Fiser Absite. Ch 23-25. Parathyroid. Breast. Thoracic.

Front 1

Where do the superior parathyroid originate? and inferior?

Back 1

4th pharyngeal pouch, 3rd pharyngeal pouch

Front 2

Where are the superior parathyroids in relation to the RLNs? and the inferior?

Back 2

lateral, medial

Front 3

Where are the superior parathyroids in relation to the inferior thyroid artery? and inferior parathyroids?

Back 3

above, below

Front 4

What is the blood supply to the parathyroids?

Back 4

inferior thyroid artery

Front 5

What is the most common ectopic site for parathyroids?

Back 5

tail of the thymus

Front 6

What is a normal Ca level range?

Back 6

8.5-10.5

Front 7

What is a normal PTH level range?

Back 7

5-40

Front 8

What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?

Back 8

previous thyroid surgery

Front 9

What is the name form bone lesions from Ca resorption; characteristic of hyperparathyroidism?

Back 9

Osteitis firbrosa cystica (brown tumors)

Front 10

Indications for parathyroid surgery include symptomatic disease or asymptomatic disease with Ca above what level?

Back 10

13

Front 11

What percentage of pts with hyperparathyroid have single adenoma? multiple adenomas? diffuse hyperplasia?

Back 11

single adenoma 80%
multiple adenomas 4%
diffuse hyperplasia 15%

Front 12

Hyperparathyroidism in pregnancy carries a risk of still birth. In what trimester do you operate?

Back 12

2nd

Front 13

What is the half-life of PTH?

Back 13

10 minutes

Front 14

What should be done if parathyroid CA is found?

Back 14

radical parathyroidectomy and take ipsilateral thyroid

Front 15

What are the three causes of postop hypocalcemia after parathyroid surgery?

Back 15

bone hunger, hypomagnesmia, failure of parathyroid remnant or graft

Front 16

Hypocalcemia postop after parathyroid surgery. What will the levels of PTH and HCO3- be if the cause is bone hunger? and what if it is aparathyroidism?

Back 16

Bone hunger – normal PTH, decreased HCO3− Aparathyroidism – decreased PTH, normal HCO3−

Front 17

What is the study that is used in hyperparathyroidism that is good for picking up adenomas and ectopic glands but not 4-gland hyperplasia?

Back 17

sestamibi-technetium-99

Front 18

What is the most common indication for surgery in secondary hyperparathyroidism?

Back 18

bone pain

Front 19

What diagnosis should you consider if pt has Ca 9–11, normal PTH (30–60), ↓ urine Ca?

Back 19

Familial hypercalcemic hypocalciuria

Front 20

What is the cause of familial hypercalcemic hypocalciuria?

Back 20

Caused by defect in PTH receptor in distal convoluted tubule of the kidney that causes ↑ resorption of Ca

Front 21

What is the tx for familial hypercalcemic hypocalciuria?

Back 21

Nothing, no parathyroidectomy because Ca generally not that high

Front 22

What is the most common location for metastases of parathyroid cancer?

Back 22

the lung

Front 23

List the MEN syndromes and components?

Back 23

MEN I: parathyroid hyperplasia, pancreatic islet cell tumors, pituitary adenomas

MEN IIa: parathyroid hyperplasia, pheochromocytoma, medullary CA of the thyroid

MEN IIb: pheochromocytomas, medullary CA of thyroid, mucosal neuromas, marfan's habitus

Front 24

Name the drug used in the management of hypercalcemia that inhibits osteoclasts (used with malignancies or failure of conventional treatment); has hematologic, liver, and renal side effects.

Back 24

Mithramycin

Front 25

When breast CA metastases to bone, what causes hypercalcemia?

Back 25

release of PTHrp

Front 26

What hormone is responsible for duct development of the breast? and lobular development? and what hormone synergizes those two?

Back 26

estrogen, progesterone, prolactin

Front 27

What nerve innervates serratus anterior; injury results in winged scapula?

Back 27

long thoracic

Front 28

What artery supplies serratus anterior?

Back 28

lateral throacic artery

Front 29

What nerve innervates latissimus dorsi?

Back 29

thoracodorsal nerve

Front 30

What artery supplies latissimus dorsi?

Back 30

thoracodorsal artery

Front 31

What innervates pectoralis major and minor? what innervates pectoralis major only?

Back 31

Medial pectoral nerve – innervates pectoralis major and pectoralis minor    • Lateral pectoral nerve – pectoralis major only

Front 32

What nerve?:
Lateral cutaneous branch of the 2nd intercostal nerve; provides sensation to medial arm and axilla; encountered just below axillary vein when performing axillary dissection. Can transect without serious consequences.

Back 32

intercostobrachial nerve

Front 33

Branches of 4 arteries supply the breast?

Back 33

internal thoracic artery, intercostal arteries, thoracoacromial artery, and lateral thoracic artery

Front 34

What is the valveless vein plexus that allows direct hematogenous metastasis of breast CA to spine?

Back 34

Batson's plexus

Front 35

What is the number 1 cause of axillary adenopathy?

Back 35

lymphoma

Front 36

What is the term used to describe breast cysts filled with milk; occurs with breast-feeding? Tx: ranges from aspiration to incision and drainage.

Back 36

Galactocele

Front 37

Dilated mammary ducts, inspissated secretions, marked periductal inflammation    • Symptoms: noncyclical mastodynia, nipple retraction, creamy discharge from nipple; can have sterile subareolar abscess    • Patients have a history of difficulty with breast-feeding    • Tx: if typical creamy discharge is present that is not bloody and not associated with nipple retraction, may be able to reassure; otherwise need to rule out malignancy.

Back 37

Periductal mastitis (mammary duct ectasia or plasma cells mastitis)

Front 38

What syndrome is described by hypoplasia of chest wall, amastia, hypoplastic shoulder, no pectoralis muscle?

Back 38

Poland's syndrome

Front 39

Name the disease and treatment described by superficial vein thrombophlebitis of breast; feels cordlike, can be painful    • Associated with trauma and strenuous exercise    • Usually occurs in lower outer quadrant.

Back 39

Mondor's disease, tx NSAIDs

Front 40

What are the two types of fibrocystic breast disease that have a cancer risk?

Back 40

atypical ductal or lobular hyperplasia

Front 41

What type of fibrocystic disease can manifest as a cluster of calcifications on mammogram without a mass or pain → can look like breast CA?      • Is differentiated from breast CA by regularity of nuclei and absence of mitoses

Back 41

sclerosing adenosis

Front 42

What is the most common cause of bloody discharge from nipple?

Back 42

intraductal papilloma

Front 43

Are intraductal papillomas premalignant?

Back 43

no

Front 44

How to locate a intraductal papilloma and what is the tx?

Back 44

→ can get contrast ductogram to find papilloma    • Tx: resection (subareolar resection usually curative)

Front 45

What is the most common breast lesion in adolescents and young women?

Back 45

fibroadenoma

Front 46

How do you diagnose a fibroadenoma in a pt <30? and >30?

Back 46

In patients < 30 years:
      • Mass needs to feel clinically benign (firm, rubbery, rolls, not fixed)
      • Ultrasound or mammogram needs to be consistent with fibroadenoma
      • Need fine-needle aspiration (FNA) or core needle biopsy showing the lesion (not just normal breast tissue.

In patients > 30 years → excisional biopsy to ensure diagnosis

Front 47

What is the difference in workup for nipple discharge that is spontaneous vs nonspontaneous?

Back 47

Spontaneous discharge – no matter what the color or consistency is worrisome for cancer    • All these patients need some sort of biopsy in the area of the duct causing the discharge

Nonspontaneous discharge (occurs only with pressure, tight garments, exercise, etc.) – not as worrisome but may still need excisional biopsy (i.e., if bloody)

Front 48

What two things do all pts with nipple discharge need?

Back 48

H and P and bilateral mammogram

Front 49

What is the usual cause of green nipple discharge and tx?

Back 49

Usually due to fibrocystic disease. Tx: if cyclical and nonspontaneous, reassure pt

Front 50

What are two possible causes of bloody nipple discharge and their workup?

Back 50

Bloody discharge – most commonly intraductal papilloma; occasionally ductal CA    • Tx: need galactogram and excision of that ductal area

Front 51

What is the concern with serous nipple discharge and the tx?

Back 51

Serous discharge – worrisome for cancer, especially if coming from only 1 duct or spontaneous    • Tx: excisional biopsy of that ductal area

Front 52

■ Affects multiple ducts of both breasts ■ Papillomas are larger than when they occur solitarily ■ Usually have serous discharge ■ Mammogram shows Swiss cheese appearance ■ ↑ risk of breast CA (40% get breast CA)

Back 52

Diffuse Papillomatosis

Front 53

■ Malignant cells of the ductal epithelium without invasion of the basement membrane ■ 50%–60% get cancer if not resected (ipsilateral breast); 5%–10% get cancer in contralateral breast ■ Considered a premalignant lesion ■ Usually not palpable and presents as a cluster of calcifications on mammography

Back 53

Ductal Carcinoma In Situ

Front 54

What size margin is needed for ductal carcinoma in situ?

Back 54

2-3 mm

Front 55

What is the most aggressive subtype of ductal carcinoma in situ; has necrotic areas       • High risk for multicentricity, microinvasion, and recurrence       • Tx: simple mastectomy

Back 55

Comedo pattern

Front 56

What is the tx for ductal carcinoma in situ with a small focus? and if high grade (ie comedo type, multicentric, multifocal)?

Back 56

small focus: lumpectomy and XRT; possibly tamoxifen

simple mastectomy if high grade or large tumor; no ALND

Front 57

■ 40% get cancer (either breast) ■ Considered a marker for the development of breast CA, not premalignant itself ■ Has no calcifications; is not palpable ■ Primarily found in premenopausal women, usually incidental finding

Back 57

Lobular carcinoma in situ

Front 58

What are three treatment options for lobular carcinoma in situ?

Back 58

Tx: nothing, tamoxifen, or bilateral subcutaneous mastectomy (no ALND)

Front 59

What country has the lowest rate of breast CA worldwide?

Back 59

Japan

Front 60

Is breast CA increased or decreased in economically poor areas?

Back 60

decreased

Front 61

What is the breast CA risk for women?

Back 61

1 in 8 (12%)

Front 62

What is the median survival for untreated breast CA

Back 62

2-3 years

Front 63

What percentage of breast CAs have negative mammogram and negatie ultrasound?

Back 63

10%

Front 64

Symptomatic breast mass in a pt <30 years old, what next?

Back 64

ultrasound

Front 65

Symptomatic breast mass in a pt <30 years old, gets ultrasound and it shows it is solid, what next?

Back 65

FNA

Front 66

Symptomatic breast mass in a pt <30 gets ultrasound, shows solid, has FNA, it comes back nondiagnostic, what next? what if FNA comes back fibroadenoma

Back 66

excisional bx, fibroadenomas need excisional bx if enlarges

Front 67

Symptomatic breast mass in pt 30-50 years what next?

Back 67

bilateral mammograms and FNA; excisional bx if FNA nondiagnostic

Front 68

Symptomatic breast mass in a pt >50 years what next?

Back 68

bilateral mammograms and excisional or core needl bx

Front 69

What is the difference in FNA and core needle bx.

Back 69

Core needle bx gives architecture, FNA gives cytology (just the cells)

Front 70

Symptomatic breast mass is cystic, fluid is bloody what next? what if is clear and recurs? what if complex cyst?

Back 70

excisional bx for all three: bloody, recurs, or complex

Front 71

What size does a mass need to be in order to be detected on mammogram?

Back 71

>5mm

Front 72

What are the general screening mammogram guidelines? and for high risk?

Back 72

Every 2-3 years after age 40, yearly after 40

High risk: 10 years before the youngest age of dx in first-degree relative

Front 73

What is the next step if mammogram shows suspicious or indeterminate calcifications or architecture?

Back 73

perform localized stereotactic needle excisional biopsy

Front 74

Name the BI-RADS level:

Highly suggestive of malignancy. High probability of cancer; appropriate action should be taken.

Back 74

5

Front 75

Name the BI-RADS level:

Suspicious abnormality. Definite probability of malignancy; consider biopsy

Back 75

4

Front 76

Name the BI-RADS level:

Probably benign finding Short-interval follow-up

Back 76

3

Front 77

What muscle divides the three axillary lymph node levels and what are they?

Back 77

Pec Minor
 
I – lateral to pectoralis minor muscle
II – beneath pectoralis minor muscle
III – medial to pectoralis minor muscle

Front 78

What is the most important prognostic staging factor in breast CA? list 4 others?

Back 78

nodes

tumor size, tumor grade, progesterone and estrogen status

Front 79

What is the most common distant metastasis for breast CA? list 3 others?

Back 79

bone

lung, liver, brain

Front 80

With breast cancer, how long does it take to go from one malignant cell to a 1 cm tumor?

Back 80

5-7 years

Front 81

Central and subareolar tumors have an increased risk of what?

Back 81

multcentricity

Front 82

What type are 85% of breast CAs? and the next 10%?

Back 82

ductal CA, lobular CA

Front 83

What is the median survival for inflammatory breast cancer?

Back 83

36 months

Front 84

What causes the peu d'orange appearance in inflammatory breast cancer?

Back 84

dermal lymphatic invasion

Front 85

Subcutaneous (simple) mastectomy preserves the nipple and leaves 1-2% of breast tissue. Not indicated for breast CA treatment. Used for what two conditions?

Back 85

DCIS and LCIS

Front 86

What size margins for lumpectomy?

Back 86

1 cm

Front 87

Clinically positive nodes not a candidate for SLND, needs what?

Back 87

ALND

Front 88

During SLND, if no radiotracer or dye is found, what do you do?

Back 88

ALND

Front 89

A complication of axillary lymph node dissection, sudden early, postop swelling could be do to what? what about slow swelling over 18 months?

Back 89

Axillary vein thrombosis, Lymphatic fibrosis

Front 90

A complication of axillary lymph node dissection: hyperesthesia of inner arm and lateral chest wall; most commonly injured nerve after mastectomy; no significant sequelae. What nerve could be injured?

Back 90

Intercostal brachiocutaneous

Front 91

How long to leave drains after axillary lymph node dissection?

Back 91

until drainage < 40cc/day

Front 92

Indications for XRT after mastectomy include:
?
skin or chest wall involvement
positive margins
tumor > what size?
extracapsular node invasion
inflammatory CA
fixed nodes or internal mammary nodes

Back 92

>4 nodes
>5 cm tumor

Front 93

Lumpectomy with XRT pts need what before starting XRT?

Back 93

negative margins

Front 94

Two indications for chemo in breast CA

Back 94

• Positive nodes – everyone gets chemo except postmenopausal women with positive estrogen receptors → tamoxifen    • >1 cm and negative nodes – everyone gets chemo except patients with positive estrogen receptors → tamoxifen    • <1 cm and negative nodes – no further treatment

Front 95

With paget's disease of the breast, pts will have what 2 other conditions?

Back 95

DCIS or ductal CA

Front 96

What is the tx for Paget's disease of the breast?

Back 96

MRM if CA present otherwise simple mastectomy

Front 97

Cystosarcoma phyllodes, 10% are malignant, how can it mets?

Back 97

hematogenous (rare), no nodal mets

Front 98

What is the tx for Cystosarcoma phyllodes?

Back 98

WLE with negative margins, no ALND

Front 99

What is the name for the syndrome which is lymphangiosarcoma from chronic lymphedema following axillary dissection (MRM)    • Patients present with dark purple nodule or lesion on arm 5–10 years after surgery

Back 99

Stewart-Treves syndrome

Front 100

What is the position of the phrenic nerve and vagus nerve in the hilum?

Back 100

■ Phrenic nerve – runs anterior to hilum
■ Vagus nerve – runs posterior to hilum

Front 101

What percentage of total lung volume is from the right lung?

Back 101

55%

Front 102

What percentage of quiet inspiration is from the diaphragm? and the intercostals?

Back 102

80%, 20%

Front 103

Which pneumocytes produce surfactant?

Back 103

Type II

Front 104

What structures direct air exchange between alveoli?

Back 104

Pores of Kahn

Front 105

How much pleural fluid is produced per day?

Back 105

1-2 L

Front 106

Which layer of the pleura produces pleural fluid and which layer has the lymphatics that clear the fluid?

Back 106

parietal pleura produces pleural fluid cleared by lymphatics in the visceral pleura

Front 107

What is the most common single site of lung CA mets?

Back 107

brain

Front 108

What is the overall 5 year survival rate for lung CA? and with resection?

Back 108

10%, 30%

Front 109

What is the most common type of lung CA?

Back 109

adenocarcinoma

Front 110

Local recurrence is increased with which type of lung CA? and distant metastases?

Back 110

local recurrence, distant metastases

Front 111

What percentage of pts with small carcinoma are surgical candidates?

Back 111

<5% (most get just chemo and XRT)

Front 112

What is the most common paraneoplastic syndrome?

Back 112

Small cell ACTH

Front 113

What is the most malignant lung tumor?

Back 113

mesothelioma

Front 114

Name two chemotherapy agents used for small cell lung CA

Back 114

cisplatin, etopside

Front 115

What is the name of the procedure used to assess aortopulmonary window nodes; goes through left 2nd rib cartilage?

Back 115

Chamberlain procedure

Front 116

In addition to Horner's syndrome, what other nerve can have sx with Pancoast tumor?

Back 116

ulnar

Front 117

Coin lesions are overall 5-10% malignant. Age <50 what percent are malignant? and age >50?

Back 117

<5%, 50%

Front 118

What type of tumor is carcinoids? what is the tx?

Back 118

neuroendocrine, tx: resection; treat like CA

Front 119

Name the lung mass:

   • Submucosal glands; spread along perineural lymphatics, well beyond endoluminal component; XRT sensitive    • Slow growing; can get 10-year survival with incomplete resection    • Tx: resection; if unresectable, XRT can provide good palliation

Back 119

Adenoid cystic adenoma

Front 120

What is the most common benign adule lung tumor?

Back 120

hamartoma

Front 121

Popcorn lesion on chest CT, dx? tx?

Back 121

hamartoma, Do not require resection ■ Repeat chest CT in 6 months to confirm diagnosis

Front 122

What type of tumor is the most common mediastinal tumor in adults and children, usually in posterior mediastinum?

Back 122

neurogenic tumors

Front 123

What is the most common site for mediastinal tumor?

Back 123

anterior (thymus)

Front 124

What are 5 types of tumors found in the anterior mediastinum?

Back 124

Thymoma,
Thyroid CA and goiters,
T-cell lymphoma,
Teratoma,
Parathyroid adenomas

Front 125

What is the tx for all thymomas?

Back 125

resection

Front 126

What is the tx for mediastinal teratoma? and seminoma?

Back 126

resection and chemo for teratoma; seminoma is very XRT sensitive, chemo for positive nodes or residual disease; surgery for residual disease after that

Front 127

90% of nonseminoma mediastinal germ cell tumor have elevations in what two markers? and what is the tx?

Back 127

beta-HCG and alpha-fetoprotein

Tx: cisplatin-based chemo and XRT; surgery for residual disease

Front 128

Benign tumor of the trachea seen in adults? and in children? malignant is usually what?

Back 128

adults papilloma; children hemangioma; malignant squamous cell carcinoma

Front 129

What is the most common late complication after tracheal surgery? and early complication?

Back 129

late - granulation tissue formation

early - laryngeal edema

Front 130

Postintubation stenosis – at stoma site with tracheostomy, at cuff site with ET tube

May be able to treat with ___ or ___ May need resection with end-to-end anastomosis if severe.

Back 130

serial dilatation or with laser

Front 131

Tracheostomy – needs to be between the 1st and 2nd tracheal rings not >3 rings → risk what?

Back 131

tracheoinnominate fistula

Front 132

What is the tx for tracheoinnominate fistula?

Back 132

overinflate balloon to plug hole or stick your finger in hole and depress innominate artery. Resect innominate and place graft. Leave trachea alone. Use new tracheostomy site

Front 133

■ Tracheoesophageal fistula:    • Use large-volume cuff below fistula    • May need decompressing gastrostomy    • Tx: tracheal resection, reanastomosis, ___ flap

Back 133

sternohyoid

Front 134

Lung abscess are most commonly associated with what?

Back 134

aspiration

Front 135

Tx for lung abscess is abx which are 95% successful, what next if abx fails? and if that fails?

Back 135

CT guided drainage

surgery if fails or cannot rule out CA (>6 cm, failure to resolve after 6 weeks)

Front 136

What are the three phases of empyema seen in 1-3 weeks respectively?

Back 136

Exudative phase - 1st week
Fibroproliferative phase - 2nd week
Organized phase - 3rd week

Front 137

What is the tx of empyema during the 1st and 2nd weeks? and 3rd week (3 options)?

Back 137

abx and chest tube in 1st and 2nd week

3rd week - Tx: likely need decortication; fibrous peel occurs around lung    • May need Eloesser flap (direct opening to external environment) for chronic unresolving empyema    • Can also place a chronic chest tube that is gradually pulled out

Front 138

50% of chylothorax is secondary to what cause? and the other 50%

Back 138

50% secondary to tumor, 50% secondary to trauma or iatrogenic injury

Front 139

What is the most common tumor to cause chylothorax?

Back 139

lymphoma due to tumor burden on lymphatics

Front 140

The thoracic duct runs along the right side and dumps into the left sublavian vein at junction with internal jugular. Where does it cross? Why is this location significant in chylothorax?

Back 140

T4-5

Injury above T5–6 results in left-sided chylothorax ■ Injury below T5–6 results in right-sided chylothorax

Front 141

Tx for chylothorax is 3-4 weeks of conservative therapy * chest tube, octreotide, low-fat diet or TPN). What if that fails for chylothorax secondary to trauma or iatrogenic injury? and for malignant cases?

Back 141

If that fails, surgery with ligation of thoracic duct on right side low in mediastinum (80% successful) if chylothorax secondary to trauma or iatrogenic injury

For malignant causes of chylothorax, can perform mechanical or talc pleurodesis (less successful than above)

Front 142

What stain can be used to stain fat in chylothorax?

Back 142

sudan red stain

Front 143

Does the milky white fluid in chylothorax that is high in lymphocytes and TAGs get infected?

Back 143

chylothorax is fluid resistant to infection

Front 144

Massive hemoptysis (>600 cc/24 h), bleeding is from high pressure bronchial arteries. Most commonly secondary to infection. What type is most common?

Back 144

mycetoma (fungal)

Front 145

What is the tx for massive hemoptysis (>600cc in 24 hrs)?

Back 145

place bleeding side down if know; rigid bronchoscopy to identify site; mainstem intubation to side opposite of bleeding to prevent drowning in blood; to OR for lobectomy or pneumonectomy; brochial artery embolization if not suitable for surgery

Front 146

Spontaneous pneumothorax seen in tall, healthy, thin, young males. Recurrence risk after 1st pneumothorax is what percent? after 2nd? after 3rd?

Back 146

20%, 60%, 80%

Front 147

Which side is spontaneous pnuemothorax most common?

Back 147

right

Front 148

What is the tx for spontaneous pneumothorax?

Back 148

chest tube

Front 149

When is surgery indicated for spontaneous pneumothorax?

Back 149

recurrence, large blebs on CT scan, air leak >7 days, nonreexpansion.

Also need surgery for high-risk profession (airline pilot, diver, mountain climber) or pts who live in remote areas

Front 150

What is the most common cysts of the mediastinum and their usual location?

Back 150

bronchiogenic cysts, usually posterior to the carina

Front 151

What type of pneumothorax occurs in temporal relation to menstruation. Caused by endometrial implants in visceral lung pleura?

Back 151

catamenial pneumothorax

Front 152

Residual hemothorax despite 2 good chest tubes. What next?

Back 152

OR for thorascopic drainage

Front 153

Clotted hemothorax - surgical drainage if >25% of lung, air-fluid levels, or signs of infection; surgery in 1st week to avoid what?

Back 153

avoid peel

Front 154

Whiteout on CXR:

Midline shift toward whiteout is most likely collapse. Needs what tx?

No shift - do CT to figure it out

Midline shift away from whiteout likely effusion. Needs what tx?

Back 154

collapse needs bronchoscopy to remove plug

effusion needs chest tube

Front 155

Bronchiectasis is acquired from infection, tumor or what other condition?

Back 155

cystic fibrosis

Front 156

Noncaseating granulomas are seen in what lung condition?

Back 156

sarcoidosis

Front 157

What is the pleural fluid protein to serum ratio seen in an exudate? and the pleural fluid LDH to serum ratio seen in exudate?

Back 157

> 0.5

> 0.6

Front 158

Recurrent pleural effusions can be treated with what?

Back 158

mechanical pleurodesis (talc pleurodesis for malignant pleural effusions)

Front 159

Airway fires are usually associated with the laser. What is the tx?

Back 159

stop gas flow, remove ET tube, reintubate for 24 hrs; bronchoscopy

Front 160

AVMs, connections between the pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins; usually occurs in the lower lobes and in pts with what disease?

Back 160

Osler-Weber-Rendu disease

Front 161

What is the tx for AVMs in the lung?

Back 161

embolization

Front 162

What is the most common benign chest wall tumor? and malignant?

Back 162

benign - osteochondroma
malignant - chondrosarcoma