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253 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Alcoholic vomits gastric contents and develops foul-smelling sputum. What organisms are most likely?
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Anaerobes
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Middle-aged male presents with acute-onset monoarticular joint pain and bilateral Bell's palsy. What is the likely dz and how did he get it?
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Lyme dz; bite from Ixodes tick
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UA of a patient shows WBC casts. What is the diagnosis?
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Pyelonephritis
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Pt presents with "rose gardener's" scenario (thorn prick ulcers along lymphatic drainage). What is the infectious bug?
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Sporothrix schenckii
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25-year-old medical student has a burning feeling in his gut after meals. Biopsy of gastric mucosa shows gram (-)ive rods. What is the likely organism?
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H. pylori
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32-year-old male has "cauliflower" skin lesions. Tissue biopsy shows broad-based budding yeasts. What is the likely organism?
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Blastomyces
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Breast-feeding woman suddenly developes redness and swelling of her right breast. On exam it is found to be a fluctuant mass. What is the dx?
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Mastitis caused by S. aureus
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20-year-old college student presents with lymphadenopathy, fever, and hepatosplenomegally. His serum agglutinates sheep RBC's. What cell is infected?
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B cells (EBV; infectious mononucleosis)
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One hour after eating a custard at a picnic, a whole family began to vomit. After 10 hours they were better. What is the organism?
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S. aureus (produced preformed endotoxin)
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Infant becomes flaccid after eating honey. What organism is implicated, and what is the mechanism of action?
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Clostridium botulinum; inhibited release of ACh
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Man presents with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis. He had exposure to what virus?
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HPV
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Pt develops endocarditis 3 weeks after receiving a prosthetic heart valve. What organism is suspected?
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S. epidermidis or S. aureus
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55-year-old man who is a smoker and a heavy drinker presents with a new cough and flulike symptoms. Gram stain shows no organisms; silver stain of sputum shows Gran (-) rods. What is the dx?
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Legionella pneumonia
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After making clindamycin, pt develops toxic megacolon and diarrhea. What is the mechanism of the diarrhea?
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Clostridium difficile overgrowth
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What is the chemical composition of the cell wall that is specific to gram (+) bacteria?
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Teichoic acid
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What is the function of teichoic acid?
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Induces TNF and IL-1
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What factor is unique to gram (-)ive bacterial outer membranes?
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Endotoxin/LPS/LOS
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What are the 4 phases of the bacterial growth curve?
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Lag, Log, Stationary, Death
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What causes the growth plateau of the stationary phase?
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nutrient depletion slows growth
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What bacteria causes toxic shock syndrome? What is the responsible exotoxin?
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S. aureus; TSST-1
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Which bacteria produce A-B toxins?
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C. diptheriae; V. cholerae; E. coli; B. pertussis
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What are the clinical sx of C. diptheriae?
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pharygitis and pseudomembrane in the throat
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What is the mechanism of action of V. cholera?
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ADP ribosylation of G protein stimulates adenylyl cyclase; increases pumping of Cl- and H2O in the gut
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What is the classic symptom of V. cholera?
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rice water diarrhea
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What is the difference between heat stabile and heat labile E. coli?
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heat stabile: stimulates adenylate cyclase; heat labile: stimulates guanylate cyclase
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What is the mechanism of action causing the sx in B. pertussis?
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stimulation of adenylate cyclase (cough); inhibition of chemokine receptor (lymphocytosis)
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What is an endotoxin?
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a lipopolysaccharide found in the cell wall of gram (-) bacteria; it is heat stabile
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What substances secreted by endotoxins activate macrophages?
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IL1, TNF, NO
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What is the result of the activation of Hageman factor from Gram (-) endotoxin?
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stimulation of the coagulation cascade -> DIC
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Neisseria meningitidis ferments which sugars?
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Maltose and Glucose
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Neisseria gonococci ferments which sugar?
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glucose (Gonococci = Glucose)
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S. aureus produces what color pigment?
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yellow
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Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces what color pigment?
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blue-green
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Serratia marcescens produces what color pigment?
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red pigment
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What media must be used to isolate H. influenza?
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chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (heme)
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What media must be used to isolate N. gonorrhoeae?
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Thayer-Martin media
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What media must be used to isolate B. pertussis?
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Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
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What media must be used to isolate C. diptheriae?
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Tellurite plate, Loffler's medium, blood agar
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What media must be used to isolate M. tuberculosis?
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Lowenstein-Jensen agar
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What media must be used to isolate Lactose-fermenting enterics?
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Pink colonies on MacConkey's agar
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What media must be used to isolate Legionella?
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Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine
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What media must be used to isolate fungi?
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Sabouraud's agar
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Congo red stains for what product?
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Amyloid; apple-green birefringence in polarized light (because of beta-pleated sheets)
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Giemsa's stain is used to id which organisms?
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Borrelia, Plasmodium, trypanosomes, Chlamydia
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PAS (periodic acid-Schiff) stains what rpoduct and is used to ID what disease?
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stains glycogen, mucopolysaccharides; used to diagnose Whipple's dz
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Ziehl-Neelsen stains for what organisms?
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Acid-fast bacteria
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India Ink is used to stain for what bacteria?
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Cryptococcus neoformans
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Silver stain is used to identify which organisms?
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Fungi, PCP, Legionella
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What genetic process is involved in bacterial conjugation? What type of DNA is transferred?
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direct cell to cell DNA transfer; chromosomal or plasmid DNA
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What genetic process is involved in bacterial transduction? What type of DNA is transferred?
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any gene in generalized transduction; only certain genes in specialized transduction
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What genetic process is involved in bacterial transformation? What type of DNA is transferred?
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purified DNA is taken up by the cell; any DNA
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What genetic process is involved in bacterialtransposition? What type of DNA is transferred?
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DNA transfer to same of another chromosome or plasmid within a cell; DNA sequences "jumping genes"
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Which bugs are obligate aerobes?
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Nocardia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Bacillus (Nagging Pests Must Breathe)
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Obligate anaerobes present with what signs?
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foul smelling, difficult to culture, and produce gas in tissue
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What is common to all obligate anaerobes?
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lack catalase or superoxide dismutase making them susceptile to oxidative damage
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Obligate intracellular bugs need what component from their host? Which bugs are obligate intracellular?
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can't make own ATP; Rickettsia, Chlamydia
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Which bugs are facultative intracellular?
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Salmonella, Neisseria, brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia
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What are the four main forms of encapsulated bacteria?
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S. pneumoniae, H. influenza (esp. serotype B), N. meningitidis, Klebsiella pneumoniae
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What type of reaction is diagnostic for detection of an encapsulated bacteria?
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Postive quellung reaction; capsule swells in the presence of the anticapsular antisera
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Which class of bacteria form spores when nutrients become limited?
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Gram positive rods, "soil bugs" Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium perfringens, C. tetani
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Which bacteria are a-hemolytic?
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S. pneumoniae, Viridians strep (optochin resistant)
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What are the 4 main b-hemolytic bacteria?
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S. aureus, S. pyogenes (bactiracin sensitive), S. agalactiae, Listeria monocytogenes
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What is the function of catalase?
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Catalase degrades H2O2, an antimicrobial product
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Which catalase positive bacteria are coagulase negative?
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S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus (S. aureus does make coagulase)
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What is the virulence factor for S. aureus?
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Protein A
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What is the function of Protein A in S. aureus?
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binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting complement and phagocytosis
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What types of diseases are caused by S. aureus?
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Inflammaotry diseases - skin infecitons, organ abcesses, pneumonia; toxin-mediated diseases - toxic shock syndrome, scalded skin syndrome, rapid-onset food poisoning
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What is the classification of S. pyogenes?
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group A, b-hemolytic strep
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What are the immunologic sequelae from S. pyogenes?
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ARF and PSGN
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What is the main virulence factor in S. pyogenes?
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M protein
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S. pneumoniae is the most common cause of what four infections?
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Meningitis, Otitis Media (kids), Pneumonia, Sinusitis
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What are some characterisitcs of Group B strep?
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Bacitracin resistant, B-hemolytic, most often in Babies - causes pneumonia, sepsis, meningitis
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Lancefield grouping of bacteria is based on what factor?
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C-carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall
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What are the main sites of infection for S. epidemidis?
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prostheitc devices and catheters; component of normal skin flora
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What is the classification of Viridans strep?
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a-hemolytic; resistant to optochin
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What are the two main illness caused by viridans strep? Which organisms?
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dental caries (S. mutans), subacute bacterial endocarditis (S. sanguis)
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What is the classification of Clostridia species?
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Gram +, bacilli, spre forming, obligate anaerobes
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For the following Clostridium genus, state the type of toxin and its MOA: C. tetani
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exotoxin blocks glycine release from neurotransmitters causing tetanus
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For the following Clostridium genus, state the type of toxin and its MOA: C. botulinum
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heat-labile toxin that inhibits ACh release, causing botulism
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For the following Clostridium genus, state the type of toxin and its MOA: C. perfringens
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alpha toxin (lecithinase) that causes myonecrosis, gas gangrene or hemolysis
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For the following Clostridium genus, state the type of toxin and its MOA: C. difficile
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cytotoxin, an endotoxing that kills enterocytes causing pseudomembranous colitis; often 2' to antibiotic use
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What is the MOA of the toxin produced by Crynebacterium diptheriae?
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inibition of protein synthesis via ADP ribosylation of EF-2 (elongation factor)
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What are the signs/sx of diptheria?
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pseudomembraneous pharyngitis (grey-white membrane) with lymphadenopathy
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What is the only bacterium with a protein capsule?
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Bacillus anthracis (gram postiive, spore-forming rod)
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What are the signs/sx of Actinomyces israelii?
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oral/facial abcesses with "sulfur granules"; normal oral flora
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Nocardia asteroides, a gram positive and weakly acid-fast aerobe in soil causes what symptoms in what patients?
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pulmonary infections in immunocompromised patients
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What drug is used to treat Nocardia asteroides?
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Sulfa drugs
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What drug is used to treat Actinomyces?
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Penicillin
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Which bugs are inherently resistant to Penicillin G?
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Gram -ive bugs; outer membrane layer inhibits entry of Penicillin G and vanco
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What is the classification of N. meningitidis?
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gram -ive diplococci, coffee bean shaped
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What are the characterisitcs of N.meningitidis?
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polysaccharide capsule, maltose fermentor, vaccine, causes meningitis
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What are the characterisitcs of N. gonorrhiae?
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no polysaccharide capsule, no maltose fermentation, no vaccine, causes gonorrhea, septic arthritis, neonatal conjunctivitis, PID
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What are the illnesses caused by H. influenza?
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epiglottitis, meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia
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What is the classification of H. influenza?
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gram -ive coccobacilli
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what is the mode of transmission for H. influenza?
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aerosol
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Which subtype of H. influenza causes the most invasive dz?
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Type B
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What product of H. influenza allows it to survive in its sight of colonization
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IgA proteases
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What factors are needed for growth of H. influenza on chocolate agar?
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Factors V (NAD) and X (heme)
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What do you use to treat meningitis from H. influenza?
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ceftriaxone (3rd gen cephalosporin)
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What do you use to prophylatically treat those in contact with a pt with meningitis?
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rifampin
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What are the distinguishing features of enterobacteriacea?
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COFFEe: Capsular, O antigen, Flagellar antigen, ferment glucose, enterobacteriaceae
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What are the 7 main bigs in the family enterobacteriacea?
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E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia, Proteus
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What is the distinguishing feature between Shigella and Salmonella?
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only Salmonella is motile and can invade further and disseminate hematogenously; Shigella is more virulent than Salmonella
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Which bugs cause food poisoning?
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Vibrio parahemolyticus/vulnificus, Bacillus cereus, S. aureus, C. perfringens, C. botulinum, E.coli O157:H7, Salmonella
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Which bugs cause bloody diarrhea?
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Campy, Salmonella, Shigella, EHEC, Enteroinvasive EC (O157:H7), Yersinia enterocolitica, C. diff, Entamoeba histolytica
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Which bugs cause watery diarrhea?
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ETEC, V. cholerae, C. perfringens, protozoa (giardia, crypto), viruses (rota, adeno, norwalk)
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Which four bugs induce cAMP?
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V. cholerae, pertussis, E. coli, Bacillus anthracis
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For the following bug describe how the toxin induces cAMP: Vibrio cholerae
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permanently activates Gs - rice water diarrhea
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For the following bug describe how the toxin induces cAMP: Pertussis
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permanently disables Gi - whooping cough
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For the following bug describe how the toxin induces cAMP: E.coli
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ADP ribosylation that permanently activates adenylate cyclase -> increases cAMP
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For the following bug describe how the toxin induces cAMP: Bacillus anthracis
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edema factor, a bacterial adenylate cyclase increased cAMP
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All DNA viruses are dsDNA except…
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Parvoviridae (part of a virus)
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All DNA viruses are linear except (2)….
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papovaviruses and hepadnavirus (circular)
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All RNA viruses are ssRNA except…
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Reoviridae (dsRNA)
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Which RNA viruses are naked?
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Calicivirus, Picornavirus and Reovirus (Naked CPR)
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How do enveloped viruses acquire their envelope? What is the one exception?
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acquire it from the plasma membrane when they exit the cell; herpes acquires it from nuclear membrane
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Where does replication of DNA viruses occur?
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Nucleus (except poxvirus)
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Where does replication of RNA viruses occur?
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Cytoplasm (except influenza and retroviruses)
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What are the characteristics of most DNA viruses? (exceptions in parens)
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double stranded (parvo), linear (papova, hepadna), icosahedral (pox), replicate in the nucleus (pox)
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Which viruses are DNA viruses?
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HHAPPPy: Herpes, Hepadna, Adeno, Pox, Parvo, Papova
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Hepadnavirus causes what dz?
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HBV
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What are the 7 viruses caused by herpesvirus?
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HSV1, HSV2, CMV, EBV, VZV, HHV6, HHV8 (Kaposi's)
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What are the 5 genera of viruses in the family Picornavirus?
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PERCH: Polio, Echo, Rhino, Coxsackie, HAV
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What is the #1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children?
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Rotavirus
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What are the 4 genera of viruses in the family Paramyxovirus?
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Parainfluenza (croup), RSV, Measles, Mumps
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Influenza virus is a genus of what viral family?
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Othromyxovirus
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): hepadnavirus
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enveloped, partial circular DNA, HBV
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Herpesvirus
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enveloped; linear DS DNA; HSV1, HSV2, VZV, EBV, CMV, HHV6, HHV8
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Adenovirus
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naked; linear DS DNA; febrile pharyngitis, pneumonia, conjunctivitis "pink eye"
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Parvovirus
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naked; linear SS DNA (smallest DNA virus); B19 virus - aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Papovavirus
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naked; circular DS DNA; HPV, CIN, Cervical cancer, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in HIV pts
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Poxvirus
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enveloped; linear DS DNA (largest DNA virus); smallpox, molluscum contagiosum
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Picornaviruses
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naked; linear SS + RNA; icosohedral; Polio, echo, coxsackie, HAV (PERCH)
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Caliciviruses
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naked; linear SS + RNA; icosohedral; HEV Norwalk virus (gastroenteritis)
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Reovirus
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naked; linear segments DS RNA; double icosahedral; reovirus and rotavirus
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Flaviviruses
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enveloped; linear SS + RNA; Icosahedral; HCV, Yellow fever, Dengue, St. Louis encephalitis, WNV
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Togavirus
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enveloped; linear SS+ RNA; Icosahedral; rubella, eatern equine encephalitis, western equine encephalitis
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Retroviruses
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enveloped; linear SS+ RNA; icosahedral; have reverse transcriptase, HIV/AIDS, HTLV/T cell leukemia
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Orthomyxoviruses
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Enveloped, SS - linear segmented RNA; helical; influenza viruses
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Coronaviruses
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Enveloped; SS + linear RNA; helical; "common cold" and SARS
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Paramyxoviruses
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enveloped; SS - nonsegmented RNA; helical; Parainfluenza, RSV, Measles, Mumps
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Rhabdoviruses
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enveloped; SS - linear; helical; rabies
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Filoviruses
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enveloped; SS - linear; helical;Ebola/Marburg hemorrhagic fever - often fatal
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Arenaviruses
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enveloped; SS - circular; helical; LCV - lymphocytic choriomeningitis, meningitis
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Bunyaviruses
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enveloped; SS - circular; helical; hanta virus, California encephalitis
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For the following virus state its envelope status, DNA/RNA structure, capsid symmetry and important illness(es): Delta virus
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enveloped, SS - circular; helical; HDV
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What is the route of transmission for Legionella pneumophila?
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aerosol transmission from a water source; no human to human transmission
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What is the tx for Legionella pneumophila?
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erythromycin
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What comorbidities are most often associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
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burn infections and wounds
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What dzs does Pseudomonas aeruginosa cause?
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PSEUDO: Pneumonia, Sepsis, External otitis, UTI, Drug use and Diabetic Osteomyelitis
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What are the virulence factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
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Endotoxin (fever, shock) and Exotoxin A (inactivates EF-2)
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What is the tx for P. aeruginosa?
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aminoglycoside + extended spectrum penicillin (pipercillin, ticarcillin)
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What is the tx for H. pylori?
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Triple therapy: bismuth, metronidazole and tetracycline or amoxicillin
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For the following zoonotic bacteria state the dz it causes and the transmission/source: Borrelia burgdorferi
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Lyme dz; bite from Ixodes tick
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For the following zoonotic bacteria state the dz it causes and the transmission/source: Brucella spp.
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Brucellosis/Undulant fever; Unpasteurized dairy products, contact with animals
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For the following zoonotic bacteria state the dz it causes and the transmission/source: Francisella tularensis
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Tularemia; tick bite; rabbits, deer
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For the following zoonotic bacteria state the dz it causes and the transmission/source: Yersinia pestis
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Plague; flea bite; rodents, esp prarie dogs
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For the following zoonotic bacteria state the dz it causes and the transmission/source: Pasteurella multocida
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Cellulitis; animal bite; cats, dogs
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What factors would lead to a positive PPD test?
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current infection, past exposure, BCG vaccinated
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What factors would lead to a negative PPD test?
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no infection, anergy (steroids, immunocompromised, malnutrition)
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What is a Ghon complex?
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TB granulomas with lobar and perihilar lymph node involvement; reflective of 1' TB exposure/infection
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What is the hallmark of mycobacterium?
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acid-fast organisms
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What are the sx of TB?
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fever, night sweats, weight loss and hemoptysis
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What are the notable forms of mycobacteria?
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TB, kansasii, avium-intracellulare, leprae
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What are the two forms of leprosy (Hansen's Dz)? Which is worse?
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Tuberculoid, leptromatous; lepromatous is worse
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What is the reservoir for Leprosy in the US?
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armadillos
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What are the signs of leprosy?
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rash, loss of eyebrows, nasal collapse,lumpy earlobe, enlarged cheeks, loss of sensation
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Why does leprosy infect the skin and superficial nerves?
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Likes cooler temperatures
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What is the tx for leprosy?
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long-term oral dapsone
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What is the classic triad of Rickettsiae sx?
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headache, fever, rash
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What is the route of transmission for Rickettsia?
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arthropods
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What is the tx of choice for most rickettsial infections?
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Tetracycline (doxy)
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What bug causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
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Rickettsia rickettsii
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What bug causes Endemic typhus (from fleas)?
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Rickettsia typhi
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What bug causes Epidemic tyhpus (human body louse)?
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R. prowazekii
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What bug causes Q fever (inhaled aerosols)?
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Coxiella burnetti
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What is the difference in rash between thypus and spotted fever?
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typhus = thorax outward spotted fever = wrist and ankles inward to thorax
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Where is Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever endemic in the US?
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East coast
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A Weil-Felix reaction is positive/negative for which Rickettsial dzs?
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+ for typhus and spotted fever; - for Q fever (+ for both of the rash-causing infections)
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Which is the only bacterial membrane containing cholesterol?
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Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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What is the classic cause of atypical pneumonia?
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Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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What are the sx of atypical pneumonia?
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insidious onset, headache, nonproductive cough, diffuse interstitial infiltrate
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What is the tx for Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
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tetracycline or erythromicin (no penicillin since they do not have cell walls)
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Which form of Chlamydial bacteria enters the cell via endocytosis?
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Elementary body
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Which form of Chlamydial bacteria replicates in the cell by fission?
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Reticular body
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What are the sequellae of a C. trachomatis infection?
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arthritis, conjunctivitis, and nongonococcal urethritis
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What type of stain is necessary for to see chlamydia?
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Geisma stain
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Which organisms are spirochetes?
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Borrelia, Leptospira, and Treponema
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What organism causes Lyme dz?
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Borrelia burgdorferi (spirochete)
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What is the classic sx of Lyme dz?
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erythema chronicum migrans = "bulls eye" rash
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What are the three stages of Lyme dz?
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1: erythema chronicum migrans and flu sx, 2: neurologic and cardiac manifestations, 3: autoimmune migratory polyarthritis
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What is the Tx for Lyme dz?
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tetracycline
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What other dz, aside from Treponema pallidum, tests positive with VDRL?
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T. pertenue (Yaws)
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What are the sx of the 3 stages of syphilis?
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1': painless chancre, 2': disseminated dz with maculopapular rash, 3': gummas, aortitis, neuro
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Between VDRL and FTA-ABS which is the better test for treponemes?
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FTA-ABS are most specific, earliest positive, and remains positive the longest
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Which viruses are negative stranded viruses (need to go from neg to positive)?
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Arena-, Buny-, Paramyxo-, Orthomyxo-, Filo-, Rhabdo- (Always Bring Polymerase or Fail Replication)
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Which viruses are segmented?
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All RNA viruses: Buny-, Orthomyxo-, Arena-, and Reo (BOAR)
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Which genum are in the family Picornovirus?
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Plio-, Echo-, Rhino-, Coxsackie-, HAV (RNA viruses; PERCH)
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What are the dz caused by paramyxoviruses?
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Parainfluenza (croup), RSV, Measles, Mumps
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What are the sx of mumps virus?
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1 serotype causing Parotitis, Orchitis and aseptic meningitis
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Between genetic shift and genetic drift, which genomic modification causes pandemics?
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Genetic shift: reassortment of viral genome (human virus recombines with animal)
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What is the target of flu vaccines amantadine and rimantadine?
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M2 protein for Type A only
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What is the target of flu vaccines zanamavir and oseltamavir?
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neuraminidase inhibitors (Types A and B)
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What is the name for the characteristic cytoplasmic inclusions in neurons infected by rabies virus?
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Negri bodies
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How does rabies vaccine get to the CNS?
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Retrograde migration up the axons
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What is the route of transmission of Arboviruses?
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arthropods (mosquitos and ticks)
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What are classic examples of arboviruses?
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Dengue fever and yellow fever (Flavivirus, Togavirus, Bunyvirus)
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What virus causes yellow fever?
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Flavivirus
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What are the sx of yellow fever?
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fever, black vomitus, jaundice
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Which antimicrobial drugs block cell wall synthesis via inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking?
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Penicillins and Cephalosporins
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Which antimicrobial drugs block peptidoglycan synthesis?
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Vanco, Bacitracin, cycloserine
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Which antimicrobial drugs disrupt bacterial/fungal cell membranes?
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Polymyxins
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Which antimicrobial drugs disrupt fungal cell membranes?
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Amphotericin B, Nystatin, fluconazole/azoles
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Which antimicrobial drugs block nucleotide synthesis?
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sulfonamides, trimethoprim
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Which antimicrobial drugs block DNA topoisomerases?
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Quinolones
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Which antimicrobial drugs block mRNA synthesis?
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Rifampin
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Which antimicrobial drugs block protein synthesis at the 50S ribosomal subunit?
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macrolides, clindamycin, linezolid, chloramphenicol
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Which antimicrobial drugs block protein synthesis at the 30S ribosomal subunit?
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Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines
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Which antimicrobial drugs are bactericidal?
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Penicillin, cephalosporin, vanco, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinalones, metronidazole
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What are penicillins used for?
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gram + cocci/rods; gram - cocci, spirochetes
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What are the adverse reactions to penicillin?
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hypersensitivity, hemolytic anemia
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Penicllinase-resistant penicillins are used for what bug?
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non-MRSA S. aureus
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What drug should be combined with ampicillin or amoxycillin to enhance spectrum?
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clavulonic acid (penicillinase inhibitor)
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Ampicillin or amoxycillin are used to treat what bugs?
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Gram +/-
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Ticarcillin, Carbenicillin, piperacillin are used to treat what bug?
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Pseudomonas (TCP: takes care of Pseudomonas)
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What is the difference between 3rd generation cephalosporins and generations 1 and 2?
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3rd gen gets to CSF
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4th generation cephalosporin is used for what bug?
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Pseudomonas
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Azetronam is used to treat what bugs?
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GNRs (Kleb, Pseudo, Serratia)
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Vancomycin inhibits cell wall mucopeptide formation by binding to what portion of the cell wall?
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D-ala, D-ala
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What are the adverse reactions to vancomycin?
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Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, thrombophlebitis (NOT many problems)
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Aminoglycosides are used for what bugs?
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severe gram - rod; use with B-lactam antibiotics
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Vancomycin is used to treat what bugs?
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S. aureus and C. difficile
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Which tetracycline can be used in patients with renal failure?
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Doxycyline (fecally eliminated)
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Tetracyclines should not be taken with what other substances?
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milk, antacids or iron-containing preparations (inhibit absorption in gut)
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Demeclocycline is an antagonist against what hormone?
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ADH (use as a diuretic in SIADH)
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What is the major adverse reaction of clindamycin?
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Pseudomembranous colitis (C. difficile overgrowth)
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Sulfonamides (PABA antimetabolites) work by inhibiting what enzyme?
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dihydropteroate synthase
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What are the adverse reactions associated with sulfonamides?
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hypersensitivity, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient, kernicterus in infants; displace warfarin from albumin
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What is the adverse reaction to trimethoprim?
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megaloblastic anemia, leukopenia, granulocytopenia (TMP:Treats marrow poorly)
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What are the adverse reactions to fluoroquinalones?
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damage to cartilage (
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What is the mechanism of Rifampin?
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inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
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Other than TB, what may Rifampin be used for?
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Prophylaxis of meningococcal infection and for contacts of children with H. influ, Type B
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What are the 4 R's of Rifampin?
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1. RNA Pol inhibitor, 2. Revs up P450, 3. Red/orange body fluids, 4. rapid resistance if used alone
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Which antimicrobial is used for prophylaxis of meningococcal infection?
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Rifampin
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Which antimicrobial is used for prophylaxis of Gonorrhea?
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ceftriaxone
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Which antimicrobial is used for prophylaxis of Syphilis?
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Pen G
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Which antimicrobial is used for prophylaxis of hx of recurrent UTIs?
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TMP-SMX
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Which antimicrobial is used for prophylaxis of PCP?
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TMP-SMX
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Which antimicrobial is used for prophylaxis of endocarditis with surgical or dental procedures?
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penicillins
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What is the MOA of amphotericin B?
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binds ergosterol and forms membrane pores that allow leakage and disrupt homeostasis
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What is the main difference between Amp B and Nystatin?
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Nystatin is too toxic for systemic use; topical only
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What is the MOA of the azoles?
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inhibits the synthesis of ergosterol
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For what bugs are the azoles used?
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systemic mycoses
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