Final Micro 25 & 32

Front 1

The urinary tract above the bladder usually shows
a. E. coli.
b. S. aureus.
c. P. vulgaris.
D. no bacteria.
e. E. coli AND S. aureus.

Back 1

D. no bacteria.

Front 2

The normal flora of the lower urethra may show
a. Lactobacillus.
b. Staphylococcus.
c. Corynebacterium.
d. Bacteroides.
E. All of the choices are correct.

Back 2

E. All of the choices are correct.

Front 3

The normal flora of the genital tract of women is
a. affected by estrogen levels.
b. dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.
c. unchanging.
d. typically composed of E. coli.
E. affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

Back 3

E. affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

Front 4

A disease in which the urinary system is infected from the bloodstream is known as
a. cystitis.
b. pyelonephritis.
c. candidiasis.
D. leptospirosis.

Back 4

D. leptospirosis.

Front 5

Leptospirosis is often contracted
a. by eating infected animals.
b. by eating contaminated vegetables.
C. from contaminated animal urine.
d. by the respiratory route.

Back 5

C. from contaminated animal urine.

Front 6

Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis are at risk of
a. placental insufficiency.
b. being unable to nurse.
c. being unable to deliver vaginally.
D. having a premature baby.

Back 6

D. having a premature baby.

Front 7

The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and an increase in clue
cells is
a. trichomoniasis.
b. candidiasis.
c. amoebiasis.
D. bacterial vaginosis.

Back 7

D. bacterial vaginosis.

Front 8

Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are
a. sexual promiscuity.
b. intense antibacterial treatment.
c. disruption of normal flora.
d. the use of oral contraceptives.
E. intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral
contraceptives.

Back 8

E. intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral

Front 9

Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of
a. bacterial vaginosis.
b. puerperal fever.
C. toxic shock syndrome.
d. gas gangrene.
e. bacterial vaginosis AND puerperal fever.

Back 9

C. toxic shock syndrome.

Front 10

Toxic shock syndrome
a. is due to exotoxins produced by S. pyogenes.
B. is due to exotoxins produced by S. aureus.
c. may spread from person to person.
d. has a very low rate of recurrence, approximately 1%.
e. is due to exotoxins produced by S. pyogenes

Back 10

B. is due to exotoxins produced by S. aureus.

Front 11

The incubation period of gonorrhea is approximately
A. 2-5 days.
b. 1-2 weeks.
c. 14-21 days.
d. several months.

Back 11

A. 2-5 days.

Front 12

Gonococci are parasites of
a. cows.
b. iguanas.
c. sheep.
D. humans.
e. cows AND sheep.

Back 12

D. humans.

Front 13

Gonococci selectively attach to certain epithelial cells by
A. pili.
b. flagella.
c. cilia.
d. actin bridges.
e. flagella AND cilia.

Back 13

A. pili.

Front 14

Untreated gonorrhea in males may lead to
a. sterility.
b. urinary tract infections.
c. prostatic abscesses.
d. orchitis.
E. All of the choices are correct.

Back 14

E. All of the choices are correct.

Front 15

A frequent complication of untreated gonorrhea in women is
A. pelvic inflammatory disease.
b. syphilis.
c. dysuria.
d. vaginal discharge.

Back 15

A. pelvic inflammatory disease.

Front 16

The treatment of neonates with drops of erythromycin directly into the eyes is to
prevent
a. viral conjunctivitis.
b. cataracts.
c. herpes.
D. ophthalmia neonatorum.

Back 16

D. ophthalmia neonatorum.

Front 17

Which of the following mimics the infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhea?
A. C. trachomatis
b. M. pneumonia
c. T. pallidum
d. E. coli

Back 17

A. C. trachomatis

Front 18

The disease that results from Chlamydia trachomatis attaching to sperm and then
possibly ascending into the fallopian tubes is
a. conjunctivitis.
b. neonatorum ophthalmia.
C. pelvic inflammatory disease.
d. trachoma.

Back 18

C. pelvic inflammatory disease.

Front 19

The infectious form of Chlamydia trachomatis is a(n)
a. reticulate body.
B. elementary body.
c. primary element.
d. core body.

Back 19

B. elementary body.

Front 20

The causative agent of syphilis is
a. papilloma virus.
b. Neisseria gonorrheae.
c. Chlamydia trachomatis.
D. Treponemapallidum.

Back 20

D. Treponemapallidum.

Front 21

Treponemapallidum is similar in shape to
a. Escherichia coli.
b. Staphylococcusaureus.
C. Leptospirainterrogans.
d. herpes virus.

Back 21

C. Leptospirainterrogans.

Front 22

Which of the following manifests itself in three clinical stages?
a. gonorrhea
B. syphilis
c. trachoma
d. non-gonococcal urethritis

Back 22

B. syphilis

Front 23

The presence of a hard chancre in primary syphilis is representative of the body's
A. intense inflammatory response.
b. antibody response.
c. rejection of the invaded tissue.
d. septicemia due to infiltration of the organism.

Back 23

A. intense inflammatory response.

Front 24

During which stage of syphilis is the patient non-infectious?
a. first
b. second
C. third
d. fifth

Back 24

C. third

Front 25

In which disease is a gumma formed?
a. primary syphilis
b. secondary gonorrhea
C. tertiary syphilis
d. diphtheria

Back 25

C. tertiary syphilis

Front 26

Most large cities have required the pasteurization of milk and milk products since
a. 1800.
b. 1850.
C. 1900.
d. 1920.

Back 26

C. 1900.

Front 27

Human disease(s) from milk may include
a. brucellosis.
b. anthrax.
c. amoebiasis.
d. tuberculosis.
E. brucellosis AND tuberculosis.

Back 27

E. brucellosis AND tuberculosis.

Front 28

The connection between unpasteurized milk and brucellosis in humans was made by
A. Evans.
b. Pasteur.
c. Koch.
d. Fleming.

Back 28

A. Evans.

Front 29

Dairy herds were inspected and vaccinated against tuberculosis in the
a. 1800s.
b. 1850s.
c. 1900s.
D. 1920s.

Back 29

D. 1920s.

Front 30

Herds vaccinated against tuberculosis were called
a. safe herds.
b. anti-tuberculin herds.
c. disease free herds.
D. certified herds.

Back 30

D. certified herds.

Front 31

Foods that have been altered due to the carefully controlled growth of microorganisms
is called
a. cooked.
b. controlled.
c. preserved.
D. fermented.

Back 31

D. fermented.

Front 32

Foods that have been unacceptably altered due to uncontrolled bacterial growth are
called
a. refrigerated.
B. spoiled.
c. preserved.
d. fermented.

Back 32

B. spoiled.

Front 33

Growth of pathogens in a food generally does not result in perceptible changes in the
quality of the food but the ingestion of this food can result in
a. spoilage.
B. foodborne illness.
c. aging.
d. toxin infection.

Back 33

B. foodborne illness.

Front 34

When the growth of most common bacteria is inhibited, such as by dry or acidic
conditions, this provides an opportunity for the growth of
a. anaerobes.
b. viruses.
c. worms.
D. fungi.

Back 34

D. fungi.

Front 35

The growth of microorganisms in a food product is influenced by the availability of
a. moisture.
b. acidity.
c. nutrients.
d. temperature.
E. All of the choices are correct.

Back 35

E. All of the choices are correct.

Front 36

Which of the following foods has the greatest amount of available water?
a. cake
B. steak
c. jam
d. syrup

Back 36

B. steak

Front 37

For growth, most bacteria require water activity levels above
a. 1.00.
b. 0.80.
c. 0.70.
D. 0.90.

Back 37

D. 0.90.

Front 38

Which of the following organisms can grow at a lower water activity than most
spoilage bacteria?
a. Pseudomonas sp.
b. most yeasts
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcusaureus

Back 38

D. Staphylococcusaureus

Front 39

On which of the following foods can Staphylococcus aureus multiply with little
competition?
a. bread
B. salty ham
c. jam
d. milk

Back 39

B. salty ham

Front 40

Which of the following organisms may grow at pH 3.5?
a. Clostridium
b. Streptococcus
c. fungi
d. lactic acid bacteria
E. fungi AND lactic acid bacteria

Back 40

E. fungi AND lactic acid bacteria

Front 41

Which of the following organisms may grow at pH 2.2?
a. Clostridium
b. Streptococcus
C. fungi
d. lactic acid bacteria
e. fungi AND lactic acid bacteria

Back 41

C. fungi

Front 42

The conditions normally present in food such as moisture, acidity and nutrients are
referred to as
a. extrinsic factors.
B. intrinsic factors.
c. endogenous factors.
d. exogenous factors.

Back 42

B. intrinsic factors.

Front 43

Most bacteria are inhibited by a pH of
a. 7.2.
b. 7.0.
c. 6.0.
D. 4.0.

Back 43

D. 4.0.

Front 44

Which of the following is most likely to grow at refrigerator temperatures?
a. mesophiles
B. psychrophiles
c. thermophiles
d. acidophiles

Back 44

B. psychrophiles

Front 45

The amount of moisture available in foods is designated by the term
a. fluid availability.
B. water activity.
c. dampness quotient.
d. aqueous usability.

Back 45

B. water activity.

Front 46

Pure water has a water activity value of
A. 1.00.
b. 0.80.
c. 0.70.
d. 0.90.

Back 46

A. 1.00.

Front 47

Limiting the activity of microbes in food can be accomplished by
a. pasteurization.
b. cold storage.
c. irradiation.
d. growth inhibiting substances.
E. All of the choices are correct.

Back 47

E. All of the choices are correct.

Front 48

Naturally occurring microbial chemicals may include
a. benzoic acid.
b. lysozyme.
c. allicin.
d. peroxidase.
E. All of the choices are correct.

Back 48

E. All of the choices are correct.

Front 49

Egg white is rich in the antimicrobial
a. lysosome.
b. RNAse.
c. penicillin.
D. lysozyme.

Back 49

D. lysozyme.

Front 50

Slow cooking for a long time and then storage at room temperature would tend to
favor the growth of
a. endospore-formers.
b. anaerobes.
c. mesophiles.
d. thermophiles
E. endospore-formers AND mesophiles.

Back 50

E. endospore-formers AND mesophiles.