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58 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

federal courts have ______ jurisdiction

limited

two jurisdictional bases in federal courts

1. arising under federal law, or


2. diversity jurisdiction

arising under jurisdiction

1. claim is created by federal law; or


2. claim is created by state law but depends on substantial federal question



*federal question cannot be a defense

diversity jurisdiction

there must be:


1. compete diversity, and


2. amount in controversy exceeds $75K

rule of complete diversity

no single P may be resident of same state as any D (complete diversity across the v.)

citizenship

individuals: domicile (where they intend to remain)



corporations: state of incorporation and principal place of business



unincorporated associations: every owner counts as a separate domiciled person for diversity

Aliens

"pure aliens"--may sue or be sued by non-alien with diversity. may not be sued by another alien based on diversity.



admitted permanent residents--treated as citizens, domiciled in state of permanent residence



American citizen outside of U.S.--may never sue or be sued based on diversity

supplemental jurisdiction

if two one claims, and one has primary federal jurisdiction, but the other does not, fed cts. have discretion to assert supplemental jurisdiction over both if:



they derive from a common nucleus of operative facts.

supplemental jurisdiction exceptions

if primary basis is diversity, Ps cannot use supplmental jurisdiction to bring claims against nondiverse parties.



Ds can use supplemental jurisdiction to bring add'l claims against nondiverse parties



Ps can use supp. jurisdiction to bring add'l claims against diverse parties, even if the claims do not exceed $75K

removal

Defendants may remove an action from state court to federal court that geographically embraces the state court by:



1. filing a notice of removal,


2. within 30 days of service of state court complaint

remand

Plaintiffs may file a motion to remand the action back to state court within 30 days of filing the notice of removal, federal court must remand if there is no federal jurisdiction

removal exception

if basis for primary federal jurisdiction is diversity, case may not be removed if any single defendant is a citizen of the state where action was filed.

Erie Doctrine

if there is a choice of law between federal or state law:



state law governs, unless there is a federal statute, rule of civil procedure, or rule of evidence on point.

full faith and credit

federal court must recognize and credit any final judgment issued by a state court.

abstention

federal court will refrain from resolving substantial, pending state court issue

temporary restraining order

emergency order, entered by court for 14 days to prevent irreparable harm & preserve the status quo

preliminary injunction

only upon notice, to prevent irreparable harm and maintain the status quo, before a trial on the merits

Process of Service:


1. Who can serve


2. Rule


3. Methods (A WASP)

1. anyone 18+ y/o


2. process proper if: a. method is proper under federal rules, and b. process is constitutional


3. Abode service; waiver; agent; state methods; personal service


4. Constitutionality: method reasonably designed to inform parties of litigation


Venue

venue proper where:



1. substantial part of the claim arose,


2. D is domiciled if all Ds domiciled in same state, OR


3. the property at issue is located



If none of those work, venue is still proper if court has Personal Jurisdiction over D


If venue is improper?

1. D files a motion to transfer;



will be granted for convenience of parties and witnesses and in the interest of justice


general requirements for pleadings

complaints must contain sufficient facts to place adversary on notice of plausible claims



*fraud claims require heightened particularity

claims the must be filed in first responsive pleading (otherwise waived)

1. mtn to dismiss for lack of PJ


2. improper service of process


3. mtn challenging venue

Amendments

Pleader has right to amend pleading within 21 days of service.

relation back of amendments to conform with the statute of limitations (new claims)

an amendment adding new claims relates back to the date of a timely filed complaint if:



1. claim derives fom same transaction or occurence as


2. same timely filed claim

Relation back of new parties to conform with SOL

1. derived from same transaction or occurrence, AND


2. new party must acquire knowledge that but for a mistake in name, it would have been sued

joinder (claims)

a party may join as many claims as it has against an adversary, regardless of relation of the claims

joinder (parties)

may join if claims derive from same transaction or occurence, or same series of transactions or occurrences

counterclaims

claim filed by D against P

permissive counterclaim

counterclaim that does not derive from same transaction or occurrence as P's.

compulsory counterclaim

counterclaim derived from same transaction or occurrence, must be filed as a counterclaim or it is forever waived

impleader

3rd party claims.



D may implead 3rd party if 3rd party may be liable for all or part of D's liability

Interpleader

holder of a common fund may filed lawsuit as P and sue all rival claimants

Interpleader statutory diversity

diversity satisfied if:


1. minimum diversity: any 2 rival claimants are enough


2. $500 or more in controversy

Intervention

Act of non-party intervening to become a party

Intervention as of right

intervenor has right if it has an interest which as a practical matter will be harmed by parties and not protected

permissive intervention

court has discretion to grant if there is commonality of interest

Indispensable parties

A nonparty must be joined if its absence would be prejudicial to any party's right to a full and fair adjudication

If court lacks jurisdiction over an indispensable party

court must decide in equity and good conscious whether to go on without non-party, or dismiss hte entire action

Class actions

an action in which a named party represents a class of commonly-situated absent parties

Federal courts have jurisdiction over class actions with...

1. 100 or more Plaintiffs,


2. who together seek an amount in excess of $5mil if any single Plaintiff is from a different state than any single D

Certification requirements for Class Actions (the little engine that just CANT)

Commonality: common issues of fact or law and common injuries


Adequacy: named party fairly and accurately represents the class


Numerosity: more than 40 class members


Typicality: claims of naimed party must be typical of class

Discovery--material is discoverable if (2)

1. method of discovery is proper, and


2. the material sought is within the proper scope

Discovery methods: automatic prompt and mandatory disclosure (4)

all parties must disclose (without request):



1. all potential supporting witnesses


2. all relevant supporting documents


3. a damages computation


4. relevant insurance coverage

the deposition

only method that can be used on a non-party



*limited to 10 per side


*7 hours each

request for physical or mental examination

only method that requires a court order, that will be granted upon good cause shown

electronic discovery

need not be produced if:


1. party shows it would be an undue burden


2. court may order production upon good cause shown (proportionate costs/benefits)

Duty to supplement

on-going, automatic



parties must disclosed newly discovered information within a reasonable time

Scope of discovery

relevant and not-privileged



Relevant: any part of any claim or any defense. Need not be admissible at trial

Not privileged (Work product)

Work product: any material prepared for litigation not in ordinary course of business



Two types:


1. attorney's metnal imporessions--never discoverable


2. all other forms--not discoverable unless requesting party shows a substantial need

Sanctions

Failing to respond to a discovery request: party can move to compell production



Failing to disclose duing Automatic Prompt Disclosure: cannot use info they failed to disclose unless show a substantial excuse



Violating court order compelling discovery: Court may bar you from using evidence or presenting any claim or defense

Motion for SJ

can be filed up to 30 days after close of discovery.



granted if non-moving party fails to present a fenuine issue of material fact for trial

Motion for Judgment as a Matter of Law

After other side has rested it's case, motion will be granted if:



there is a legally insufficient evidentiary basis from which a reasonable jury could find for the other party

Renewed motion for judlment as a matter of law

may renew mtn for JML within 28 days of judgment. will be granted if:



there was legally insufficient evidentiary basis from which any reasonable jury could have found for non-moving party

Motion for new judgment

within 28 days of judgment. granted at court's discretion for:



1. errors at trial effecting substantive trial rights, or


2. verdict against the weight of the evidence

res judicata (claim preclusion)

a claim which has been fully and fairly litigated to a final judgment cannot be relitigated.


1. final order on the merits;


2. same D and same P or in privity;o


3. same claim

process of service methods (AWASP)

Abode: server leaves process at party's last and usual abode within someone who lives there of suitable age


Waiver: mails complaint and asks D to waive formal process (if D waives, he gets 60 days to respond instead of 21)


Agent: personal service or mail req to waive to an authorized agent


State methods: any method allowed in the state


Personal service: personal, in-hand delivery to D

Rule of appellate review (exceptions)

only final orders can be appealed



Exceptions:


1. partial final order--an order resolving some claims but not all claims


2. discretionary appeal--of interlocutory orders if doubt, controlling issue of law



notice of appeal within 30 days after judgment

collateral estoppel (issue preclusion)

1. final order on the merits,


2. issue actually litigated,


3. issue essential to judgment, and


4. D had a fair opportunity to litigate the issue