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250 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. Which if the following epidermal layers is characterized as the last layer to undergo mitosis:
a. stratum spinosum b. stratum corneum c. stratum basale d. stratum lucidum e. stratum granulosum |
a. stratum spinosum
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2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelia:
a. there is a free exposed surface b. absence of blood vessels c. attached to the ground substance d. exposed surface is continually being replaced e. cells are bound closely together |
c. attached to the ground substance
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3. The endoderm germ layer gives rise to which of the following structures:
a. kidneys b. urinary bladder c. epidermis d. posterior pituitary gland e. amelanocytes |
b. urinary bladder
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4. Which of the following best defines ipsilateral:
a. toward the head end or upper part of the structure b. away from the midline of the body c. on the same side d. toward or at the body surface e. away from the head end or toward the lower end of a structure |
c. on the same side
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5. Which of the following stimuli do baroreceptors detect:
a. pH b. sound c. pain d. pressure e. [CO2] |
d. pressure
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6. Which of the following structures would you most likely find elastic cartilage:
a. tedons b. lamina propria c. spleen d. epiglottis e. urinary bladder |
d. epiglottis
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7. Which of the following is not a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum:
a. lipid synthesis b. fatty acid synthesis c. protein synthesis d. steroid synthesis e. phospholipid synthesis |
c. protein synthesis
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8. The gallbladder is located in which anatomical quadrant:
a. left lower b. right upper c. epigastric d. right lower e. left upper |
b. right upper
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9. Which of the following receptors can detect stretch of the skeletal muscle:
a. Ruffini corpuscle b. Pacinian corpuscle c. Merkel disc d. Golgi tendon organs e. Meissner’s corpuscle |
d. Golgi tendon organs
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10. Which of the following structures would you most likely find reticular tissue:
a. tedons b. lamina propria c. spleen d. epiglottis e. urinary bladder |
c. spleen
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11. The mesoderm germ layer gives rise to which of the following structures:
a. thyroid b. dermis c. cornea d. spinal cord e. teeth |
b. dermis
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12. The membrane layer in contact with the heart is called:
a. parietal b. pleural c. synovial d. visceral e. mucous |
d. visceral
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13. Which of the following receptors can detect pressure and distortion with little adaptation:
a. Ruffini corpuscle b. Pacinian corpuscle c. Merkel disc d. Golgi tendon organs e. Meissner’s corpuscle |
a. Ruffini corpuscle
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14. Which of the following tissue types would you most likely find in mammary glands:
a. simple squamous b. pseudostratified ciliated columnar c. stratified cuboidal d. simple columnar e. stratified columnar |
c. stratified cuboidal
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15. Telophase is characterized by which of the following:
a. reappearance of the nuclear envelope b. physical splitting of the cell into two daughter cells c. disappearance of the nuclear envelope d. sister chormatids physically split apart e. sister chromatids align along the equatorial plan |
a. reappearance of the nuclear envelope
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16. Which of the following techniques would you use to detect a broken bone:
a. MRI b. PET c. X-ray d. CAT scan e. ultrasound |
c. X-ray
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17. Which if the following epidermal layers is characterized as the first layer to synthesize keratin:
a. stratum spinosum b. stratum corneum c. stratum basale d. stratum lucidum e. stratum granulosum |
e. stratum granulosum
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18. Which of the following tissue types would you most likely find in the GI tract:
a. simple squamous b. pseudostratified ciliated columnar c. stratified cuboidal d. simple columnar e. stratified columnar |
d. simple columnar
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19. Which of the following does not affect diffusion:
a. temperature b. moleuclar size c. concentration gradient d. identity of the molecule e. distance |
d. identity of the molecule
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20. Which of the following best defines lateral:
a. toward the head end or upper part of the structure b. away from the midline of the body c. on the same side d. toward or at the body surface e. away from the head end or toward the lower end of a structure |
b. away from the midline of the body
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21. Which of the following receptors can detect light touch and vibration and can adapt to stimuli:
a. Ruffini corpuscle b. Pacinian corpuscle c. Merkel disc d. Golgi tendon organs e. Meissner’s corpuscle |
e. Meissner’s corpuscle
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22. Which of the following tissue types would you most likely find in the trachea:
a. simple squamous b. pseudostratified ciliated columnar c. stratified cuboidal d. simple columnar e. stratified columnar |
b. pseudostratified ciliated columna
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23. Anaphase is characterized by which of the following:
a. reappearance of the nuclear envelope b. physical splitting of the cell into two daughter cells c. disappearance of the nuclear envelope d. sister chormatids physically split apart e. sister chromatids align along the equatorial plan |
d. sister chormatids physically split apart
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24. Which of the following gives rise to the spinal cord:
a. post anal tail b. pharyngeal slits c. notochord d. dorsal hollow nerve cord e. larynx |
d. dorsal hollow nerve cord
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25. Which of the following receptors can detect pulsating or vibrating stimuli:
a. Ruffini corpuscle b. Pacinian corpuscle c. Merkel disc d. Golgi tendon organs e. Meissner’s corpuscle |
b. Pacinian corpuscle
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26. Which of the following tissue types would you most likely find in alveoli:
a. simple squamous b. pseudostratified ciliated columnar c. stratified cuboidal d. simple columnar e. stratified columnar |
a. simple squamous
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27. Which of the cellular junctions is used to seal neighboring cells together:
a. gap junction b. intercalated dics c. tight junctions d. desmosomes e. hemidesmosome |
c. tight junctions
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28. Which of the following organ systems is not used to regulate body fluid composition:
a. cardiovascular b. urinary c. respiratory d. lymphatic e. digestive |
d. lymphatic
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29. Which of the following is incorrect regarding aging and the body:
a. decreased ability to repair wounds b. increase in melanocyte activity c. decrease in immune system’s sensitivity d. decrease in mitosis e. increase in infections |
b. increase in melanocyte activity
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30. Which of the following structures would you most likely find areolar tissue:
a. tedons b. lamina propria c. spleen d. epiglottis e. urinary bladder |
b. lamina propria
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31. Metaphase is characterized by which of the following:
a. reappearance of the nuclear envelope b. physical splitting of the cell into two daughter cells c. disappearance of the nuclear envelope d. sister chormatids physically split apart e. sister chromatids align along the equatorial plan |
e. sister chromatids align along the equatorial plan
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32. Which of the following organ systems is not used to regulate body temperature:
a. nervous b. muscular c. respiratory d. cardiovascular e. integumentary |
c. respiratory
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33. Which if the following epidermal layers is characterized as being the oldest layer:
a. stratum spinosum b. stratum corneum c. stratum basale d. stratum lucidum e. stratum granulosum |
. stratum corneum
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34. Which of the following tissue types would you most likely find in the urethra in males:
a. simple squamous b. pseudostratified ciliated columnar c. stratified cuboidal d. simple columnar e. stratified columnar |
e. stratified columnar
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35. Neural crest cells give rise to which of the following structures:
a. brain b. nails c. lining of the GI tract d. adrenal medulla e. muscle |
d. adrenal medulla
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36. Which of the following gives rise to the vertebrae:
a. post anal tail b. pharyngeal slits c. notochord d. dorsal hollow nerve cord e. larynx |
c. notochord
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37. Which of the following receptors can detect fine touch and pressure:
a. Ruffini corpuscle b. Pacinian corpuscle c. Merkel disc d. Golgi tendon organs e. Meissner’s corpuscle |
c. Merkel disc
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38. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cardiac muscle:
a. under involuntary control b. striated c. contains gap junctions d. contains intercalated dics e. are long thin cells |
e. are long thin cells
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39. Which of the following microscopic techniques can be used to visualize the DNA double helix:
a. electron b. DIC c. phase contrast d. scan tunneling e. brightfield |
d. scan tunneling
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40. Which of the following techniques would you use to detect tissue activity:
a. MRI b. PET c. X-ray d. CAT scan e. ultrasound |
b. PET
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41. Which of the following stimuli do nocioceptors detect:
a. pH b. sound c. pain d. pressure e. [CO2] |
c. pain
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42. Which of the following structures would you most likely find transitional tissue:
a. tedons b. lamina propria c. spleen d. epiglottis e. urinary bladder |
e. urinary bladder
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43. Which of the cellular junctions is used to attach the cell to the basement membrane:
a. gap junction b. intercalated dics c. tight junctions d. desmosomes e. hemidesmosome |
e. hemidesmosome
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44. Which of the following best defines caudal:
a. toward the head end or upper part of the structure b. away from the midline of the body c. on the same side d. toward or at the body surface e. away from the head end or toward the lower end of a structure |
e. away from the head end or toward the lower end of a structure
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45. Which of the following is not a function of hair:
a. protects entrances b. cushions head c. provides sensations d. protects armpits from uv radiation e. insulates head |
d. protects armpits from uv radiation
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46. Which of the following structures would you most likely find dense regular connective tissue:
a. tedons b. lamina propria c. spleen d. epiglottis e. urinary bladder |
a. tedons
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47. A neuron’s shape can best be described as:
a. polygonal b. discoid c. stellate d. spheroid e. fusiform |
c. stellate
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48. The appendix is located in which of the following anatomical regions:
a. epigastric b. umbilical c. left inguinal d. right lumbar e. hypogastric |
e. hypogastric
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49. Which if the following epidermal layers is characterized as the layer that contains a pool of stem cells:
a. stratum spinosum b. stratum corneum c. stratum basale d. stratum lucidum e. stratum granulosum |
c. stratum basale
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50. Which of the following is not a function of connective tissue:
a. protection b. defense c. storage d. movement e. transport |
d. movement
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1. Which of the following best defines perimysium:
a. layer that surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber and ties adjacent fibers together b. connective tissue fibers that divide the skeletal muscle into compartments c. connective tissue that binds osseous tissue to osseous tisse d. layer of collagen fibers that separates the muscle fiber from the rest of the other tissues e. a bundle of muscle fibers |
b. connective tissue fibers that divide the skeletal muscle into compartments
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2. Which of the following cell types is responsible for monitoring Ca+2 levels in bone:
a. osteoclast b. mesenchyme cells c. osteocyte d. osteoprogenitor cells e. osteoblast |
c. osteocyte
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3. Which neurotransmitter is used at the neuromuscular junction to initiate muscle contraction:
a. dopamine b. serotonin c. GABA d. epinepherine e. acetylcholine |
e. acetylcholine
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4. Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton:
a. vomer b. manubrium c. parietal d. pisiform e. axis |
d. pisiform
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5. Which of the following muscles act to laterally rotate the shoulder:
a. biceps brachii b. rhomboid major c. deltoid d. latissimus dorsi e. infraspinatus |
e. infraspinatus
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6. Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit:
a. lacrimal b. frontal c. sphenoid d. zygomatic e. occipital |
e. occipital
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7. Which of the following terms does not denote the orientation of a muscle fiber:
a. profundus b. rectus c. transverse d. psoas e. internus |
d. psoas
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8. How many bones make up the cervical vertebrae:
a. 5 fused into 1 b. 12 c. 3 fused into 1 d. 5 e. 7 |
e. 7
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9. Which of the following muscles act to abduct the shoulder:
a. biceps brachii b. rhomboid major c. deltoid d. latissimus dorsi e. infraspinatus |
c. deltoid
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10. Which of the following has a “heart shaped” body:
a. sacral vertebrae b. thoracic vertebrae c. coccygeal vertebrae d. lumbar vertebrae e. cervical vertebrae |
b. thoracic vertebrae
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11. Which of the following muscles act to provide plantar flexion at the ankle:
a. rectus femoris b. gracillis c. soleus d. gluteus maximus e. popliteus |
c. soleus
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12. Which of the following would be used to describe the position of the temporal bone:
a. medial b. inferior c. ventral d. lateral e. dorsal |
d. lateral
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13. Which of the following muscles act to medially rotate the tibia:
a. rectus femoris b. gracillis c. soleus d. gluteus maximus e. popliteus |
e. popliteus
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14. Which of the following is classified as a sesamoid bone:
a. femur b. patella c. vertebrae d. ethmoid e. hamate |
b. patella
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15. Which of the following best defines endomysium:
a. layer that surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber and ties adjacent fibers together b. connective tissue fibers that divide the skeletal muscle into compartments c. connective tissue that binds osseous tissue to osseous tisse d. layer of collagen fibers that separates the muscle fiber from the rest of the other tissues e. a bundle of muscle fibers |
a. layer that surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber and ties adjacent fibers together
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16. The articulation that occurs between the scapula and humerus is best classified as:
a. synchondrosis b. syndesmosis c. synovial d. gomphosis e. suture |
c. synovial
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17. Which of the following muscles act to adduct and downward rotation of the scapula:
a. biceps brachii b. rhomboid major c. deltoid d. latissimus dorsi e. infraspinatus |
b. rhomboid major
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18. The articulation that occurs between the tibia and fibula is best classified as:
a. synchondrosis b. syndesmosis c. synovial d. gomphosis e. suture |
b. syndesmosis
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19. Which of the following is incorrect regarding slow twitch muscle fibers:
a. undergoes aerobic respiration b. has low ATPase activity c. has low glycogen content d. thick diameter e. highly resistance to fatigue |
d. thick diameter
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20. Which of the following is incorrect regard the male pelvis:
a. pubic angle is less than 90o b. smaller pelvic outlet c. increased sacrum-coccyx curvature d. pelvis tends to have less prominent markings e. heart shaped pelvic inlet |
d. pelvis tends to have less prominent markings
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21. Which of the following muscles act to flex and medially rotate the knee:
a. rectus femoris b. gracillis c. soleus d. gluteus maximus e. popliteus |
b. gracillis
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22. Which of the following is not part of the appendicular skeleton:
a. scaphoid b. capitate c. lunate d. trapezium e. malleus |
e. malleus
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23. Which of the following muscles act to elevate, retract, depress, or rotate the scapula:
a. gastrocnemius b. trapezius c. iliopsoas d. rectus femoris e. teres major |
b. trapezius
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24. The olecranon process is found on which bone:
a. scapula b. radius c. fibula d. ulna e. humerus |
d. ulna
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25. Muscles that have a spindle-shape with an expanded belly can be best classified as:
a. bipennate b. parallel c. fusiform d. unipennate e. convergent |
c. fusiform
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26. Which of the following cell types is responsible for depositing Ca+2 salts onto bone:
a. osteoclast b. mesenchyme cells c. osteocyte d. osteoprogenitor cells e. osteoblast |
e. osteoblast
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27. Which of the following muscles act to extend and laterally rotate the leg at the hip:
a. rectus femoris b. gracillis c. soleus d. gluteus maximus e. popliteus |
d. gluteus maximus
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28. The articulation that occurs between the epiphysis and diaphysis is best classified as:
a. synchondrosis b. syndesmosis c. synovial d. gomphosis e. suture |
a. synchondrosis
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29. Which of the following muscles act to flex the arm at the elbow:
a. biceps brachii b. rhomboid major c. deltoid d. latissimus dorsi e. infraspinatus |
a. biceps brachii
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30. Which structure connects bone to bone:
a. ligaments b. aponeurosis c. tendons d. mesenchyme e. ground substance |
a. ligaments
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31. Which of the following best defines epimysium:
a. layer that surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber and ties adjacent fibers together b. connective tissue fibers that divide the skeletal muscle into compartments c. connective tissue that binds osseous tissue to osseous tisse d. layer of collagen fibers that separates the muscle fiber from the rest of the other tissues e. a bundle of muscle fibers |
d. layer of collagen fibers that separates the muscle fiber from the rest of the other tissues
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32. How many bones makes up the human skeleton:
a. 53 b. 167 c. 208 d. 333 e. 400 |
c. 208
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33. Which of the following is incorrect regarding skeletal muscle:
a. striated b. requires both intra- and extracellular Ca+2 for contraction c. multinucleated d. under voluntary control e. requires somatic neural impulses |
b. requires both intra- and extracellular Ca+2 for contraction
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34. How many bones make up the lumbar vertebrae:
a. 5 fused into 1 b. 12 c. 3 fused into 1 d. 5 e. 7 |
d. 5
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35. Which of the following muscles act to extend and medially rotate at the shoulder:
a. gastrocnemius b. trapezius c. iliopsoas d. rectus femoris e. teres major |
e. teres major
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36. The acromion is found on which bone:
a. scapula b. radius c. fibula d. ulna e. humerus |
a. scapula
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37. Which of the following muscles act to extent leg at the knee:
a. rectus femoris b. gracillis c. soleus d. gluteus maximus e. popliteus |
a. rectus femoris
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38. The articulation that occurs between a tooth and the mandible is best classified as:
a. synchondrosis b. syndesmosis c. synovial d. gomphosis e. suture |
d. gomphosis
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39. Which of the following is incorrect regarding smooth muscle:
a. is under involuntary control b. is spindle shaped c. surrounds the GI tract d. communicates with neighboring cells via desmosomes e. lacks striations |
d. communicates with neighboring cells via desmosomes
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40. Endochondrial ossification begins in which of the following:
a. dense regular elastic tissue b. elastic cartilage c. adipose d. hyaline cartilage e. reticular tissue |
d. hyaline cartilage
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41. Which of the following terms does not denote the specific region a muscle fiber is located:
a. oris b. temporalis c. alba d. pollicis e. nuchal |
c. alba
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42. Which of the following has the largest vertebral foramen:
a. sacral vertebrae b. thoracic vertebrae c. coccygeal vertebrae d. lumbar vertebrae e. cervical vertebrae |
e. cervical vertebrae
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43. Which of the following muscles act to extend, adduct, and medially rotate the shoulder:
a. biceps brachii b. rhomboid major c. deltoid d. latissimus dorsi e. infraspinatus |
d. latissimus dorsi
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44. Which of the following best describes the type of joint found between the atlas and axis:
a. saddle b. hinge c. plane d. ellipsoid e. ball-and-socket |
d. ellipsoid
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45. Which of the following is correct during muscle contraction:
a. the length of the A band increases b. the M line decreases c. the length of the I band increases d. the H zone decreases e. the distance between the Z discs increases |
d. the H zone decreases
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46. Which of the following is an example of an angular movement:
a. pronation b. eversion c. circumduction d. depression e. excursion |
c. circumduction
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47. Which of the following structures is used to deliver the neural impulse into the deeper levels of fiber:
a. sarcoplasmic reticulum b. terminal cisternae c. sarcolemma d. T tubule e. glycogen |
d. T tubule
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48. The articulation that occurs between the parietal and frontal bone is best classified as:
a. synchondrosis b. syndesmosis c. synovial d. gomphosis e. suture |
e. suture
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49. Which of the following best defines fascicle:
a. layer that surrounds each skeletal muscle fiber and ties adjacent fibers together b. connective tissue fibers that divide the skeletal muscle into compartments c. connective tissue that binds osseous tissue to osseous tisse d. layer of collagen fibers that separates the muscle fiber from the rest of the other tissues e. a bundle of muscle fibers |
e. a bundle of muscle fibers
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50. Which of the following cell types is responsible for dissolving bone:
a. osteoclast b. mesenchyme cells c. osteocyte d. osteoprogenitor cells e. osteoblast |
a. osteoclast
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1. Which of the following structures forms the glomerulus:
a. segmental artery b. interlobular artery c. renal artery d. efferent arteriole e. afferent arteriole |
e. afferent arteriole
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2. Which of the following hormones inhibits the release of bile:
a. CCK b. GIP c. somatostatin d. gastrin e. GLP-I |
c. somatostatin
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3. Which of the following hormones is classified as a glycoprotein:
a. aldosterone b. norepinephrine c. parathyroid hormone d. thyroid stimulating hormone e. antidiuretic hormone |
d. thyroid stimulating hormone
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4. What is the osmolality of the filtrate as it enters the collecting tubules:
a. 1200 mOsm b. 600 mOsm c. 300 mOsm d. 100 mOsm e. 0 mOsm |
d. 100 mOsm
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5. Which of the following tissue types makes up the esophagus:
a. simple columnar b. stratified cuboidal c. transitional d. stratified squamous e. pseudostratified columnar |
d. stratified squamous
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6. Which of the following is not considered endocrine tissue:
a. thymus b. adrenal gland c. thyroid d. pancreas e. thalamus |
e. thalamus
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7. Which of the following does not occur as a result in a drop in blood pressure:
a. release of renin b. activation of the parasympathetic nervous system c. activation of aldosterone-receptor complex d. increase in peripheral resistance e. increase in Na+ reabsorption |
b. activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
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8. Which of the flowing cell types secretes somatostatin:
a. ECL cells b. D cells c. G cells d. chief cells e. parietal cells |
b. D cells
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9. Which of the following hormones is synthesized in the hypothalamus:
a. ANP b. thyroid stimulating hormone c. somatostatin d. cortisol e. prolactin |
c. somatostatin
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10. Which of the following is used as a marker to determine renal secretion:
a. PAH b. insulin c. glucose d. inulin e. urea |
a. PAH
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11. Which of the following is not a pancreatic enzyme:
a. lipase b. chymotrypsin c. pepsin d. elastase e. ribonuclease |
c. pepsin
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12. Which of the following hormones stimulates the thirst response:
a. ANP b. renin c. aldosterone d. cortisol e. angiotensin II |
e. angiotensin II
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13. The release of ANP is in response to:
a. decrease in blood pressure b. release of renin c. release of angiotensin II d. increase in blood pressure e. decrease in GFP |
increase in blood pressure
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14. Name the folds present within the stomach:
a. villi b. gyri c. microvilli d. plica e. rugae |
e. rugae
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15. The zona reticularis of the adrenal gland synthesizes which of the following:
a. glucocoticoids b. melatonin c. epinephrine d. aldosterone e. androgens |
e. androgens
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16. Which of the following medical conditions results in basic blood pH:
a. hyperventilation b. hypoventilation c. production of ketone bodies d. asthma e. diarrhea |
. hyperventilation
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17. Which of the following is the correct order as the bolus passes through the GI tract:
a. duodenum-jejunum-cecum-ileum-ascending colon-transverse colon-descending colon b. duodenum-jejunum-cecum-ileum-descending colon-transverse colon-ascending colon c. duodenum-ileum-jejunum-cecum-ascending colon-transverse colon-descending colon d. duodenum-jejunum-ileum-cecum-descending colon-transverse colon-ascending colon e. duodenum-jejunum-ileum-cecum-ascending colon-transverse colon-descending colon |
e. duodenum-jejunum-ileum-cecum-ascending colon-transverse colon-descending colon
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18. Which of the following cells releases glucagon:
a. D cells b. ECL cells c. α cells d. G cells e. β cells |
e. β cells
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19. The distal convoluted tubule is sensitive to which of the following:
a. aldosterone b. renin c. furosemide d. inulin e. thiazide |
e. thiazide
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20. Which of the following cell types is responsible for HCl synthesis:
a. ECL cells b. D cells c. G cells d. chief cells e. parietal cells |
e. parietal cells
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21. Which of the following hormones is classified as an amine:
a. aldosterone b. norepinephrine c. parathyroid hormone d. thyroid stimulating hormone e. antidiuretic hormone |
b. norepinephrine
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22. The Loop of Henle is sensitive to which of the following:
a. aldosterone b. renin c. furosemide d. inulin e. thiazide |
c. furosemide
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23. Which of the following organs is responsible for water reabsorption:
a. small intestine b. stomach c. pancreas d. rectum e. large intestine |
e. large intestine
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24. Adipose tissue synthesizes which of the following hormones:
a. inhibin b. ISH c. BNP d. leptin e. renin |
d. leptin
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25. Which of the following is used as a marker to determine renal absorption:
a. PAH b. insulin c. glucose d. inulin e. urea |
c. glucose
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26. Which of the following enzymes is used to activate trysin:
a. enterophosphatase b. enterokinase c. protein kinase A d. adenylated cyclase e. ligase |
b. enterokinase
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27. Which of the following occurs during the resistance phase of stress:
a. inability to produce glucocorticoids b. increase in heart rate c. imbalance of electrolytes d. mobilization of glucose e. release of amino acids from the skeletal muscle |
. release of amino acids from the skeletal muscle
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28. The collecting tubule is sensitive to which of the following:
a. aldosterone b. renin c. furosemide d. inulin e. thiazide |
a. aldosterone
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29. Which of the following is considered the hardest substance of a tooth:
a. cementum b. dentin c. pulp d. root e. enamel |
e. enamel
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30. Which of the following cells synthesizes androgens:
a. ECL cells b. α cells c. chief cells d. interstitial cells e. nurse cells |
d. interstitial cells
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31. The micturition center is located in the:
a. hypothalamus b. medulla oblongata c. pons d. spinal cord e. midbrain |
c. pons
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32. Which of the flowing cell types secretes histamine:
a. ECL cells b. D cells c. G cells d. chief cells e. parietal cells |
a. ECL cells
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33. The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland synthesizes which of the following:
a. glucocoticoids b. melatonin c. epinephrine d. aldosterone e. androgens |
d. aldosterone
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34. What is the osmolality of the filtrate at the tip of the Loop of Henle:
a. 1200 mOsm b. 600 mOsm c. 300 mOsm d. 100 mOsm e. 0 mOsm |
a. 1200 mOsm
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35. Fatty acids and cholesterol enters the lacteals in the form of:
a. HDL b. LDL c. VHDL d. VLDL e. chylomicrons |
e. chylomicrons
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36. Which of the following hormones is classified as a steroid:
a. aldosterone b. norepinephrine c. parathyroid hormone d. thyroid stimulating hormone e. antidiuretic hormone |
a. aldosterone
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37. Which of the following is used as a marker to determine renal excretion:
a. PAH b. insulin c. glucose d. inulin e. urea |
d. inulin
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38. Which of the following occurs during the intestinal phase of gastric activity:
a. indirect vagal stimulation of the parietal cells b. activation of the medulla oblongata from stimulation of taste receptors c. release of CCK into the blood stream d. activation of the vagovagal reflex e. contractions of the |
c. release of CCK into the blood stream
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39. Which of the following cells monitors and regulates the concentration of circulating Ca+2:
a. G cells b. parietal cells c. beta cells d. chief cells e. D cells |
d. chief cells
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40. Which of the following structures monitors the glomerular filtration pressure (GFP)
a. counter current multiplier b. macula densa c. juxtaglomerular cells d. vasa recta e. podocytes |
b. macula densa
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41. Which of the flowing cell types secretes gastric lipase:
a. ECL cells b. D cells c. G cells d. chief cells e. parietal cells |
d. chief cells
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42. Which of the following serves as the precursor to melatonin:
a. threonine b. tyrosine c. tryptophan d. thymine e. tyme |
c. tryptophan
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43. Which of the following blood vessels carries the filtrated blood back to the heart:
a. superior vena cava b. aorta c. renal artery d. inferior vena cava e. jugular |
d. inferior vena cava
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44. Which of the following is the most superficial layer of the GI tract:
a. submucosa b. muscularis externa c. serosa d. muscularis mucosae e. mucosa |
c. serosa
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45. Which of the following inhibits the synthesis of prolactin:
a. serotonin b. epinepherine c. glutamate d. dopamine e. ACh |
d. dopamine
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46. Which of the following tissue types is present in the urethra in men:
a. transitional b. pseudostratified columnar c. stratified squamous d. stratified columnar e. stratified cuboidal |
d. stratified columnar
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47. Which of the following organs generates chyme:
a. small intestine b. stomach c. esophagus d. large intestine e. mouth |
b. stomach
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48. The function of calcitriol is to:
a. decrease the concentration of circulating Ca+2 b. decrease the absorption of circulating Ca+2 c. increase the concentration of circulating Ca+2 d. increase the absorption of circulating Ca+2 e. decrease the concentration of circulating Na+ |
d. increase the absorption of circulating Ca+2
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49. Where along the nephron is the primary source for amino acid absorption
a. distal convoluted tubule b. Loop of Henle c. renal capsule d. proximal convoluted tubule e. Bowman’s capsule |
d. proximal convoluted tubule
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50. Which of the following organs synthesizes bile:
a. pancreas b. gall bladder c. duodenum d. liver e. stomach |
d. liver
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1. The elevations on the neocortex are called:
a. euros b. gyros c. gyri d. pita e. sulci |
c. gyri
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2. Which of the following cerebral lobes is associated with visual inputs:
a. occipital b. parietal c. frontal d. temporal e. lateral |
a. occipital
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3. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for rage:
a. supraoptic b. paraventricular c. arcuate d. anterior e. dorsomedial |
e. dorsomedial
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|
. Which of the following gray matter structures contains somatic motor neurons:
a. posterior horn b. medial horn c. anterior horn d. gray commissures e. lateral horn |
c. anterior horn
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5. Which of the following structures is derived from the neural tube:
a. anterior pituitary b. sympathetic nervous system c. brain d. Schwann cells e. olfactory epithelium |
c. brain
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6. Which of the following types of innervation is responsible for decreasing digestive activity:
a. sympathetic chain ganglia b. supradrenal medullae c. parasympathetic chain ganglia d. sympathetic collateral ganglia e. parasympathetic collateral ganglia |
d. sympathetic collateral ganglia
|
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7. Which of the following structures is not part of the basal nucleus:
a. caudate nucleus b. globus pallidus c. putamen d. cingulated gyrus e. lentiform nucleus |
cingulated gyrus
|
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8. Which of the following thalamic nuclei is responsible for emotional output to the prefrontal cortex:
a. posterior b. ventral c. lateral d. medial e. anterior |
d. medial
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9. Which of the following descending tracts is responsible for conscious motor control of skeletal muscles:
a. corticobulbar tract b. rubrospinal tract c. tectospinal tract d. vestibulospinal tract e. reticulospinal tract |
a. corticobulbar tract
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10. Which of the following structures originates from the prosencephalon:
a. hypothalamus b. spinal cord c. pons d. cerebellum e. medulla oblongata |
a. hypothalamus
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11. Which of the following neurotransmitters can activate an adrenergic receptor:
a. dopamine b. ACh c. serotonin d. epinephrine e. GABA |
d. epinephrine
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12. Which of the following structures is involved with the sleep/wake cycle:
a. inferior colliculus b. substantia nigra c. reticular formation d. red nucleus e. superior colliculus |
c. reticular formation
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13. Which of the following structures contains the cardiovascular, respiratory, and digestive centers:
a. cerebellum b. pons c. cerebrum d. medulla oblongata e. midbrain |
d. medulla oblongata
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14. Which of the following ascending tracts is responsible for detecting fine touch, pressure, and vibration:
a. anterior spinothalamic tract b. posterior spinocerebellar tract c. fasciculus gracilis d. anterior spinocerebellar e. lateral spinothalamic tract |
c. fasciculus gracilis
|
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15. Which of the following cell types is not part of the CNS:
a. microglia b. oligodendrocytes c. astrocytes d. satellite cells e. ependymal cells |
d. satellite cells
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16. Which of the following cranial nerves does not carry preganglionic parasympathetic fibers:
a. vagus b. occulomotor c. facial d. trigeminal e. glossopharyngeal |
d. trigeminal
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17. Which of the following brain waves represents a frustrated adult:
a. alpha waves b. beta waves c. gamma waves d. delta waves e. theta waves |
. theta waves
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18. Which of the following cell types is the most predominant in the cerebellum:
a. pyramidal b. satellite c. somites d. purkinje e. Schwann cells |
d. purkinje
|
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19. Which of the following gray matter structures contains visceral motor neurons:
a. posterior horn b. medial horn c. anterior horn d. gray commissures e. lateral horn |
e. lateral horn
|
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20. Which of the following values is the resting membrane potential of a neuron:
a. +50 mV b. +33 mV c. 0 mV d. -50 mV e. -70 mV |
e. -70 mV
|
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21. Which of the following is not a result of sympathetic nervous system activation:
a. increase in respiration b. increase in heart rate c. relaxation of bladder muscles d. increase in salivation e. pupil dilatation |
d. increase in salivation
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22. The ability to recall the year Columbus sailed the ocean is what type of memory:
a. short term b. semantic explicit c. episodic explicit d. implicit e. consolidative |
b. semantic explicit
|
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23. Which of the following thalamic nuclei is responsible for somesthetic output to postcentral gyrus:
a. posterior b. ventral c. lateral d. medial e. anterior |
b. ventral
|
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24. Which of the following ascending tracts is responsible for detecting pain and temperature:
a. anterior spinothalamic tract b. posterior spinocerebellar tract c. fasciculus gracilis d. anterior spinocerebellar e. lateral spinothalamic tract |
e. lateral spinothalamic tract
|
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25. Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter:
a. dopamine b. ACh c. glutamate d. glycine e. serotonin |
d. glycine
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26. Which of the following types of innervation is responsible for stimulating sweat gland secretions:
a. sympathetic chain ganglia b. supradrenal medullae c. parasympathetic chain ganglia d. sympathetic collateral ganglia e. parasympathetic collateral ganglia |
a. sympathetic chain ganglia
|
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27. Which of the following cerebral lobes is associated with auditory inputs:
a. occipital b. parietal c. frontal d. temporal e. lateral |
d. temporal
|
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28. The corpora quadrigemina is located in which part of the brain:
a. cerebellum b. pons c. cerebrum d. medulla oblongata e. midbrain |
e. midbrain
|
|
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29. Which of the following descending tracts is responsible for subconscious regulation of balance:
a. corticobulbar tract b. rubrospinal tract c. tectospinal tract d. vestibulospinal tract e. reticulospinal tract |
d. vestibulospinal tract
|
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|
30. What neurotransmitter system does cocaine interact with:
a. ACh b. serotonin c. GABA d. epinephrine e. dopamine |
e. dopamine
|
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31. Catecholamines are derived from which of the following amino acids:
a. glycine b. tryptophan c. tyrosine d. glutamate e. threonine |
c. tyrosine
|
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32. The SRY gene is expressed in which of the following structures:
a. inferior colliculus b. substantia nigra c. reticular formation d. red nucleus e. superior colliculus |
b. substantia nigra
|
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|
33. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for oxytocin production:
a. supraoptic b. paraventricular c. arcuate d. anterior e. dorsomedial |
b. paraventricular
|
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|
34. The corpus callosum is what type of fiber tract:
a. projection b. peduncle c. association d. colliculus e. commissural |
e. commissural
|
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|
35. Which of the following can serve as an antidote against nerve gas:
a. ricin b. sarin c. atropine d. ACh e. VX |
c. atropine
|
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36. Which of the following is incorrect regarding pre- and postganglionic neurons:
a. all parasympathetic postganglionic neurons release ACh b. sympathetic preganglionic neurons tend to be short c. sympathetic postganglionic neurons release norepinephrine d. the adrenal cortex is a modified sympathetic postganglionic neural tissue e. parasympathetic preganglionic neurons tend to be long |
d. the adrenal cortex is a modified sympathetic postganglionic neural tissue
|
|
|
37. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the affects of aging on the brain:
a. increase in blood flow b. widening of the sulci c. narrowing of the gyri d. reduction of cortical neurons e. reduction in brain weight |
a. increase in blood flow
|
|
|
38. Which of the following thalamic nuclei serves as a relay station for visual signals:
a. posterior b. ventral c. lateral d. medial e. anterior |
a. posterior
|
|
|
39. Which of the following descending tracts is responsible for subconscious regulation of reflex activity:
a. corticobulbar tract b. rubrospinal tract c. tectospinal tract d. vestibulospinal tract e. reticulospinal tract |
e. reticulospinal tract
|
|
|
40. Which of the following is correct regarding the Na+/K+ pump:
a. 3 Na+ are pumped in b. 2 Na+ are pumped out c. 2 K+ are pumped out d. 3 Na+ are pumped out e. 3 K+ are pumped in |
d. 3 Na+ are pumped out
|
|
|
41. Which of the following can activate a cholinergic receptor:
a. atropine b. curare c. sarin d. muscarine e. VX |
d. muscarine
|
|
|
42. Which of the following structures receives visual input from the lateral geniculate of the thalamus:
a. inferior colliculus b. substantia nigra c. reticular formation d. red nucleus e. superior colliculus |
e. superior colliculus
|
|
|
43. Which of the following structures is responsible for the regulation of aggressive behavior:
a. fornix b. hypothalamus c. cingulated gyrus d. thalamus e. amygdala |
c. cingulated gyrus
|
|
|
44. Which of the following ascending tracts is responsible for detecting crude touch and pressure:
a. anterior spinothalamic tract b. posterior spinocerebellar tract c. fasciculus gracilis d. anterior spinocerebellar e. lateral spinothalamic tract |
. anterior spinothalamic tract
|
|
|
45. How many layers are present in the neocortex:
a. 6 b. 8 c. 5 d. 4 e. 7 |
a. 6
|
|
|
46. Which of the following types of innervation is responsible for the activation/release of norepinethrine:
a. sympathetic chain ganglia b. supradrenal medullae c. parasympathetic chain ganglia d. sympathetic collateral ganglia e. parasympathetic collateral ganglia |
b. supradrenal medullae
|
|
|
47. Which of the following cerebral lobes is associated with complex problem solving:
a. occipital b. parietal c. frontal d. temporal e. lateral |
c. frontal
|
|
|
48. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for thermoregulation:
a. supraoptic b. paraventricular c. arcuate d. anterior e. dorsomedial |
d. anterior
|
|
|
49. Which of the following gray matter structures contains sensory nuclei:
a. posterior horn b. medial horn c. anterior horn d. gray commissures e. lateral horn |
a. posterior horn
|
|
|
50. Which of the following structures is part of the basal nucleus:
a. amygdala b. thalamus c. fornix d. putamen e. cingulated gyrus |
d. putamen
|
|
|
1. Which of the following cell types is present in the alveoli:
a. simple cuboidal b. stratified squamous c. simple columnar d. pseudostratifed ciliated columnar e. simple squamous |
e. simple squamous
|
|
|
2. Which of the following plasma proteins fractions contains antibodies:
a. β globulins b. albumins c. α globulins d. fibrinogen e. γ globulins |
e. γ globulins
|
|
|
3. Fibrotic lung disease occurs as a result of:
a. increased airway resistance b. destruction of gas exchange surfaces c. increase fluid build up in the surrounding interstitial space d. decrease in blood flow through the capillaries e. increase in the thickness of gas exchange surfaces |
e. increase in the thickness of gas exchange surfaces
|
|
|
4. Which of the following is the approximate pH of blood:
a. 7.00 b. 7.25 c. 7.40 d. 7.60 e. 8.00 |
c. 7.40
|
|
|
5. Which of the following nuclei is responsible for initiating inhalation:
a. rhythmicity center b. pneumotaxic area c. gustatory center d. apneustic area e. cuneate nucleus |
d. apneustic area
|
|
|
6. How many oxygen atoms can a hemoglobin molecule carry:
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 1 |
b. 4
|
|
|
7. Labored breathing is known as:
a. hypoxia b. ischemia c. apnea d. tachypnea e. dyspnea |
e. dyspnea
|
|
|
8. Which of the following hormones is released in response to low PO2:
a. ANP b. ADH c. aldosterone d. renin e. erythropoietin |
e. erythropoietin
|
|
|
9. Which of the following statements is correct regarding respiration:
a. PO2 in the blood exiting the alveolar capillaries is less than the PO2 in the alveoli b. PO2 in the the alveoli is equal to the PO2 in blood exiting the alveolar capillaries c. PCO2 in the blood exiting the systemic capillaries is greater than the PCO2 in the surrounding tissue d. PO2 in the blood exiting the systemic capillaries is less than the PO2 in the surrounding tissue e. PCO2 in the blood exiting the alveolar capillaries is less than the PCO2 in the alveoli |
b. PO2 in the the alveoli is equal to the PO2 in blood exiting the alveolar capillaries
|
|
|
10. Which of the following blood vessels contains the largest amount of smooth muscle:
a. capillaries b. venules c. arteriole d. arteries e. veins e. simple squamous |
d. arteries
|
|
|
11. Loss of oxygen due to excessive blood loss is known as:
a. histotoxic hypoxia b. hypoxia hypoxia c. ischemic hypoxia d. aerohypoxia e. anemic hypoxia |
e. anemic hypoxia
|
|
|
12. Which of the following ions passes through the HCN channels at a faster rate:
a. Ca+2 b. K+ c. Na+ d. O2 e. Cl- |
c. Na+
|
|
|
13. The starting membrane potential for autorhythmic cells is:
a. -90 mV b. -70 mV c. -60 mV d. -55 mV e. -40 mV |
c. -60 mV
|
|
|
14. Which of the following leukocytes is the first to arrive at the damaged tissue site:
a. monocyte b. basophil c. neutrophil d. lymphocytes e. eosinophil |
c. neutrophil
|
|
|
15. Which type of epithelial cells are found in the laryngopharynx:
a. simple cuboidal b. stratified squamous c. simple columnar d. pseudostratifed ciliated columnar e. simple squamous |
b. stratified squamous
|
|
|
16. Spontaneous depolarization of the pacemaker cells is known as:
a. systolic depolarization b. isovolumic contraction c. isometric contraction d. diastolic depolarization e. automaticity |
d. diastolic depolarization
|
|
|
17. Which of the following bones does not contain a paranasal sinus:
a. ethmoid bone b. maxillary bone c. frontal bone d. sphenoid bone e. zygomatic bone |
e. zygomatic bone
|
|
|
18. A red blood cell placed into an isotonic solution will:
a. undergo hemolysis b. sink c. not change shape d. crenate e. float |
c. not change shape
|
|
|
19. Which of the following cell types is responsible for producing surfactants:
a. type I alveolar cells b. podocytes c. Kupffer cells d. alveolar macrohages e. septal cells |
e. septal cells
|
|
|
20. Which of the following cell types does not have phagocytic activity:
a. dendritic cells b. neutrophils c. macrophages d. alveolar macrophages e. basophils |
e. basophils
|
|
|
21. Asthma occurs as a result of:
a. increased airway resistance b. destruction of gas exchange surfaces c. increase fluid build up in the surrounding interstitial space d. decrease in blood flow through the capillaries e. increase in the thickness of gas exchange surfaces |
a. increased airway resistance
|
|
|
22. Which of the following enzymes is used to convert fibrinogen in to fibrin:
a. Factor XII b. kallikrein c. thrombin d. plasmin e. platelet factor |
c. thrombin
|
|
|
23. Which of the following occurs during inhalation:
a. diaphragm becomes domed shaped b. internal intercostals depress the ribs c. transversus thoracis depresses the ribs d. external intercostals elevate the ribs e. diaphragm becomes convexed |
d. external intercostals elevate the ribs
|
|
|
24. Which of the following statements is correct regarding sickle cell anemia:
a. a mutation converts Val6 into Glu6 b. a mutation converts Val6 into Iso6 c. a mutation converts Glu6 into Val6 d. a mutation converts Asp6 into Glu6 e. a mutation which converts Val6 into Asp6 |
c. a mutation converts Glu6 into Val6
|
|
|
25. A lack of blood flow is known as:
a. hypoxia b. ischemia c. apnea d. tachypnea e. dyspnea |
b. ischemia
|
|
|
26. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding cardiac cells:
a. each cells has a single nucleus b. cardiac cells have gap junctions to communicate with their neighbor c. cells are branched d. cells lack dense body structures e. cells lack desmosomes |
e. cells lack desmosomes
|
|
|
27. Pulmonary edema occurs as a result of:
a. increased airway resistance b. destruction of gas exchange surfaces c. increase fluid build up in the surrounding interstitial space d. decrease in blood flow through the capillaries e. increase in the thickness of gas exchange surfaces |
c. increase fluid build up in the surrounding interstitial space
|
|
|
28. Which of the following is the first blood vessel to branch off the aortic arch:
a. right common carotid artery b. left common carotid artery c. brachiocephalic artery d. left subclavian artery e. right subclavian artery |
c. brachiocephalic artery
|
|
|
29. Which of the following nuclei is responsible for inhibiting inhalation:
a. rhythmicity center b. pneumotaxic area c. gustatory center d. apneustic area e. cuneate nucleus |
b. pneumotaxic area
|
|
|
30. A red blood cell placed into a hypotonic solution will:
a. undergo hemolysis b. sink c. not change shape d. crenate e. float |
a. undergo hemolysis
|
|
|
31. Shallow breathing is known as:
a. hypoxia b. ischemia c. apnea d. tachypnea e. dyspnea |
d. tachypnea
|
|
|
32. Which of the following represents atrial systole:
a. A wave b. T wave c. QRS complex d. P wave e. RT segment |
d. P wave
|
|
|
33. A loss of oxygen due to cyanide is known as:
a. histotoxic hypoxia b. hypoxia hypoxia c. ischemic hypoxia d. aerohypoxia e. anemic hypoxia |
a. histotoxic hypoxia
|
|
|
34. The starting membrane potential for myocardial contractile cells is:
a. -90 mV b. -70 mV c. -60 mV d. -55 mV e. -40 mV |
a. -90 mV
|
|
|
35. Emphysema occurs as a result of:
a. increased airway resistance b. destruction of gas exchange surfaces c. increase fluid build up in the surrounding interstitial space d. decrease in blood flow through the capillaries e. increase in the thickness of gas exchange surfaces |
b. destruction of gas exchange surfaces
|
|
|
36. Which of the following leukocytes can generate antibodies:
a. monocyte b. basophil c. neutrophil d. lymphocytes e. eosinophil |
d. lymphocytes
|
|
|
37. Which of the following best describes respiratory epithelium:
a. simple cuboidal b. stratified squamous c. simple columnar d. pseudostratifed ciliated columnar e. simple squamous |
d. pseudostratifed ciliated columnar
|
|
|
38. In total which of the following blood vessels represents the great amount of surface area in the body:
a. superior and inferior vena cava b. venules c. aorta d. capillaries e. arteries |
d. capillaries
|
|
|
39. Temporary cessation of breathing is known as:
a. hypoxia b. ischemia c. apnea d. tachypnea e. dyspnea |
c. apnea
|
|
|
40. The threshold value for autorhythmic cells is:
a. -90 mV b. -70 mV c. -60 mV d. -55 mV e. -40 mV |
e. -40 mV
|
|
|
41. Which of the following is the third blood vessel to branch off the aortic arch:
a. right common carotid artery b. left common carotid artery c. brachiocephalic artery d. left subclavian artery e. right subclavian artery |
d. left subclavian artery
|
|
|
42. Which of the following enzymes is used to degrade the fibrin polymer:
a. Factor XII b. kallikrein c. thrombin d. plasmin e. platelet factor |
d. plasmin
|
|
|
43. Which of the following represents ventricular systole:
a. A wave b. T wave c. QRS complex d. P wave e. RT segment |
c. QRS complex
|
|
|
44. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the functions of blood:
a. has the ability to regulate pH b. can transport metabolic wastes c. regulate intracellular ion concentrations d. maintain body temperature e. can protect against infection |
c. regulate intracellular ion concentrations
|
|
|
45. Which of the following is the second blood vessel to branch off the aortic arch:
a. right common carotid artery b. left common carotid artery c. brachiocephalic artery d. left subclavian artery e. right subclavian artery |
b. left common carotid artery
|
|
|
46. Which of the following leukocytes will increase in numbers in response to parasitic infections:
a. monocyte b. basophil c. neutrophil d. lymphocytes e. eosinophil |
e. eosinophil
|
|
|
47. Decreased oxygen occurring at high altitudes is known as:
a. histotoxic hypoxia b. hypoxia hypoxia c. ischemic hypoxia d. aerohypoxia e. anemic hypoxia |
b. hypoxia hypoxia
|
|
|
48. A red blood cell placed into a hypertonic solution will:
a. undergo hemolysis b. sink c. not change shape d. crenate e. float |
d. crenate
|
|
|
49. Which of the following nuclei is responsible for setting the pace of inspiration:
a. rhythmicity center b. pneumotaxic area c. gustatory center d. apneustic area e. cuneate nucleus |
a. rhythmicity center
|
|
|
50. Which of the following plasma protein fractions is responsible for colloidal pressure:
a. β globulins b. albumins c. α globulins d. fibrinogen e. γ globulins |
b. albumins
|
