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244 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the main gram negative cocci?
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Neisseria
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Name the seven major gram positive bac
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Circular- staph, strep
Rods- clostridium, corynebacterium, bacillus, listeria and mycobacterium(acid fast) |
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Name the two branching filamentous gram positives
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Actinomyces, nocardia
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what are the three major gram neg spirochetes?
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Treponema, leptospira, borrelia
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Which bac have membranes with high lipid content and mycolic acid?
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Mycobacteria
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What is the special stain for legionella?
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Silver stain
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Which stain is used for tropheryma whippelii
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PAS
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Which stain is used for acid fast organisms?
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Ziehl-Neelsen
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What special stain is used for cryptococcus neoformans?
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India ink
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Which bac is grown on eosin methylene blue agar as blue black colonies?
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E. coli
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Which organism is cultured on a charcoal yeast agar?
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Legionella
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Which orgsnisms form pink ocolonies on macConkey's agar?
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Lactose fermenting enterics
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What are the main obligate anaerobes?
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"Nagging Pests Must Breathe"
Nocardia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Bacillus |
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What are the three main obligste anaerobes?
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"Cant Breath Air"
Clostridium, Bacteroides, Actinomyces |
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What are the two main intracellular bugs?
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Rickettsia, Chlamydia
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What are the eight main facultative anaerobes?
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"Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY"
Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia pestis |
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What are the six main examples of encapsulated bac?
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SHiN SKiS
Strep. pneumo, H. influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, Salmonella, Klebsiella pneumoniae, grp B Strep |
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What are the five major catalase positive bugs?
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S. aureus, Serratia, Pseudomas, Candida, E. coli
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Why are conjugated vaccines superior to polysaccharide only vaccines?
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Conjugated protein promotes T cell acitvation and class switching. Only IgM produced by polysaccharide vaccines
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Is pneumovax conjugated?
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Negatron
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What are the six main urease positive bugs?
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Proteus, Ureaplasma, Nocardia, Cryptococcus, H. pylori, Klebsiella
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What is the function of protein A and which organism produces it?
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Binds Fc region of Ig--> prevention of opsonization and phagocytosis
Produced by S. aureus |
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What is the function of IgA protease and which organisms produce it?
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Enzyme that cleaves IgA --> colonization of respiratory mucosa
Produced by SHiN S. pneumoniae, H. Influenzae, Neisseria |
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Which organism produces M protein?
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Grp A Strep
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What is the mode of action of endotoxins?
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Induces TNF and IL-1 --> fever and shock
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Are endotoxins or exotoxins heat stable?
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Endotoxins
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Which bac produces shiga-like toxin?
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EHEC (O157:H7)
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What exotoxin is produced by Yersinia enterocolitica?
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Heat-stable toxin (ST)
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Which bac produces Exotoxin A?
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Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Strep. pyogenes
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Which exotoxin acts by preventing the release of GABA and glycine NTs in the spinal cord?
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Tetanospasmin
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Which exotoxin overactivates cGMP --> decreased resorption of NaCl in the gut --> watery diarrhea
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Heat stable toxin (ETEC and Yersinia enterocolitica)
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What is the MOA of shiga and shiga-like toxin?
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Inactivate 60S ribosome by cleaving rRNA --> HUS
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Which bac produce toxic shock syndrome toxin?
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S. aureus
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What exotoxin is produced by Clostridium perfringens and what is its MOA?
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Alpha toxin --> degrades tissues and cell membranes --> gas gangrene
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Catalase positive, coagulase positive gram positive is what organism?
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S. aureus
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Which organisms are catalase negative and exhibit no hemolysis?
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Enterococci
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Which strains of strep are resistant/sensitive to optochin?
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OVRPS
Viridans is resistant pneumoniae is sensitive |
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Which strains of strep are bacitracin sensitive/resistant?
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B-BRAS
Grp B is resistant, grp A is sensitive |
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Which strains of Staph are novobiocin resistant/sensitive?
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Saprophyticus is sensitive, epidermidis is resistant
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Name the four main beta hemolytic bacteria
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Staph. aureus, Strep. pyogenes, Strep. agalactiae, Listeria monocytogenes
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What are the two main alpha hemolytic bacteria?
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Strep. viridans, Strep. pneumoniae
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Strep pneumo is the most common etiology for what diseases?
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Meningitis, Otitis media in peds, Pneumonia, Sinusitis
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Which facultative intracellular anaerobe is transmitted by unpasteurized milk or birth
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Listeria monocytogenes
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Are ghon complexes seen in primary or secondary TB.
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Primary
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What is the prophylactic treatment for mycobacterium avium in AIDS pts?
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Azithromycin
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What is the causative organism of leprosy?
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Mycobacterium leprae
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What are the physical characteristics of H. influenzae?
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little gram negative coccoid rods (tiny)
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What are the physical characteristics of Bordetella pertussis?
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little gram negative coccoid rods (tiny)
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What are the two main lactose fermenting gram negative rods?
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Klebsiella, E. coli
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What are the 3 main gram neg, oxidase neg, lactose nonfermenters?
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Shigella, Salmonella, Proteus
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What are the two most important gram neg lactose fermenters?
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Klebsiella and E. coli
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Which type of fermentation is used to differentiate gram neg cocci? rods?
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cocci --> maltose
rods --> lactose |
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Which gram neg cocci are maltose fermenters?
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N. meningitidis = maltose fermenter
N. gonorrhoeae = maltose nonfermenter |
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What special culturing is done for lactose fermenters?
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grow pink colonies on macconkey's agar
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Which org is grown on chocolate agar and requires factors V and X?
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H. influenzae
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What diseases are caused by H. influenzae?
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HaEMOPhilus
Epiglottitis, Meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia |
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What diseases are caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
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PSEUDOmonas
Pneunomonia, Sepsis, External otitis, UTI, Drug use (associated infection), Osteomyelitis (diabetic) |
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How is EHEC distinguished from other E. coli on culture?
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EHEC does not ferment sorbitol
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What are the two comma shaped, oxidase pos gram negatives?
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Vibrio cholerae and Campylobacter jejuni
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What is the only spirohcete visualized in light microscopy?
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Borrelia
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What is the disease and source of Yersinia pestis?
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Flea bite --> Plague
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What is the disease and source of Rickettsia typhi?
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flea bite --> endemic typhus
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What is the disease and source of Rickettsia rickettsii?
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dermacentor tick bite --> Rocky Mountain spotted fever
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What is the disease and source of Rickettsia prowazekii?
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louse --> epidemic typhus
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What is the disease and source of Pastuerella multocida?
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animal bite --> cellulitis, osteomyelitis
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What is the disease and source of Leptospira?
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Animal urine --> Leptospirosis
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What is the disease and source of Francisella tularensis?
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ticks, rabbits, deer flies --> tularemia
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What is the disease and source of Ehrlichiosis chaffeensis?
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Lone star tick --> Ehrlichiosis
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What is the disease and source of Coxiella burnetii?
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spores from tick feces and cattle placenta --> Q fever
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What is the disease and source of Chlamydophila psittaci?
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bird shit --> Psittacosis
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What is the disease and source of Campylobacter?
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Puppies, livestock --> dysentery
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What is the disease and source of Brucella?
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Unpasteurized dairy --> undulant fever (Brucellosis)
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What is the disease and source of Borrelia recurrentis?
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Louse --> reccurrent fever
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What is the disease and source of Bartonella?
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cat scratch --> cat scratch disease
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Fishy gray vaginal discharge. What is the Rx?
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Gardnerella vaginalis --> Rx w/ metronidazole
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How do you distinguish between Rickettsia species clinically?
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rickettsii --> starts on hands and feet
typhi and prowazekii --> starts on trunk |
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What is the infectious form of Chlamydiae?
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elementary bodies
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What is the Rx for Chlamydiae infections?
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azithromycine or doxycycline
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What organism is the classic cause of atypical pneumonia? What is the Rx?
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Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Rx = doxy or erythromycin |
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Which fungus grows as a spherule in tissue?
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coccicioidomycosis
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What is the Rx for systemic fungal infections?
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Amp B
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Which fungus is found in Mississippi and Ohio river valleys and found in bat/bird shit?
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Histoplasma
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Which fungus is found in states east of the Mississippi and in Central America and has Broad-based budding
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Blastomyces
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Which fungus produces San Joaquin fever?
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Coccidioides
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Which fungus is found in Latin America and has a "captain's wheel" formation on light microscopy?
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Paracoccidioides
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What are the signs and causative organism of Tinea versicolor?
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hypo/hyperpigmented patches of skin and "spaghetti and meatball" on KOH prep
caused by Malassezia furfur |
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What is the organism and Rx for oral thrush?
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Candida albicans --> fluconazole or caspofungin
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Which fungi have wide angle septal hyphae? acute angle?
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Wide angle = Mucor and Rhizopus
Acute Angle = Aspergillus |
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Which fungus, found in soil and pigeon shit, produces heavily encapsulated yeast ("soap bubble" lesions in brain)?
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Cryptococcus neoformans
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What fungal prohylaxis should be started when an AIDS pt drops below 200 CD4?
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TMP-SMX for Pneumocystis jiroveci
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What is the appearance of the organism that causes "rose gardener's dz"
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Dimorphic, cigar-shaped budding yeast (Sporothrix schenckii)
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What is the Rx for giardia?
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metronidazole
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How would you dx/rx amebiasis?
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Entamoeba histolytica infection --> dysentery, liver abscess, RUQ pain --> trophozoites w/RBCs in cytoplasm or cysts found in stool --> Rx w/ metronidazole and iodoquinol
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What fungal organism would you suspect in a pt w/ severe diarrhea and AIDS?
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Cryptosporidium
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Which protozoan causes brain abscesses in HIV pts?
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Toxoplasma gondii
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Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus and intracranial calcifications are the classic triad of what congenital infection?
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Toxoplasmosis
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What is the Rx for Toxoplasmosis?
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Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine
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A child swimming in a freshwater pond for a week comes down with meningioencephalitis and dies shortly after. What is the likely causative organism?
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Naegleria fowleri (protozoan)
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Which organism, transferred from the Tsetse fly causes African sleeping sickness?
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Trypanosoma brucei
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Which malarial species has dormant form in liver?
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Plasmodium vivax/ovale
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Which malarial species is most severe and occludes capillaries in the brain, kidneys and lungs?
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Plasmodium falciparum
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Which rx should be added to mefloquine to rx P. vivax/ovale?
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add primaquine for dormant form in liver
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What is the Rx for babaesiosis?
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Quinine, clindamycin
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What is the vector for Babesia?
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Ixodes tick
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What is the rx for Chaga's disease?
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Trypanosoma cruzi --> Rx w/ nifurtimox
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What organism produces foul-smelling, greenish discharge with itchy vag? Rx?
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Trichonomas vaginalis --> Rx w/ metronidazole
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A pt bit by a sandfly has spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia. Dx?
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Leishmaniasis (Leishmania donovani)
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What is used to treat intestinal nematodes?
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bendazoles
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What is used to treat trematodes?
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Praziquantel
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What is used to treat cestodes?
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Praziquantel (except use bendazoles in Echinococcus granulosus)
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Which helminthes are treated with Diethylcarbamazine?
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Loa loa, Wuchereria bancrofti, Toxocara canis (Tissue nematodes)
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Which hemlminthes are treated w/ Ivermectin?
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Onchocerca volvulus (rIVER blindness), Strongyloides stercoralis (nematodes)
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What is the transmission/disease of Enterobius vermicularis?
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pinworms, eggs found in food --> anal pruritis
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What is the transmission/disease of Trichenella spiralis?
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undercooked meat (pork) --> muscle inflammation and periorbital edema
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What is the transmission/disease of Strongyloides stercoralis?
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Larvae in soil penetrate skin --> intestinal infection
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What is the transmission/disease of Onchocerca volvulus?
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blackflies --> river blindness
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What is the transmission/disease of Wuchereria bancrofti?
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female mosquito --> elephantiasis
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Which nematodes penetrate skin/are ingested?
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EAT --> Enterobius, Ascaris, Trichinella
feet in the SANd --> Strongyloides, Ancylostoma, Necator |
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What are the sources of flukes?
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Trematodes --> Schistosoma (snails), Clonorchis sinensis (undercooked fish), Paragonimus westermani (undercooked crab)
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Which hemlminth --> B12 deficiency?
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Diphyllobothrium latum
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Which helminths cause microcytic anemia?
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Ancylostoma, Necator
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Which vaccines are killed?
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RIP Always
Rabies, Influenza, salk Polio, hAv |
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What type of vaccine is the sabin vaccine?
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Live attenuated
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Which DNA virus is single stranded?
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Parvoviridae
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Which RNA virus is double stranded?
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Reoviridae
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What are the seven main DNA viruses?
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Hepadna, Herpes, Adeno, Pox, Parvo, Papilloma, Polyoma
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What are the seven naked viruses?
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CPR and PAPP smears
Calicivirus, Picornavirus, Reovirus, Parvovirus, Adenovirus, Papilloma and Polyoma |
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Which DNA virus does not replicate in the nucleus?
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Pox
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JC and BK viruses are what classification?
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DNA viruses, polyomaviruses
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How is VZV transmitted?
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respiratory droplets
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Which virus causes Kaposi's sarcoma?
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HHV-8
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What are the 5 major Picornaviruses?
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Poliovirus, Echovirus, Rhinovirus, Coxsackievirus, HAV
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What is the #1 cause of fatal diarrhea in kids?
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Rotavirus
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What are the 3 C's of measles?
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Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis
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What organism causes Koplik spots, and rash moving from head to toe?
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Measles (rubeola) virus
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Which virus causes fifth's diseae?
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'slapped cheeks', and aplastic crisis in sickle cell --> Parvo B19
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What ate the three major symptoms of mumps?
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Parotitis, Orchitis, aseptic Meningitis
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What is the organism and presentation of roseola?
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high fevers for several days followed by diffuse macular rash --> HHV-6
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Negri bodies found in CNS autopsy in what dz?
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Rabies
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Which hepatitis strain is a DNA virus?
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HBV
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What are the two serologic markers for Hep A?
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Anti-HAVAb IgM (active) and IgG (prior infection)
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What serologic makers are found in acute Hep B infection?
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HBsAg, HBeAg, IgM Anti-HBcAb
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When is the window period for Hep B infections?
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5-6 months post-exposure
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What serologic markers are present during Hep B Window period?
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IgM and IgG Anti-HBsAb
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Which serologic marker indicates high transmissibility of Hep B?
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HBeAg
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Which serologic marker indicates low transmissibility of Hep B?
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Anti-HBeAb
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Which serologic markers are present in Hep B immunized individual?
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Anti-HBsAb
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What are the two diagnostic tests for HIV?
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ELISA followed by Western Blot confirmatory
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Which organism is a/w daycare outbreaks, pseudoappendicitis and dysentery?
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Yersinia enterocolitica
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What is the major CSF finding differentiating Bacterial meningitis from viral and fungal?
|
Bac --> increased PMNs and decreased glucose -->
Viral --> increased lymphocytes and normal glucose Fungal --> increased lymphocytes, decreased glucose |
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What is the #1 cause of meningitis in teens?
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Neisseria meningitidis
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What is the empiric therapy for meningitis?
|
Ceftriaxone + vancomycin
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What is the leading cause of UTI?
|
E. coli
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What are the three dx markers of UTI and what do the positives mean?
|
Leukocyte esterase --> bacterial
Nitrite Test --> gram neg (except S. saprophyticus) Urease test --> Proteus, Klebsiella |
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What are the six ToRCHeS infections?
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Toxoplasma gondii, Rubella, CMV, HIV, HSV-2, Syphilis
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What is the classic triad of congenital Rubella infection?
|
PDA, cataracts, deafness +/- "blueberry muffin rash"
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Which TORCH infection manifests neonatally as hearing loss, seizures and blueberry muffin rash?
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CMV
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Hutchinson's teeth, saddle-nose, saber shins. Which TORCH?
|
Syphilis
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Rash begins at head and moves down; --> fine truncal rash
Which red rash of childhood? |
Rubella
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Rash begins at head and moves down; preceded by cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, koplik spots.
Which red rash of childhood? |
Rubeola --> Measles virus
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Vesicular rash begins on trunk; spreads to face and extremities with lesions of different age
Which red rash of childhood? |
Chickenpox --> VZV
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A macular rash over body appears after several days of high feverl usually in infants
Which red rash of childhood? |
Sixth disease --> HHV-6 and 7
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"Slapped Cheek" rash on face
Which red rash of childhood? |
Fifth disease --> Parvo B19
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Erythematous, sandpaper-like rash with fever and sore throat
Which red rash of childhood? |
Scarlet fever --> Strep. pyogenes
|
|
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Vesicular rash on palms and soles, ulcers in oral mucosa
Which red rash of childhood? |
Hand-foot-mouth --> Coxsackie A
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Which STD has the following clinical features:
Urethritis, cervicitis, PID, prostatitis, epididymitis, arhtritis, creamy purulent discharge? |
Neisseria gonorrhoeae --> Gonorrhea
|
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Which STD has the following clinical features:
Painless chancre? |
Treponema pallidum --> Primary syphilis
|
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Which STD has the following clinical features:
Fever, lymphadenopathy, skin rashes, condylomata lata? |
Treponema pallidum --> secondary syphilis
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Which STD has the following clinical features:
Painful genital ulcer, inguinal adenopathy? |
H. ducreyi --> Chancroid
|
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Which STD has the following clinical features:
Urethritis, cervicitis, conjunctivitis, Reiter's syndrome, PID? |
Chlamydia trachomatis --> Chlamydia
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Which STD has the following clinical features:
Vaginitis, strawberry mucosa, corkscrew motility on wet prep? |
Trichomonas vaginalis --> Trichonomiasis
|
|
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Which STD has the following clinical features:
Malodorous fishy vagina, clue cells? |
Gardnerella vaginalis --> bacterial vaginosis
|
|
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What is the most common bacterial STD?
|
Chlamydia
|
|
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Which ABX block peptidoglycan synthesis?
|
Bacitracin and vancomycin
|
|
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Which ABX block cell wall synthesis by inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking?
|
cillins, cephalosporins, aztreonam, imipenem
|
|
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Which ABX block nucleotide synthesis?
|
TMP-SMX
|
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Which ABX block DNA topoisomerases?
|
FQs
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Which ABX block mRNA synthesis?
|
Rifampin
|
|
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Which ABX damage DNA?
|
Metronidazole
|
|
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which ABX block protein synthesis at 30S ribosomal subunit?
|
AGs, Tetracyclines
|
|
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What is the DOC for syphilis?
|
pen G
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What is the DOC for S. aureus?
|
"Mean Old Dick Naf killed all the Staf"
Methicillin, Oxacillin, Dicloxacillin, Nafcillin |
|
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What is the clinical use of Ampicillin and amoxicillin?
|
HELPSS kill enterococci
H. influenzae, E. coli, Listeria monocytogenes, Proteus mirabilis, Salmonella, Shigella |
|
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What is the main clinical use for Ticarcillin and Pipercillin?
|
Pseudomonas
|
|
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What is the spectrum for 1st gen cephalosporins?
|
PEcK
Proteus mirabilis, E. coli, Klebsiella |
|
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What is the spectrum for 2nd gen cephalosporins?
|
HEN PEcKS
H. influenzae, Enterobacter aerogenes, Neisseria, Proteus mirabilis, E. coli, Klebsiella, Serratia marcescens |
|
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What is the clinical use for ceftriaxone?
|
meningitis and gonorrhea
|
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What is the clinical use for ceftazidime?
|
Pseudomonas
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What is the clinical use for cefepime?
|
Pseudomonas
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What is the clinical use for Aztreonam?
|
Rx gram negs in pts with pen allergy or renal insufficiency who can't tolerate AGs
|
|
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What is the clinical use for imipenem/cilastin?
|
Life threatening drug resistant infections (last resort)
|
|
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What is the clinical use for vancomycin?
|
Gram positive serious infections, MRSA, C. dif
|
|
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What are the vancomycin toxicities?
|
Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity (reversible), Thrombophlebitis, red man
|
|
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Which protein synthesis inhibitors are bactericidal?
|
AGs, sometimes linezolid
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What is the clinical use for AGs?
|
gram neg rod aerobes
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|
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What are the side effects of AGs?
|
Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity (irreversible), teratogenic
|
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What is the clinical use of tetracylcines?
|
Borrelia burgdorferi, M. pneumoniae, Rickettsia and Chlamydia
|
|
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Which ABX cause discoloration of teeth, photosensitivity and are contraindicated in preggo?
|
Tetracyclines
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Which ABX treats Atypical Pneumonia (Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella) gram positives in pts allergic to pens?
|
Macrolides
|
|
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Which ABX causes prolonged QT?
|
Macrolides
|
|
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What is the main clinical use of Chloramphenicol?
|
meningitis
|
|
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Which ABX causes gray-baby?
|
Chloramphenicol
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What is the main clinical use of clindamycin?
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Anaerobic infections (lung abscess)
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What is the main toxicity of clindamycin?
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Pseudo colitis
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Which ABX is known to cause hemolysis in G6PD def pts?
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Sulfas
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What are the two main organisms treated by SMX?
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Chlamydia, Nocardia
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Which ABX are known to cause tendon rupture?
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FQs
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What are the 6 main organisms treated by Metronidazole?
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anaerobes below the diaphragm
GET GAP Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas, Gardnerella, Anaerobes, h. Pylori |
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What is the main side effect of metronidazole?
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disulfiram-like rxn
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What drug is used for TB prophylaxis?
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INH
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What are the four TB drugs?
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Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol
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Which TB drug is a P450 inducer?
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Rifampin
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What is Rifampin used for besides TB?
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H. influenzae prophylaxis
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Which ABX causes red-green colorblindness?
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Ethambutol
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What the DOC for meningococcal prophylaxis?
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Ciprofloxacin
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What is the DOC for gonorrhea prophylaxis?
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Ceftriaxone
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What is the DOC for recurrent UTIs?
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TMP-SMX
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What is the empiric therapy of outpatient CAP?
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macrolides
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What is the empiric therapy for inpatient CAP?
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FQs
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What is the empiric therapy for CAP in ICU setting?
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beta lactam + FQ or azithromycin
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Which antifungal blocks membrane function?
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Amp B
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Which antifungal inhibits nucleic acid synthesis?
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5-Fluorocytosine
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Which antifungals (2) block lanosterol synthesis?
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Naftifine, Terbinafine
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Which antifungals (3) block ergosterol synthesis?
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Fluconazole, Itraconazole, Voriconazole
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Which antifungal blocks cell wall synthesis?
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Caspofungin
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Which antifungal is used for serious systemic infections?
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Amp B
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Which antifungal is ised for swish and swallow candidiasis?
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Nystatin
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Which antifungal is used for cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS pts?
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fluconazole
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Which antifungal is used for Blastomyces, Coccidioides, Histoplasma, and Candida albicans?
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Ketoconazole
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Which antifungal is used for invasive Aspergillosis?
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Caspofungin
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Which antifungal is used for onychomycosis?
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Terbenafine
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Which antifungal is an oral Rx for ringworm?
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Griseofulvin
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Which antiviral is used in parkinson's dz?
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Amantidine
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Which antivirals treat both influenza A and B?
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Zanamivir and oseltamivir
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Which antiviral is used for RSV and chronic hep C?
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Ribavirin
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Which viruses are treated with Acyclovir?
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HSV, VZV, EBV
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Which viruses are treated with Ganciclovir?
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CMV
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Which drug is used to treat CMV retinitis in immunocompromised pts when ganciclovir fails?
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Foscarnet
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When is HAART initiated?
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CD4 < 350 or high viral load
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What classes make up the AIDS cocktail?
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2 NRTIs + 1 NNRTI or 1 protease inhibitor or 1 integrase inhibitor
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Which AIDS drugs must by phosphorylated by thymidine kinase to be active?
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NRTIs
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Which AIDS drugs are the protease inhibitors?
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navirs
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Which AIDS drugs are the NNRTIs?
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neVIRapine, efaVIRenz, delaVIRdine
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What are the main drugs to avoid in preggo pts?
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"Countless SAFe Moms Take Really Good Care"
Clarithromycin - embryotoxic Sulfonamides - kernicterus AGs - ototoxicity FQs - cartilage damage Metronidazole - mutagenesis Tetracyclines - teeth Ribavarin - teratogen Griseofulvin - teratogen Chloramphenicol - "gray baby" |
