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176 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
most enzymatic reactions follow a hyperbolic curve i.e. they follow:
|
Michaelis-Menten kinetics
**Velocity over [Substrate]** |
|
enzymatic reactions that exhibit a sigmoid curve indicate ________________ kinetics
|
*cooperative* kinetics
- e.g. hemoglobin curve |
|
MM kinetics players:
[S] = |
concentration of the Substrate
|
|
MM kinetics players:
Km = (formula) |
[S] at 1/2 Vmax
|
|
Km is inversely related to:
|
the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate
- the larger the Km, the less affinity an enzyme has for a substrate |
|
Vmax is DIRECTLY proportional to:
|
[E],
the enzyme concentration - the larger the [E], the higher the Vmax |
|
Lineweaver-Burk plot: increasing the y-intercept =>
|
DECreasing the Vmax
|
|
L-B plot: the further the x-intercept is to the right, the greater:
|
the Km,
and the LOWER the affinity |
|
pharmacokinetics =
|
the effects of the body on the drug
|
|
**pharmacokinetics ~~ ADME, which stands for:**
|
Absorption
Distribution Metabolism Excretion |
|
pharmacodynamics =
|
effects of the drug on the body
- includes r' binding, efficacy, potency, SE's/toxicity |
|
bioavailability (F) =
|
*fraction* of administered drug that reaches systemic circulation unchanged
|
|
**for an IV dose, F =
(bioavailability) |
100%
- duh |
|
orally, F is typically <100%, due to:
(2) |
incomplete absorption,
FPE |
|
Volume of Distribution (Vd) =
|
theoretical volume occupied by the total absorbed drug amount at the plasma concentration
|
|
formula for Vd:
|
Vd = amount of drug in the body /
plasma drug concentration |
|
the apparent Vd of plasma protein-bound drugs can be altered by liver and kidney dz, e.g.
|
decreased protein binding => increased Vd
also, drugs may distribute in more than one compartment |
|
LOW Vd ~~
|
plasma protein-bound drugs
- found in blood |
|
medium Vd ~~
|
ECF
|
|
HIGH Vd ~~
|
ALL tissues, including fat
|
|
a drug infused at a constant rate takes _____________________ to reach steady state
|
**4-5 half lives**
|
|
it takes _____ half-lives to reach ___% of the steady-state level
|
3.3 half-lives to reach 90% of the steady-state level
|
|
Clearance (Cl) =
|
**volume of plasma** cleared of drug per unit time
|
|
Clearance may be impaired with defects in:
(3) |
1. cardiac,
2. hepatic, or 3. renal function |
|
in renal or hepatic dz, maintenance dose ______________ and loading dose ________________
|
decreases;
loading dose is usually unchanged |
|
**time to steady state depends on half-life and is INDEPENDENT of:**
(2) |
dose OR dosing frequency
|
|
Cp =
|
*target* plasma conc. at steady state
|
|
zero-order elimination means:
|
rate of elimination is CONSTANT, regardless of Cp
- that is, **a constant AMOUNT of drug is eliminated per unit time** => Cp decreases *linearly* with time |
|
zero-order elimination is _____________- _____________ elimination
|
capacity-limited elimination
|
|
3 best examples of drugs that show zero-order elimination:
PEA |
Phenytoin
Ethanol Aspirin (all at high or toxic concentrations) *PEA is round like a Zero* |
|
first-order elimination means rate of elimination is:
|
proportional to the drug concentration
- i.e. **a constant FRACTION of drug is eliminated per unit time** - that's why t1/2 is a first-order property => Cp decreases *exponentially* with time |
|
first-order elimination is ________ - _______________ elimination
|
flow-dependent elimination
|
|
what kind of mlcls are **trapped** in urine and cleared quickly?
|
*ionized* mlcls
- but neutral mlcls can be reabsorbed |
|
weak acids are trapped in:
|
basic environments
- treat acid OD with bicarb |
|
3 examples of weak acid drugs:
|
1. Phenobarbitol
2. MTX 3. Aspirin |
|
weak bases (like amphetamines) are trapped in acidic environments; treat OD with:
|
ammonium chloride
NH4Cl |
|
Phase I drug metabolism =
(3 means, 1 effect) |
1. reduction
2. oxidation 3. hydrolysis with cytochrome P450 => slightly-polar, water-soluble metabolites which are often still active |
|
Phase II metabolism =
|
conjugation
=>=> VERY polar, INactive metabolites, which are renally excreted |
|
**conjugation (i.e. Phase II) has 3 forms:**
|
Glucuronidation
Acetylation Sulfation (GAS) |
|
geriatric patients lose ________ ___ first
|
Phase I first;
- therefore, geriatric pts have GAS (conjugation/Phase II) |
|
pts who are slow acetylators have greater SE's from certain drugs b/c of:
|
rate of decrease in metabolism
|
|
efficacy =
|
max effect that a drug can produce
|
|
high-efficacy drug classes include:
(4) |
1. analgesics
2. antibiotics 3. antiHISTamines 4. decongestants |
|
partial agonists have less __________ than full agonists
|
efficacy
- the maximum effect that they are capable of producing is lower than that of the full agonists |
|
potency =
|
*amount* of drug *needed* for a given effect
|
|
increased potency ~~
|
**increased affinity for the r'**
|
|
examples of highly-potent drug classes:
(3) |
1. chemo
2. anti-HTN 3. statins |
|
2 effects of competitive antagonists on efficacy and potency:
|
1. NO change in efficacy
2. dec. potency (shift curve right) |
|
both noncompetitive antagonists and irreversible antagonists shift the curve:
|
DOWN
=> *DEC efficacy* |
|
partial agonists like Buprenorphine decrease:
|
efficacy
- duh |
|
therapeutic index = m. of drug safety;
formula = |
TD50 / ED50
|
|
TD50 =
ED50 = |
median toxic dose
median effective dose |
|
therapeutic window = m. of:
|
clinical drug's effectiveness for a pt
- define better check |
|
safer drugs have higher:
|
T. index values
|
|
4 examples of HIGH (bad) T Index drugs:
|
1. Digoxin
2. Li2+ 3. Theophylline 4. warfarin |
|
which 2 components of the sympathetic NS are innervated by the parasympathetic NS?
|
1. adrenal medulla
2. sweat glands |
|
botulinum toxin prevents release of NT at:
|
ALL cholinergic terminals
|
|
Nicotinic r's are ligand-gated ________ channels
|
Na+/K+
|
|
2 types of Nicotinic chans, and their locations:
|
1. Nn
(autonomic ganglia) 2. Nm (NMJ's) |
|
3 features of Muscarinic ACH r's:
|
1. G-prot-coupled r's
2. act through 2nd messengers 3. five subtypes |
|
4 kinds of sympathetic r's and their G-prot. class:
|
a1 (q class)
a2 (i class) B1 (s) B2 (s) QISS class |
|
3 functions of a1 r's:
|
1. vasoconstriction
2. contract pupillary dilator muscle => dilation [mydriasis] 3. contraction of intestinal and bladder sphincter muscles |
|
4 functions of a2 r's:
|
1. dec. sympathetic outflow
2. dec. insulin release 3. dec. lipolysis 4. inc. plat. agg. |
|
4 functions of B1 r's:
|
1. inc. HR
2. inc. contractility 3. inc. renin release 4. inc. lipolysis |
|
9 functions of B2 r's:
|
1. vasodilation
2. bronchodilation (that's why you use B2 agonists to tx asthma) 3. inc. HR 4. inc. contractility 5. inc. lipolysis 6. inc. insulin release 7. dec. uterine tone 8. relax ciliary muscles (=> dilation/mydriasis) 9. inc. aqueous humor production |
|
G-prot. class of M1, M2, and M3 r's, respectively:
|
M1 = q class
M2 = i class M3 = q class |
|
M1 r's are found in:
(2) |
1. CNS,
2. enteric NS |
|
2 functions of M2:
|
1. dec. AV node conduction => dec. HR
2. dec. contractility of *atria* |
|
2 functions of M3:
|
1. inc. exocrine gland secretion
(lacrimal, salivary, gastric acid) 2. inc. gut peristalsis 3. inc. bladder contraction 4. bronchoconstriction 5. inc. pupillary sphincter muscle contraction (=> miosis) 6. ciliary muscle contraction (=> accomodation) |
|
G-prot. class of D1 and D2 r's, respectively:
|
D1 = s
D2 = i |
|
function of D1:
|
relaxes renal vascular SM
|
|
function of D2 r's:
|
modulate transmitter release, esp. in brain
|
|
G-prot. class of Histamine 1 and H2 r's:
|
H1 = q
H2 = s |
|
5 functions of H1 r's:
|
1. inc. nasal and bronchial mucus production
2. inc. vascular permeability 3. bronchoconstriction (via mast cells) 4. pruritus 5. pain |
|
1 function of H2 r's =
|
inc. gastric secretion
|
|
G-prot. class of Vasopressin1 and V2 r's:
|
V1 = q
V2 = s |
|
functions of V1 r's:
(2) |
general vasoconstriction,
release of PG's => renal vasodilation |
|
function of V2 r's =
|
inc. H2O permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the kidney
(via ADH) |
|
release of NOR from a sympathetic nerve ending is modulated by:
(3) |
1. NOR itself
(acting on presynaptic a2-r's) 2. A2 3. other substances |
|
MG used to be diagnosed with Edrophonium; now it's diagnosed with:
|
anti-ACH r' AB test
|
|
with ALL cholinergic agents, watch for exacerbation of:
(3) |
1. COPD
2. asthma 3. peptic ulcers |
|
what enzyme makes ACH?
|
choline acetyltransferase
|
|
cholinesterase poisoning often occurs via:
|
organophosphates/pesticides
which **IRREVERSIBLY** inhibit ACHE |
|
symps of irreversible ACHE inhibition =
DUMBBELSS |
1. diarrhea
2. urination 3. miosis (excessive constriction) 4. Bronchospasm 5. Bradycardia 6. Excitation (of skel. muscle, CNS) 7. Lacrimation 8. Sweating 9. Salivation |
|
antidote to organophosphates =
|
Atropine (competitive inhibitor of oP's ) + Pralidoxime (regenerates ACHE if given early)
|
|
Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist used for:
(2) |
1. bradycardia
2. ophthalmic applications |
|
Atropine in the eye:
(2) |
1. mydriasis
(dilation of pupil) 2. cycloplegia (paralysis of the ciliary muscle of the eye) |
|
Atropine in the airway:
|
decreases secretions
|
|
Atropine in the stomach:
|
decreases acid secretions
|
|
Atropine in the gut:
|
decreased motility
|
|
Atropine in the bladder:
|
**dec. urgency** in cystitis
|
|
Atropine stops DUMBBELSS, except for:
|
***E, Excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, which is mediated by Nicotinic r's***
|
|
7 SE's of Atropine:
|
1. hot as a hare
(due to decreased sweating; HR increases too) 2. tachycardia 3. red as a beet 4. dry as a bone (skin, mouth) 5. blind as a bat (mydriasis) 6. can't pop a squat (constipation, urinary retention) 7. mad as a hatter disorientation |
|
Atropine can also cause:
(3) |
1. acute/closed-angle glaucoma in the elderly, due to mydriasis
2. urinary retention in men with BPH 3. hyperthermia in infants |
|
Jimson wee (datura) => gardener's pupil, which is:
|
mydriasis due to plant alkaloids
|
|
NEVER give _______________ if cocaine intoxication is suspected;
|
B-blockers
- can lead to unopposed a1 activation and extreme HTN |
|
NOR vs. Isoproterenol
NOR causes increase in systolic and diastolic BP's as a result of a1-mediated vasoconstriction, => |
inc. MAP => bradycardia
- Isoproterenol, however, has little alpha effect but causes *B2-*mediated vasodilation, resulting in DEC. MAP, and INC. HR through B1 and reflex activity |
|
SE's of B-blockers:
(5) |
1. impotence
2. adverse CV effects (brady, AV block, CHF) 3. adverse CNS effects (sez's, sedation, sleep alterations) 4. dyslipidemia (Metoprolol only) 5. exacerbations in asthma/COPD |
|
never give B-blockers to:
|
cocaine users,
due to risk of unopposed alpha-adrenergic r' agonist activity |
|
in diabetics, benefits of B-blockers:
|
outweigh the potential risk of masking hypoglycemia;
USE in diabetics |
|
B1-selective properties B-blockers:
(5) A BEAM |
1. Acebutolol
2. Betaxolol 3. Esmolol 4. Atenolol 5. Metoprolol |
|
which 2 B-blockers are partial agonists?
(activate B1 and B2) |
1. Acebutolol
(B1>B2) 2. Pindolol (B1=B2) |
|
3 nonselective B-blockers
(i.e. B1 = B2): Try Nonselective Pills |
1. Timolol
2. Nadolol 3. Propranolol |
|
2 non-selective ALPHA and B-antagonists:
|
1. Carvedilol
2. Labetalol |
|
what does Nebivolol do?
|
combines cardiac-selective B1-blocking with
stimulation of B3 r's, which activate NO synthase in the vasculature |
|
what is the antidote for Acetaminophen?
|
N-acetylcysteine
(replenishes glutathione) |
|
what is the antidote for ACHE inhibitors and organophosphates?
(2) |
Atropine followed by Pra-li-doxime (which DOES undo E of skel. musc. and CNS, unlike Atropine)
|
|
what is the antidote for basic amphetamines?
|
NH4Cl
(which acidifies urine, thereby trapping the basic amphetamines and excreting them) |
|
what is the antidote for anti-muscarinic and anticholinergic agents?
(2) |
Physostigmine (ACHE inhibitor = pro-ACH),
control hyperthermia |
|
what is the antidote for Benzo's?
|
Flumazenil
|
|
what is the antidote for B-blockers?
|
Glucagon
|
|
what is the antidote for Carbon Monoxide?
(2) |
100% O2,
hyperbaric O2 (^at a pressure greater than nl) |
|
what is the antidote for copper/arsenic/gold?
|
Penicillamine
|
|
what is the antidote for cyanide?
(3) |
Nitrite,
Thiosulfate, hydroxo-cobalamin |
|
what is the antidote for Digitalis?
|
anti-digoxin Fab AB's
|
|
what is the antidote for Heparin?
|
Protamine
(reverses heparin effects) |
|
what is the antidote for Iron?
(2) |
DeFEroxamine, deFErasirox
|
|
what is the antidote for Lead?
(4) |
1. EDTA
2. Dimercaprol 3. Succimer 4. Penicillamine |
|
what is the antidote for Mercury?
(2) |
Dimercaprol (BAL),
Succimer (Penicillamine for Lead, Arsenic, Copper, Gold) - you would not use Penicillamine for Mercury; (Dimercaprol for Lead, Arsenic, Gold, Mercury) - you would not use Dimercaprol for Copper |
|
what is the antidote for methanol or ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?
(first-line, second-line) |
Fomepizole
- second choice = ethanol, dialysis |
|
what is the antidote for Methemoglobin?
(2) |
Methylene blue,
Vit. C |
|
what is the antidote for opioids?
|
Naloxone
|
|
what is the antidote for Salicylates?
(2) |
HCO3 (bicarb - aspirin is an acid),
dialysis |
|
what is the antidote for TCA's?
|
NaHCO3
(alkalizes plasma, adds Na+ for heart) |
|
Aminocaproic acid is the antidote for:
(3) |
1. tPA
2. streptokinase or 3. urokinase |
|
what is the antidote for Warfarin/Coumadin?
(2) |
FFP if active bleeding/need immediate;
Vit. K (slower) |
|
coronary vasospasm occurs with:
(3) |
1. cocaine
2. Sumatriptan 3. ergot alkaloids |
|
drugs that cause cutaneous flushing:
|
VANC
1. Vancomycin 2. Adenosine 3. Niacin (B3) 4. Ca2+-blockers |
|
drugs that cause DCM:
|
"-rubicins"
|
|
Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT
|
Sotalol
Reserpine (anti-HTN) Macrolides Chloroquine (a quinidine anti-malarial) Protease inhibitors Quinidine Thiazides |
|
hot flashes:
(2) |
1. Tamoxifen
2. Clomiphene (hypothal. EST r' antagonist that stimulates ovulation) |
|
HYPERglycemia:
|
Taking Pills Necessitates Having Blood Checked
1. Tacrolimus (immuno-suppressant folowing transplant) 2. Protease inhibitors (-navirs) 3. Niacin (B3) 4. HCTZ 5. B-blockers 6. Corticosteroids |
|
hypothyroidism:
(3) |
1. Li2+
2. Amiodarone 3. Sulfonamides (antib's) |
|
as a prokinetic, what does Erythromycin cause?
(2) |
acute cholestatic hepatitis and jaundice
|
|
diarrhea:
|
Might Excite Colon On Accident
1. Metformin 2. Erythromycin 3. Colchicine (relieves pain in gout) 4. Orlistat (lipase inhibitor) 5. Acarbose |
|
focal-to-massive hepatic necrosis:
|
liver HAVAc
1. Halothane (volatile anesthetic) 2. Amanita phalloides (death cap mushroom) 3. Valproic acid 4. Acetaminophen |
|
TB drug that causes hepatitis:
|
INH
(Injures Neurons and Hepatocytes) |
|
pancreatitis:
|
Drugs Causing A Violent Abd. Distress
1. Didanosine (ddI) 2. Corticosteroids 3. Alcohol 4. Valproic acid 5. Azathioprine (imm-suppressant for transplants) 6. Diuretics (Furosemide, HCTZ) |
|
Pseudomembranous colitis:
(3) |
1. Clindamycin
2. Ampicillin 3. Cephalosporins (antibiotics predispose to superinfection with R C. diff) |
|
agranulocytosis (killing granulocytes):
|
Drugs CCCrush Myeloblasts and Promyelocytes
1. Dapsone (leprosy) 2. Clozapine 3. CBZ 4. Colchicine 5. Methimazole 6. PTU |
|
aplastic anemia:
|
Can't Make New Blood Cells Properly
1. CBZ 2. Methimazole 3. NSAIDs 4. Benzene 5. Chloramphenicol 6. PTU |
|
Direct Coombs-positive HmA:
(2) |
1. Methyldopa
2. Penicillin |
|
drug that can cause gray Baby Syndrome:
|
chloramphenicol
|
|
**hemolysis in G6PD**:
|
D PAINS
1. Dapsone (leprosy antib') 2. Primaquine (for malaria) 3. Aspirin and NSAIDs 4. INH 5. Nitrofurantoin (UTI antib') 6. Sulfonamides |
|
megaloblastic anemia:
(3) |
1. Phenytoin
2. MTX 3. Sulfa drugs |
|
thrombocytopenia:
(2) |
1. Heparin
2. Cimetidine (H2-blocker for PUD) |
|
class of hematologic drugs that can cause thrombotic complications:
|
OCP's
|
|
cinchonism:
(temporary deafness, ringing in ears, HA, rash) (2) |
1. Quinidine
2. Quinine |
|
Parkinson-like syndrome:
|
*ARM*
1. high-potency typical Antipsychotics 2. Reserpine (treats HTN by preventing DOPA leaving (VMAT)) 3. Metoclopramide (via D2 block) (antiemetic, pro-gastrokinetic) |
|
sez's:
|
I BITE 'M
1. INH 2. Bupropion 3. Imipenem/cilastatin 4. Tramadol (centrally-acting opioid) 5. Enflurane (volatile liquid anesthetic) 6. Metoclopramide |
|
tardive dyskinesia:
(2) |
1. typical antipsychotics (high-potency)
2. Metoclopramide (anti-emetic, pro-gastrokinetic) |
|
diabetes insipidus:
(2) |
1. Li2+
2. Demeclocycline (tetracycline antib') |
|
Fanconi syndrome:
(1) |
expired tetracycline
|
|
hemorrhagic cystitis:
(2) |
1. Cyclophosphamide
(treats leukemia and lymphoma) 2. Ifosfamide (alkylating agent for CA) - prevent by co-administering with mesna |
|
interstitial nephritis:
(3) |
1. PCN's
2. NSAID's 3. Furosemide |
|
SIADH:
(3) |
1. CBZ
2. Cyclophosphamide 3. SSRI's |
|
fat redistribution/central obesity/peripheral wasting:
|
fat PiG
1. Protease inhibitors 2. Glucocorticoids |
|
gingival hyperplasia:
|
PVC-N
1. Phenytoin 2. Verapamil (Ca2+ antagonist) 3. Cyclosporine (immunosuppressive) 4. Nifedipine (Ca2+ antagonist) |
|
hyperuricemia (gout):
|
Painful, Tophi, and Feet Need Care
1. Pyrazinamide 2. Thiazide diuretics 3. Furosemide 4. Niacin (B3) 5. Cyclosporine |
|
myopathy:
(8) |
1. fibrates
(treat hyperTG) 2. Niacin 3. Colchicine (for pain in gout) 4. Hydroxychloroquine (anti-inflammatory) 5. INF-a 6. Penicillamine (chelator) 7. statins 8. glucocorticoids |
|
osteoporosis:
(2) |
1. corticosteroids
2. heparin |
|
photosensitivity:
|
only *SAT Q* mins in the sun
1. Sulfonamides 2. Amiodarone 3. Tetracyclines 4. Q's |
|
global rash (SJS):
|
AASP
1. AED's (Ethosuximide, CBZ, Lamotrigine, Phenytoin, Phenobarbital) 2. Allopurinol 3. Sulfa drugs 4. Penicillin |
|
5 causes of DILE:
|
1. Hydralazine
2. Procainamide 3. INH (not as bad) 4. Minocycline 5. Quinidine |
|
teeth discoloration:
(1) |
tetracyclines
|
|
tendonitis, tendon rupture, and cartilage damage:
(1 class) |
FQ's
|
|
dry cough:
(1 class) |
ACEI's
|
|
pulmonary fibrosis:
BAM-B had pulm. fibrosis |
1. Bleomycin
(antib', Hodgkins) 2. Amiodarone 3. MTX 4. Busulfan (anti-neoplastic) |
|
4 with antimuscarinic effect:
|
1. Atropine
2. TCA's 3. H1-blockers 4. low-potency antipsychotics (C, T) |
|
Disulfiram-like rxn to alcohol:
(intense nausea, flushing, as if on Disulfiram as an alcoholic) (5) |
1. Metronidazole
2. certain cephalosporins 3. Griseofulvin 4. Procarbazine (anti-neoplastic) 5. 1st-gen sulfonylureas |
|
nephrotoxicity AND ototoxicity:
|
VALC
1. Vancomycin 2. Aminoglycosides 3. loop diuretics 4. Cisplatin (chemo) |
|
8 inducers of cytochrome P-450:
|
1. chronic alcohol use
2. Modafinil 3. Phenytoin 4. Phenobarbital 5. Nevirapine 6. Rifampin 7. Griseofulvin 8. CBZ |
|
8 substrates of cytochrome P-450:
Always, Always, Always, Always Think When Starting Others |
1. AED's
2. antidepressants 3. antipsychotics 4. anesthetics 5. Theophylline 6. Warfarin 7. Statins 8. OCP's |
|
12 inhibitors of P-450:
A cute Gentleman Cipped Iced Grapefruit juice Quickly And Kept Munching on Soft Cinnamon Rolls |
1. acute alcohol use
2. Gemfibrozil 3. Ciprofloxacin 4. Isoniazid 5. grapefruit juice 6. Quinidine 7. Amiodarone 8. Ketoconazole 9. Macrolides 10. Sulfonamides 11. Cimetidine 12. Ritonavir |
|
8 Sulfa drugs:
|
Popular FACTSSS
1. Probenecid (excretion of uric acid) 2. Furosemide 3. Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) 4. Celecoxib (cox-2 inhibitor) 5. Thiazides 6. Sulfonamide antibiotics 7. Sulfasalazine 8. Sulfonylureas (anti-diabetic) |
|
pts with sulfa allergies may develop:
(7 symps) |
1. fever
2. UTI 3. SJS 4. HmA 5. thrombocytopenia 6. agranulocytosis 7. urticaria (hives) - symps range from mild to life-threatening |