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Final Exam

Final Exam

by karina07d, Nov. 2016

Subjects: Micro 33

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	1. An epidemic disease is one that A. breaks out in higher than usual proportions in a population. B. remains dormant in populations. C. follows a primary infection. D. is transmitted solely by arthropods.	A. breaks out in higher than usual proportions in a population.
	2. A scientist who studies the patterns of disease in a community and attempts to locate its source is called a(n) A. pathologist. B. epidemiologist. C. microbiologist. D. infectiologist.	B. epidemiologist.
	3. What specific job is this person fulfilling? She isolates the cause of an outbreak, prevents its spread, and gets out public health messages to people who could have been exposed. A. Microbiologist B. Biologist C. Epidemiologist D. Public health inspector	C. Epidemiologist
	4. The relationship between the human body and its microbiota A. usually leads to parasitism. B. is never beneficial to either. C. is established before birth. D. is an example of a symbiosis	D. is an example of a symbiosis
	5. Which of the following would be the reservoir of infection for a zoonosis? A. Water B. Soil C. Human D. Animal	D. Animal
	6. Which of the following is an example of indigenous microbiota? A. Escherichia coli in the intestines B. Candida albicans in the intestines C. Lactobacillus in the human vagina D. All of the above are correct	D. All of the above are correct
	7. Indigenous microbiota may be found in all of the following environments except A. the blood. B. the pharynx. C. the vagina. D. the upper respiratory tract	A. the blood.
	8. Which one of the following does not contribute to the virulence of a bacterial species? A. Its ability to produce exotoxins. B. Its ability to overcome body defenses. C. Its ability to spread through the tissues. D. Its ability to grow on artificial laboratory media.	D. Its ability to grow on artificial laboratory media.
	9. Certain microorganisms inhabit parts of the body without causing symptoms of disease. These organisms collectively are referred to as A. indigenous microbiota. B. parasites. C. avirulent pathogens D. opportunists.	A. indigenous microbiota.
	10. The degree to which an organism is able to cause disease is referred to as its A. chronicity. B. pathogenicity. C. acuteness. D. communicability.	B. pathogenicity.
	11. Pathogenicity islands refer to A. pathogens inbiofilm aggregations. B. clusters of genes responsible for virulence. C. areas of the body prone to infection. D. areas within a reservoir where pathogens can be found.	B. clusters of genes responsible for virulence.
	12. Opportunistic organisms are those that A. usually cause disease in a previously healthy person when they enter through the correct portal of entry. B. inhabit the intestine but are incapable of causing disease. C. are usually commensals but can cause disease when body defenses are suppressed. D. require a vector.	C. are usually commensals but can cause disease when body defenses are suppressed.
	13. The organisms that infect individuals with AIDS A. are all known to be serious pathogens. B. have a high degree of virulence. C. produce exotoxins as well as endotoxins. D. are examples of opportunistic organisms.	D. are examples of opportunistic organisms.
	14. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a soil organism. Every time we eat a fresh salad, we consume millions of these organisms. They usually do us no harm. However, these same organisms can cause serious infection in persons who have been severely burned. Such a pathogen is called A. communicable. B. commensalistic. C. opportunistic. D. systemic.	C. opportunistic.
	15. Pneumocystis pneumonia in an AIDSpatient would be considered a(n) A. communicable disease. B. genetic disease. C. primary disease. D. secondary disease.	D. secondary disease.
	16. Such factors as the number of organisms,their generation time and virulence, and the level of host resistance can influence A. hemolysin and leukocidin production. B. the incubation period for a disease. C. whether or not an organism produces exotoxins. D. how the body is entered	B. the incubation period for a disease.
	17. Chronic diseases are those that A. develop rapidly and come to a climax. B. linger for long periods of time. C. occur in epidemic proportions. D. are subclinical.	B. linger for long periods of time.
	18. In the prodromal phase of a disease, signs and symptoms A. are at their most severe. B. may include nausea, fever, and headache. C. have begun to disappear. D. have not developed yet and there is no sign of disease.	B. may include nausea, fever, and headache.
	19. A disease that develops rapidly, shows substantial signs and symptoms, comes to a climax, and then fades, is a(n) A. acute disease. B. prodromal disease. C. systemic disease. D. chronic disease.	A. acute disease.
	20. The period of a disease during which the symptoms subside is often referred to as the A. period of decline. B. period of convalescence. C. prodromal phase. D. climax	A. period of decline.
	21. Tetanus will not occur in the tissue of the small intestine because A. the organisms will grow, but do not produce toxins in this area. B. the body's white blood cells are particularly active. C. lymph does not flow through the intestine. D. the portal of entry for the tetanus spores was incorrect.	D. the portal of entry for the tetanus spores was incorrect.
	22. Adhesins may be associated with all of the following bacterial structures except A. pili. B. flagella. C. capsules. D. cilia.	D. cilia.
	23. Invasiveness refers to the ability of a parasite to A. enter through a variety of portals of entry. B. add to its virulence by transduction. C. penetrate tissues and cause structural damage. D. convert toxins to toxoids	C. penetrate tissues and cause structural damage
	24. The organisms that cause botulism and tetanus both cause disease by the production of A. spores. B. coagulase. C. exotoxins. D. anaerobic growth.	C. exotoxins.
	25. An important effect of hemolysins is A. destruction of phagocytes in the blood. B. endotoxin shock. C. release of iron that the pathogen needs for its metabolism. D. lysis of neutrophils and lymphocytes.	C. release of iron that the pathogen needs for its metabolism.
	26. Which one of the following does not apply to endotoxins? A. They are composed exclusively of protein. B. They are part of the bacterial cell wall. C. They are present in gram-negative bacteria. D. Endotoxins do not stimulate an immune response that leads to the production of antibodies.	B. They are part of the bacterial cell wall.
	27. Hyaluronidase is a bacterial enzyme that A. induces blood clot formation in the host. B. encourages movement in the organism. C. enhances penetration through the host tissues. D. destroys blood clots.	C. enhances penetration through the host tissues.
	28. Leukocidin is a bacterial enzyme that can A. enhance tissue penetration. B. destroy phagocytes. C. destroy blood clots. D. clot blood.	B. destroy phagocytes.
	29. The ability of the body to restrict the spread of a bacterial infection might be overcome if A. exotoxins are produced by the organism. B. the portal of entry of infectious organisms is incorrect. C. the organism produces streptokinase. D. hemolysin is liberated in the environment.	C. the organism produces streptokinase.
	30. Endotoxin shock may follow A. removal of the acetylcholine from the synapse. B. interruption of the metabolism of gram-positive bacteria. C. injection of antitoxins to the body. D. antibiotic treatment of a disease due to gram-negative bacteria.	D. antibiotic treatment of a disease due to gram-negative bacteria.
	31. When the body has been exposed to exotoxins A. it will respond with toxoids. B. it will develop endotoxin shock. C. it will produce antitoxins. D. it will start to form clots.	C. it will produce antitoxins.
	32. A microbial poison produced during the metabolism of a bacterium and immediately released into the environment is a(n) A. antitoxin. B. exotoxin. C. endotoxin. D. toxoid.	B. exotoxin.
	33. If a pathogen is part of a biofilm, its virulence is enhanced because A. it can produce more toxins. B. it is protected from phagocytes and drugs. C. its infectious dose is decreased. D. it is more invasive.e	B. it is protected from phagocytes and drugs.
	34. Endotoxins are produced by A. fungi. B. gram positive bacteria. C. gram negative bacteria. D. viruses	C. gram negative bacteria.
	35. Changes in the permeability of the blood vessels often accompany diseases caused by gram negative bacteria. This permits leakage of blood fluid to the intercellular spaces, and the patient may lapse into a coma. This condition is referred to as _______ shock. A. endotoxin B. exotoxin C. toxoid D. antitoxin	A. endotoxin
	36. All of the following are characteristics of endotoxins except A. usual source is gram negative bacteria. B. a product of the LPS complex. C. cannot be converted to toxoid. D. can elicit antibody production.	D. can elicit antibody production.
	37. The enzyme produced by virulent staphylococci that catalyzes the formation of a blood clot which gives them protection against phagocytosis is A. streptokinase. B. coagulase. C. hyaluronidase. D. hemolysin.	B. coagulase.
	38. Which one of the following is not a direct method by which diseases can be transmitted? A. Touching an animal B. Inhalation of articles of mucus expelled from the respiratory tract C. Hand-shaking D. Fomites	D. Fomites
	39. Which of the following is an example of vehicle transmission? A. Gonorrhea acquired through sexual intercourse with an infected person B. A cold acquired through inhalation of respiratory droplets C. Salmonellosis acquired through ingestion of contaminated food D. Malaria acquired through the bite of a mosquito	C. Salmonellosis acquired through ingestion of contaminated food
	40. A person who harbors a pathogen and is a source of infection to the next person is best referred to as a(n) A. acute source. B. chronic source. C. subclinical source. D. carrier.	D. carrier.
	41. A disease that is usually present at a low level in a certain geographic area is said to be A. epidemic. B. pandemic. C. endemic. D. ubiquitous	C. endemic.
	42. A disease that is found in high numbers worldwide such as HIV/AIDS is said to be A. epidemic. B. pandemic. C. endemic. D. ubiquitous	B. pandemic.
	43. An abnormally high number of measles cases in one American city would be classified as a(an) A. epidemic. B. pandemic. C. endemic. D. outbreak	D. outbreak
	44. Nosocomial infections account for an estimated 2 million infections and 90,000 deaths each year in the United States. Which of the following is not a common cause? A. Inefficient air handling mechanisms B. A high prevalence of pathogens in a hospital C. A high number of patients who represent compromised hosts and susceptible to pathogens D. Efficient mechanisms of transmission from patient to patient	A. Inefficient air handling mechanisms
	45. Which of the following scientists was an early pioneer in immunology with the first vaccination against smallpox? A. Metchnikoff B. Jenner C. Pasteur D. Yersin	B. Jenner
	46. Which early scientist proposed the theory of phagocytosis, where human white blood cells could capture and destroy disease causing microbes inside the body? A. Metchnikoff B. Jenner C. Pasteur D. Yersin	A. Metchnikoff
	47. Which early scientist developed vaccines for chicken cholera and rabies? A. Metchnikoff B. Jenner C. Pasteur D. Yersin	C. Pasteur
	48. Which of the following is the best definition for innate immunity? A. Resistance is a response to a particular microbe. B. A response that is directed only against a particular microbe C. A system that protects us against trauma and disease D. Several nonspecific defenses present in all humans from the time of birth.	D. Several nonspecific defenses present in all humans from the time of birth.
	49. What is the name for the scientific study of how the immune system functions in the body to prevent or destroy foreign material, such as pathogens? A. Immunology B. Epidemiology C. Pathology D. Microbiologyirth.	A. Immunology
	50. The fluid portion of blood is A. lymph. B. serum. C. formed elements. D. clotting agents.	B. serum.
	51. Neutrophils are those leukocytes that function A. in the production of antibodies. B. as manufacturers of clotting agents. C. as phagocytes in body resistance. D. to neutralize acidic environments.	C. as phagocytes in body resistance.
	52. The blood cell that contains cytotoxic granules that are particularly useful in killing multicellular parasites is the A. neutrophil. B. natural killer cells. C. eosinophil. D. monocyte	C. eosinophil
	53. Which of the following cells are agranulocytes? A. Neutrophils B. Monocytes C. Eosinophils D. Basophils	B. Monocytes
	54. All the following apply to the body's white blood cells except A. they have no pigment in their cytoplasm, so appear grayish when unstained. B. they are produced in the bone marrow. C. they carry oxygen to the tissues. D. they include cells that function in innate immunity and cells that function in acquired immunity.	C. they carry oxygen to the tissues.
	55. Which of the following is true about both macrophages and neutrophils? A. Are phagocytes B. Have large granules in the cytoplasm C. Lack a nucleus D. Have a lifespan of about 10 years	A. Are phagocytes
	56. A nonspecific leukocyte that destroys tumor cells and cells that are infected with viruses is the A. basophil. B. neutrophil. C. NK cell. D. monocyte.	C. NK cell.
	57. Which of the following blood cells has the shortest life-span? A. Erythrocytes B. Neutrophils C. Monocytes D. Macrophages	B. Neutrophils
	58. Which of the following is not a lymphocyte? A. B cells B. T cells C. Monocytes D. NK cells	C. Monocytes
	59. Which of the following leukocytes are involved in acquired immunity? A. Monocytes and macrophages B. Basophils and eosinophils C. Neutrophils and NK cells D. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes	D. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes
	60. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid tissue? A. Spleen B. Thymus C. Lymph nodes D. Appendix	B. Thymus
	61. Which of the following are secondary lymphoid tissues? A. Lymph nodes B. Appendix C. Tonsils D. All of the above are correct.	D. All of the above are correct.
	62. All of the following are functions of the lymphatic system except A. forms an alternate pathway for blood circulation. B. maintains and distributes lymphocytes. C. monitors for pathogens. D. filters extracellular fluid before returning it to the circulatory system.	A. forms an alternate pathway for blood circulation.
	63. Which of the following is the function of secondary lymphoid tissues? A. Sites where immune cells form B. Where mature immune cells interact with pathogens and carry out the acquired immune response C. Returns body fluids to the circulatory system D. Responsible for the production of blood cells.	B. Where mature immune cells interact with pathogens and carry out the acquired immune response
	64. Locations in the body where mature immune cells interact with pathogens are likely to be in the A. membranes of the brain. B. lymph nodes and spleen. C. thymus gland. D. bone marrow where red cells are formed.	B. lymph nodes and spleen.
	65. Which of the following organs is part of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT)? A. Peyer patches B. Lymph nodes C. Spleen D. All of the above are correct	A. Peyer patches
	66. The cells that have long, thin cytoplasmic extensions, are found in various body tissues and are very important in activation of lymphocytes are the A. Dendritic cells. B. Eosinophils. C. Neutrophils. D. T cells.	A. Dendritic cells.
	67. Innateimmunity is the form of immunity that A. requires T and B lymphocytes. B. takes place only in the blood. C. responds quickly to many common microbial features but not to host features. D. occurs in the thymus	C. responds quickly to many common microbial features but not to host features.
	68. Lysozyme acts on bacteria by A. inhibiting protein synthesis in all bacteria. B. stimulating interferon production. C. destroying the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria. D. interfering with the motility of bacteria.	C. destroying the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria.
	69. Which ofthe following are mechanical barriers in the body's first line of defense? A. Intact skin B. Lysozymes in tears C. Normal microbiota like Lactobacilluslining the vaginal tract D. Mucus lining the upper respiratory tract	A. Intact skin
	70. Chemical barriers to infection include all of the following except A. stomach acid. B. defensins. C. mucus D. low pH of vaginal secretions	C. mucus
	71. A compound that digests the cell wall of grampositive bacteria is A. bile. B. lysozyme. C. interferon. D. stomach acid	B. lysozyme.
	72. All of the following are true about chemical defensins except A. found and produced on the skin surface. B. produced by phagocytic cells. C. produced in the bone marrow. D. produced by epithelial cells that line the respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts.	C. produced in the bone marrow.
	73. Which of the following protects against colonization of pathogens by taking up space and nutrients on the skin and mucosa? A. Nonpathogenic microbes that live on those surfaces B. Mast cells C. Sebum D. Phagocytes	A. Nonpathogenic microbes that live on those surfaces
	74. When Metchnikoff put a splinter into the body of a starfish larva, he saw that it was soon surrounded by wandering cells. He was observing a process that today is described as A. neutralization. B. opsonization. C. escortation. D. phagocytosis.	D. phagocytosis.
	75. What is a phagolysosome? A. When a phagocyte starts to produce lysosomes B. When a defensin starts producing hydrogen peroxide C. When a phagosome fuses with several lysosomes to digest a pathogen D. A structure formed during the respiratory burst following phagocytosis	C. When a phagosome fuses with several lysosomes to digest a pathogen
	76. Opsonins may be described as A. types of white blood cells that are especially efficient phagocytes. B. substances that enhance the efficiency of phagocytosis. C. short antibacterial peptides. D. types of bacterial exotoxins that destroy white blood cells	B. substances that enhance the efficiency of phagocytosis.
	77. Which one of the following is not atoxic substance within the phagolysosome? A. Nitric oxide (NO) B. Superoxide anion (O2-) C. Chemokines D. Acid hydrolases	C. Chemokines
	78. Chemokines are cytokines that A. activate the acquired immune response. B. stimulate neutrophils to migrate to the site of an infection C. induce an antiviral state in a cell D. All the above are correct.	D. All the above are correct.
	79. At the site of tissue damage and/or infection, tissue macrophages secrete cytokines that induce A. vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, allowing more cells and fluid into the area. B. destruction of cells in the area so that the infection does not spread. C. septic shock in the area. D. bleeding to increase the blood in the area.	A. vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, allowing more cells and fluid into the area.
	80. Which of the following is not one of the four cardinal signs of inflammation? A. Redness B. Pain C. Swelling D. Bleeding.	D. Bleeding.
	81. A chemical circulating in the blood that causes a fever to develop is called a A. Pyogen. B. Pyrogen. C. Histamine. D. Perforin	B. Pyrogen.
	82. Pus is often found in infections. It is composed of A. fluid leaking out of the blood vessels. B. the digested material expelled from the phagocyte. C. dead and dying neutrophils and damaged tissues. D.fibrin clots.	C. dead and dying neutrophils and damaged tissues.
	83. All of the following are true about a low to moderate fever except A. it may be beneficial in immune defense. B. it may inhibit the rapid growth of pathogens. C. it may cause convulsion and death. D. it increases the body’s rate of tissue repair.	C. it may cause convulsion and death.
	84. The function of the formation of a fibrin clot during an inflammatory response to a bacterial infection is to A. wall off the infecting bacteria to prevent their spread. B. poison the bacteria. C. signal a response from specific lymphocytes. D. enhance diapedesis.	A. wall off the infecting bacteria to prevent their spread.
	85. Natural killer (NK) cells can be described by all of the following except A. NK cells have special receptors for target cells on the surface of their membrane. B. NK cells recognize the body’s cells and do not attack them. C. NK cells secrete several cytokines that trigger responses from macrophages and other cells. D. NK cells are phagocytes that rely on Class I MHC proteins to recognize the body’s cells.	D. NK cells are phagocytes that rely on Class I MHC proteins to recognize the body’s cells.
	86. NK cells secrete two enzymes that attack foreign, virus infected or cancerous cells. What are they? A. Histamine and lysozymes B. Perforin and granzymes C. Heparin and granzymes D. Pyrogen and lysozymes	B. Perforin and granzymes
	87. All of the following statements are true about complement except A. it contributes to enhancement of the inflammatory response and phagocytosis. B. it may be activated by three different pathways. C. it is a single protein that circulates in the blood. D. it can lead to formation of the membraneattack complex.	C. it is a single protein that circulates in the blood.
	88. Which one of the following is not an effect of complement activation? A. Production of substances that trigger an inflammatory response B. Lysis of pathogens C. Enhancement of T cell function through production of cytokines D. Opsonization	C. Enhancement of T cell function through production of cytokines
	89. The innate immune system recognizes pathogens by identifying PAMPS, unique microbial molecular sequences that are not found on host cells. The receptors on macrophages, dendritic cells and endothelial cells that bind to these PAMPS are called A.chemokine receptors. B. toll-like receptors. C.opsonin receptors D.acute phase protein	B. toll-like receptors.
	90. The theory of specific immunologic tolerance suggests that A. a person’s own cells do not stimulate an immune response. B. antibodies are produced by only one clone of cells. C. antigens tolerate self-destruction by phagocytes. D. antibodies react specifically with immunologic substances	A. a person’s own cells do not stimulate an immune response.
	91. Antigenic determinants are the parts of antigen molecules that A. code for antibody molecules. B. stimulate phagocytosis. C. stimulate the immune system. D. clot blood	C. stimulate the immune system.
	92. Haptens are poor stimulators of immunity because haptens may be A. inability to perform cross-linking. B. too small to recognize the antigens at the receptor sites. C. unable to locate the proper B cell. D. easily digested by the phagocytes.es	A. inability to perform cross-linking.
	93.Which one of the following are not immunogenic? A. Components of bacterial capsules B. Flagella proteins C. Pilus protein D. Haptens	D. Haptens
	94. The cell-surface receptor on a B cell is a(n) A. molecule of polysaccharide. B. cluster of haptens. C. antigen. D. antibody molecule.	D. antibody molecule.
	95. Which cells can develop into antibody producing cells? A. T lymphocytes B. B lymphocytes C. Dendritic cells D. Macrophages	B. B lymphocytes
	96. The theory called clonal selection specifies that A. exposure to an antigen activates only those T- and B-cells with receptors recognizing specific epitopes on the antigen. B. the activation of T-cells produces antibodies that recognize epitopes. C. T cells are involved in the process by which antibodies are produced against epitopes. D. B-cells provide resistance through direct cell-to-cell contact with and lysis of infected or otherwise abnormal cells	A. exposure to an antigen activates only those T- and B-cells with receptors recognizing specific epitopes on the antigen.
	97. The immune response to intracellular pathogens is controlled and regulated by A. T cells. B. B cells. C. dendritic cells. D. natural killer cells.	A. T cells.
	98. The theory of clonal selection refers to the A. activity of cytotoxic and helper T cells. B. activation of naïve lymphocytes with receptors for a certain epitope. C. conversion of plasma cell to B lymphocyte. D. reversion of clones of B lymphocytes to clones of selected T lymphocytes.	B. activation of naïve lymphocytes with receptors for a certain epitope.
	99. Which one of the following does not apply to plasma cells? A. They secrete antibodies. B. They are derived from B cells. C. They carry out their functions by producing cytokines. D. They are effector cells.	C. They carry out their functions by producing cytokines.
	100. The ability to mount an efficient secondary antibody response depends on A. memory T and B cells. B. high concentrations of IgA antibody. C. cross-linking of IgM antibodies. D. All the above are correct.	A. memory T and B cells.
	101. T-lymphocyte stimulation by specific antigens leads to a type of immunity called A. cell-mediated immunity. B. antibody-mediated immunity. C. innate immunity. D. species immunity.	A. cell-mediated immunity.
	102. Which of the following cells undergo clonal selection when their antigen receptors bind to an antigen? A. B cells B. CD4 T cells C. CD8 T cells D. All of the above	D. All of the above
	103. The cell that matures in the thymus gland A. localizes in the skin tissues. B. becomes a plasma cell. C. is responsible for cell-mediated immunity. D. produces antibodies.+A	C. is responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
	104. Which of the following cells has specific antigen receptors, has to interact with antigen presenting cells in order to be activated, and kills host cells that are infected with viruses? A. B cells B. Helper T cells C. Cytotoxic T cells D. Natural Killer cells	C. Cytotoxic T cells
	105. The thymus A. is where lymphoid progenitor cells mature into immunocompetent T cells. B. is where B cells mature into plasma cells. C. selectively destroys B lymphocytes. D. is involved in the humoral immune response.	A. is where lymphoid progenitor cells mature into immunocompetent T cells.
	106. The site on an antibody molecule that can be bound by a phagocyte is part of the A. Fab fragment. B. variable region. C. light chain. D. Fc fragment.	D. Fc fragment.
	107. The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule that contains the antigen binding site can be described as all of the following, except A. composed of parts of the light chain and the heavy chain. B. is called the Fab fragment. C. composed of variable domains. D. is called the Fc fragment.	D. is called the Fc fragment.
	108. Which of the following are functions of the Fc fragment? A. It can combine with phagocytes in opsonization. B. It may activate the complement system in resistance mechanisms. C. It might attach to certain cells in allergic reactions. D. All of the above are correct.	D. All of the above are correct.
	109. An antibody is a protein composed of A. a single polypeptide chain. B. a heavy polypeptide chain joined to a light polypeptide chain. C. two heavy polypeptide chains with each joined to a light polypeptide chain. D. two identical polypeptide chains.	D. two identical polypeptide chains.
	110. All of the following are true of IgG except A. it confers immunity to the fetus. B. it is the important factor of the secondary antibody response. C. it is the major circulating antibody. D. it is critically important in allergic reaction.	D. it is critically important in allergic reaction.
	111. The _______ antibody class is referred to as the maternal antibody. A. IgM B. IgA C. IgE D. IgG	D. IgG
	112. The first antibody produced in a primary antibody response is A. IgG. B. IgM. C. IgA. D. IgD.	B. IgM.
	113. Colostrum contains A. IgG. B. IgM. C. IgA. D. IgD	C. IgA.
	114. Which of the following is NOT true about the secondary response to a particular antigen? A. Faster than the primary response B. Higher antibody titer than the primary response C. Memory cells are involved D. Happens the first time the antigen stimulates the lymphocytes	D. Happens the first time the antigen stimulates the lymphocytes
	115. Antibodies can protect against viral infection by binding to epitopes on the viruses which A. kills the virus. B. prevents the virus from attaching to host cells. C. causes agglutination of the viral particles. D. None of the above: antibodies offer no protection against viruses.	B. prevents the virus from attaching to host cells.
	116. The neutralization of toxin molecules by antitoxins accomplishes all the following except A. increases the activity between toxins and interleukins. B. prevents toxin from binding to cells. C. prevents toxic effects on cells. D. lessens theability of toxins to diffuse through the tissues	A. increases the activity between toxins and interleukins.
	117. Antibodies binding to antigens can trigger A. opsonization. B. activation of complement. C. neutralization. D. All the above are correct.	D. All the above are correct.
	118. Macrophages are involved in A. presenting antigen fragments to T cells. B. phagocytosis. C. destroying antigen-antibody complexes. D. All the above are correct.	D. All the above are correct.
	119. Which one of the following is not an effect of complement activation? A. Lysis of a bacterial cell through cytoplasmic leakage B. Attraction of phagocytes C. Enhanced T-lymphocyte activity through thymus gland interaction D. Opsonization of bacterial surfaces	C. Enhanced T-lymphocyte activity through thymus gland interaction
	120. CD8 co-receptor proteins are found on A. helper T cells. B. macrophages. C. cytotoxic T cells. D. plasma cells	C. cytotoxic T cells.
	121. CD4 co-receptor proteins are found on A. helper T cells. B. macrophages. C. cytotoxic T cells. D. plasma cells.	A. helper T cells.
	122. Which of the following molecules are found on the surface of all nucleated cells in the body? A. Immunoglobulin B. MHC Class I molecules C. MHC Class II molecules D. TCRs	B. MHC Class I molecules
	123. Which of the following molecules are only found on the surface of antigen presenting cells? A. Immunoglobulin B. MHC Class I molecules C. MHC Class II molecules D. TCRs	C. MHC Class II molecules
	124. Which one of the following is not associated with interleukin-1? A. It is secreted by macrophages. B. It activates helper T cells. C. It stimulates antigen-antibody reactions. D. It is produced in response to APC binding to T cell.	C. It stimulates antigen-antibody reactions
	125. The cells that are responsible for killing abnormal cells such as tumor cells are A. Phagocytes such as macrophages. B. Helper T cells. C. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes. D. B cells.	C. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
	126. Cytotoxic T cells release which of the following cytokines in cell to cell combat? A. Lysozyme and histamine B. Perforin and granzyme C. Lysozyme and perforin D. Granzyme and histamine	B. Perforin and granzyme
	127. The only cells required in an antibody response to T-independent antigens are A. B lymphocytes. B. T lymphocytes. C. natural killer cells. D. macrophages.	A. B lymphocytes
	128. Superantigens are A. antigens that bind directly to MHC protein on T cells. B. extraordinarily large antigens on B cells. C. haptens + carrier proteins. D. None of the above are correct.	A. antigens that bind directly to MHC protein on T cells.
	129. With the development of modern vaccines we have brought which of the following diseases to the point where we can now say it has been eradicated? A. Smallpox B. Polio C. Diptheria D. Pertussis	A. Smallpox
	130. How does an individual gain naturally acquired active immunity? A. Get the disease and recover from it. B. Be exposed exposed to the disease, but have a subclinical case. C. Be born with a natural immunity to the disease. D. Both A and B are correct, but not C.	D. Both A and B are correct, but not C
	131. An individual generally acquires natural active immunity after A. an injection of IgG. B. an infusion of T lymphocytes. C. a blood transfusion. D. suffering an illness.	D. suffering an illness
	132. Active immunity develops after the A. antigens enter the body and induce an immune response. B. antiserum is injected into the body. C. antibodies pass across the placenta to the fetus. D. antibodies pass in the colostrum to the newborn.	A. antigens enter the body and induce an immune respons
	133. Which of the following types of vaccines induce the strongest immune response, sometimes giving a life long immunity? A. Conjugate vaccine B. DNA vaccine C. Live attenuated vaccine D. Recombinant subunit vaccine	C. Live attenuated vaccine
	134. The intentional injection of an attenuated virus into a person will lead to A. naturally acquired active immunity. B. artificially acquired active immunity. C. naturally acquired passive immunity. D. artificially acquired passive immunity.	B. artificially acquired active immunity
	135. The Sabin oral polio vaccine is prepared with _______ polioviruses that stimulate the immune system. A. activated B. attenuated C. killed D. parts of	B. attenuated
	136. Attenuated viral vaccines are more difficult to use in developing countries than inactivated viral vaccines because A. they require more booster shots. B. they require refrigeration to retain their effectiveness. C. it is difficult finding enough sterile needles for them. D. it is difficult finding enough medical personnel to administer the vaccines.	B. they require refrigeration to retain their effectiveness.
	137. Which of the following is a drawback to the use of inactivated vaccines? A. Booster shots are required to maintain immunity for long periods of time. B. They have to be kept refrigerated. C. They have a short shelf life. D. All of the above are correct.	A. Booster shots are required to maintain immunity for long periods of time.
	138. Immunity to the disease _______ may be stimulated by injection of a preparation of _______. A. pertussis; attenuated viruses B. meningitis; inactivated virus C. diphtheria; toxoid D. measles; bacterial fragmentsB. attenuated	C. diphtheria; toxoid
	139. Which of the following is a single-dose vaccine? A. Sabin polio vaccine B. Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine C. Salk polio vaccine D. All of the above are single-dose vaccines.	B. Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine
	140. Subunit vaccines are those that use A. parts of antibody molecules as antigens. B. fragments of phagocytes in solution. C. parts of microorganisms such as pili and capsular polysaccharides. D. preparations of haptens.	C. parts of microorganisms such as pili and capsular polysaccharides.
	141. Conjugate vaccines contain toxoids because A. toxoids are much easier to store. B. polysaccharide antigens by themselves produce a weak immune response. C. they are only used for diseases caused by toxins. D. the pathogen that they are designed to protect against has no other antigens.	B. polysaccharide antigens by themselves produce a weak immune response.
	142 Which of the following vaccines are conjugate vaccines were part of the capsular polysaccharides are added to a tetanus or diphtheria toxoid? A. Hib B. MMR C. Salk polio D. Sabin polio	A. Hib
	143. Recombinant subunit vaccines have been developed against A. polio. B. hepatitis B. C. tetanus. D. None of the above is correct.	B. hepatitis B.
	144. Passive immunity can A. involve an injection of antibodies. B. be acquired by a child from its mother. C. be administered with a convalescent serum. D. All the above are correct.	D. All the above are correct.
	145. A child receiving antibodies in the colostrum during nursing has acquired immunity that is A. passive and active. B. natural and artificial. C. passive and natural. D. artificial and passive.	C. passive and natural.
	146.Serum sickness may accompany the development in the body of A. cell-mediated immunity. B. the complement cascade. C. artificial passive immunity. D. natural active immunity.	C. artificial passive immunity.
	147. When the immune system recognizes a foreign protein in a serum injection, immune complexes form and complement is activated, a person may develop a type of reaction called A. immune complex disease. B. anaphylaxis. C. hypersensitivity. D. serum sickness.	D. serum sickness.
	148. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of convalescent serum? A. It protects against an illness. B. It is derived from the blood of a patient recovering from an illness. C. It is used to treat an established disease. D. It is made from a pool of sera from animals.	D. It is made from a pool of sera from animals.
	149. Herd immunity is affected by all the following factors except A. the environment. B. antibiotic use. C. immune system strength. D. the number of vaccinated people in the population.	B. antibiotic use.
	150. Which one of the following is not related to antibody titer? A. The amount of antibodies present in the serum B. The progress of a disease C. The level of immunity in a patient D. The degree of activity of T lymphocytes	D. The degree of activity of T lymphocytes
	151. A neutralization reaction may be observed in the laboratory by A. noting the agglutination of red blood cells. B. injecting the antigen-antibody mixture to an animal. C. watching for precipitate formation. D. observing the fixing of complement.	B. injecting the antigen-antibody mixture to an animal.
	152. You are carrying out a serological test. Youfirst mix a sample of diphtheria toxin with the patient's serum, inject it into a mouse, then watch to see whether the animal dies or survives. You have performed a(n) A. precipitation test. B. neutralization test. C. agglutination test. D. complement fixation test.	B. neutralization test
	153. Precipitation reactions between antigens and antibodies are characterized by A. appearance of IgE in the immune system. B. formation of a large lattice formed from antibodies and antigens. C. inhibition of the complement system. D. destruction of red blood cells	B. formation of a large lattice formed from antibodies and antigens.
	154. The zone of equivalence is the A. concentrations of antibodies and antigens which is ideal for precipitation. B. area on an immunoelectrophoresis gel where the antibody is placed C. optimum concentration of vaccine for an individual. D. time at which active and passive immunity are equally effective in protecting against disease.	A. concentrations of antibodies and antigens which is ideal for precipitation.
	155.A neutralization test for diphtheria is called A. Coombs test. B. Widal test. C. Schick test. D. precipitin test.	C. Schick test.
	156. In immunodiffusion, antigens and antibodies diffuse through a gel towards each other and A. agglutinate when they reach each other. B. neutralize each other. C. form a visible precipitate at the zone of equivalence. D. fluoresce at the zone of equivalence.	C. form a visible precipitate at the zone of equivalence.
	157. The test to detect Rh antibodies is the A. Coombs test. B. Widal test. C. Schick test. D. precipitin test.	A. Coombs test.
	158. At the conclusion of the complement fixation test, the person performing the test observes whether A. red blood cells undergo lysis. B. precipitates of toxin form. C. phagocytosis increases in rate. D. the tests animals live or die.	A. red blood cells undergo lysis.
	159. All the following are required to perform a florescent antibody test for syphilis except A. a sample of the patient's serum. B. fluorescein-labeled antiglobulin antibodies. C. complement from a guinea pig. D. syphilis spirochetes.	C. complement from a guinea pig.
	160. An important advantage of the radioimmunoassay is the A. adaptability to small laboratories. B. high sensitivity. C. low hazard level. D. low cost per test.	B. high sensitivity.
	161. The results of an enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA. for HIV are determined by noting A. agglutination of antigens and antibodies. B. whether or not an animal lives after an injection. C. a neutralization of toxins by antitoxins. D. a color change in the reagents.	D. a color change in the reagents.
	162. Which of the following methods can quantifythe amount of antibody based on the change in color in the test system? A. RIA B. ELISA C. Ouchterlony test D. Immunoelectrophoresis	B. ELISA
	163. Which of the following is used in indirect fluorescent antibody techniques but not in direct fluorescent antibody techniques? A. A labeled antibody B. Antihuman antibodies C. An antigen D. Rhodamine	B. Antihuman antibodies
	164. RAST is a type of A. Fluorescent antibody test. B. Precipitin test. C. ELISA test. D. Radioummunoassay test.	D. Radioummunoassay test.
	165. Polyclonal antibodies in serum arise from A. a single clone of B cells. B. a mixture of vaccines. C. several clones of B cells. D. several clones of T cells.	C. several clones of B cells.
	166. Which of the following is NOT true of monoclonal antibodies? A. Produced from a hybridoma B. Highly specific C. Used as reagents D. Result from subunit vaccines	D. Result from subunit vaccines
	167. The antigenic substance that sets off anaphylactic reaction A. interacts with the body's T lymphocytes. B. is known as an allergen. C. induces smooth muscle contraction directly. D. contains cyclic AMP molecules.	B. is known as an allergen.
	168. Which one of the following does not apply to basophils? A. They are a type of white blood cell. B. They are rich in granules that contain histamine. C. They represent about 1 percent of the total white blood cell count. D. They contain hemoglobin for oxygen transport.	D. They contain hemoglobin for oxygen transport.
	169. During the sensitization phase of immediate hypersensitivity, A. complement is activated. B. most cells and basophils degranulate. C. smooth muscles contract. D. IgE molecules attach to basophils and mast cells.	D. IgE molecules attach to basophils and mast cells.
	170. IgE is the antibody involved in _______ hypersensitivity. A. type I B. cellular C. immune complex D. type II	A. type I
	171. An allergen is a(n) A. antibody produced in anaphylactic hypersensitivity. B. antigen that initiates an allergic reaction. C. antigen that induces cell-mediated immunity. D. antibody produced in response to autoantigen.	B. antigen that initiates an allergic reaction.
	172. Which one of the following is a product made and released by mast cells sometime after degranulation? A. Leukotrienes B. Cyclic AMP C. TNF alpha D. Interleukin-4	A. Leukotrienes
	173. Anaphylaxis would fail to occur without A. release of mediators from mast cells and basophils. B. formation of immune complexes. C. fixation of complement on the walls of blood vessels. D. accumulation of IgG in the affected tissues.	A. release of mediators from mast cells and basophils.
	174. A life-threatening situation in anaphylaxis occurs when A. gastrointestinal cramps take place. B. hives appear on the skin. C. bronchiole muscles contract. D. the brain swell with fluid.	C. bronchiole muscles contract.
	175. In an anaphylactic reaction, on striction of the small veins and expansion of the capillary pores forces fluids out into the tissues causing A. a rash consisting of both wheals and flares. B. wheezing and stressed breathing. C. the skin to become swollen about the eyes,wrists, and ankles. D. IgG to form complexes with antigens near the site of the latter's entry into the body.	C. the skin to become swollen about the eyes, wrists, and ankles.
	176. Food allergies are a form of ______hypersensitivity. A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV	A. Type I
	177. No antibodies are involved in _______hypersensitivity. A. type I B. cytotoxic C. immune complex D. cellular	D. cellular
	178. A series of events in which mediators cause all the body's smooth muscles to undergo vigorous contractions is called A. common allergy. B. asthma. C. anaphylaxis. D. infection allergy.	C. anaphylaxis.
	179. Which of the following events does not occur during systemic anaphylaxis? A. Degranulation of mast cells throughout the body B. Contraction of smooth muscles in the body C. Constriction of the small veins and the expansion of capillary pores D. Release of cytotoxins from T lymphocytes	D. Release of cytotoxins from T lymphocytes
	180. The major preformed mediator in the granules of mast cells is A. Complement B. Histamine C. Leukotrienes D. IgE	B. Histamine
	181. What triggers mast cells to degranulate in an allergic reaction? A. Complement binding to the cell membrane B. Cross-linking of the IgE by allergen C. Antihistamines used in the treatment of the symptoms D. Cytokines produced by Th cells	B. Cross-linking of the IgE by allergen
	182. Which of the following substances can trigger an asthma attack? A. Pollen and mold spores B. Dust mites and pet dander C. Cold temperatures D. All of the above are correct.	D. All of the above are correct.
	183. One of the objects of desensitization procedures is to A. stimulate the production of interferon. B. destroy immune complexes that may have formed in the blood vessels. C. decrease the level of IgE. D. stimulate the production of antihistamines.	C. decrease the level of IgE.
	184. Which one of the following applies to a cytotoxic hypersensitivity? A. IgG reacts with antigens on the surfaces of cells. B. An induration develops at the site of contact with antigen. C. IgE fixes itself to the basophil surface. D. Poison ivy induces	A. IgG reacts with antigens on the surfaces of cells.
	185. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is primarily a result of A. formation of immune complexes in the tissues. B. antibodies from the mother attaching to antigens located on the baby’s red blood cell surface. C. decreased phagocytosis arising from thrombocytopenia. D. reaction between toxins and antitoxins occurring in the blood vessels.	B. antibodies from the mother attaching to antigens located on the baby’s red blood cell surface.
	186. If a woman with blood type A-positive has a child by a man whose blood type is A-negative A. the child will have type B blood. B. hemolytic disease may occur in the second child to be conceived. C. the child will not suffer from hemolytic disease nor will a future child. D. the woman will develop Rh antibodies at the conclusion of pregnancy.?L	C. the child will not suffer from hemolytic disease nor will a future child.
	187. Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result when which of the following couples have children? A. An Rh (+)man and an Rh (+) woman B. An Rh (+) man and an Rh (-) woman C. An Rh (-)man and an Rh (+) woman D. An Rh (-)man and an Rh (-) woman	B. An Rh (+) man and an Rh (-) woman
	188. T lymphocytes are the mediators of _______hypersensitivity. A. anaphylactic B. cytotoxic C. immune complex D. delayed	D. delayed
	189. All of the following are associated with type IV hypersensitivity reactions except A. an induration. B. accumulation of T lymphocytes at the antigen site. C. production of IgE. D. infection allergy.	C. production of IgE.
	190. Repeated exposure to allergenic shampoos may lead to drying and scaling of the scalp. This is an example of A. infection allergy. B. contact dermatitis. C. common allergy. D. cytotoxic hypersensitivity.	B. contact dermatitis.
	191. Which one of the following is not involved in systemic lupus erythematosus? A. Immune complex formation B. A butterfly rash C. Autoantigens and autoantibodies D. Mediators such as histamine	D. Mediators such as histamine
	192. Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that is an example of a(an)_______ hypersensitivity. A. anaphylactic B. cytotoxic C. immune complex D. cellular	C. immune complex
	193 An isograft has less chance of rejection thana xenograft because A. the isograft is not composed of living tissue. B. new blood vessels need not be formed in the isograft. C. the graft composition of the donor and recipient are identical in an isograft. D. there are no antigens in an isograft.	C. the graft composition of the donor and recipient are identical in an isograft.
	194. Identification of the major histocompatibility proteins is helpful in determining A. the nature of autotoxins produced by the immune system. B. the extent of a person's allergy. C. the expected acceptance or rejection of transplanted tissue. D. whether a woman is Rh-positive or Rh-negative.	C. the expected acceptance or rejection of transplanted tissue.
	195. Which molecules are the major targets seen as foreign by the recipient’s immune system in rejection of allografts? A. HLA B. Histamine C. T cell receptor D. Antibodies	A. HLA
	196. Transplanted tissue is rejected by the body if the A. grafted tissue is an autograft. B. blood types of donor and recipient are the same. C. immune system interprets the tissue to be nonself. D. donor and recipient of the transplant are identical twins.	C. immune system interprets the tissue to be nonself.
	197. Which type of graft rejection is due to preformed antibodies? A. Acute B. Hyperacute C. Chronic D. None of the above, since all transplant rejection is mediated by T cell.	B. Hyperacute
	198. DiGeorge syndrome and Bruton's agammaglobulinemia are both A. characterized by cytotoxic reactions. B. immune deficiency diseases. C. autoimmune diseases. D. types of atopic reactions.	B. immune deficiency diseases.
	199. A primary immunodecificiency in which B cells fail to develop into immunocompetent cells is A. DiGeorge syndrome. B. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia. C. Arthus phenomenon. D. Graves' disease.	B. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia.
	200. The most dangerous of the following immune system diseases is A. atopic disease. B. severe combined immunodeficiency. C. systemic lupus erythematosus. D. allergic rhinitis.	B. severe combined immunodeficiency.
	201. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome and chronic granulomatous disease are both linked to A. defects in the body's phagocytes. B. autograft rejection. C. a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. D. the development of an induration.	A. defects in the body's phagocytes.
	202. ___________ causes AIDS. A. Influenza virus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. HIV D. Noroviruses	C. HIV
	203. AIDS stands for A. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome. B. Acquired Immunodeficiency Symptom. C. Acquisitioned Immunosuppressing Syndrome. D. Autoimmune Deficiency Syndrome.	A. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome.
	204. Which of the following is not part of an HIV particle? A. CD4 receptors B. Gp 120 proteins C. Reverse transcriptase D. Gp41	A. CD4 receptors
	205. Within 72 hours of infection of a host cell,the reverse transcribed HIV DNA molecule has integrated into one of the host chromosomes as a ___________. A. plasmid B. plastid C. prion D. provirus	D. provirus
	206. Which enzyme uses the viral RNA as a template to synthesize a strand of DNA and then uses the DNA strand as a template to complete a DNA double helix? A. DNA ligase B. Reverse transcriptase C. RNA polymerase D. DNA polymerase	B. Reverse transcriptase
	207. Stage _________ is the asymptomatic stage of HIV infection. A. I B. II C. III D. IV	B. II
	208. Stage IV is also known as the late or_________ stage of HIV infection. A. latent B. AIDS C. progressive D. prodromal	B. AIDS
	209.________________ is/are the hallmark of HIV infection. A. Opportunistic infections B. T cell proliferation C. Immune stimulation D. None of the above.	A. Opportunistic infections
	210. T-cell counts of ________ or less defines a HIV-infected individual as having AIDS. A. 200 B. 500 C. 1,000 D. 10,000	A. 200
	211. HIV can be transmitted by “risky behaviors”such as _____. A. unprotected sexual contact with an HIV-infected person B. sharing contaminated needles with an HIV-infected person C. oral sex with an HIV-infected person D. All ofthe above	D. All of the above
	212. Diagnosis of HIV infection often relies on the detection of HIV_______ in the blood. A. particles B. antibodies C. proteins D. reverse transcriptase	B. antibodies
	213. Alexander Fleming is credited with the discovery of which of the following antimicrobial agents? A. Quinine B. Penicillin C. Cephalosporin D. Erythromycin	B. Penicillin
	214. Which of the following is the best definition of an antibiotic? A. A chemical that is made in the pharmaceutical laboratory that kills or inhibits other microorganisms B. A product produced by living microorganisms that kills or inhibits other microorganisms C. Any chemotherapeutic agent that harms an infectious organism D. The concentration of the drug that destroys the pathogen	B. A product produced by living microorganisms that kills or inhibits other microorganisms
	215. A semisynthetic antibiotic is one that is A. made in a pharmaceutical laboratory. B. produced by a species of mold or bacteria. C. partly of microbial origin and partly of laboratory origin. D. partly functionally.	C. partly of microbial origin and partly of laboratory origin.
	216. A broad spectrum antibiotic would be expected to be effective against A. Gram positive bacteria only. B. Gram negative bacteria only. C. both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. D. both bacteria and viruses."	C. both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria.
	217. Ideally, an antimicrobial agent should exhibit selective toxicity, meaning that A. it should harm the infectious agent but not the host. B. it should have very low toxic dose. C. it should have a very high therapeutic dose. D. it should be toxic to a wide variety of infectious agents.	A. it should harm the infectious agent but not the host.
	218. Sulfonamide is a competitive inhibitor which interferes with the ability of a bacterium to A. resist the effect of tetracycline. B. synthesize PABA. C. undergo transformation to a resistant form. D. form folic acid.	D. form folic acid.
	219. Isoniazid is a narrow spectrum antibiotic that is useful for treatment of A. viral infections. B. pneumonia. C. tuberculosis. D. strep throat	C. tuberculosis.
	220. Isoniazid inhibits the synthesis of A. peptidoglycan. B. folic acid. C. mycolic acid. D. viral RNA	C. mycolic acid.
	221. Which group of antibiotics block DNA synthesis in bacteria? A. Quinolones B. Penicillins C. Aminoglycosides D. Tetracyclines	A. Quinolones
	222. The two major drawbacks to the use of penicillin are A. kidney damage and immune complex formation. B. allergic reactions and development of drug-resistant bacteria. C. aplastic anemia and anaphylactic hypersensitivity. D. loss of hearing and cytotoxic hypersensitivity.	B. allergic reactions and development of drug-resistant bacteria.
	223. A person who is allergic to penicillin allergy may be treated with A. bacitracin but not cephalosporin. B. erythromycin but not ampicillin. C. amoxicillin but not erythromycin. D. ampicillin but not amoxicillin.	B. erythromycin but not ampicillin.
	224. The beta lactam nucleus is the basic structure of A. penicillin. B. tetracycline. C. chloramphenicol. D. aminoglycosides	A. penicillin.
	225. Penicillin is most effective against A. log phase gram (-) bacteria. B. stationary phase gram (-) bacteria. C. log phase gram (+) bacteria. D. stationary phase gram (+) bacteria.	C. log phase gram (+) bacteria.
	226. Both the cephalosporin and penicillin antibiotics A. are produced by mold-like bacteria. B. are used primarily for gram-negative bacteria. C. act on the cell wall of bacteria. D. are related to sulfanilamide	C. act on the cell wall of bacteria.
	227. Cephalosporins act by A. inhibiting protein synthesis. B. interfering with cell-wall biosynthesis. C. competitively inhibiting folic acid biosynthesis. D. inhibiting RNA synthesis.	B. interfering with cell-wall biosynthesis.
	228. Members of the genus Streptomyces A. produce sulfanilamide. B. are commonly found in the urinary tract. C. produce many well-known antibiotics. D. are used to test the MIC of an antibiotic.	C. produce many well-known antibiotics.
	229. A common feature of bacitracin and polymyxin B is that both antibiotics A. are effective against fungi. B. contain four benzene rings and several carbohydrate side-groups. C. are only used topically. D. lead to anaphylaxis reactions.	C. are only used topically.
	230. All aminoglycoside antibiotics function by A. interfering with cell wall synthesis. B. attaching irreversibility to bacterial ribosomes. C. blocking absorption at the cell membrane. D. blocking DNA transcription	B. attaching irreversibility to bacterial ribosomes.
	231. The tubercle bacillus is usually susceptible to A. erythromycin but not streptomycin. B. streptomycin but not penicillin. C. penicillin but not nystatin. D. cephalothin but not isoniazid.	B. streptomycin but not penicillin.
	232. Chloramphenicol A. inhibits RNA synthesis. B. cannot be absorbed from the intestine. C. interferes with protein synthesis in microorganisms. D. is effective only against gram (-) infections.	C. interferes with protein synthesis in microorganisms.
	233. All the following apply to the tetracycline antibiotics except A. they are associated with discoloration of the teeth. B. they are used for rickettsial and chlamydial diseases. C. they are broad-spectrum antibiotics. D. they may cause aplastic anemia or the gray syndrome.	D. they may cause aplastic anemia or the gray syndrome.
	234. The spectrum of activity of tetracycline antibiotics A. includes the viruses. B. is limited to the fungi. C. includes viruses, protozoa, and fungi. D. includes Rickettsia and Chlamydia.	D. includes Rickettsia and Chlamydia.
	235. Pseudomembranous colitis is a condition of the intestine that may be related to A. the anaphylaxis associated with penicillin. B. aplastic anemia. C. overuse of lincomycin and clindamycin. D. cell-wall inhibition caused by vancomycin.	C. overuse of lincomycin and clindamycin.
	236. Penicillins interfere with the synthesis of A. folic acid. B. peptidoglycan. C. DNA. D. mRNA.	B. peptidoglycan.
	237. Some bacteria produce beta-lactamases, which break down and inactivate A.penicillins. B. macrolides. C. fluoroquinolones. D. tetracyclines.	A. penicillins.
	238. Nystatin is the recommended drug for A. infections of the intestine due to gram-negative bacteria. B. viral infections of the skin. C. malaria and tuberculosis. D. Candida albicans infections of the intestine or oral cavity	D. Candida albicans infections of the intestine or oral cavity
	239. Flucytosine, clotrimazole, and ketoconazole are all A. drugs for treating leprosy. B. modern sulfonamide drugs. C. antifungal agents. D. cell wall inhibitors.	C. antifungal agents.
	240. Chloroquine, primaquine, and quinine are of value for the treatment of A. urinary tract infections. B. cases of malaria. C. infections caused by bacteria of the intestinal tract. D. fungal diseases.	B. cases of malaria.
	241. Which of the following is not a type of chemotherapeutic agent used to treat viral infections? A. Agents which inhibit reverse transcriptase B. Agents which inhibit proteases C. Agents which are base analogs D. Agents which interfere with ergosterol	D. Agents which interfere with ergosterol
	242. The Kirby-Bauer test is useful for determining A. the minimum inhibitory concentration of an antibiotic. B. whether side effects will result from use of an antibiotic. C. which antibiotic may be employed to treat an infection. D. the origin of an antibiotic.	C. which antibiotic may be employed to treat an infection.
	243. Which of the following factors contribute to the selection of antibiotic resistant bacteria? A. Using antibiotics when they are not needed B. Failing to complete a course of treatment C. Antibiotics given to livestock D. All of the above.	D. All of the above.
	244. ________sometimesis called the spreading factor. A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin	A. Hyaluronidase
	245. ________ isa product of metabolism in many gram-positive bacteria. A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin	B. Exotoxin
	246. ________ is part of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin	D. Endotoxin
	247. _______ is produced by virulent staphylococci. A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin	C. Coagulase
	248. _______ elicits the production of antitoxins A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin	B. Exotoxin
	249. _______ enhances resistance to phagocytosis by forming a clot A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin	C. Coagulase
	250. _______ maybe altered to form toxoids. A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin	B. Exotoxin
	251. _______ digests hyaluronic acid to its component molecules A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin	A. Hyaluronidase
	252. _______ contributes to the invasiveness of an organism. A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin	A. Hyaluronidase
	253. _______ consists of part of the outer membrane of the cell wall A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin	D. Endotoxin
	254. _______ may cause circulatory damage and shock. A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin	D. Endotoxin
	255. _______ is identified by combining staphylococci with rabbit plasma A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin	C. Coagulase
	256. ______ is released when the organism is killed A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin	D. Endotoxin
	257. _______ was first described by Elie Metchnikoff. A. Inflammation B. Natural killer cells C. Phagocyte D. Eosinophil	C. Phagocyte
	258. _______can move out of the circulation to engulf foreign particles or pathogens A. Inflammation B. Natural killer cells C. Phagocyte D. Eosinophil	C. Phagocyte
	259. _______ results in redness, heat, pain, and swelling. A. Inflammation B. Natural killer cells C. Phagocyte D. Eosinophil	A. Inflammation
	260. _______ may develop from mechanical injury such as a blow to the skin. A. Inflammation B. Natural killer cells C. Phagocyte D. Eosinophil	A. Inflammation
	261. _______ attack cells when MHC proteins are absent. A. Inflammation B. Natural killer cells C. Phagocyte D. Eosinophil	B. Natural killer cells
	262. _______ contain granules that contain toxic compounds to defend against multicellular parasites, such as flukes and tapeworms A. Inflammation B. Natural killer cells C. Phagocyte D. Eosinophil	D. Eosinophil
	263. _______ is inhibited by a bacterial capsule. A. Inflammation B. Natural killer cells C. Phagocyte D. Eosinophil	C. Phagocyte
	264. _______ involves granzymes and perforins. A. Inflammation B. Natural killer cells C. Phagocyte D. Eosinophil	B. Natural killer cells
	265. ______ may result from an incident of subclinical disease. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	A. Naturally acquired active immunity
	266. _______ arises from the passage of maternal antibodies. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	C. Naturally acquired passive immunity
	267. _______ results from an injection of hyperimmune serum. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	D. Artificially acquired passive immunity
	268. _______ develops after treatment with antitoxin. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	D. Artificially acquired passive immunity
	269. _______ follows a case of disease. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	A. Naturally acquired active immunity
	270. _______may lead to serum sickness. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	D. Artificially acquired passive immunity
	271. _______ provides protection for the first six months of life. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	C. Naturally acquired passive immunity
	272. _______ can be raised to a higher level by booster shots. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	B. Artificially acquired active immunity
	273. _______ person becomes ill and produces own antibodies. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	A. Naturally acquired active immunity
	274. _______ follows unintentional exposure to antigens. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	A. Naturally acquired active immunity
	275. _______ arises from antibodies in the colostrum. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	C. Naturally acquired passive immunity
	276 _______ follows an injection of attenuated virus A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	B. Artificially acquired active immunity
	277. ___also is called congenital immunity A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	C. Naturally acquired passive immunity
	278. _______ produces memory cells from illness responsible for antibody production A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	A. Naturally acquired active immunity
	279. ___is stimulated by inactivated viruses A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	B. Artificially acquired active immunity
	280. ___is an intentional exposure to an immunizing agent and islong-lasting. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	B. Artificially acquired active immunity
	281. ___can be induced in a nursing child. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	C. Naturally acquired passive immunity
	282. ___involves exposure to inactivated or attenuated viruses. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity	B. Artificially acquired active immunity
	283. ___Penicillin A. Competitive inhibition B. Inhibits RNA synthesis C. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Inhibits function of cell membrane E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis F. Affects protozoal metabolism G. Interferes with mitosis	E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
	284. ___ Sulfanilamide A. Competitive inhibition B. Inhibits RNA synthesis C. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Inhibits function of cell membrane E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis F. Affects protozoal metabolism G. Interferes with mitosis	A. Competitive inhibition
	285. _______Erythromycin A. Competitive inhibition B. Inhibits RNA synthesis C. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Inhibits function of cell membrane E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis F. Affects protozoal metabolism G. Interferes with mitosis	C. Inhibits protein synthesis
	286. _______Chloramphenicol A. Competitive inhibition B. Inhibits RNA synthesis C. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Inhibits function of cell membrane E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis F. Affects protozoal metabolism G. Interferes with mitosis	C. Inhibits protein synthesis
	287. _______Rifampin A. Competitive inhibition B. Inhibits RNA synthesis C. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Inhibits function of cell membrane E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis F. Affects protozoal metabolism G. Interferes with mitosis	B. Inhibits RNA synthesis
	288. ___Cephalosporin A. Competitive inhibition B. Inhibits RNA synthesis C. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Inhibits function of cell membrane E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis F. Affects protozoal metabolism G. Interferes with mitosis	E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
	289. ___Polymyxin A. Competitive inhibition B. Inhibits RNA synthesis C. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Inhibits function of cell membrane E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis F. Affects protozoal metabolism G. Interferes with mitosis	D. Inhibits function of cell membrane E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
	290. _______ Griseofulvin A. Competitive inhibition B. Inhibits RNA synthesis C. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Inhibits function of cell membrane E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis F. Affects protozoal metabolism G. Interferes with mitosis	G. Interferes with mitosis E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
	291. _______ Chloroquine A. Competitive inhibition B. Inhibits RNA synthesis C. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Inhibits function of cell membrane E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis F. Affects protozoal metabolism G. Interferes with mitosis	F. Affects protozoal metabolism E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
	292. _______involves helper and cytotoxic T lymphocytes. A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity	B. Cell-mediated immunity
	293. _______ is mediated by B cells that mature in the bone marrow A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity	A. Humoral immunity
	294. _______provides resistance to tuberculosis and viral infected cells. A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity	B. Cell-mediated immunity
	295. ___is characterized by the release of interleukins A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity	B. Cell-mediated immunity
	296. ___involves the production of antibodies A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity	A. Humoral immunity
	297. ___involves granzymes and perforins A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity	B. Cell-mediated immunity
	298. _______involves plasma cells produced from B lymphocytes. A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity	A. Humoral immunity
	299. _______is activated by a B cell binding specific antigen A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity	A. Humoral immunity
	300. ___ involves cytotoxic T lymphocytes attacking virus-infected cells A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity	B. Cell-mediated immunity
	301. ___produces five classes of immunoglobulins A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity	A. Humoral immunity
	302. ___requires T cell maturation through the secretion of IL-2. A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity	B. Cell-mediated immunity
	303. ___requires antigenic peptides to be bound to MHC proteins. A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity	B. Cell-mediated immunity
	304. _______Antigen presenting cells A. CD8 coreceptor B. Epitopes C. Dendritic cells D. Interleukin-1 E. Interleukin-2 F. CD4 co-receptor G. Perforin H. Opsonin	C. Dendritic cells
	305. _______Attached to the surface of helper T cells A. CD8 coreceptor B. Epitopes C. Dendritic cells D. Interleukin-1 E. Interleukin-2 F. CD4 co-receptor G. Perforin H. Opsonin	F. CD4 co-receptor
	306. _______Secreted by macrophages to stimulate T cells A. CD8 coreceptor B. Epitopes C. Dendritic cells D. Interleukin-1 E. Interleukin-2 F. CD4 co-receptor G. Perforin H. Opsonin	D. Interleukin-1
	307. ___Antibody or complement protein that encourages phagocytosis A. CD8 coreceptor B. Epitopes C. Dendritic cells D. Interleukin-1 E. Interleukin-2 F. CD4 co-receptor G. Perforin H. Opsonin	H. Opsonin
	308. ___Attached to the surface of cytotoxic T cells A. CD8 coreceptor B. Epitopes C. Dendritic cells D. Interleukin-1 E. Interleukin-2 F. CD4 co-receptor G. Perforin H. Opsonin	A. CD8 coreceptor
	309. ___Antigenic determinants A. CD8 coreceptor B. Epitopes C. Dendritic cells D. Interleukin-1 E. Interleukin-2 F. CD4 co-receptor G. Perforin H. Opsonin	B. Epitopes
	310. _______Stimulates T cells to divide and mature A. CD8 coreceptor B. Epitopes C. Dendritic cells D. Interleukin-1 E. Interleukin-2 F. CD4 co-receptor G. Perforin H. Opsonin	E. Interleukin-2
	311. _______Toxin released by cytotoxic T lymphocytes A. CD8 coreceptor B. Epitopes C. Dendritic cells D. Interleukin-1 E. Interleukin-2 F. CD4 co-receptor G. Perforin H. Opsonin	G. Perforin
	312. ___higher levels indicates a very recent infection A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgE E. IgD.	C. IgM
	313. ___provides protection in the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgE E. IgD .	B. IgA
	314. ___major circulating antibody A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgE E. IgD	A. IgG
	315. ___maternal antibody that crosses the placenta A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgE E. IgD	A. IgG
	316. ___important in allergic reactions A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgE E. IgD	D. IgE
	317. _______ is typified by the transfusion reaction. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity :	B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity
	318. ___ may be related to the development of rheumatic fever. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity	C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity
	319. ___ requires IgE attached to mast cells. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity	A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity
	320. ___ is the reaction to poison ivy. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity	D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity
	321. ___ is due to deposits aggregates of antigens and antibodies on tissue surfaces. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity	C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity
	322. ___ involves an exaggeration of the process of cellular immunity. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity	D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity
	323. ___ may be accompanied by contractions of theGI tract, edema and shortness of breath. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity	A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity
	324. ___ is typified by the Arthus reaction. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity	C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity
	325. ___ does not involve antibody formation. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity	D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity
	326. ___involves histamine release. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity	A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity
	327. ___ involves the degranulation of sensitized cells. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity	A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity
	328. ___ involves an IgG reaction with antigens that may cause serum sickness. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity	C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity
	329. ___may lead to death in 10 to 15 minutes from asphyxiation if the reaction is systemic A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity	A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity
	330. ___ involves IgG reacting with antigens on the surfaces of cells. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity	B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity
	331. _______ occurs within minutes of the transplant A. Hyperacute rejection B. Acute rejection C. Chronic rejection	A. Hyperacute rejection
	332. _______ ongoing immune response due to minor antigenic differences A. Hyperacute rejection B. Acute rejection C. Chronic rejection	C. Chronic rejection
	333. ___ due to preformed antibodies A. Hyperacute rejection B. Acute rejection C. Chronic rejection	A. Hyperacute rejection
	334. ___ occurs within 10-30 days after the transplant and may be prevented by careful MHC matching and immunosuppressive therapy A. Hyperacute rejection B. Acute rejection C. Chronic rejection	B. Acute rejection
	335. ___ results in rapid destruction of the blood vessels of the graft A. Hyperacute rejection B. Acute rejection C. Chronic rejection	A. Hyperacute rejection
	336. When the natural resistance is unable to overcome the aggressiveness of microorganisms, disease sets in. A.True B.False	A.True
	337. Organisms in a commensalistic relationship with the human body derive benefit from the body but neither harm nor benefit the body. A.True B.False	A.True
	338. Parasites vary greatly in their pathogenicity A. True B. False	A. True
	339. Acute diseases are those that take a long time to develop and then linger for long periods in the body A. True B. False	B. False Response:Chronic diseases are those that take a long time to develop and then linger forlong periods in the body
	340. The incubation period of a disease reflects the time that passes between entry of the parasite to the host and the decline of the disease. A.True B. False	B. False Response:The incubation period of a disease reflects the time that passes between entryof the parasite into the host and the appearance of symptoms.
	341. The number of organisms that must be taken into the body for disease to occur is essentially the same for all infectious agents. A. True B. False	B. False Response:The number of organisms that must be taken into the body for disease to occur varies between different infectious agents.
	342. In a subclinical infection,few symptoms are evident in the patient, whereas in a clinical infection, the symptoms are apparent. A. True B. False	A. True
	343. All pathogens have a single portal of entry into to the host that allows it to infect and cause disease. A. True B. False	B. False Response:Some pathogens have more than one portal of entry into to the host that allowsit to infect and cause disease.
	344. Altered endotoxins may be used as immunizing agents because they induce the body to produce special antibodies called antitoxins. A. True B. False	B. False Response:Altered exotoxins may be used as immunizing agents because they induce the bodyto produce special antibodies called antitoxins.
	345. Coagulase-positive staphylococci resist body defenses by surrounding themselves with a fibrin clot, thereby escaping phagocytosis. A. True B. False	A. True
	346. Leukocidin is a product of the body's white blood cells that reacts with bacteria and dissolves them, thereby destroying the bacteria. A. True B. False	B. False
	347. In noncommunicable diseases,the infectious agent is usually acquired from the environment and is not easily transmitted to the next host. A. True B. False	A. True
	348. Mechanical vectors are arthropods that carry microbes on their body parts from one host to another,but are not infected with the microbe themselves. A. True B. False	A. True
	349. Direct methods for the transmission of disease include consumption of contaminated food or water, an arthropod bite, and contact with fomites. A. True B. False	B. False
	350. An arthropod that is infected with a certain parasite and that can transmit that parasite to a new host is considered a mechanical vector. A. True B. False	B. False Response:An arthropod that is infected with a certain parasite and that can transmitthat parasite to a new host is considered a biological vector.
	351. Reservoirs of infection include animals, humans, water, and soil. A. True B. False	A. True
	352. The most common nosocomial infections are infection of surgical wounds, or infections to the respiratory, urogenital, or gastrointestinal tracts. A. True B . False	A. True
	353. Nosocomial infections are often caused by breaches of infection control practices and procedures, unclean and non-sterile environmental surfaces, and/or ill employees. A. True B. False	A. True
	354. Innate immunity, consists of several nonspecific defenses present in all humans from the time of birth. A. True B. False	A True
	355. The polymorphonuclear neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages are primarily concerned with phagocytosis. A. True B. False	A. True
	356. The lymphocyte is a leukocyte with a single nucleus that exists in the lymph nodes and functions in the immune system. A. True B. False	A. True
	357. Innate immunity develops over the course of the infection, taking several days to more than a week to mount an effective response and a protective defense. A. True B. False	B. False Response: Acquired immunity develops over the course of the infection, taking several days to more than a week to mount an effective response and a protective defense.
	358. A natural barrier to the intestine is provided by the extremely alkaline environment of the stomach contents. A. True B. False	B. False Response: A natural barrier to the intestine is provided by the extremely acidic environment of the stomach contents
	359. A mixture of plasma dead tissue cells, leukocytes, and dead bacteria enclosed in a wall of fibrin yields an abscess or boil. A. True B. False	A. True
	360. The internalization of a microbe into phagocyte is enhanced when the microbe is coated with certain serum proteins, such as antibodies or complement. These protein molecules,called opsonins, attach to microbes and increase the ability of phagocytes to adhere to the pathogen. A. True B. False	A. True
	361. The immune system responds to invasion by pathogenic microbes by mounting a rapid innate response, followed several days later by the development of antibodies and lymphocytes as part of the acquired immune response. A. True B. False	A. True
	362. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are signaling receptors on macrophages, dendritic cells, and endothelial cells membrane that accelerate the formation of phagolysosomes and faster killing of engulfed microbes. A. True B. False	A. True
	363. In the preparation of toxoids,the antigenicity of the toxin remains while the toxigenicity is destroyed. A.True B. False	A. True
	364. A danger of subunit vaccines is that disease may occur in an immuno-incompetent person who is vaccinated. A. True B. False	B. False Response: There is no danger of disease from subunit vaccines, since the whole microbe is not used.
	365. Naturally acquired active immunity to a particular disease may occur when antibodies cross the placenta from the mothers circulation to that of the fetus. A. True B. False	B. False Response: Naturally acquired passive immunity
	366. Immunizing agents include toxoids, subunit vaccines containing parts of microorganisms, and recombinant vaccines such as that used for hepatitis B. A. True B. False	A. True
	367. The phenomenon of herd immunity says when approximately 90 percent of the population is vaccinated, the spread of the disease is effectively stopped. A. True B. False	A. True
	368. The titer of antibody is the most concentrated amount of serum that yields a detectable reaction with its specific antigen. A. True B. False	B. False Response: The titer of antibody is the most dilute amount of serum that yields a detectable reaction with its specific antigen.
	369. Immunoelectrophoresis techniques are based in part on the precipitation reaction that takes place between antigens and antibodies. A. True B. False	A. True
	370. In precipitation reactions,antigens on the surfaces of particles react with antibodies and cause the cells to precipitate to the bottom of the vessel. A. True B. False	B. False Response: agglutination reactions
	371. True or False? The indicator system in the complement fixation test is used to determine whether complement was used up in the test system. A. True B. False	A. True
	372. Antiglobulin antibodies are those that interact with human antibodies such as in fluorescent antibody techniques. A. True B. False	A. True
	373. The direct fluorescent antibody test requires that antiglobulin antibodies be used, while the indirect test has no such requirement. A. True B. False	B. False Response: The indirect fluorescent antibody test requires that antiglobulin antibodies be used, while the direct test has no such requirement.
	374.The radioallergosorbent test(RAST) can be used to detect IgE antibodies in the serum of a person possibly allergic to penicillin. A. True B. False	A. True
	375. The ELISA test has virtually the same sensitivity as RIA and RAST but does not require expensive equipment or radioactivity. A. True B. False	A. True
	376. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by carcinoma cells. A. True B. False	B. False Response: Monoclonal antibodies are produced by hybridoma cells.
	377. If the developing immune system does not “experience” common microbes, there is a good chance it will fail to function properly—and allergies and hypersensitivities may be the result. A. True B. False	A. True
	378. Mast cells are connective tissue cells to which IgG attaches and sensitizes an individual during development of a type I hypersensitivity. A. True B. False	B. False Response: Mast cells are connective tissue cells to which IgE attaches and sensitizes an individual during development of a type I hypersensitivity.
	379. The vast majority of hypersensitivity reactions are accompanied by limited production of IgE and the sensitization of mast cells only in localized areas of the body. A. True B. False	A. True
	380. Atopic diseases such as hayfever and asthma are diseases in which a type I hypersensitivity reaction occurs in a localized area of the body. A. True B. False	A. True
	381. Late-phase anaphylaxis takes several hours for the tissue to become hot, tender, red, and swollen. The mast cells induce this reaction by releasing chemokines that attract other cells to the site to bring about the changes. A. True B. False	A. True
	382. Asthma is characterized by wheezing and stressed breathing and appears to be due to the same allergens associated with hay fever. A. True B. False	A. True
	383. Hemolytic disease of the newborn will generally not occur during a woman's first pregnancy because her initial exposure to Rh antigens occurs during the birth of her first child. A. True B. False	A. True
	384. An important application of infection allergy is the skin test for tuberculosis, in which bacterial antibodies are applied to the skin to test whether anaphylaxis occurs in 48 hours. A. True B. False	B. False Response: An important application of infection allergy is the skin test for tuberculosis, in which purified protein derivative (PPD) is applied to the skin to test whether an induration and erythema form. _
	385. Autoimmune disorders result from a failure of the immune system to distinguish self from non-self. A. True B. False	A. True
	386. Allografts are usually very successful because tissue from one part of the person's body is grafted to another part. A. True B. False	B. False Response: Autografts are usually very successful because tissue from one part of the person's body is grafted to another part
	387. The graft versus host rejection is observed in bone marrow transplants when immune cells in the marrow form immune products against the host cells, following suppression of the host's immune system. A. True B. False	A. True
	388. In DiGeorge syndrome, the thymus fails to mature in the embryo with the result that T lymphocytes are not formed in sufficient numbers. A. True B. False	A. True
	389. A person infected with HIV develops AIDS immediately. A. True B. False	B. False Response: A person infected with HIV develops AIDS years later.
	390. Antibiotic abuse and misuse encourages the emergence of resistant species of microorganisms. A. True B. False	A. True
	391. After Fleming noticed the antibacterial effect of Penicillin he isolated it and used it on several patients as World War II was beginning and was able to make it available for therapy. A. True B. False	B. False Response: After Fleming noticed the antibacterial effect of Penicillin he isolated it and tried to use it unsuccessfully. Only later as World War II was beginning was it purified and made available for therapy.
	392. Sulfanilamide can interfere with the metabolism of bacteria because it is so similar to the PABA. A. True B. False	A. True
	393. Vancomycin interferes with aspects of folic acid metabolism in bacteria that cause urinary tract infections. A. True B. False	B. False Response: Sulfamethoxazole interferes with aspects of folic acid metabolism in bacteria that cause urinary tract infections
	394. The antituberculosis drug isoniazid interferes with cell wall synthesis in Mycobacterium by inhibiting production of sulfanilic acid. A. True B. False	B. False Response: The antituberculosis drug isoniazid interferes with cell wall synthesis in Mycobacterium by inhibiting production of mycolic acid.
	395. The quinolones are synthetic drugs which block DNA synthesis and are used to treat urinary tract infections,gonorrhea and chlamydia, and intestinal tract infections. A. True B. False	A. True
	396. Penicillinase-producing bacteria convert penicillin to penicilloic acid, which has no effect on the bacterial cell wall. A. True B. False	A. True
	397. Penicillin antibiotics are used primarily against gram-positive bacteria, but in high concentrations they are also inhibitory to some gram-negative bacteria. A. True B. False	A. True
	398. Both bacitracin and polymyxin B are synthesized by Bacillus species. They are quite toxic internally and can cause kidney damage. Therefore, they generally are restricted to topical use, such as on the skin. A. True B. False	A. True
	399. Vancomycin has emerged as a key treatment in therapy for gram positive organisms that are resistant to other antibiotics; it is often is referred to as the “drug of last resort. A. True B. False	A. True
	400. All antibiotics and chemotherapeutic agents are produced by species of Streptomyces. A. True B. False	B. False Response: Not all antibiotics and chemotherapeutic agents are produced by species of Streptomyces.
	401. Aplastic anemia sometimes occurs as a serious side effect of chloramphenicol therapy. A. True B. False	A. True
	402. Most systemic fungal infections are treated with gentamicin, an antifungal antibiotic that changes the permeability of the membranes of cells. A. True B. False	B. False Response:Most systemic fungal infections are treated with amphotericin B, an antifungalantibiotic that changes the permeability of the membranes of cells.
	403. Griseofulvin and nystatin are valuable drugs where resistance to tetracycline drugs has developed in bacteria. A. True B. False	B. False Response: Griseofulvin and nystatin are valuable drugs for fungal infections.
	404. Quinine, chloroquine, and primaquine are all drugs used for the treatment of malaria. A. True B. False	A. True
	405. Artemisia annua (sweet wormwood) is used to treat multi-drug resistant strains of P. falciparum. In red blood cells, the drug releases “free radicals” that destroy the malarial parasites. A. True B. False	A. True
	406. 40 percent of all the antibiotics produced in the United States are in animal feeds to check disease and promote growth. By killing off less hardy bacteria, chronic low doses of antibiotics create ideal growth environments for resistant strains that can be transferred to humans. A. True B. False	A. True

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