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80 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What should be done for an elderly person concerned about hearing impairment? What screening can be done?
Elderly patients who admit to hearing impairment should be offered audiometry.
Those who do not admit to hearing impairment should undergo a whispered voice test.
Note: Weber and Rhinne is not useful screening test for hearing impairment
What type of hearing loss is age related hearing loss?
Age related hearing loss (presbycusis) is sensorineural
What are the 2 types of hearing loss? Define each.
Conductive - sound does not reach the cochlea
Sensorineural - sound is not converted or transmitted via neural signals
What investigations should be done for all patients with hypertension?
CBC, electrolytes, Cr, fasting glucose, lipid profile, ECG, urinalysis
Causes of secondary hypertension?
ABCDE
A - aldosteronism, apnea
B - bruits, bad kidneys
C - cushings, catecholamines, coarctation of the aorta, calcium
D - drugs
E - endocrine disease (hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism)
Red flags for back pain
BACKPAIN
B - bowel or bladder dysfunction
A - anesthesia (saddle)
C - constituational symptoms/malignancy
K - kronic disease
P - parasthesias
A - age >50 and mild trauma
I - iv drug use
N - neuromotor deficits
Findings in cauda equina syndrome
Low back pain, areflexia, lower extremity weakness, fecal incontinence, urinary retention, saddle anesthesia, decreased anal tone
Describe physical exam for low back pain
-Neurological exam for L4, L5, S1 helps determine level of spinal involvement
-Peripheral pulses
-Straight leg raise (positive if pain <70 degrees, aggravated by dorsiflexion), positive tests indicates sciatica
-crossed leg raise (more specific, raising uninvolved leg elicits pain in leg with sciatica)
When should an x-ray be done for low back pain?
-no improvement after 1 month
-fever > 38 degrees
-unexplained weight loss
-prolonged steroid use
-trauma
-suspicion of ankylosing spondylitis
-history of cancer
What is the prognosis for low back pain?
70% improve in 2 weeks, 90% improve in 6 weeks, 5% chronic
What are the symptoms of menopause?
urogenital: atrophy, dryness, incontinence
blood vessels and heart: hot flashes, increased risk of heart disease
bones: bone loss, fractures
brain: depression, mood swings, memory loss
What are the benefits and risks of HRT in menopause?
Benefits: decreased risk of osteoporosis fractures, colorectal cancer, and menopause symptoms relief
Risks: increased risk of breast cancer, coronary artery disease, stroke, and PE
Which etiology of back pain is implied by pain on flexion and extension?
Pain on flexion - disc origin (back pain) or root compression (leg pain)
Pain on extension - facet origin (back), spinal stenosis (leg)
Describe the difference between neurogenic and vascular claudication?
Neurogenic - walking distance variable, better with change in position, relief in approx. 10 mins
Vascular - set walking distance, better if stop walking, relief in approx. 2 mins, crampy character
Describe an approach to back pain
Is it back dominate or leg dominate?
Back dominate and constant - inflammatory or mechanical
Back dominate and intermittent - most likely disc herniation (central or facet joint)
Leg dominate and constant - most likely disc herniation (lateral)
Leg dominate and intermittent - spinal stenosis
Features of osteoarthritis
-pain with exercise, improved with rest
-morning stiffness <30 mins
-deformity, bony enlargement, crepitus, or limitation of movement
-affects distal joints of hands, spine, hip and knee
What are the radiographic features of OA
Joint space narrowing, subchondral sclerosis, subchondral cysts, osteophytes
Which joints are commonly affected by OA
-Hand (DIP, PIP, 1st CMC)
-Hip, knee,
-c-spine, l-spine
-1st MTP
Note: ankle, shoulder, elbow, MCP, rest of wrist uncommon)
What are the treatment options for OA
conservative: weight loss, exercise (OT/PT), assistive devices
pharmacologic: acetaminophen 1st line (max 3.2g/d if healthy liver, 2.6g/d if liver disease), NSAIDs 2nd line, steroid injections, topical NSAID
Which patients should undergo early BMD testing (prior to age 65)? At what age?
Age < 50 - fragility fracture, prolonged use of steroids, hypogonadism, malabsorption syndrome, chronic inflammation, primary hyperparathyroidism
Age 50-64 - fragility fracture after age 40, prolonged use of steroid, parental hip fracture, vertebral fracture, high EtOH or current smoker, low body weight (<60 kg)
Age 65+ - all men and women
What osteoporosis prevention strategies should be recommended for all individuals ove 50
Calcium 1200 mg/d, vitamin d 800 iu/d, weight bearing exercise, fall prevention
What pharmacologic therapy is available for osteoporosis? Who should be treated?
Antiresorptive therapy: bisphosphonates (alendronate, risedronate, zoledronate), mococlonal antibody (denosumab), and estrogen
Treat all high risk patients (10 year fracture risk > 20% or > 1 prior fragility fracture)
Describe approach to describing skin lesions
SCALD
Size
Color - hyper/hypopigmented, erythematous
Arrangement - solitary, linear, reticulated, grouped, herpetiform
Lesion morphology
Distribution - dermatomal, interiginous, symmetrical, follicular
3 most common infections associated with vaginal discharge in women
Bacterial vaginosis, vulvovaginal candidiasis, and trichomoniasis
Which STIs have mandatory reporting?
Chlamydia, gonorrhoea, hepatitis B, HIV, syphilis
What is the most common reportable STI in Canada?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Treatment of Gonorrheae and Chlamydia
Gonorrhea - cefixime 400 mg, single dose
Chlamydia - azithromycin 1 g, single dose
Define sinusitis
Inflammation of the mucous membranes that make up the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses or fluid within these cavities
What are the features of sinusitis
Maxillary toothache, coloured nasal discharge, no improvement with decongestants, abnormal transillumination, purulent secretions on exam
What features differentiate bacterial vs viral sinusitis
Bacterial suggested by symptoms with no improvement after 7 days or worsening after 5-7 days and presence of purulence
What causes snoring?
Soft tissue vibration at the back of the nose and throat due to turbulent airflow through narrowed air passages
How many apneic episodes per hour must a person have to be diagnosed with sleep apnea
>15 apneic episodes per hour of sleep with arousal recorded
What treatment is available for obstructive sleep apea?
Modify: avoid sleeping supine, weight loss, avoid sedatives (EtOH, muscle relaxants, opioids) use inhaled steroids
Primary treatment is CPAP
What percent of sore throat is caused by group A strep?
5-15% of adults and up to 50% of children
Describe the approach to sore throats using the sore throat score
Cough absent (1), History of fever > 38 degrees (1), tonsillar exudate (1), swollen or tender anterior nodes (1), age 3-14 yrs (1), age 15-44 yrs (0), age >45 (-1).
If 0 or 1 no culture of antibiotics
If 2 or 3 culture all, treat only if positive
If 4 or 5 culture all, treat with antibiotics on clinical grounds if patient unwell
What should be done if a patient has had recent/ongoing antibiotics and develops diarrhea?
Send a stool specimen for C. difficile toxin
Start emperic therapy for C. difficile with metronidazole 500 mg PO TID
What spirometry criteria must be met for the diagnosis of COPD
-postbronchodilator FEV1 < 80% predicted
-FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.7
Who should undergo screening for COPD
-Smokers or ex-smokers 40 yrs of age and older
-Individuals with persistent cough and sputum production or frequent respiratory tract infections
How does nicotine replacement therapy work? How effective is it?
NRT's deliver nicotine, which acts as an agonist at the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor in a lower dose and at a substantially slower rate than cigarettes.
These products roughly double smoking cessation rates.
What are the side effects of the nicotine patch?
Itch at application site, insomnia, and vivid dreams.
How does a nicotine vaccine work?
Stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies that bind circulating nicotine and prevent it from crossing the blood brain barrier
How can the diagnosis of asthma be confirmed?
Spirometry:
> 12% improvement in FEV1 from baseline 15 minutes after use of a SABA
OR
>20% spontaneous variability over time in FEV1 values
OR
positive methacholine challenge
Adverse effects of SABA
Tachycardia, prolonged QT, tremor, anxiety, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia.
What is the most effective medication for preventing symptoms and exacerbations of asthma?
Inhaled corticosteroids are significantly more effective than LABA, leukotriene modifiers, and theophylline.
Adverse effects of inhaled corticosteroids
Oral candidiasis (thrush), dysphonia, and reflex cough and bronchospasm.
Reduced growth velocity in first year
Changes in bone density and development of cataracts or glaucoma.
ICS does not increase risk of asthma.
What is the treatment of asthma exacerbation
-O2 therapy
-SABA
-Daily systemic glucocorticoids 3-10 days
What questions are important to ask when looking for heart failure in an infant?
Color, cough, wheeze, dyspnea, palpitations, and diaphoresis during feeding.
Feeding is the most vigorous exercise for an infant.
What do S1 and S2 represent?
S1 represents closure of the atrioventricular valves (tricuspid and mitral).
S2 consists of aortic and pulmonic valve closure
What causes splitting of S2?
Lower resistance in the pulmonary vasculature results in slower closure of the pulmonic valve.
What is fixed splitting in S2 pathognomonic for?
Fixed splitting of S2 is pathognomonic for an atrial septal defect.
Describe Modified Wells Criteria
Symptoms of DVT (3)
No alternate diagnosis that better explains symptoms (3)
Pulse > 100 (1.5)
Immbilization > 3 days or surgery in last month (1.5)
Prior Hx of PE or DVT (1.5)
Hemoptysis (1)
Malignancy (1)
PE likely if score >4 and unlikely if </= 4.
What tests should be ordered for PE based on the Wells score?
Wells ≤ 4 - PE unlikely, do serum D-dimer. If negative this excludes PE.
Well >4 or positive D-dimer, do CT pulmonary angiogram.
Two biggest risk factors for stomach ulcers
H. pylori infection of gastric mucosa
Chronic use of NSAIDs
What are the main causes of lumbar pain made worse with flexion
Lumbar disc herniation and back strains
Why does flexion cause pain in lumbar disc herniation?
The flexion of the lumbar spine at the hip causes traction of the nerve roots which are then compressed against the herniated disc.
What is the most commonly affected spinal cord level in lumbar disc herniations?
The vast majority of lumbar disc herniations occur at the L5-S1 disc and usually cause compression of S1 nerve root. Examination of the S1 nerve root is vital in suspected disc herniations.
What causes the pain associated with back strain
Initial injury commonly results in a strain (small tear) of one of the supporting lumbar muscles. The Inflamed, swollen muscle will attempt to shorten or spasm.
What are the common causes of lumbar pain made worse with extension
Facet joint irritation, spondylolysis, and spinal stenosis.
Define spondylolisthesis and spondylolysis
Spondylolisthesis - fracture in the pars interarticularis allows forward slipping of one vertebral body on another
Spondylolysis - fracture of the pars interarticularis
What is the treatment of back strain
Analgesia, early mobilization (no bed rest), and applying superficial heat 3 times a day for 15-20 mins.
Two deadly causes of back pain
Cauda equina syndrome and abdominal aortic aneurism
What is the typical history of a patient with ankylosing spondylitis
Morning pain and stiffness in a patient < 30 years old
What is the most common symptom associated with lumbar spinal stenosis
Neurogenic claudication - discomfort that radiates beyond the spinal area into buttocks and frequently into thigh and lower leg. Made worse with extension.
Describe the mechanism of action of topical corticosteroids
Anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressive, anti-proliferative, and vasoconstrictive.
Why must different strengths of steroids be used in different areas of the body?
Different thickness of the stratum cornium and difference in blood supply the area.
Describe the features of eczema/atopic dermatitis
Itchy, dry skin
Usually on flexor surface
Skin usually inflamed
Describe the treatment of eczema
Use mild cleanser, moisturize often, cool bathing, avoid triggers
Hydrocortisone cream + calcineurin inhibitors
Oral antihistamine
Define psoriasis. What is the pathophysiology?
Psoriasis is an autoimmune disease in which activated t-cells expresses cytokines and this speeds up the growth cycle of skin cells. Normal skin cells mature and fall off the sruface in 28-30 days skin cells in a person with psoriasis mature and move to the sruface in just 3-4 days. It is manifested by cellular hyperproliferation, lack of differentiation, and inflammation.
What are the diagnostic features of psoriasis?
Red, scaly plaques that are often itchy.
Plaques commonly located on the elbows, knees, lumbo-sacral area, and scalp.
May have nail changes including pitting, onycholysis, oil drop change.
May have psoriatic arthritis.
Describe treatment of psoriasis
Dovobet (topical corticosteroids (betamethasone dippropionate) + topical calcipotriol)
Moisturizers, mild cleansers
Oral antihistamines
Others: topical calcineurin inhibitor, phototherapy, biologics,
How is volume status assessed?
Mucous membranes, skin turgor, orthostatic blood pressure
Most common causes of chronic kidney disease
Diabetes, hypertension, and glomerulonephritis.
Describe the features of vulvovaginal candidiasis
Thick, whitish discharge that has no odor and the patient complains of significant pruritus of the external and internal genitalia. On physical examination, the vaginal area can be edematous with erythema present.
Describe the features of trichomonas
Copious amounts of a thin, frothy, green-yellow or gray malodorous vaginal discharge.
Vaginal soreness or dyspareunia.
Cervix has a “strawberry” appearance or redness of the vagina.
Describe the features of bacterial vagninosis
(1) a thin, homogenous vaginal discharge; (2) a vaginal pH more than 4.5; (3) a positive KOH “whiff” test (a fishy odor present after the addition of 10% KOH to a sample of the discharge); and (4) the presence of clue cells in a wet mount preparation
Length of symptoms of common cold
Symptoms caused by common cold typically last 1 to 2 weeks.
Describe the role of vitamin C, echinacea, zinc, and gingseng in the common cold
Vitamin C - no preventative effect, reduce duration by half day
Echinacea - small preventative effect, no evidence for treatment
Zinc - slight reduction in duration
Ginseng - small preventative effect (1 cold per year difference)
Etiology of croup
Croup is almost always viral. Parainfluenza virus type 1 and 3 are most commom. Influenza virus, adenovirus, and RSV have also been implicated.
Clinical features of croup
Barking seal-like cough, inpiratory stridor, and respiratory distress. Also rhinorrhea and fever.
Potential complications of PID
Recurrence of disease, the development of abscess, chronic abdominal pain, infertility, and the increased risk of ectopic pregnancy.