Final Review Hm2 Exam March 2013

Front 1

Anatomy
What female hormone influences the development and maintenance of the female accessory sex organs and secondary sex characteristics, and changes in mucus lining (endometrium)?

Back 1

Estrogen

Front 2

Anatomy
What female hormone prepares the uterus for the reception and development of the fertilized ovum and maintains teh linign during pregnancy?

Back 2

Progesterone

Front 3

Anatomy
What hormone is high during the first three months of pregnancy to tell the female gonads ro maintain the uterine linning instead of falling away as in menstruation?

Back 3

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

Front 4

Anatomy
What gland is located beneath the sternum and produces T CELLS?

Back 4

Thymus

Front 5

Anatomy
What hormone stimulates the hypothalamus to boost appetite, alow metabolism ans fat burning and may play an important role in obesity?

Back 5

Ghrelin

Front 6

Anatomy
The contraction pulls the ribs upward and outward, resulting in an increase in the transverse diameter of the chest (expansion).

Back 6

Intercostal Muscles

Front 7

Anatomy
What is the nerve controlling the diaphram?

Back 7

Phrenic nerve

Front 8

Anatomy
The nerve controlling the larynx is __________.

Back 8

Vagus

Front 9

Anatomy
The amount of air left in the lungs after forceful exhalation is about _________ ml and its known as RESIDUAL AIR.

Back 9

1200 ml

Front 10

The lungs, when filled to capacity, hold about 6200 ml of air, but only _____ ml of air is exchanged with each normal respiration.

Back 10

500 ml

Front 11

Who validates, approves and maintains a current account of Budget Submiting Office (BSO) augmentation requirements as reflected in Navy's official manpower data system?

Back 11

Surgeon General of the Navy (N093)

Front 12

Who directs, coordinates and monitors the execution of the HSAP and the software used by BSO 18 to monitor readiness requirements?

Back 12

BUMED

Front 13

Who establishes guidelines for developing Deployment Support Centers (DSC) at sourcing commands?

Back 13

BUMED

Front 14

Who establishes a DSC and develops a LOCAL policy and procedures manual for implementation of the DSC and execution of the HSAP?

Back 14

CRO

Front 15

Who has to be familiar with the policies and procedures governing teh HSAP, DSC, and local readiness programs?

Back 15

OSO

Front 16

Who advices and support the CO regarding Reserve issued in the event of implementation of the HSAP?

Back 16

OSO

Front 17

Who will coordinate and adjust individual's projected rotation date (PRD)?

Back 17

Commander, Navy Personnel Command (PERS-451)

Front 18

What form is Enlisted Qualifications History?

Back 18

NAVPERS 1070/604

Front 19

1)FA31=
2)FB32
3)FH3=

Back 19

1)Norfolk
2)SAN DIEGO
3)San diego, great lakes, porthsmouth

Front 20

Who is responsible for CUIC and links between authorized billets and to operational requirements in the Navy's official manpower data?

Back 20

BUMED-M1

Front 21

CRST
Medical augmentation platforms of ____ personnel each that provide up to level 2 HSS.

Back 21

84

Front 22

Hospital Ships (T-AH) provide up to what level of HSS?

Back 22

3

Front 23

_________ is the finantial expense limitation holder for the expense operating budget (EOB) and exercises both operational and financial oversight of its subordinate agencies?

Back 23

NAVMED MPT & E

Front 24

Who is a subordinate of NAVMED MPT & E, and MANAGES the EOB?

Back 24

NOMI

Front 25

Readiness Categories:
Forward deployment crisis response that are mission capable and ready to deploy with in 5 days.

Back 25

Routine Deployable

Front 26

Forces designated for the force build-up stage that ar eready and capable of mobilizing and deploying with in 30 days?

Back 26

Surge Ready

Front 27

SORTS category:
The unit if capable of undertaking a major portion of its wartime mission. While it has major deficiencies, it can still perform its assigned mission.

Back 27

C3

Front 28

Who with cognizance over the theater of operations controls the RDD?

Back 28

The COCOM

Front 29

The First Call Program may provide personnel reporting to duty stations with in how many hours?

Back 29

72 hrs

Front 30

Who provides and coordinates with other DOD activities for medical MATERIEL and LOGISTIC support. Provides technical assistance for Navy deployable medical systems and medical material?

Back 30

BUMED-M4

Front 31

What type of gloves can be sterile or unsterile examination gloves made of synthetic latex?

Back 31

Nitrile gloves

Front 32

For airborne precautions, place patient in a private, ________ pressure (6 to 12 exchanges).

Back 32

negative

Front 33

For DTRs, at the beggining gof the day flush each of the unit water line an dhoses for at least _____minute, and ____ between patients.

Back 33

1 minute; 30 seconds

Front 34

Microbiological infectious waste can me treated by what methods?

Back 34

1)Esteem sterilization
2)Chemical Disinfection
3)Incineration

Front 35

Bulk and other potentially infectious liquids can be treated by_________, and must be further treated with steam stelirization or incineration.

Back 35

GELATINIZATION

Front 36

Ultrasonic cleaning uses a method called?

Back 36

Cavitation

Front 37

Perchment paper or Dennison wrap time-related shelf life is ____.

Back 37

30 days

Front 38

What is the most dependable and economical method of sterilization?

Back 38

Steam under pressure (Autoclave)

Front 39

The most modern and economical to operate and requires the least time to sterilize a single load is?

Back 39

Prevacuum, High temp Autoclave

Front 40

Strerrad sterilization records are stored for how long?

Back 40

36 months

Front 41

Medications that cause shrinkage of the skin and mucous membrane are called?

Back 41

ASTRINGENTS

Front 42

What is used to treat NUG?

Back 42

Hydrogen peroxide

Front 43

What were the first effective chemotherapeutic agents to be available in safe therapeutic dosage ranges?

Back 43

Sulfonamides

Front 44

What PNC is indicated for susceptible infections such as meningoccocal meningitis, anthrax, adn gonorrhea?

Back 44

Penicilin G, Aqueous

Front 45

Which PNC is used to treat conditions such as shiguella, salmonella, escherichia coli, and gonorrhea?

Back 45

Ampicillin (Polycillin)

Front 46

What antiparasitic agent is a pediculicide used to treat Pediculosis capitis (head lice) and Phthirus pubis (crab lice) and scabies?

Back 46

Permethrin (Elimite/Nix)

Front 47

What is the drug of choice to treat acute malarial attacks?

Back 47

Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen)

Front 48

What laxative is used as a preparatory agent prior to some surgeries and radiological examinations?

Back 48

Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)

Front 49

What psychotherapeutic agent is useful in treating mild to moderate depression with anxiety?

Back 49

Diazepam (Valium)

Front 50

The deficiency of what vitamin causes PELLAGRA?

Back 50

Niacin (B3)

Front 51

The deficiency of what vitamin causes BERIBERI?

Back 51

B1 THIAMINE HYDROCHLORIDE

Front 52

Vitamin ___ is a water-soluble vitamin functioning in th ebody as a coenzyme necessary in tissue respiratoy processes, deficiency associated with cheilosis, glossitis, visual fatigue?

Back 52

B2 (RIBOFLAVIN)

Front 53

What aircraft has a standard configuration that is 6 litters and 3 ambulatory, and the maximum is 6 litter or 9 ambularoty?

Back 53

UH-V1 (4 RED CROSS MARKINGS)

Front 54

What aircraft standard configuration is 4 litters and 1 ambulatory, and maximum configuration is 6 litters and 1 ambulatory or 7 ambulatory?

Back 54

UH-60A

Front 55

What aricraft has a crew of 2 pilots, 2 crew chiefs and 1 MEDIC FOR EVERY 6 LITTERS?

Back 55

CH-47

Front 56

The standard configuration of the CH-47 is ____ ambulatory and _____ litters. The maximum configuration is ___ AMBULATORY OR 1 AMBULATORY AND ___ LITTERS?

Back 56

16; 12 ; 31 ; 24

Front 57

Movement of the patient away from the threat zone and toward definitive medical care is a defining feature of what care?

Back 57

Tactical Evacuation Care

Front 58

For a MEDEVAC request form , line 1 pertains to what?

Back 58

Location of pick-up site

Front 59

For a MEDEVAC request form , line 2 pertains to what?

Back 59

Radio Frecuency, call sign, and suffix

Front 60

For a MEDEVAC request form , line 3 pertains to what?

Back 60

Number of patients by precedence
A- URGENT
B-URGENT SURGICAL
C-PRIORITY
D-ROUTINE
E-CONVENIENCE

Front 61

For a MEDEVAC request form , line 4 pertains to what?

Back 61

Special Equipment needed

Front 62

For a MEDEVAC request form , line 5 pertains to what?

Back 62

Number of patients (A-LITTER OR B-AMBULATORY)

Front 63

For a MEDEVAC request form , line 6 pertains to what?

Back 63

i)Number and type of wound, injury or illness (Peacetime)

ii)Security at pick-up site

Front 64

For a MEDEVAC request form , line 7 pertains to what?

Back 64

Method of marking pick-up site
A-Panels
B- Pyrotechnic
C- Smoke signal
D- NONE

Front 65

For a MEDEVAC request form , line 8 pertains to what?

Back 65

Patient nationality and status

Front 66

For a helicopter landing site, is the ground slope is less than 7 degrees, the helicopter should land_______

Back 66

UP SLOPE

Front 67

What signal should be used to change from one arm-and-hand signal to another?

Back 67

"Hover" signal

Front 68

What emetic is the most commonly used substance to which an HM might have access to aid in emptying the patient's stomach?

Back 68

IPECAC SYRUP (DOSE ADULTS: 15-30 ml, CHILD:15 ml)

Front 69

A total of how many MARK 1 kits can be administered at 10 to 15 minute intervals by non-medical personnel?

Back 69

3

Front 70

For nerve agents, if severe symptoms still persist after one hour of giving the THREE MARK 1 kits, give additional autoinjectors of 2 PAM CL 600 mg. No more than how many doses of 2 PAM CL should be given?

Back 70

6

Front 71

Mustard H, a blister agent, smells like what?

Back 71

GARLIC, MUSTARDS, HORSERADDISH

Front 72

Which blister agent smells like GERANIUM?

Back 72

Lewisite (L)

Front 73

There is no specific treatment for what type pf agents?

Back 73

Pulmonary agents (CG, DP, CL)

Front 74

What are the three types of anthrax?

Back 74

1)Cutaneous anthrax
2)Pulmonary anthrax
3) Gastrointestinal anthrax

Front 75

Emesis is blood-tinged or looks like coffee grounds is an indication of what type of anthrax?

Back 75

Gastrointestinal

Front 76

What is first line treatment for anthrax?

Back 76

Ciproflaxin (500 mg) or Doxycicline (100 mg every 12 hrs)

Front 77

Primary antibiotics for plague treatment are?

Back 77

Streptomycin (1g every 12 hours IV) OR Gentamycin (5 mg/kg IV OR IM)

Front 78

What is one of the most infectious pathogenic bacteria, requiring less than 10 organism for infection?

Back 78

Tularemia ( gram -)

Front 79

What is a neuroparalytic disease blocking the acetylcholine release form peripheral nerves?

Back 79

Botulinum Toxin

Front 80

Cranial nerve palsies, slurred vision, blurred vision, drooping eyelids, slurred speech are symptoms of what?

Back 80

Botulinum toxin

Front 81

How often the Controlled Substance Inventory Board takes an unannounced inventory of controlled substance?

Back 81

Quarterly

Front 82

Substances that have a high abuse potential and have no medical use such as heroin, LSD, mariguana, are examples of what?

Back 82

Schedule I

Front 83

Non-barbitures, nonamphetamine stimulants, and medications that contain a certain amount of narcotics are what?

Back 83

Schedulle III

Front 84

Substances that have a limited abuse potential, such as antidiarrheals and antitussives are classified as?

Back 84

Schedulled V

Front 85

A vault or safe storage is required for what schedulled substances?

Back 85

I and II

Front 86

Schedulle III, IV and V require ____________for storage and bulk medications.

Back 86

locked cabinet security

Front 87

Drug prescriptions are required for at least ____ after the date of issue.

Back 87

2 years

Front 88

What part of the prescription block gives instructions to the compounder?

Back 88

The SUBSCRIPTION

Front 89

Lydocaine hydrochloride may be combined with what to produce VASOCONTRICTIVE effects.

Back 89

Epinephrine

Front 90

What oxytocic is used in the treatment of postpartum and post-abortum hemmorrhage?

Back 90

Ergonovine Maleate

Front 91

Bacilli gram positive types of infections are?

Back 91

Diphteria
Tetanus
Botulism
Gas gangrene
Tetanus

Front 92

Bacilli gram negative types of infections are?

Back 92

1)Bubonic plague (Yersinia pestis)
2)Brucellosis (Brucella abortus)
3) Whooping cough (Bordetella pertussis)

Front 93

NAVMED 6260/5 is?

Back 93

Asbestos Medical Surveillance Program

Front 94

DD 2161 is?

Back 94

Referral for Civilian Medical care

Front 95

Part II (Front of center page) is where you place what for a dental record?

Back 95

NAVMED 6600/3 Dental Health Questionaire

Front 96

What are the least expensive gloves, commonly used in routine pricedures?

Back 96

Latex examination Gloves

Front 97

What is used most often to evaluate the severity of HIV infection?

Back 97

T-helper cells

Front 98

In what year was AIDS defined?

Back 98

1982

Front 99

All HIV infected persons with a CD4+ cell count of under 200/mm3 or a CD4+ T-lymphocite percentage of total lymphocytes under 14% are regarded as_________.

Back 99

AIDS

Front 100

When tactical situation permits during combat operations, the safest method of field disposal is _________, followed by deep ______(over 6 feet).

Back 100

Incineration (burning); burial