB Corrections are sent to the nearest _ meters.
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5
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To load an ASIP from an ANCD, the function switch must be set to what position?
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LD (Load)
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During registration, no deviation corrections should be sent after which bracket has been established?
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200 meter bracket
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What are the hand angular deviation measurements?
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One Finger - 30 mils
Two Fingers - 70 mils Three Fingers - 100 mils Four Fingers - 125 mils Fist - 180 mils Open hand - 300 mils |
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What is the minimum Deviation Correction in an Area Adjust Fire mission?
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30 m
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What are the three methods of Target Location?
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a. Polar Plot (and Laser Polar)
b. Grid c. Shift from Known Point |
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What are the four elements included in a MTO?
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a. Unit to fire
b. Changes to CFF c. Number of Rounds in FFE d. Target Number |
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What is the GTA 5-02-012?
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The Coordinate Scale and Protractor
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What are the three deviation spottings?
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a. Right
b. Left c. Line |
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What are two types of precision missions?
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Registration and Destruction
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The OF fan has _ radial arms that are _ mils apart
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17, 100
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For Polar Plot method of Target Location, distance is expressed to the nearest __ meters.
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100
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What is the minimum range correction when adjusting Illumination?
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200m
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What is the max range of a 105mm HE round with RAP?
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19.5 km
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What is the max range of a 120mm HE round?
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7200m
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What is the automatic HOB correction if smoke canisters are bouncing excessively?
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UP 50
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What is the HOB refinement correction on the time portion of registration if you have 3 airbursts and 1 graze?
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No HOB refinement necessary
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What is the HOB refinement correction on the time portion of registration if you have 2 airbursts and 2 graze?
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UP 10
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What is the HOB refinement correction on the time portion of registration if you have 1 airbursts and 3 graze?
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UP 20
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What is the HOB refinement correction on the time portion of registration if you have 4 airbursts and no graze?
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Take the cumulative spottings of last four rounds and divide by four, multiply by OT factor and subtract 20.
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Explain HA
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Humanitarian Assistance: Those measures taken to reduce the effects of natural or man made disasters in an area of military operations that complement ongoing efforts.
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Explain PRT
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Providential Reconstruction Team: Small, joint civil military organizations that aspire to promote progress in governance, security, and reconstruction
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Explain NGO
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Non-Governmental Organizations: Transnational organizations of private citizens that maintain a consultative status with the economic and social council of the United Nations
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Explain IO
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Informations Operations: Actions taken to affect adversary information and information's systems while defending one's own information systems.
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Explain MOE
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Method of Evaluation: Tools used to measure results achieved in the overall mission and execution of assigned tasks
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Explain PSYOP
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Psychological Operations: Planned operations to convey selected information and indicators to foreign audiences to influence their emotions, motives, objective reasoning, and ultimately the behavior of foreign governments, organizations, and individuals.
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Explain PA
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Public Affairs: The public information, command information, and community relations activities directed toward both the external and internal publics with interest in the Department of Defense.
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Explain HUMINT
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Human Intelligence: Collector of foreign information from people and multimedia to identify elements, intention, composition, strength, dispositions, tactics, equipment, personnel, and capabilities of a target group.
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Explain CCIR
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Commander's Critical Information Requirements: Elements of information required by commanders that directly affect decision making and dictate the successful execution of military operations
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Explain CERP
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Commander's Emergency Response Program: The purpose of the CERP is to enable commanders to respond to urgent humanitarian relief and reconstruction requirements by carrying out programs that will immediately assist the local mission.
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What are the five elements included on a terrain sketch?
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1. Horizon / Skyline
2. Intermediate Crests, Hills and Ridges 3. Natural Terrain Features 4. Man Made Features 5. Labels |
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What are the three methods used to determine Range?
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1. Laser
2. Flash to Bang 3. Estimation |
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What are the five methods used to determine Direction
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1. Using other measuring devices
2. Measuring from a reference point 3. Compass 4. Scaling from a map 5. Estimating |
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What is the maximum range of a 81mm mortar illumination round? (M853A1)
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5060m
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What are the four uses of smoke?
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1. Obscuring
2. Screening 3. Deception 4. Signaling |
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What is a FPF?
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Final Protective Fires
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Define Final Protective Fires
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An immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas
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FPF grids are normally ___ to ____ from friendly troops.
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200-400m
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When adjusting an FPF, the initial grid is sent ____ to ____ meters from friendly troops.
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400-600m
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You are adjusting an illumination round and the flare burns for 24 seconds on the ground. Your OT factor is 2 and the rate of fall is 5m/s. What is your correction?
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UP 100
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When adjusting the sheaf during a mortar registration, range corrections for rounds impacting within ___ meters of the sheaf are not repeated.
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50m
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When adjusting the sheaf during a mortar registration, lateral refinement corrections are made to the nearest how many meters?
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10m
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What is the maximum range of a 60mm illumination round? (M721)
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3489m
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During the initial call for fire, using the polar plot method of target location, distance is expressed to the nearest ___ meters.
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100m
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When adjusting fires onto an area target, when do you request FFE?
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Once the 50m bracket is split
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Height of Burst corrections for time rounds are sent to the nearest ___ meters.
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5m
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What is the minimum range correction when adjusting illumination?
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200m
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What is the automatic HOB correction if smoke canisters are too spread out?
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DOWN 50
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What is the automatic HOB correction if smoke canisters burst on the ground?
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UP 100
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What is a FSCM
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Fire Support Coordination Measure
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Define FSCM
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Fire Support Coordination Measure: A measure that ensures that fire support will not jeopardize troops safety, will interface with other fire support means, and will not disrupt adjacent unit operations
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What are the two types of FSCMs?
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1. Permissive
2. Restrictive |
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What is the purpose of a permissive FSCM?
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Measures that facilitate the attack of targets
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What is the purpose of a restrictive FSCM?
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Measures that provide safeguards for friendly forces and noncombatants facilities and terrain.
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How many permissive FSCMs are there?
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Three
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List the three permissive FSCMs.
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1. Coordinated Fire Line
2. Fire Support Coordination Line 3. Free Fire Area |
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How many restrictive FSCMs are there? (3-09.30)
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Six
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List the six restrictive FSCMs.
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1. Restrictive Fire Area
2. Restrictive Fire Line 3. No Fire Line 4. Fire Support Safety Line 5. No Fire Area 6. Airspace Coordination Area |
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Define Coordinated Fire Line
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A line beyond which conventional, indirect, surface fire support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing headquarters without additional coordination.
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Define Fire Support Coordination Line
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Facilitates the expeditious attack of surface targets of opportunity beyond the coordinating measure. FSCL applies to fires of air, land and sea based weapon systems using any type of ammunition.
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Define Restrictive Fire Area
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An area in which specific restrictions are imposed and into which fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing headquarters.
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Define Restrictive Fire Line
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A line established between converging friendly surface forces that prohibits fires or their effects across the line.
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What 2 instances will allow firing into a No Fire Area?
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1. The establishing HQ asks for or approves fire temporarily on a mission by mission basis
2. An enemy force takes refuge in area, poses a major threat, and there is insufficient time for the commander to clear the fires needed to defend the friendly force |
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Define Free Fire Area
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A designated area into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with establishing HQ.
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Define No Fire Line
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A line short of which artillery or ships do not fire except on request of the supported commander, but beyond which may fire at any time without danger to friendly troops.
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Define Fire Support Safety Line
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A line short of which indirect fire systems do not fire except on request or approval of supported commander but beyond which may fire without danger to friendly troops.
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Define No Fire Area
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An area in which no fires or effects of fires are allowed.
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Define Airspace Coordination Area
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Provides for the relatively safe travel of aircraft. The ACA facilitates the simultaneous attack of target or targets near each other by multiple fire support assets to include air and surface to surface.
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____ are basic maneuver control measures used by commanders to designate the geographical area for which a particular unit is tactically responsible.
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Boundary Lines
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What are the two types of CAS requests?
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1. Pre-planned
2. Immediate |
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What are the two types of Airspace Coordination Area measures?
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1. Formal
2. Informal |
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An ___ ACA can be established at the Task Force Level and is normally in effect for a short period of time.
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Informal
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What types of separation can be used when establishing an informal ACA?
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a. Distance (lateral, altitude, or any combination of the two)
b. Time |
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What types of separation are used when establishing a formal ACA?
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a. Min and Max altitudes
b. Baseline defined by grid coordinates c. Width to either side of baseline d. Effective times |
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When a CAS 9-Line request is sent, what transmission is required to ensure data was received correctly?
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"Read Back Lines 4 & 6"
(4, 6 & 8 is recommended) |
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What is meant by Cleared Hot?
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Ordnance release is authorized on final attack
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Who has authority to give clearance of ordnance release with regard to Close Air Support?
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A certified JTAC or FAC(A)
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If you are not a certified JTAC or FAC(A), what must you transmit to inform the aircraft to proceed with their fire mission?
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Continue
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What four systems make up the Fire Support Plan?
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1. C2 - Command and Control
2. ISR & TA - Intelligence, Surveillance, Reconnaissance and Target Acquisition 3. Attack Resources 4. Sustainment |
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Define a Group of targets.
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Two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously
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How is a Group graphically displayed on a fire support overlay?
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A solid line around two or more targets with a three character group identifier of the two letters assigned to the maneuver brigade target block with a number between the letters (eg "A1A")
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Define a Series of targets.
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A number of targets or groups of targets planned to be fired in sequence to support a maneuver phase.
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Can targets within a Group be fired individually?
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Yes
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How is a Series graphically displayed on a fire support overlay?
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A solid line around a number of targets or groups with a nickname assigned to it (eg "Pete")
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Define a Program of targets.
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A number of planned targets of a similar nature fired in a predetermined sequence. A program of targets may be initiated on call, at a specific time, or when a particular event occurs.
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How is a Program graphically displayed on a Fire Support Overlay?
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It is not graphically displayed.
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True of False: A FPF is an example of a priority target which will be fired until the firing unit is requested to stop, ammunition is exhausted or the firing unit is force to move.
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True
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What are the critical characteristics of Offensive Fire Support operations?
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a. Surprise
b. Concentration c. Tempo d. Audacity |
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What are the characteristics of Defensive Fire Support operations?
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a. Preparation
b. Security c. Disruption d. Massing Effects e. Flexibility |
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Who has the final authority to clear fires and their effects within his zone?
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Ground/Maneuver Commander
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____ is responsible for the training of all enlisted members assigned to the team and supervising maintenance of all equipment assigned to the section.
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Company/Troop FSNCO
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Fire Support preparation activities include but are not limited to:
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a. Plan Refinement
b. Rehearsals c. Surveillance. d. Reconnaissance e. Coordination f. Inspections g. Movement |
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What are the four standard tactical missions of the Field Artillery?
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1. DS - Direct Support
2. R - Reinforcing 3. GS - General Support 4. GSR - General Support Reinforcing |
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True or Fales: Higher humidity improves the screening effects of both WP and HC smoke.
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True
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What is a TAB
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Target Acquisition Battery
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What is a COLT
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Combat Observation Lasing Team
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What is ATACMS
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Army Tactical Missile Systems
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What is the role of the Fire Support?
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The collective and coordinated use of land- and sea-based indirect fires, target acquisition (TA), armed aircraft, and other lethal and nonlethal systems against ground targets in support of the force commander’s concept of operations.
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What is the mission of the Field Artillery?
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The mission of the Field Artillery is to destroy, neutralize, or suppress the enemy by cannon, rocket and missile fire and to help integrate all fire support assets into combined arms operations.
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What is a NSL?
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No Strike List
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Explain a NSL
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No Strike List: A list of geographic areas, complexes or installations not planned for capture or destruction. Attacking these may violate the law of armed conflict or interfere with friendly relations with indigenous peoples or governments.
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When sending an Adjust Fire Shift from Known Point mission, direction is expressed to the nearest ___ mils.
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10 mils
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When describing the attitude, it is sent to the nearest ___ mils and along the axis of _____ to _____ mils.
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100, 0000 to 3199
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In what element of the Call For Fire is Danger Close a part of?
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Method of Engagement
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During a Shift From Known Point mission, the range shift is expressed to the nearest ___ meters and the vertical shift is sent to the nearest ___ meters.
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100, 5
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What are the four mission types?
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1. Adjust Fire
2. Fire For Effect 3. Immediate Suppression / Immediate Smoke 4. Suppression |
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What are the two elements sent with the First Transmission of the Call For Fire?
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1. Observer ID
2. Warning Order |
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True or False: Any method of Target Location may be sent when firing an Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke mission.
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True
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What is the correct sequence for reporting corrections?
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Deviation, Range, HOB
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What is the correct sequence for recording spottings?
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HOB, Range, Deviation
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What are the seven Range Spottings?
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1. Over
2. Short 3. Range Correct 4. Target 5. Doubtful 6. Lost 7. Unobserved (Unobserved Over/Short) |
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What are the four Adjustment Techniques for area adjustment fires?
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1. Successive Bracketing
2. Hasty Bracketing 3. One Round Adjust 4. Creeping Fire |
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If the results of the FFE is accurate but insufficient, the observer's action should be what?
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Repeat
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What is the standard trajectory for Artillery and Mortars?
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Artillery - High Angle
Mortars - Low Angle |
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What are the 15 Subsequent Corrections?
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1. OT Direction
2. Danger close 3. Trajectory 4. Method of Fire 5. Distribution 6. Projectile 7. Fuze 8. Volume 9. Deviation Correction 10. Range Correction 11. HOB Correction 12. Target Description 13. Mission Type or Method of Control 14. Splash 15. Repeat |
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What equation is used to measure distance using Flash to Bang?
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Elapsed time between impact and sound x 350 m/s = Distance in meters
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What are the four types of Illumination patterns?
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1. One Gun Illumination
2. Two Gun Illumination 3. Two Gun Range or Lateral Spread 4. Four Gun Illumination Pattern |
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What are the five basic colors on a map?
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1. Red or Red-Brown
2. Blue 3. Green 4. Brown 5. Black |
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What are the five major terrain features on a map?
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1. Hill
2. Valley 3. Saddle 4. Ridge 5. Depression |
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What is the directional accuracy of the AN/PVS-6 MELIOS?
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+/- 1 mil
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What does MELIOS stand for?
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Mini Eye-safe Laser Infrared Observation Set
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What is the maximum Range of the AN/PVS-6 MELIOS?
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9,995 meters
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What does FASCAM stand for?
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Family of Scatterable Mines
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What is the maximum range of the laser rangefinder on the LLDR?
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19,999 m
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What accuracy will an eight-digit grid provide?
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10m
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What accuracy will a ten-digit grid provide?
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1m
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What accuracy will a six-digit grid provide?
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100m
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What FM covers Map Reading and Land Navigation?
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FM 3-25.26
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The location of an Unknown Point by successively occupying at least two known points on the ground and then sighting the unknown location is know as?
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Intersection
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The FM for Observed Fire Procedures is?
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FM 6-30
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In a Shift From Known Point and Polar mission, who needs to know the Observer's location?
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FDC
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What are the three types of desired effects on a target?
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1. Destruction
2. Neutralization 3. Suppression |
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The method of finding your location by using two known points is known as?
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Resection
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The method of finding your location by using one known point and an being located on an identifiable feature on the map (such as a road or river) is known as?
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Modified Resection
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What is the lateral spread between rounds when adjusting the sheaf for mortars?
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40m
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When adjusting HOB and the first round is a graze, the correction should be what?
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UP 40
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When the observer wants to control both the firing of illumination and HE, he requests?
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By Shell, At My Command
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What does SEAD stand for?
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Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses
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Who designates the location of the FPF?
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Maneuver Commander with FSO's guidance
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What measure should an observer take when adjusting a FPF to minimize the hazard to friendly personnel?
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Entering adjust fire with creeping fire
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True or False: A group of targets can be fired as a series.
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True
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What does the acronym SOSRA stand for?
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Suppress
Obscure Secure Reduce Assault |
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With what maneuver tactic does SOSRA associate?
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Obstacle Breaching
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What part of SOSRA does fire support play a role?
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Suppress and Obscure
(In certain situations Reduce) |
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What are three types of FO control options?
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1. Centralized
2. De-centralized 3. Pre-determined |
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What FO control option gives him the most responsive fires?
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Decentralized
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What are the two classifications of targets?
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1. Target of Opportunity
2. Planned Target |
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What are the three types of Planned Targets?
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1. Scheduled Target
2. On-Call Target 3. Priority Target (FPF is included) |
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What are the two types of FIST control options?
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1. Centralized (at Battalion Task Force level)
2. De-centralized (at Company/Troop level) |
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What FO control option gives the FIST the highest level of control?
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Centralized
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Can each FO in a Company/Troop have a different control option designated to him?
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Yes
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What does EFST stand for?
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Essential Fire Support Task
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Define EFST.
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A Fire Support Task that is required to support a combined arms operation. Failure to achieve an EFST may require the commander to alter his tactical plan.
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What are the four parts of an EFST?
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1. Task
2. Purpose 3. Method 4. Effects |
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What does TPME stand for?
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1. Task
2. Purpose 3. Method 4. Effects |
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What does TPEA stand for?
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1. Task
2. Purpose 3. Effects 4. Assessment |
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What does SLoCTOP stand for?
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Security
Location Communication Targeting Observation Position Improvement |
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What is the definition of Angle T?
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The angle formed by the OT and GT line with the target as its vertex.
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When is Angle T sent to the observer?
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When it is significant (usually >500mils) or when the observer requests it.
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In a Polar Fire Mission, when is vertical shift sent?
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When the difference of elevation at the Observer and the Target is significant (usually greater than or equal to 35).
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What are the two types of adjustments?
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1. Area Fire
2. Precision Fire |
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In a Precision Fire Mission, how many guns are used?
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One
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What would an observer announce if he wishes to conduct a Precision Fire Mission?
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He would transmit "Destruction" in the Method of Engagement
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What are the six elements of Method of Engagement?
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1. Type of Adjustment
2. Danger Close 3. Mark 4. Trajectory 5. Ammunition 6. Distribution |
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What is the normal interval of fire between guns when a Section/Platoon/Battery Left/Right is requested in the Method of Fire?
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5 seconds
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What are the fourteen elements in the Method of Control?
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1. Fire When Ready (standard)
2. At My Command 3. Cannot Observe 4. Time On Target (TOT) 5. Time To Target (TTT) 6. Continuous Illumination 7. Coordinated Illumination 8. Cease Loading 9. Check Firing 10. Continuous Fire 11. Repeat 12. Request Splash 13. Do Not Load 14. Duration |
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What is Danger Close for artillery and mortars?
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600m
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What are the five HOB spottings?
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1. Air
2. Graze 3. Mixed 4. Mixed Air 5. Mixed Graze |
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What are the uses of Illumination?
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1. Illuminate areas of suspected enemy activity
2. Provide Illumination for night adjustment 3. Harass enemy positions 4. Furnish direction to friendly troops for attacks or patrols 5. Mark targets 6. Wash out enemy night-sight systems |
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What are the uses for smoke?
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1. Obscuring Smoke - placed on or near enemy to suppress enemy observers and minimize their vision
2. Screening Smoke - curtain used between enemy and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions and activities 3. Deception Smoke - curtain used to deceive and confuse enemy as to nature of friendly operations 4. Signaling Smoke - used to establish reference for friendly forces |
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What does MTL stand for?
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Maneuver Target Line
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What smoke rounds do mortars fire?
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White Phosphorous
Red Phosphorous |
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What wind speeds are ideal for smoke?
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4-14 knots
-- 4-10 knots HC/Improved Smoke -- 9-14 knots WP |
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When conducting a quick smoke mission, when do you change the round from HE to Smoke?
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When round is within 100m of adjusting point.
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What is the proper Call For Fire for a FPF?
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If a manually adjusted FPF, conduct a standard Adjust Fire mission with a Target Description of "Final Protective Fire" and Method of Engagement of "Danger Close".
If not adjusted, use the above as a FFE mission. |
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How many mils are in a circle?
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6400
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What are the three Norths?
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1. Grid
2. Magnetic 3. True |
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What digit grid is required when conducting a precision fire mission?
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8 digit grid
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What does IP stand for?
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Initial Point
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What does the brevity term Winchester mean?
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Out of munitions
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What does the brevity term Bingo mean?
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Fuel state indicating pilot must return to station
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How many miles are in one Knot?
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1.15 mph in a knot
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What does Knot refer to?
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Nautical miles per hour
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