First Aid- Microbiology

Front 1

Which inflammatory cytokines do Teichoic Acid and LPS induce?

Back 1

TNF and IL-1.

Front 2

Which special acid and extracelluar matrix like molecule do bacterial endospores contain?

Back 2

They contain Dipicolinic Acid (DPA), and a Keratin like coat.

Front 3

Which bacteria has not cell wall, but contains sterols in its lipid membrane?

Back 3

Mycoplasma.

Front 4

Why can't Treponema be visualized with Gram stain? How do we visualize it instead?

Back 4

Treponemes are too thin to be visualized, therefore darkfield microscopy and fluorescent antibody staining are necessary.

Front 5

What type of stain do we use to visualize Legionella?

Back 5

Silver stain.

Front 6

Which bugs are hard to stain mostly because they are intracellular parasites?

Back 6

Rickettsia, Legionella, and Chlamydia.

Front 7

What is Giemsa stain primarily used for?

Back 7

Borrelia, Plasmodium, Trypanosomes, Chlamydia

Front 8

What is PAS stain used for?

Back 8

Stains glycogen, mucopolysaccharides, and is used to diagnose Whipple's disease.

Front 9

What is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain used for?

Back 9

Acid-fast bacteria.

Front 10

What is the purpose of using the India Ink stain?

Back 10

Crytopcoccus neoformans.

Front 11

What are the main purposes for using Silver stain?

Back 11

Fungi and Legionella.

Front 12

Chocolate agar with Factors V (NAD) and X (hematin) are used for what microbe?

Back 12

H.influenzae

Front 13

Which microbe is Thayer-Martin media used to grow?

Back 13

N.gonorrhoeae

Front 14

Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar is used for growing what bacteria?

Back 14

B.pertussis

Front 15

Tellurite plate and Loffler's media is used for what Gram positive bug?

Back 15

C.diptheriae

Front 16

Which microbe needs Lowenstein-Jensen agar in order to be cultured?

Back 16

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Front 17

Which bacterum is Eaton's agar used for?

Back 17

Mycoplasma pnuemoniae

Front 18

Which enteric bacterium can be grown on Eosin-methylene blue (EMB) agar and grow up as blue-black colonies with metallic sheen?

Back 18

E.coli

Front 19

Pink colonies on MacConkey's agar indicates what type of bacteria?

Back 19

Lactose fermenting enterics.

Front 20

Charcoal yeast extract buffered with increased iron and cysteine is used for growing which "Silver-stain-bacteria"?

Back 20

Legionella.

Front 21

What organism is Sabouraud's agar used for?

Back 21

Fungi.

Front 22

Which are the most important microbes that are Obligate Aerobes?

Back 22

Nocardia, Pseudomonas, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Bacillus. "(N)agging (P)ests (M)ust (B)reathe.

Front 23

Which are the most important microbes that are Obligate Anaerobes? What enzymes do these organisms lack that make them obligate anaerobes? What antibiotic should you not treat them with?

Back 23

Clostridium, Bacterioides, and Actinomyces. Anaerobes "Can't Breathe Air. These organisms lack catalase and/or superoxide dismutase and are thus susceptible to oxidative damage. Amin(O2)glycosides are ineffective against these organisms because they require O2 to enter the bacterial cell.

Front 24

Which organisms are obligate intracellular pathogens?

Back 24

Rickettsia and Chlamydia. "Stay inside when its (R)eally (C)old"

Front 25

Which bacterial pathogens are Facultative Anaerobes?

Back 25

Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia

"(S)ome (N)asty (B)ugs (M)ay (L)ive (F)acultative(L)(Y)"

Front 26

(S)ome (N)asties (H)ave (K)apsules refers to what?

Back 26

This refers to bacteria that are encapsulated with a polysaccharide capsule that serves as an antiphagocytic virulence factor. The bacteria are Strep. pneumo., Neisseria meningitidis, H.influenzae, and Klebsiella.

Front 27

What does the phrase (P)articular (K)inds (H)ave (U)rease refer to?

Back 27

This refers to the bacteria that are urease producers. These bacteria are Proteus, Klebsiella, H.pylori, and Ureaplasma.

Front 28

Which virulence factor binds the Fc region of Ig? Which bacterium does it belong to?

Back 28

Protein A binds Fc of Ig. Staph aureus is the bug that makes it.

Front 29

Which Gram positive bacteria produces LPS (Endotoxin)?

Back 29

Listeria.

Front 30

What is the difference in genetic origin of bacteria endotoxin vs. exotoxin?

Back 30

Endotoxin is found on Gram negative bacterial chromosomes. Exotoxin is found on a plasmid or from bacteriophage that have inserted into a bacterial chromosome.

Front 31

Describe the mechanism of action of superantigens.

Back 31

Superantigens bind directly to MHC II and T-cell receptor simultaneously, activating large numbers of T-cells to stimulate the release of IFN-gamma and IL-2.

Front 32

Which bacteria posses ADP-ribosylating A-B toxins? Explain the general mechanism of action by which they all work.

Back 32

C.diptheriae, V.cholera, E.coli, and B. pertussis all have A-B toxins. A-B ADP ribosylating toxins work through the B(binding) component binding to a receptor on the surface of the host cell, enabling endocytosis. Then the A(active) component attaches an ADP-ribosyl to a host protein (ADP ribosylation), altering protein function.

Front 33

Which bacteria has an A-B toxin that inactivates EF-2 (similar to Psuedomonas extotoxin A)?

Back 33

Corynebacterium diptheriae

Front 34

Which bacteria has a A-B toxin that ADP ribosylates Gs protein, stimulating adenylyl cyclase, which increases Cl- in the gut and decreased Na+ absorption that leads to voluminous rice-water diarrhea?

Back 34

Vibrio Cholerae

Front 35

E.coli has Heat Labile toxin and Heat Stabile toxin. Both cause watery diarrhea. How does each work?

Back 35

Heat-Labile toxin stimulates Adenylate cyclase. Heat-Stable toxin stimulates Guanylate cyclase. "Labile like (A)ir, Stable like (G)round

Front 36

Which bacteria is known for making an A-B toxin that inhibits Gi protein, and thus leaves adenylyl cyclase unchecked? What else does this A-B toxin do?

Back 36

Bordetella pertussis. In addition to increasing cAMP through inhibiting Gi, its A-B toxin also inhibits chemokine receptor causing lymphocytosis.

Front 37

What are the gases that are usually produced in tissue as a result of infection with anaerobic microbes?

Back 37

CO2 and H2 gas.

Front 38

What is the toxin associated with Clostriium infection that causes Gas Gangrene? What unique type of Hemolysis does this toxin produce on blood agar?

Back 38

Alpha toxin produces gas gangrene and a double zone of hemolysis on blood agar.

Front 39

Which toxin cleaves host cell rRNA, (inactivates 60s ribosomes), and also causes enhance cytokine release creating a hemolytic syndrome?

Back 39

Shiga toxin produced by Shigella and 0157:H7.

Front 40

Which bacteria produces lymphocytosis by inhibiting chemokine receptors?

Back 40

Bordetella pertussis.

Front 41

Which toxin is used as an antigen for the antibody used in the diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever? What is the antibody called?

Back 41

Streptollysin O is a hemolysin and the antigen for ASO antibody, which is used in the diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever

Front 42

Which bacterial toxin is, itself, an Adenylate Cyclase that increases cAMP production? What bacteria produces this toxin?

Back 42

This describes Edema Factor that is produced by Bacillus Anthracis.

Front 43

Is Endotoxin heat-stabile or heat-labile?

Back 43

LPS is HEAT STABLE!

Front 44

What is the factor that is activated that is responsible for development of DIC due to LPS?

Back 44

HAGEMAN factor, which activates the coagulation cascade, which leads to the development of DIC.

Front 45

What are each of the most important branches of the immunologic reaction that are activates by LPS-Lipid A and what effects do they have?

Back 45

IL-1 (Fever)
TNF (Fever, hemorrhagic tissue necrosis)
Nitric Oxide (Hypotensive shock)
C3a (hypotension and edema)
C5a (Neutrophil chemotaxis)

Front 46

What are the five main bacterial toxins that are encoded in a lysogenic phage???

Back 46

ABCDE

Shig(A)-liike toxin, (B)otulinum toxin (certain strains), (C)holera toxin, (D)iptheria toxin, (E)rythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes.

Front 47

What are the four most important Beta Hemolytic bacteria that we need to know about?

Back 47

Staphylococcus aureus, Strep pyogenes, Strep agalacitae, and Listeria monocytogenes.

Front 48

Which bacterial infection is associated with Rusty sputum?

Back 48

Strep pneumoniae.

Front 49

What are the two main diseases that are caused by Enterococcus faecalis? Which medication is this microbe resistant to?

Back 49

Enterococci cause UTI and subacute endocarditis. They are penicillin G resistant; some are even vancomycin resistant.

Front 50

Which Streptococcus bacteria is associated with colon cancer?

Back 50

Streptococcus bovis.

Front 51

A Gram positive rod with metachromatic granules causing pharyngitis lymphadenopathy makes you think of what bacteria?

Back 51

Corynebacterium diptheriae

Front 52

What disease is characterized by severe jaundice and azotemia from liver and kidney dysfunction, fever, hemorrhage, and anemia?

Back 52

Weil's disease from icterohemorrhagic leptospirosis, due to Leptospira interrogans.

Front 53

What is the name of the vector that transmits Borrelia burgdorferi and Babesia?

Back 53

the tick Ixodes.

Front 54

Describe the characteristic rash associated with Borrelia burgdordferi. What are other signs and symptoms associated with Lyme disease?

Back 54

This is going to be an expanding "Bull's Eye" red rash with central clearing. Lyme disease is also associated with joints (arthritis), CNS, and heart disease.

Front 55

What are the main mammal reservoirs other than humans for Borrelia burdorferi?

Back 55

Mice are important reservoirs, and deer are required for the tick life cycle.

Front 56

Describe the three stages of lyme disease. What is the treatment for Lyme disease?

Back 56

Stage 1: erythema chronicum migrans, flu like symptoms

Stage 2: neurologic and cardiac manifestations

Stage 3: chronic monoarthritis and migratory polyarthritis
Doxycycline.

Front 57

What does the mneumonic "BAKE a key LYME pie" refer to?

Back 57

Lyme disease gives you (B)ells palsy, (A)rthritis, (K)ardiac block, (E)rythema migrans.

Front 58

Prarie dogs are known to carry what bacteria that caused a famous historical pandemic?

Back 58

Yersinia pestis, which is the cause of bubonic plague.

Front 59

What is the classic triad associated with Rickettsiae infection?

Back 59

Headache, fever, and rash (due to vasculitis).

Front 60

*IMPORTANT: What makes Rickettsiae obligate intracellular organisms?

Back 60

The fact that they need CoA and NAD.

Front 61

*IMPORTANT: What make Chlamydiae an obligate intracellular organism?

Back 61

They are obligate intracelluar organisms because they need ATP.

Front 62

*IMPORTANT: In contrast to all other Rickettsiae that are transmitted via arthropod vector and cause headache, fever, and rash, how is Coxiella transmitted and what type of illness does it cause?

Back 62

Coxiella is an atypical Rickettsia because it is transmitted by aerosol and causes pneumonia.

Front 63

What is the first-line treatment for Rickettsial infections?

Back 63

Tetracycline.

Front 64

Which Rickettsial microbe is responsible for Rocky Mountain Spotted fever? Describe the rash associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

Back 64

Rickettsia rickettsii is the cause of the (R)eal (R)ocky Mountain Spotted Fever. (R)ickettsial (R)ash

Front 65

Which Rickettsial microbe is responsible is responsible for causing Endemic typhus and which is responsible for causing Epidemic typhus? Describe the rash associated with Rickettsial Typhus

Back 65

E(p)pidemic Typhus is caused by Rickettsia (p)rowazekii. Endemic Typhus is caused by Rickettsia typhi. These Rickettsial Typhus diseases are characterized in part by a rash. The rash associated with (T)yphus begins on the (T)runk and spreads outward.

Front 66

There are two types of Rickettsial Typhus. One is spread by fleas and one is spread by the human body louse. Which is which?

Back 66

The two Rickettsial Typhus diseases are Endemic typhus which is spread by Fleas, and Epidemic typhus which is spread by the human body louse.

Front 67

What is the Weil-Felix reaction for? Which Rickettsial diseases can it pick up, and which one does it not pick up?

Back 67

The Weil-Felix reaction is an assay for antirickettsial antibodies, which cross react with Proteus antigen. Weil-Felix is usually positive for Typhus and Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, but negative for Q-Fever.

Front 68

What is Q-Fever? How is it spread? Which Rickettsial microbe is responsible for producing it?

Back 68

Q-Fever is Queer because it has NO RASH, and NO FEVER associated with it, and it has a negative Weil-Felix reaction. It is caused by Coxiella burnetti and is spread through inhaled aerosols and causes a pneumonia. This organism can survive for a long time outside and does have a vector.

Front 69

Where is Rocky Mountain Spotted fever endemic to?

Back 69

The East coast (despite its name).

Front 70

What is the 4 main diseases that present with rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet?

Back 70

(C)oxsackie (A) infection (hand, foot, mouth disease), (R)ocky Mountain spotted fever, and (S)yphilis. **you drive CARS using your PALMS and SOLES.ads

Front 71

Which two bacteria are responsible for causing PID?

Back 71

N.gonorrheae and C.trachomatis

Front 72

What are the two forms that Chlamydiae trachomatis are found in? Which form (R)eplicates? Which form (E)nters the cell?

Back 72

Thee two forms are the (E)lementary body which (E)nters the cell via (E)ndocytosis, and the (R)eticulate body, which (R)eplicates via binary fission.

Front 73

What type of disease does C.psittaci cause?

Back 73

C.ptittaci causes an antypical pneumonia.

Front 74

How do you treat Chlamydial infection?

Back 74

Erythromycin or Tetracycline.

Front 75

Why is the cell wall of Chlamydia unusual?

Back 75

It is unusual because it lacks N-Acetyl Muramic Acid.

Front 76

Which Chlamydial serotypes are the cause of chronic infection and cause blindness in Africa?

Back 76

Serotypes A,B, & C. ABC= (A)frica/ (B)lindness/ (C)hronic infection.

Front 77

What diseases are Chlamydial serotypes D and K responsible for causing?

Back 77

Urethritis/PID, ectopic pregancy, neonatal pneumonia, or neonatal conjunctivitis.

Front 78

What bacteria causes (L)ymphogranuloma venereum (acute lympadenitis, showing a positive Frei test)?

Back 78

Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1-3.

Front 79

What is special about the cell membrane of Mycoplasma pnuemoniae? What type of antibodies are found in people with Mycoplasma infection? What special media is required to culture Mycoplasma?

Back 79

This is the only bacterial membrane that contains Cholesterol. There are high titers of cold agglutinins (IgM). Mycoplasma must be cultured on Eaton's Agar.

Front 80

Which fungus causing endemic mycosis is small enough to fit inside of macrophage? Where is this fungus found and in what medium is it transmitted?

Back 80

Histoplasma. This fungus is found in the Ohio and Mississippi river valleys. It is transmitted through Bat and Starling droppings.

Front 81

Which mycosis is typically found East of the Mississippi and in Central America?

Back 81

Blastomycosis.

Front 82

Which mycosis is seen microscopically as Spherules filled with endospores? What disease is it known for causing in AIDS patients?

Back 82

Coccidoides and coccidiodomycosis. it may cause pneumonia or meningitis in AIDS and other immuno suppressed patients.

Front 83

Which systemic mycosis presents with the "Captain's wheel" appearance and is found endemically in Rural Latin America?

Back 83

Paracoccidoides and pararcoccidioidomycosis.

Front 84

Which systemic mycosis is most known for forming granulomatous nodules?

Back 84

Blastomycosis.

Front 85

What are the treatments for all of the systemic mycoses involved in local infections?

Back 85

Fluconazole and Ketoconazole.

Front 86

What is the treatment for all of the systemic infections with systemic mycoses?

Back 86

Amphotericin B.

Front 87

What is the treatment for cutaneous Candidiasis?

Back 87

Nystatin is the treatment for superficial infections with Candidia.

Front 88

What is the treatment for serious systemic infection with Candida?

Back 88

Amphotericin B.

Front 89

Microsporium is responsible for what cutaneous disease? How is it transmitted? What is it treated with?

Back 89

Microsporium one of the causes of various cutaneous conditions such as Tinea pedis, cruris, corporis, and capitis. Pets are a reservoir for microsporium and can be treated with topical azoles.

Front 90

How do you treat Giardia?

Back 90

Metronidazole.

Front 91

How do you treat Trichomonas vaginalis?

Back 91

Metronidazole.

Front 92

Which type of viral genetic recombination event is responsible for the outbreaks of worldwide influenza pandemics?

Back 92

Reassortment, which is when two viruses with segmented genomes infect the same cell and exchange genetic elements.

Front 93

What type of immune response do live attenuated viral vaccines elicit vs. killed vaccines?

Back 93

Live attenuated vaccines induce humoral and cell mediated immune responses. Killed vaccines induce only a humoral response.

Front 94

What are the most important live attenuated viral vaccines to know about?

Back 94

Measle, Mumps, Rubella, Sabin polio, VZV, yellow fever, small pox

Front 95

Which are the most important killed viral vaccines to know about?

Back 95

Rabies, Influenza, Salk polio, HAV

Front 96

Which are the most important recombinant viral vaccines to know about?

Back 96

HBV and HPV (types 6,11, 16, and 18);FJKL

Front 97

What are the only diploid viruses?

Back 97

All viruses are haploid except for Retroviruses which are diploid because they have two identical copies of ssRNA molecules.

Front 98

All DNA viruses replilcate in the nucleus except which one?

Back 98

Poxvirus because it is too big.

Front 99

All RNA viruses replicate in the cytolasm except which ones?

Back 99

All except Influenza and Retroviruses.

Front 100

What is special about the way Herpesviruses acquire their envelopes?

Back 100

Generally enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from plasma membrane when they exit from the cell. Exceptions are Herpesviruses, which acquire envelopes from nuclear membrane.

Front 101

Which are the Naked (non-enveloped) viruses?

Back 101

Naked CPR and PAPP smear:

(C)alici-, (P)icorna-, (R)eovirus

(P)arvo-, (A)deno-, (P)apilloma, (P)olyoma