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233 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Major surface antigen in gram + bacteria…
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Cell wall/membrane
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Major surface antigen in gram – bacteria… what is the composition of the antigen…
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Outer membrane, polysaccharide is the antigen
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Why do cephalosporins not tx Chlamydia and ureaplasma…
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Lack cell walls, which would be necessary for cephalosporins
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Gram – bacteria that lacks endotoxin…
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Bacteroides
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Bugs that are surrounded by an additional outer membrane…
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Spirochetes: Leptospira, Borrelia, Treponema
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Staining for treponemas…
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Darkfield microscopy and fluorescent antibody staining
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If cannot stain Cryptococcus w/ India Ink, what else can be used…
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Mucicarmine to stain thick polysaccharide capsule red
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Culture requirements for fungi (not referring to KOH prep)…
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Sabouraud’s agar
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Gram + that has endotoxin…
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Listeria
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Plasmid carries…
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Genes for antibiotic resistance, Enzymes, Exotoxins and other toxins
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Toxoids used to treat diseases caused by exotoxins or endotoxins…
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Exotoxins, because more antigenic
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Double zone hemolysis in blood agar due to what toxin in what bug…
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Alpha toxin in clost perfringens
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MOA of shiga toxin…
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Cleaves host rRNA thus inactivating 60S ribosome, enhances cytokine release causing HUS
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Bugs causing ADP riboslyation to permanently ACTIVATE Adenylate Cyclase…
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Bordetella, Cholera, e Coli
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Lipid A of endotoxin activates 3 things…
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Complement, Hageman factor, Macros
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Transformation occurs in what bacteria and what is it dependent on…
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SHiN. Depends on recombinase A and homologous recombo
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Difference between F+ plasmid transfer and HFr plasmid transfer…
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F+ plasmid DNA replicated and transferred thru pilus without bacterial chromosomal DNA. HFr DNA becomes incorporated into bacterial DNA and replicates and flanking chromo DNA may be passed thru pilus
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Difference between generalized and specialized transduction…
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Generalized- lytic phage lyses the bacteria and its DNA, some of bac DNA same size as phage DNA and may be taken up. Specialized transdxn- viral DNA incorporated into bacterial DNA and remains dormant. LysoGENIC phage DNA can be excised w/ flanking bacterial genes incorporated
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5 bacterial toxins having genes incorporated thru lysoGENIC phage (specialized transdxn)…
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shigA-like toxin, Botulism toxin, Cholera toxin, Diptheria, Erythrogenic toxin of Strep A
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Gram + rods…
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Clostridium, Corynebacterium, Listeria, Bacillus
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Alpha hemolysis means… bugs…
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Partial hemolysis- green. Strep Pneumoniae and Strep viridans
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Beta hemolysis means… bugs…
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Complete hemolysis (clear). Strep A, Strep B, Staph aureus, Listeria
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Novobiocin referring to what bugs… which is S and which is R…
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Staph. Saprophiticus is Resistant and Epidermitis is Sensitive. NO StRES with your Staph
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Virulence factor for Staph aureus…
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Protein A (binds Fc-IgG)
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MRSA is resistant to beta-lactams because…
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Altered penicillin binding protein
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Strep Pneumoniae is the most common cause of 4 things…
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Meningitis (6m-6yr; 60+ yrs), Otitis media, Pneumonia (40+), Sinusitis
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What enzyme to bugs use to digest ECM/tissue and what bugs use this…
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Hyaluronidase used by Staph aureus, Strep pyogenes, Clostridium Perfringens
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M protein involved in what bug… importance of M protein…
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Group A strep. Virulence factor. Antibodies to M protein cause RF
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Enterococci cause… how are they grouped and what is it based on…
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UTI, biliary tract infxn, subacute endocarditis. Grouped according to C carbo on cell wall (Lancefield). Grow in NaCl
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What are the group D streptococci and how differentiate amongst them…
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Enterococci (grow in NaCl) and Step Bovis (doesn’t grow in NaCl)
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Lab diagnosis of C diphtheria based on…
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Gram + rods w/ metachromatic (blue and red) granules. Can look like Chinese letters
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Exotoxins of B antrax and what do they do…
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Calmodulin dependent edema factor that is an adenylate cyclase; Lethal factor which is a Zn metaloprotease
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Transmission of listeria…
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Unpasturized milk/cheese and deli meats (Note: can grow in very low temps- cold milk), vaginal during transmission
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How do T cells help B cells make antibody…
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After CD4 interacts w/ APC it releases IL-4 and IL-5 to cause class switching
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2 signals necessary for Tc activation…
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1. TCR interacting w/ beta2 of MHC I. 2. IL-2 released from Th
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Idiotype is determined by and unique to…
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Determined by antigen-binding sites and is specific for a given antigen. Hypervariable region defines it
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IL-8 is secreted by… funxn…
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Secreted by macrophages, chemotactic factor for PMNs
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2 things that help prevent complement activation on self cells…
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DAF and C1 esterase inhibitor
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Deficiency of C3 leads to…
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Severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus and resp tract infxns, incr susceptibility to type III HS rxns
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What do y-interferons do to incr immune system…
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Incr MHCI and II expression & antigen presentation in all cells
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Findings in serum sickness…
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Fever, Uticaria, Proteinuria, Arthralgias, Lymphadenopathy, 5-10 days post antigen exposure. Usually from drugs (sulfonamides). FU PAL
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Type III HS rxns…
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SLE, RA, Polyarteritis Nodosa, Poststrep glomerulonephritis, Serum, Arthus, HS pneumonitis (Farmers)
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Rheumatoid factor is an IgM or an IgG…
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IgM; it attaches to IgG thus it is anti-IgG
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CVID defect, presentation, labs…
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Defect in B-cell maturation, aquired often in 20s-30s, incr risk of autoimmune dx, lymphoma, sinopulm infxns, decr plasma cells and Igs
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IL-12 receptor found where mainly… defect causes… tx…
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Found on Th cells (causes them to become Th1). Defect causes disseminated TB infxns. Tx w/ IFN-y
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3 immune deficiencies w/ eczema and how differentiate them…
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IgA deficiency (incr IgE, look for milk or transfusion allergies), Hyper-IgE (failure of IFN-y prodxn, look for teeth, facies, abscesses), WAS (thrombocytopenia, decr IgM)
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Lab findings in ataxia telangectasia…
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Decr IgA and incr AFP
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Differences between 3 types of SCIDs (ADA def, IL-2r def, MHCII def)…
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ADA def can’t produce proB or proT cells, IL-2r def cannot go from proT immature T (can make B cells); MHCII def cannot make CD4 cells (but can make CD8s)
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MOA and toxicity of sirolimus…
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Binds mTOR (a ser/thr kinase) thus decr Th synthesis. SEs: hyperlipid, thrombocytopenia, leucopenia
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MOA of mycophenolate mofetil…
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Inhibits de novo guanine synthesis and lymphocyte prodxn
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MOA of daclizumab…
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Monoclonal ab w/ high affinity for IL-2r on activated T-cells
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Use of IL-2 (aldesleukin)…
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RCC, melanoma
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Use of IL-11 (oprelvekin)…
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Thrombocytopenia
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Uses of IFN-alpha…
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Hep B/C, Kaposis, leukemias, melanoma
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Virulence factor for TB and how does it work…
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Cord factor- 2 mycolic acid molecules bound to trehalose. Inactivates PMNs, damages mitochondria, induces release of TNF
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Treatments of leprosy…
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Dapsone (SEs- hemolysis and metHb). Alternative: rifampin and combo of dapsone and clofazimine
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Why are gram –‘s resistant to pen G and vanco…
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Outer membrane inhibits entry
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Neisseria species that does rapid antigenic variation… what is different about it…
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Gonorrhea. Does NOT have capsule like Meningicoccemia and does NOT have a vaccine but does produce IgA protease
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Difference in culture findings of EHEC from other forms of E coli…
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Does not ferment sorbitol on MacKonkee’s and does not produce glucuronidase
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Difference between EIEC and EHEC pathogenesis…
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EIEC invades mucosa and produces toxin causing necrosis and inflammation while EHEC only produces the toxin that does such
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VDRL false positives…
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Viruses (mono, hepatitis), Drugs (), RF, Lupus and leprosy
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Rickettsiae are intracellular organisms that depend on what from the host cell…
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CoA and NAD+
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Palm and sole rash seen in…
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Coxsackie A, RMSF, Syphilis
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Lymphogranuloma venerum…
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Caused by Chlamydia trachomatis types L1-3. acute lymphadentitis and positive frei test
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Forms of histo, blasto, coccidio, paracoccidio in soil… in tissue…
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Soil= cold =mold. Tissue= heat =yeast, except coccidio which is spherule
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At what temp due germ tubes form in Candida…
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37 degrees, they are pseudohyphae yest when colder then that
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Forms of candida, aspergillus, Cryptococcus, mucor/rhizo in heat… cold…
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Aspergillus only a mold as is mucor/rhizo, Cryptococcus only a yeast. Candida a yeast that at incr temp makes germ tubes
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Tx of PCP…
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TMP, pentamidine, dapsone
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Difference in transmission of trypanosome gam vs. curzi…
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Gambiense is by tsetse fly (painful) and cruzi by reduviid bug (painless bite)
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Patient w/ malaria has psoriasis, what is tx…
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Proquanyl or atovaquine because cholorquine can cause problems
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What opens DNA at promoter site…
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RNA poly II
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Role of BAX and what activates it…
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Promotes apoptosis by blocking Bcl-2, thus allowing cyto c release from mito. p53 activates BAX if too much DNA damage is present
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Microarrays used to detect…
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Gene expression levels and single nucleotide polymorphisms
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SAM is made from…
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ATP + methionine
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Location in cell of alcohol dehydrogenase… acetaldehyde dehydrogenase…
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Alcohol dehydrog- cytosol; acetaldehyde dehydrog in mitochondria
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Activated carrier of aldehyde groups…
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TPP
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Enzyme in 1st step of glycogen synthesis in liver…
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Glucokinase (takes glc to glc-6-P which is then converted to glc-1-P UDP-glc glycogen)
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Enzymes of metabolism that are product inhibited…
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HK, Pyr Dehydrog, a-KG dehydrog
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Stimulate pyruvate dehydrogenase complex…
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Incr NAD+, incr ADP, incr Ca (stimulates pyr phosphatase)
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AA that has no charge at body pH…
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His
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The two nitrogens in urea are from…
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Ammonia (from glutamate) and other from aspartate
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Glutamate decarboxylase…
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Takes glu to GABA, requires B6
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What is the fate of the CO2 incorporated into FA synthesis by ACC…
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It is eventually taken off, not incorporated
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How differentiate between carnitine deficiency or Acyl coA deydrogenase def…
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Both have hypoketotic hypoglycemia but Acetyl CoA dehydrog def has incr dicarboxylic acids
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Which two lipoproteins carry the most cholesterol…
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LDL and HDL
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Is ribosomal detachment a reversible or nonreversible change…
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Reversible
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Which enzymes responsible for free radical degradation…
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Catalase, superoxide dismutase, glutathione peroxidase
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Desmoplasia…
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Fibrous tissue formation in response to neoplasm
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Plummer-vinson syndrome is associated w/ what neoplasm…
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Squamous cell CA of esophagus
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What paraneoplastic syndrome can thymoma cause…
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LE syndrome
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OD tx of phenobarbitol…
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NaHCO3, same as MTX, TCAs, asprin
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What happens to efficacy of a parial agonist as dose increases…
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Nothing, will still remain at lower maximal efficacy then full agonist
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Drugs that can be metabolized by slow acetylator…
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Dapsone, hydralazine, procainamide, INH
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What is the name of the drug that acts in noradrenergic receptors like botulism toxin does in cholinergic receptors…
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Guanethidine
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What muscle of eye should contract in order to relieve open angle glaucoma…
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Ciliary muscle (M3) which is covering Canal of Schlem in anterior chamber
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What muscle of eye should contract in order to relieve closed angle glaucoma…
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Papillary sphincter, opens up path into anterior chamber. Avoid epinephrine which causes contrxn of dilator muscle and blocks tract
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Tx of atropine OD…
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Physostigmine, crosses BBB
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Difference between actions of dopamine and dobutamine…
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Dopamine has effect on D > beta > alpha and increases BOTH ionotropic and chronotropic effects; dobutamine work mainly on beta 1 (and some beta 2) and increases only ionotropic effects
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Drugs if you want to dilate pupil…
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Tropicamide/atropine (anti-M), phenylephrine (alpha1)
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Sympathomimetic drug w/ alpha>beta activity…
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NE (note: no beta 2 activity at all so pure incr in both systolic and diastolic BP (as opposed to decr diastolic pressure in epi)
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How distinguish non-selective alpha blockers from alpha 1 blockers from alpha agonists…
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Non-selective start w/ P and end with amine (phenoxybenzamine/phentolamine); alpha1 blockers end in zosin; alpha agonists sound like pseudophed (nasal decongestant)
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Beta-blocker effect in CHF…
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Slows progression to CRF
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Tx of Mercury poisoning…
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Dimercaprol
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Tx of warfarin OD…
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Vit K or FFP
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What molecule in mitochondria does CN and CO bind to…
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Cytochrome oxidase
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Part of the coagulation cascade that can activate the complement cascade and how…
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Plasmin converts C3 C3a
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Which factors are consumed in clot… what else is interesting about this bunch…
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Fibrinogen, Prothrombin, V, VIII. They are also NOT present in the supernate (serum)
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Where is S2 the loudest…
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Left sternal border
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What sign can result from an uncorrected PDA…
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Cyanosis of the lower extremities
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Way to distinguish Wegeners and microscopic polyangitis…
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MPA is precipitated by strep infxn, penicillin, SLE. Does not have granulomas
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PAN vasculitis due to…
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Immune-complex mediated. Transmural w/ fibrinoid necrosis
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Which cell helps limit rxn following mast cell degranulation and how does it do it…
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Eosinophil, releases histaminase and arylsulfatase. Eosinophils are also highly phagocytic for ag-ab complexes
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What are the azurophilic granules on PMNs and what do they contain…
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Lysosomes. Contain hydrolytic enzymes, lysozyme, myeloperoxidase, lactoferrin
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Complement factors involved in viral neutralization…
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C1,2,3,4 (w/ exception of C3, they are exclusively in classic pathway)
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Between tPA, streptokinase, antistreptilase, and urokinase, which ones directly stimulate plasminogen to plasmin and which ones bind and activator that stimulates…
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tPA and urokinase directly stimulate while streptokinase binds activator and anistreplase works with the activator as well
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What receptor on platlet binds to exposed collagen…
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GP Ia (note: GP Ib binds to vWF)
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DNA alkalting drugs…
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Cyclophosphamide, carmustine, lomustine, semustine, steptozocin, busulfan (all X-link DNA)
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DNA intercalators (stick stuff inbetween DNA)…
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Dactinomycin (kids tumors), doxo and duanorubicin, Bleomycin, Etoposide
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Prophylaxis of cardiomyopathy due to doxorubicin HL treatment…
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Dexarazoxane
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Tx of cisplatin or carboplatin OD…
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Amofustine
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Actions of protein C…
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Cleaves and inactivates factors V and VIII
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Drugs that exacerbate AIP…
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Barbs, Griseofulvin, phenytoin, EtOH (inducers of p450), hypoxia
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MOA of bosentan and use…
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Competitively antagonizes endothelin-1 receptors thus decr pulm vascular resistance
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FF after PGs cause afferent arteriole dilation…
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Constant since both GFR and RPF are increasing
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Clearance of free water (Ch2o) with respect to zero in SIADH… DI… loop diuretics…
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SIADH causes C <0 since water lost is hyperosmolar. DI causes C >0 since hypotonic soln lost. Loops cause C=0, isotonic
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In what form is bicarb absorbed in PCT…
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CO2 (formed frm H+ rxn with HCO3 making water and CO2 which can move across membrane. It is pumped across basolateral membrane via channel
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How is Ca and Mg absorbed in thick ascending limb of loop of henle…
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K leaking back into lumen after entering thru NaK2Cl channel causes a positive potential in lumen thus driving Ca and Mg thru.
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How is Ca absorbed in DCT… how do thiazides causes incr Ca absorption…
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PTH increases the Na/Ca exchange on basolateral side, this creates a concentration difference and Ca moves in from lumen. Thiazides block the Na-Cl channel on lumen side thus increasing the drive for Na/Ca exchange
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Change in amt of inulin along PCT…
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No change in amt, only change in concentration as water is reabsorbed
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JG cells are what cell type…
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Smooth muscle
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Sight on nephron where PTH causes a decreased reabsorption of phosphate…
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PCT
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Things that cause K to shift outside of cell…
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K outside of the cell is the ACID Tag: Acidosis, Cell lysis, Insulin deficiency, Digitalis, antagonist of beta adrenergics. Also, hyperosmolarity
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Common symptoms seen in respiratory alkalosis…
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Lighthead, confusn, and tetany (due to alkalotic state causing H+ to dissociate from albumin and allowing Ca2+ to take its place hypoCa
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TB and glomerulonephritis…
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Will cause nephrotic syndrome either thru membranous glomerulonephritis or amyloidosis (AAP)
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Dense deposits of MPGN type II due to…
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C3 nephritic factor remains activated causing entire GBM to be covered with dense deposits
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Ependymal cells derive from what layer…
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Neuroectoderm
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If you are using your fingers and hands to twist a wrench, what sensory corpuscles are you utilizing… where in skin are they located…
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Meissner’s- hairless skin, used for dynamic fine touch and manipulation. Located in dermal papillae
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What are the sensory corpuscles in the joints… where else are these found…
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Pacinian. Also found in deep skin layers, ligaments, joints. Located in the deep dermis
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What are the sensory corpuscles found in hair follicles…
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Merkel’s- 2 pt discrimination, adapts slowly. Located in dermal papillae
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Leptin effect in hypothalamus…
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Inhibits hunger area in lateral hypothalamus and stimulates satiety area in ventromedial
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Thru what mediator does striatum inhibit the GPi/SNr in the direct pathway…
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GABA and sub P
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Thru what mediators does the striatum inhibit the GPe in the indirect pathway…
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Thru GABA and enkephalin but since DA from SNc usually inhibits the inhibitory pathway, this signal is not sent when signaled from SNc
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AICA infarction causes…
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Lateral inferior pontine syndrome: V- ipsi loss of PT; VII- ipsi facial paralysis; VIII- ipsi nystagmus and hearing; MCP/ICP- ipsi ataxia
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How could aneurism of anterior communicating artery cause visual field defects…
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It is in close contact w/ CN II- optic nerve and can cause bilateral hemianopsia much like pituitary adenoma
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Aneurism of posterior communicating artery can cause…
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Ipsilateral CN III palsy
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In severe hypotension, the watershed areas can be affected, what might be seen…
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Upper leg/arm weakness (MCA-ACA) and disorders in higher order visual processing (MCA-PCA)
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How does the cavernous sinus connect with the internal juglar vein…
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Ascending vein from cav sinus is sphenoparietal vein with branches to go to sup saggital sinus and to the transverse sinus (transverse sinus dumps into sigmoid sinus which dumps into int. jug vein)
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If a patient post-surgery is unable to move their lower body and cannot feel pin prick but can tell which direction their toe is moving, what happened…
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Anterior spinal artery occlusion or watershed infarct in spinal cord (spares DC)
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Drooping of eyelid due to sympathectomy of face (Horners) is due to paralysis of what muscle..
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Superior tarsal muscle
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Route of corneal reflex…
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Afferent: v1 opthalmic via nasociliary branch. Efferent: VII via temporal branch to orbicularis oculi
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Route of parasympathetic innervation to the sphincter/circular muscle…
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EW nucleus ciliary ganglion sphincter muscle (M3)
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Signs and pathophys of complex partial seizure…
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Usually hits one area of brain (mesotemporal lobe most common). Get aura, automatisms, amnesia
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If a person has low frequency hearing loss and vertigo, what do you think…
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Menieres dx (too much endolymph being produced)
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Migraine Headaches due to… tx…
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Irritation of cranial nerve V with release of sub P, CGRP, vasoactive peptides. Tx: propranolol, NSAIDs, sumatriptan
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In positional testing for peripheral vertigo, what might one see…
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Delayed nystagmus
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In positional testing for central vertigo, what might one see…
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Immediate nystagmus in any direction and may change direction
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Oligodendroglioma most often located whre and what are histo findings…
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Frontal lobes. Have chicken wire capillary pattern and fried egg oligodendrocyte cells
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Best treatment for medulloblastoma…
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Radiosensitive
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Which anti-epileptic drug causes you to gain wt and what is its MOA… which cause lose wt and MOA…
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Valproic acid- gain wt; topiramate- lose wt. Both of them block Na channels and incr activity of GABA
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Which benzos have the highest addictive potential and why…
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Triazolam, Oxazepam, Midazolam. These are all short acting
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Besides dantrolene, what is another treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome…
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Bromocriptine (DA agonist)
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Drug of choice to treat serotonin syndrome…
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Cyproheptadine
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You want to tx a patient w/ depression who has sexual side effects, what drugs avoid and what is best drug to give…
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Avoid: SSRIs and cousin trazadone (priapism); Good to Give: buproprion (incr NE and DA)
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MOA and use of atomoxetine…
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Non-stimulant SNRI used for ADHD
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Time interval for diagnosis of MDD…
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2+ major depressive episodes with a symptom free interval for 2 months
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Cyclothmymia… dysthymia…
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Cyclothymia is mild bipolar disorder lasting 2 yrs. Dysthymia is mild depression lasting at least 2 yrs
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Symptoms and tx for cocaine OD…
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Euphoria, dilated pupils, HTN, hallucinations, angina, sudden cardiac death, agitation. Tx: Benzos
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Regulation of prolactin secretion…
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TRH stimulates release from ant pituitary and DA inhibits release. Prolactin feeds back to hypothalamus and causes greater DA synthesis and release
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Funxns of cortisol…
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BP maintenance thru alpha1 upreg, inhibits Bone formation by decr collagen I, anti-Inflammatory, decr Immune funxn, incr Gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, proteolysis
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Things that decr PTH secretion…
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Incr Ca levels and DECREASED Mg levels (due to diarrhea, EtOH, Aminoglycosides, Diuretics)
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S/S of subacute thyroiditis…
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Follows flu-like illness, jaw pain, incr ESR, tender thyroid gland, granulomatous inflammation
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How can one diagnose hyperPTH…
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Incr cAMP levels in urine
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Tx for pituitary adenoma…
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DA agonists: bromocriptine and cabergoline
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Germ cells of the seminiferous tubules of testes… non-germ cells…
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Germ cells are spermatogonium; non-sperm cells are sertoli cells
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Progesterone effects on LH and FSH levels…
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Inhibits secretion so decreases their levels
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Estrogen effects on LH, FSH, and estrogen receptors… progesterone effects…
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Estrogen upregulates all those receptors while progesterone decreases them
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How does increased estrogen cause the LH surge…
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Incr estrogen stimulates GnRH receptors on ant pituitary
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In a female child, how many chromosomes are in her oocytes…
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46 sister chromatids, the oocytes are stalled in prophase of meiosis I until ovulation
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After ovulation, how many chromosomes are in the egg before it meets the sperm…
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23 sister chromatids (46 total), arrested in metaphase of meiosis II until fertilization
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How does hCG maintain pregnancy…
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Secreted from syncythiotrophoblast and acts like LH to stimulate corpus luteum prodxn of progesterone (remember, LH is analogous to ACTH which acts on cholesterol desmolase to take chol progesterone)
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Why does estrogen prodxn decrease in menopause…
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Woman has burned out her number of follicles in ovary. Follicles contain theca (androgen prodxn) and granulose cells (andros estrogen) so there is less estrogen prodxn
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A woman comes in with HTN, proteinuria, and edema and is 15 weeks pregnant, what is most likely diagnosis…
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Molar pregnancy. These symptoms after 20 weeks point to preeclampsia
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Associations and risks with placental abruption…
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DIC, smoking, HTN, cocaine
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Ovarian fibromas…
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Bundles of spindle shaped fibroblasts. Often assoc w/ Meig’s syndrome: ascites, pleural effusion, ovarian fibroma.
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Breast issues that effect both breasts at same time (bilateral)…
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Invasive lobular carcinoma (orderly row of cells), fibrocystic disease
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Sclerosing adenosis…
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Incr acini w/ intralobular fibrosis. Calcifications
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In what layer of intestine is brunner’s gland (not what segment, what layer)…
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Submucosa
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In patient w/ caput medusae from portal HTN, what veins are involved and where do they originate…
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Paraumbilical from portal vein proper --- Inf epigastric (internal iliac proper) and superficial epigastric (internal iliac)
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Superior rectal veins drain into the… inferior and middle veins drain into the…
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Superior- portal system. Inf and Middle drain into the iliac vein. Note: these veins involved in internal hemorroids
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Path of blood to internal hemorrhoid and returning from…
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Gets there via Inferior Mesenteric artery (IMA) sup rectal artery. Drains: superior rectal vein inferior mesenteric vein PORTAL system
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If a graph shows increasing somatostatin secretion with increased levels of gastric acid and then an abrupt decrease in somatostatin concentration after the administration of a substance, what is that substance…
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ACh- vagal stimulation inhibits somatostatin
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Effector sites of gastrin…
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ECL cells (which release His as result) and goes to parietal cells causing IF release
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Trypsinogen is converted to the potent zymogen converter trypsin by what enzyme and where is it secreted from…
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Enterokinase/peptidase that is secreted from DUODENAL mucosa
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Most common causes of acute gastritis…
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Alcohol, NSAIDs (decr PGE2), uremia, burns, head injry
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Volvulus occurs at what areas of bowel and why in these areas…
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Cecum or sigmoid colon because they have redundant mesentery
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Angiodysplasia most often found where…
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Ileum, cecum, ascending colon
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A child has a single polyp in his rectosigmoid area, is this an increased risk of CA…
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No, only if there are multiple
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Differences in areas of involvement between FAP and HNPCC…
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FAP always involves the rectum and usually is pancolonic. HNPCC usually involves the proximal colon
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APC gene mutations affect what signal/protein…
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Beta-catenin: adhesion between molecules
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K-ras mutations affect what signal/protein…
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Unregulated Intracellular signal transdxn
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What other drugs might Ca carbonate interfere with…
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Tetracyclines (binds and chelates them). Also, will interfere with floroquinelones
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What nerve is responsible for adduction of the thumb…
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Ulnar nerve (median nerve does opposition and abduction)
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Possible sequale of osteopetrosis…
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Incr hat size and hearing loss (impingement), incr blood flow from AV shunts high output HF, osteogenic sarcoma
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Areas for tophus formation…
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Olecranon bursa, external ear, Achilles tendon
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Ankylosing spondylitis has stiff joints and uveitis and what other risks…
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Aortic regurg
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Lab findings in polymyositis and dermatomyositis…
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Incr CK, incr aldolase, positive ANA and positive anti-Jo-1
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Antibody in diffuse scleroderma…
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Anti-Scl70 (anti-topoisomerase I)
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Infxn of dermis and subcutaneous tissues…
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Cellulites (s aureus, s pyogenes)
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Skin findings in mycoplasma pneumonia…
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Erythema multiforme (many forms of lesions)
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Skin findings in TB, histoplasma, coccidiomycosis, leprosy, sarcoidosis…
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Erythema nodosum (fat inflammation)
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Keratoacanthoma…
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Variant of squamous cell cancer that grows rapidly over a month and then spontaneously regresses
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Shistisoma pathogenesis…
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Penetrates skin, causes granulomas and fibrosis of spleen and liver. Causes squamous cell cancer (fibrosis) of bladder
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Parasite causing lung inflammation…
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Paragonimus westermani, due to secondary bacterial infxn
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Tapeworm form of taenia solium causes… eggs cause…
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Tapeworm- intestinal infxn; eggs cause neurocystericosis
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Recombinant vaccines…
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HBV and HPV (6,11,16,18)
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Which DNA virus replicates in the cytoplasm… which RNA viruses replicate in the nucleus…
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DNA in cytoplasm: poxvirus. RNA in nucleus: retroviruses and influenza
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Pox virus replicates in the cytoplasm, how is this possible…
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Carries its own DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
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Is hepadnavirus a diploid or haploid virus…
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Haploid, has RT like other retroviruses (HIV, HTLV) which are diploid
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Child has pearly, domed shaped papules with central umbilication, where does this virus replicate and does it have a envelope and capsid…
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Mulluscum is a poxvirus which all replicate in cytoplasm and have an envelope and a complex (non-icosahedral) nucleocapsid
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A patient comes in with lymphadenopathy, fever, and a sore throat. You administer penicillin (thinking it was strep) and the patient develops a rash although they are not allergic to penicillin. What happened…
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They actually had EBV, treatment with penicillin can cause rash
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A patient comes in with gastritis after a coming back from a cruise. What is the structure, envelope, and capsid symmetry of the viral cause…
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Norwalk, a calvirus. SS + linear and is part of CPR mneumonic, so doesn’t have envelope
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Patient comes in with encephalitis symptoms and lymphadenopathy after getting bitten by mosquitos, what is structure, envelope, and capsid symmetry of viral cause…
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West Nile which is a flavivirus. SS + linear that has icosaedral capsid and does have an envelope
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Possible sequele of measles infxn…
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Giant cell pneumonia, meninigitis, SSPE
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IV drug user comes in with malaise, fever, skin rash, pruritis,lymphadenopathy and joint pain that spontaneously goes away and then transaminases increase, how long ago was he infected…
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3 months ago, this is Hep B with serum sickness prodrome. Can also be associated with PAN and membranous glomerulonephritis
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Which viruses have antigens that are protective…
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HAV and HBV
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HIV patient has superficial vascular proliferations. How distinguish between bartonella henslae and HHV-8…
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Bartonella will have PMN infiltrate and HHV8 will have lymphocyte infiltrate
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Bladder extrophy due to failure of closure of what…
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Caudal folds
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Acts as kidney for first trimester… what is derived from this…
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Mesonephros. Ureteric bud and male genital system (Wolffian) is derived from this
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Potters syndrome and what is it due to…
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Bilateral renal agenesis causing oligohydramnios and lung hypoplasia (cannot swallow and develop lungs). Caused by malformation of ureteric bud
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Sensory organs of ear derived from… retina derived from…
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Both from surface ectoderm. (note: part of retina also derived from neuroectoderm)
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A cleft in the lateral neck is probably a reminant of…
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3 brachial arch or cleft
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Beta hemolytic bugs…
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Staph aureus, Strep B, Strep A, Listeria
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Unique things about listeria…
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Actin rockets, only gram + with an endotoxin, get from milk, meats, vaginal transmission
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