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136 Cards in this Set

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Name the 4 layers of the gut wall. Where are the nerve plexes located?
1. mucosa. 2. submucosa - meissner's nerve plexus, 3. muscularis externa - myenteric nerve plexus or Auerbach's plexus, 4. serosa
What is the role of Auerbach's and Meissner's plexi? Where are they located?
Meissner's located in the submucosa and regulates secretions; Auerbach's myenteric plexus located in the muscularis externa (Auerbach's is Autside) and coordinated motility along the gut wall
What is the distribution of smooth and striated muscle in the esophagus?
upper 1/3 = striated
middle 1/3 = striated and smooth
lower 1/3 = smooth
What are the branches of the celiac trunk that provide blood to the stomach?
common hepatic, left gastric, and splenic arteries (p. 299)
A shunt between what two veins can help to relieve portal hypertension
left renal and splenic vein shunts blood to systemic circulation (p 300)
Which hemorrhoids are painful? Why?
Which can be a sign of portal hypertension? Why?
external because receive somatic innervation; internal because drainage is superior rectal vein - inferior mesenteric vein - portal system (p. 300)
Which zone of the liver is most susceptible to ischemia, toxic injury, and alcoholic hep?
zone III, centrilobular (p. 301)
Describe the sinusoids of the liver
irregular capillaries with fenestrated endothelium (pores 100 to 200 nm in diameter); no basement membrane
What is the direction of bile flow vs. blood flow in the liver?
bile - zone III to zone I
blood - zone I to zone III (p. 301)
Describe the most common diaphragmatic hernia
sliding hiatal hernia in which the GE junction is displaced -- stomach herniates upward through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm; "hourglass stomach" (p 303)
Where does an indirect inguinal hernia occur? Who does it occur most commonly in?
goes through the INternal (deep) inguinal ring, external (superficial) inguinal ring, and into the scrotum; occurs in INfants
(p. 303)
Where does a direct inguinal hernia occur? Who does it occur most commonly in?
protrudes through the hesselbach's triangle and bulges directly through abdominal; usually in older men
(p 303)
What is the acronymn to remember the location of direct and indirect hernias?
MDs dont LIe - Medial to inferior epigastric artergy = Direct

Lateral to inferior epigastric artery = Indirect hernia
(p 303)
what do b cells stimulated in the germinal centers of Peyer's patches differentiate into?
IgA secreting plasma cells
where are peyer's patches found? what do special cells do they contain?
lamina propria and submucosa of small intestine; contain M cells that take up antigen
what salivary glands are most serous vs most mucinous?
parotids = most serous

sublingual = most mucinous

Serous on the Sides, Mucinous in the Middle
what is the function of brunner's glands? where are they located?
secrete alkaline mucus to neutralize acid contents entering the stomach from the duodenum

located in duodenal submucosa
what hormone is increased in zollinger ellison syndrome?
gastrin
what are the effects of gastrin (3)
increase gastric H+

increase growth of gastric mucosa

increase gastric motility
what are the effects of cholecystokinin (3)
increase pancreatic secretions

increase gallbladder contraction

decrease gastric emptying
what are the effects of secretin (3)
increase pancreatic bicarb secretion

decrease gastric acid secretion

increase bile secretion
what is the overall effect of somatostatin?
INHIBITORY to the stomach, pancreas, small intestine, gallbladder
what is the source of intrinsic factor?
parietal cells of the stomach
what is the function of intrinsic factor?
binds vitamin B12 in the stomach and allows uptake in the terminal ileum
what cells release gastric acid? how is its release regulated?
parietal cells

increased by histamine, ACh, and gastrin

decreased by somatostatin, GIP, prostaglandin, secretin
what cells release pepsin?
chief cells of the stomach
what is the func of pepsin?
protein digestion
how is pepsin regulated?
increase release by vagal stimulation and local acid (inactive pepsinogen is cleaved to pepsin by H+)
what cells release bicarb?
mucosal cells of the stomach and duodenum and brunner's glands of the duodenum
how is bicarb release regulated?
increase by secretin
what activates trypsinogen to trypsin in the pancreas?
enterokinase/ enteropeptidase secreted from the duodenal mucosa
what is the rate limiting enzyme in carbohydrate digestion? where is it located?
oligosaccharide hydrolases

brush border of the sm intestine
what transporter takes up glucose and galactose from the lumen into the enterocyte?

what about fructose?

how are both transported from enteroctye to blood?
glucose and galactose = SGLT1 (Na dependent)

fructose = GLUT-5

enterocyte to blood = GLUT-2
where are the following absorbed: iron? folate? B12? bile acids?
Fe2+ in the duodenum

folate in the jejunum

B12 and bile acids in the illeum
what is achalasia?

what do you see on barium swallow?

what disease is assoc. with secondary achalasia?
the LES doesnt relex because of loss of myenteric (Auerbach's) plexus

dilated esophagus with an area of distal stenosis

Chagas' disease
are esophageal varices painful? where are they generally located?
PAINLESS

located in the lower 1/3 of the esophagus
what is Boerhaave syndrome?
"Been-heaving syndrome" -- transmural esophageal rupture due to violent retching
what is Mallory-Weiss syndrome?
painful mucosal lacerations at the GE junction due to severe vomitting usually seen in alcoholics and diabetics
what is barrett's esophagus?
BARRett's = Becomes Adenocarcinoma, Results from Reflux

there is glandular metaplasia with replacement of squamous epithelium with intestinal (columnar) epithelium
BARRett's
what is the most common esophageal cancer worldwide and in the US?
worldwide = squamous
US = squamous and adenocarcinoma are equal
where do you see squamous cell esophageal carcinoma vs. adenocarcinoma?
squamous esophageal carcinoma is in the upper and middle 1/3 of the esophagus whereas adenocarcinoma is in the lower 1/3 of the esophagus
what are the risk factors for esophageal cancer?
Alcohol/ Achalasia
Barrett's esophagus
Cigarettes
Diverticuli
Esophageal web/ esophagitis
Familial
ABCDEF
what is celiac sprue?
autoantibodies to gliadin in wheat and other grains resulting in steatorrhea; there is decreased mucosal absorption primarily in the jejunum with blunting of villi
how does tropical sprue differ from celiac?
tropical is probably infectious and can affect the entire small bowel whereas celiac is autoimmune and primarily affects the proximal small bowel
what is whipple's disease? what is characterisitc?
infection with Tropheryma whippeli (gram pos. rod)

see PAS-pos. macrophages in intestinal lamina propria, mesenteric nodes
pancreatic insufficiency cause malabsorption of what nutrient?

what are some causes?
fat

causes include cystic fibrosis, cancer, chronic pancreatitis
what are curling's ulcers?
form of acute gastritis resulting from burns
what are cushing's ulcers? mechanism?
form of chronic gastritis resulting from brain injury; mech: increased vagal stimulation --> increased ACh --> increased H+ production
what is type A chronic gastritis characterized by? where does it occur?
Autoimmune

characterized by autoantibodies to parietal cells, pernicious Anemia, Achlorhydria

occurs in the body/ fundus
Think AB pairing
what causes type B chonric gastritis? increases the risk of what type of cancer? where does it occur?
H. pylori infection

increased risk of MALToma

occurs in the antrum
what is Menetrier's disease?
GASTRIC HYPERTROPHY with protein loss, parietal cell atrophy, and increased mucous cells
what is the term for diffusely infiltrative stomach cancer?
linitus plastica
what special types of cells are assoc. with stomach cancer?
signet ring cells
what is a virchow's node?
stomach cancer mets to the left supraclavicular node
what is krukenberg's tumor
stomach cancer with mets to both ovaries
a pt has a gastric ulcer. will they experience weight loss or gain?
wt. loss because pain can be greater with meals
what is assoc. with gastric ulcers?
70% infected with H. pylori, chronic NSAID use, older pts.
what type of ulcer has a near 100% assoc. with H. pylori?
duodenal ulcer
a pt. has a duodenal ulcer. will they experience wt. loss or wt. gain?
wt. gain because a meal tends to decrease pain
how do you differentiate a duodenal ulcer from carcinoma?
duodenal ulcers tend to have clean, "punched out" margins
which of the following is assoc with ulcerative colitis or crohn's disease:
skip lesions?
cobblestone mucosa?
toxic megacolon?
colorectal carcinoma?
noncaseating granulomas?
skip lesions - crohns
copplestone - crohns
toxic megacolon - uc
colorectal carcinoma - uc
noncaseating granulomas - uc
on gross inspection ulcerative colitis will have what type of polyps?
pseudopolyps
what is mcburney's point?
appendicitis pain is localized at this point 1/3 the distance from the iliac crest to umbilicus
what should be included in the differential for appendicitis?
diverticulitis, or ectopic pregnancy
differentiate between a true diverticulum vs. a false diverticulum
true: all 3 gut walls layers outpouch

false: only the mucosa and submucosa outpouch
what is diverticulosis? in who and where does it often occur?
many diverticula resulting from increased intraluminal pressure and focal weakness in the colonic wall

occurs in those older than 60 with low fiber diets

most often in the sigmoid colon
what is zenker's diverticulum?
false diverticulum - herniation of the mucosal tissue at the junction of the pharynx and esophagus
what is meckel's diverticulum? what are the five 2's?
persistence of the vitelline duct or yolk stalk - most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract

rule of 2's:
-2 inches long
-2 feet from the ileocecal valve
-2% of the population
-commonly presents in the first 2 years of life
-may have 2 types of epithelium (gastric/ pancreatic)
what is hirschsprung's? what is the cause?
congential megacolon characterized by lack of ganglion cells/ enteric nervous plexus leading to a constricted portion

results from failure of neural crest cell migration
what increased the risk of hirschsprungs?
Down syndrome
necrotizing enterocolitis is more common in...
preemies
ischemic colitis commonly occurs where in the bowel?
splenic flexure
what is angiodysplasia?

where does this occur in the bowel and in who?
tortuous dilation of the vessels leading to bleeding

cecum and ascending colon of elderly
pts.
which types of polyps are more likely to be malignant?
the more villous, the more likely to be mallignant
VILLOUS = VILLanOUS
how does colon cancer presentation on left and right side differ?
left side obstructs, right side bleeds
what does colon cancer show on barium enema?
"apple core" lesion
what mutation causes familial adenomatous polyposis?
autosomal-dominant mutation of APC gene on chomosome 5q
what is characteristic of the polyps that form in FAP?
thousands, also pancolonic, always involving the rectum
What is Gardner's syndrome?
FAP with bone and soft tissue tumours
what is Turcot's syndrome?
FAP with brain involvment
TURcot = TURban
mutations in what group of genes causes HNPCC? HNPCC can progress to what condition?
DNA mismatch repair genes

80% progress to colorectal cancer
what is characteristic of peutz-jeghers syndrome? is it a benign of malignant syndrome?
hamartomatous polyps of colon and sm intestine with hyperpigmented mouth, hands, lips

the polyps themselves do not cause cancer but the condition is assoc with an increased risk of developing colorectal cancer or other visceral malignancies
what neurotransmitter do carcinoid tumors produce?
5-HT
what is the most common site of carcinoid tumors?
small bowel
when is carcinoid syndrome observed?
carcinoid syndrome results when there is elevated serotonin. when tumor is restricted to the small bowel, the serotonin produced is metabolized by the liver and the syndrome is not observed.

if the tumor mets outside the GI system then the condition is observed
what are the assoc signs of portal hypertension?
esophageal varices --> hematemesis

peptic ulcer --> melena

splenomegaly

ascites

hemorrhoids
what are the assoc signs of liver cell failure?
increase ammonia leading to hepatic encephalopathy --> coma, liver "flap" or asterixis

increased bilirubin --> scleral icterus, jaundice

fetor hepaticus

increased estrogen due to decreased metabolism --> spider nevi, gynecomastia, testicular atrophy

bleeding tendency due to decreased prothrombin and clotting factors

anemia

ankle edema
what type of shunt may be placed to relieve portal hypertension?
portacaval shunt between left splenic vein and left renal vein
what is chirrosis?
diffuse fibrosis of the liver with the formation of nodules -- may be micro (< 3 mm) or macronodular (>3 mm)
macronodular chirosis is assoc. with what?
hepatocellular carcinoma
what are the relative AST to ALT for viral hep, alcoholic hep, and MI
viral hep: ALT > AST and very high

alcoholic hep: AST:ALT > 2:1

MI: AST elevation
what lab value is most indicative of bile duct disease?
GGT (more spec. than alk. phos.)
what does a decreased ceruloplasmin indicate?
Wilson's disease
what is reye's syndrome?
assoc. with treating viral infections in children with aspirin resulting in potentially fatal hepatoencephalopathy
what are the alcoholic liver diseases?
hepatic steatosis

alcoholic hepatitis

alcoholic cirrhosis
what changes in the liver do you see with hepatic steatosis?
macrovasicular fatty change that may be reversible with alcohol cessation
what characteristic inclusions do you see in hepatocytes of alcoholic hepatitis?
mallory bodies
is alcholic cirrhosis reversible?
no
what zone is shows sclerosis in alcoholic cirrhosis?
around the central vein (zone III)
what is the most common malignant tumor of the liver in adults?
hepatocellular carcinoma
what conditions are assoc. with an increased incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma?
hep B and C, Wilson's disease, hemochromatosis, alpha1 antitrypsin deficiency, alcoholic cirrhosis, carcinogens
how is hepatocellular carcinoma spread?
hematogenous dissemination
what results in nutmeg liver?
passive congestion of blood as in right-side heart failure and budd-chiari syndrome
what is budd chiari syndrome?
occlusion of the inferior vena cava or hepatic veins
what is the defect that results from alpha1 antitrypsin difficiency
mutation in the transporter gene for antitrypsin prevents it from leaving the liver results in panacinar emphysema in the lungs and accumulation of misfolded protein in the liver cell ER
what type of bilirubin is elevated in Gilbert's syndrome?
unconjugated because there is a mild decrease in UDP-glucuronyl transferase (enzyme responsible for bilirubin conjugation) or there is decreased bilirubin uptake into hepatocytes
when does Gilbert's tend to manifest?
during times of stress
what results in crigler-najjar syndrome, type 1? type II?
type I: complete absence of UDP-glycuronyl transferase -- pt. dies within a few years

type II: less severe
how do you treat crigler-najjar syndrome?
plasmapheresis and phototherapy
what characterizes dubin-johnson syndrome? what results?
conjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to defective lever excretion

results in a black liver but a benign condition
what causes wilson's disease?
inadequate copper excretion and failure of copper to enter circulation as ceruloplasmin

total copper in the plasma is decreased but your unbound circulating copper is increased
what are the signs assoc with wilson's disease?
asterixis, basal ganglia degeneration, ceruloplasmin decreased, dementia
ABCD
what is the inheritance of wilson's disease?
autosomal recessive
what is the classic triad of hemochromatosis?
Cirrhosis, Diabetes mellitus, and skin pigmentation or "bronze diabetes"
what causes hemochromatosis?
may be genetic - autosomal recessive
or
secondary to chronic transfusion therapy
what happens to ferritin, iron, and TIBC in hemocrhomatosis?
ferritin: increased
iron: increased
TIBC: decreased
what does primary sclerosing cholangitis result in?
inflammation and fibrosis of the bile ducts -- see alternating strictures and dilation with beading
what condition is assoc. with primary sclerosing cholangitis?
ulcerative cholitis
what are the two causes of biliary cirrhosis?
primary or autoimmune
and
secondary due to extrahepatic biliary obstruction
primary biliary cirrhosis displays elevations in what marker?
serum mitochondrial antibodies
in what condition do you often see bile stasis and bile lakes?
secondary biliary cirrhosis
what causes gallstones?
solubilizing bile acids and lecithin are overwhelmed by cholesterol and/ or bilirubin
what are the 4 risk factors for gallstones?
Female, Fat, Fertile, Fourty
the 4 Fs
what are the two types of stones? which is most common?
cholesterol and pigment -- cholesterol (80%)
what is charcot's triad of cholangitis?
jaundice, fever, RUQ pain
what is biliary colic?
gallstones interfere with bile flow causing bile duct obstruction
how do you diagnose gallstones? treat?
use ultrasound; cholecystectomy
what are the 2 potential causes of cholcystitis?
infectious or gallstone complication
what is a positive murphy's sign?
inspiratory arrest on deep palpation of gallstones
what are the causes of acute pancreatitis?
Gallstones, Ethanol, Trauma, Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune disease, Scorpion sting, Hypercalcemia/Hyperlipidemia, Drugs
GET SMASHeD
how does acute pancreatitis present?
epigastric ab pain which radiates to the back, anorexia, nausea
what labs are elevated with acute pancreatitis?
amylase, lipase (more specific)
what is chronic pancreatitis strongly assoc with?
alcoholism
pancreatic adenocarcinoma is more common in the head or the tail?
head
true or false: pancreatic adenocarcinoma is assoc with both alcohol and cigarette smoking?
false - only cigarettes
how does pancreatic adenocarcinoma present?
ab pain radiating to the back

weight loss

migratory thrombophlebitis (redness and tenderness upon palpation of the extremities - Trousseau's syndrome)

obstructive jaundice with palpable gallbladder (Courvoisier's sign)