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135 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Mechanism of ketone body formation?
Depletion of oxaloacetate stalling TCA cycle: starvation and diabetes shunt oxaloacetate to gluconeogenesis, in alcoholism excess NADH shunts oxaloacetate to malate
Rate-limiting step of cholesterol synthesis? Inhibitor?
HNG-CoA Reductase (inhibited by statins)
Essential fatty acids?
Linoleic and linolenic acids (if linoleic acid is absent, arachidonic acid become essential)
Function of pancreatic lipase?
Degrades dietary TG in small intestine
Function of lipoprotein lipase?
Degrades TG circulating in chylomicrons and VLDLs
Function of hepatic TG lipase?
Degrades TG in IDL
Function of hormone-sensitive lipase?
Degrades TG stored in adipocytes
Function of LCAT (lecithin-cholesterol acetyltransferase)?
Esterifies cholesterol (2/3 of plasma cholesterol undergoes this process)
Function of CETP (cholesterol ester transfer protein)?
Transfers cholesterol esters to other lipoprotein particles
Function of apolipoprotein A-1?
Activate LCAT
Function of apolipoprotein B-100?
Binds LDL receptor and mediates VLDL secretion
Function of apolipoprotein C-II?
Cofactor for lipoprotein lipase
Function of apolipoprotein B-48?
Mediates chylomicron secretion
Function of apolipoprotein E?
Mediates uptake of remnants
Chylomicron function? Source?
Delivers dietary TGs to periphery; Secreted by intestinal epithelial cells
Signs of excess chylomicrons?
Pancreatitis, lipemia retinalis, eruptive xanthomas
Apolipoproteins of chylomicrons?
B-48, A-IV, C-II, E
VLDL function? Source?
Deliver hepatic TGs to periphery; Secreted by liver
Sign of excess VLDL?
Pancreatitis
Apolipoproteins of VLDL?
B-100, C-II, E
IDL function? Source?
Deliver TGs and cholesterol to liver; Formed from VLDL degradation
Apolipoproteins of IDL?
B-100, E
LDL function? Source?
Delivers hepatic cholesterol to periphery; Formed by lipoprotein lipase metabolism of VLDL in periphery
Signs of LDL excess?
Atherosclerosis, xanthomas, arcus cornae
HDL function? Source?
Reverse cholesterol transport (periphery to liver) and storage for apoC and apoE necessary for chylomicron and VLDL metabolism; Secreted from liver and intestine
Familial dyslipidemia type I: Pathophys? Increased lipoprotein? Lab blood findings?
Deficiency of lipoprotein lipase; Increased chylomicron; Elevated TG and cholesterol
Familial dyslipidemia type II: Pathophys? Increased lipoprotein? Lab blood findings?
Deficient LDL receptors; Increased LDL, Elevated cholesterol
Familial dyslipidemia type IV: Pathophys? Increased lipoprotein? Lab blood findings?
Hepatic overproduction of VLDL; Increased VLDL; Elevated TG
Fetal development within week 1
Implantation as blastocyst
When would you see embryonic bilaminar disk formation (epiblast and hypoblast)?
Before end of week 2
Fetal development within week 3
Gastrulation; formation of primitive streak, notochord, neural plate
Fetal development during weeks 3-8
Neural tube completes; Organogenesis, Period of extreme teratogen susceptibility
When would you expect to first see a fetal heart beat and formation of limb buds?
Week 4
Fetal development during week 8
Fetal movement, begins to resemble baby
When do fetal genitalia assume gender differentiation?
Week 10
Which portion of nervous system arises from alar plate?
Sensory (alar is dorsal)
Which portion of nervous system arises from basal plate?
Motor (basal is ventral)
Rule of 2's for 2nd week
2 germ layers (bilaminar disk), 2 cavities (amniotic and yolk sac), 2 placenta components (cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast)
Rule of 3's for 3rd week
3 germ layers (gastrula)
Rule of 4's for 4th week
4 heart chambers, 4 limb buds
From what layer does the primitive streak emerge? And what does it give rise to?
Forms from invagination of epiblast; Gives rise to mesoderm and endoderm
Derivatives of surface ectoderm?
Adenohypophysis; eye lens; epithelium of skin, ear, eye, nose; dermis
Derivatives of neuroectoderm?
Neurohypophysis, CNS neurons, oligodendroglia, astroglia, ependymal cells, pineal gland
Derivatives of neural crest?
ANS, DRG, melanocytes, adrenal medulla chromaffin cells, enterochromaffin cells, pia and arachnoid, celiac ganglion, Schwann cells, odontoblasts, thyroid C cells, laryngeal cartilage, skull bones
Derivatives of endoderm?
Gut tube epithelium and derivatives (lungs, liver, pancreas, thymus, parathyroid, thyroid follicular cells)
Derivatives of mesoderm?
Dura mater, connective tissue, muscle, bone, CV structures, lymphatics, blood, urogenital structures, serous body cavity linings, spleen, adrenal cortex, kidneys
What is the function of the notochord? What is its postnatal derivative?
Induces ectoderm to form neuroectoderm (neural plate); gives rise to nucleus pulposus of IV disks
Mesodermal defects = VACTERL (name 'em)
Vertebral defect, Anal atresia, Cardiac defects, Tracheo-Esophageal fistula, Renal defects, Limb defects (bone and muscle)
Postnatally, the umbilical vein becomes what structure?
Ligamentum teres hepatis
Postnatally, the umbilLical arteries become what structures?
MediaL umbilical ligaments
Postnatally, the allaNtois/urachus become what structure?
MediaN umbilical ligament
Postnatally, the notochord becomes what structure?
Nucleus pulposis of the intervertebral disks
What structure(s) is derived from the 1st aortic arch?
Part of the maxillary artery
What structure(s) is derived from the 2nd aortic arch?
Stapedial artery and hyoid artery
What structure(s) is derived from the 3rd aortic arch?
Common carotid artery and proximal part of internal carotid artery
What structure(s) is derived from the 4th aortic arch?
Aortic arch and proximal part of the right subclavian artery
What structure(s) is derived from the 5th aortic arch?
None
What structure(s) is derived from the 6th aortic arch?
Proximal part of pulmonary arteries and ductus arteriosus
From which germ layer are branchial clefts derived?
Ectoderm
From which germ layer are branchial arches derived?
Mesoderm and neural crest
From which germ layer are branchial pouches derived?
Endoderm
The following are from which branchial arch: Mandible, Malleus, incus, sphenoMandicular ligament, Muscles of Mastication, Myelohyoid, anterior belly of the digastric?
1
The following are from which branchial arch: Stapes, Styloid process, lesser horn of hyoid, Stylohyoid and posterior belly of digastric?
2
The following are from which branchial arch: Greater horn of the hyoid and stylopharyngeus?
3
Which two branchial arches form the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
3 and 4
All intrinsic muscles of the larynx are derived from the 6th branchial arch except for which muscle?
cricothyroid muscle
CN V2 and V3 are derived from which branchial arch?
1
CN VII is derived from which branchial arch?
2
CN IX is derived from which branchial arch?
3
The superior larygeal branch of CN X is derived from which branchial arch?
4
The recurrent laryngeal branch of CN X is drived from which branchial arch?
6
Which branchial arch makes no major developmental contributions?
5
Which branchial cleft develops into the external auditory meatus?
1st cleft
Which branchial pouch develops into the middle ear cavity, eustachian tube and mastoid air cell?
1st pouch
Which branchial pouch develops into the epithelial lining of the palatine tonsil?
2nd pouch
Which branchial pouch develops into the inferior parathyroids?
3rd pouch
Which branchial pouch develops into the the ventral wings of the thymus?
3rd pouch
Which branchial pouch develops into the the superior parathyroids?
4th pouch
Which branchial pouch develops into the the dorsal wings of the thymus?
4th pouch
DiGeorge Sequence (Syndrome) results from aberrant development of which branchial pouch(es)?
3rd and 4th pouches
What deformation results from the failure of the maxillary and medial nasal processes to fuse?
Cleft lip
What deformation results from the failure of the lateral palatine processes, the nasal septum and/or the median palatine process to fuse?
Cleft palate
Name the 4 embryologic structures from which the diaphram derives.
Septum transversum, Pleuroperitoneal folds, Body wall and Dorsal mesentery of esophagus
In embryologic development, what part(s) of the pancreas does the ventral pancreatic bud form?
Pancreatic head, uncinate process and main pancreatic duct (dorsal bud becomes everything else)
A neonate presents with narrowing of the 2nd part of the duodenum. What is the likely etiology?
Annular pancreas (ventral pancreatic bud abnormally encircles the 2nd part of the duodenum)
Which of the following organs does not arise from endoderm: stomach, lungs, spleen or endocrine glands of the liver/pancreas?
Spleen (arises from mesoderm)
A neonate presents with extrusion of abdominal contents through unfused abdominal (lateral body) folds. Dx?
Gastroschisis
A neonate presents with herniation of abdominal contents into the umbilical cord. Dx?
Omphalocele
When is the fetus most susceptible to teratogens?
Weeks 3-8
What is the effect of ACE inhibitors on a fetus?
Renal damage
What is the effect of cocaine on a fetus?
Abnormal development and fetal addiction
What is the effect of Diethylstilbestrol (DES) on a fetus?
Vaginal clear cell carcinoma
What is the effect of Iodide on a fetus?
Congenital goiter or hypothyroidism
What is the effect of Vitamin A on a fetus?
Extremely high risk for birth defects
What is the effect of Thalidomide on a fetus?
Limb defects (flipper limbs)
What is the effect of Tobacco on a fetus?
Preterm labor, placental problems, ADHD
What is the effect of Alcohol on a fetus?
Developmental retardation, microcephaly, facial adnormalities, limb dislocation, heart and lung fistulas. Possibly due to cell migration.
What are the two ways to make monozygotic twins?
One zygote splits to develop two amniotic sacs with a common chorion and placenta or one that splits early and develops two placentas, chorions, and amniotic sacs.
How are dizygotic twins formed?
Two separate eggs are fertilized and form individual placentas, chorions and amniotic sacs.
What is the major purpose of the placenta?
Primary site of nutrient and gas exchange between mother and fetus.
What is the fetal component of the placenta?
The inner layer is cytotrophoblast and the syncytiotrophoblast is the outer layer and secretes hCG.
What is the maternal component of the placenta?
The decidual basalis which is derived from the endometrium.
What are the components of the umblical cord?
2 arteries (deoxygenated blood) and 1 vein (oxygenated blood from placenta) and the urachus removes nitrogenous waste from fetal bladder
What embryonic structure gives rise to the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk?
Truncus arteriosus (TA)
What embryonic structure gives rise to the smooth parts of left and right ventricle?
Bulbus cordis
What embryonic structure gives rise to the trabeculated parts of left and right ventricle?
Primitive ventricle
What embryonic structure gives rise to the trabeculated parts of left and right atrium?
Primitive atria
What embryonic structure gives rise to the coronary sinus?
Left horn of sinus venosus (SV)
What embryonic structure gives rise to the Smooth part of right atrium?
Right horn of sinus venosus (SV)
What embryonic structure gives rise to the superior vena cava?
Right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein
What embryonic structure divides the truncus arteriosis into the aortic and pulmonary trunks?
Aorticopulmonary septum
What closes the interventricular foramen?
The fusion of the aorticopulmonary septum meets the muscular ventricular septum to form the membranous interventricular septum.
What forms the foramen primum?
The septum primum grows down towards the endocardial cushions.
What forms the foramen secundum?
Perforations in the septum primum
Which septum contains the foramen ovale?
Septum secundum
Which septum forms the valve for the foramen ovale?
Septum primum
Where is fetal erythropoiesis at weeks 3-8?
Yolk sac
Where is fetal erythropoiesis at weeks 6-30?
Liver
Where is fetal erythropoiesis at weeks 9-28?
Spleen
Where is fetal erythropoiesis after week 28?
Bone marrow
What are the three fetal shunts?
Ductus venosus, Foramen ovale, Ductus arteriosis
Where does the ductus venosus shunt blood?
From umbilical vein to IVC
Where does the foramen ovale shunt blood?
Oxygenated blood from reaching the heart from right atria to left so it can reach to head and body
Where does the ductus arteriosus shunt blood?
Deoxygenated blood from the SVC is expelled into the pulmonary artery and to the lower body of the fetus
What closes the foramen ovale?
The decreased resistance in the pulmonary vasculature causes increased left atrial pressure
What closes the ductus arteriosis?
Increase in oxygen concentration leads to a decrease in prostaglandin
What can be used to close a PDA?
Indomethacin
What can be used to keep a PDA open?
Prostaglandins
Embryology: 3 stages of kidney development? Function? Derived from which germ layers?
(1) Pronephros: filtration (wk 1-4, degenerates). (2) Mesonephros: interim kidney (wk 4-end of trimester 1). (3) Metanephros: permanent kidney. All derived from the mesoderm.
Embryology: GU structures derived from the (1) mesonephros and (2) metanephros?
(1) efferent ductules->epididymis->vas deferens. (2) ureter->collecting system->nephron tubules + Bowman capsule. Glomeruli arterioles just grow into Bowman capsule induced by Bowman nearby.
Embryology: what does the urogenital sinus form? Gonad formation/origin?
UG sinus forms urethra, bladder, allaintois (becomes median umbilical lig) (M & F) and vagina (F). Origin: endoderm (transitional epithelium). Gonads=mesoderm + primordial germ cells that migrate in from the Yolk Sac to spawn gametes.
Explain sex differentiation in embryology: 'default' development?
Default: mesonephric ducts->paramesonephric (muellerian) ducts (F). SRY gene (Y chrom) produces testis-determining factor (TDF)->testis. Sertoli cells->Muellerian Inhibiting Factor (MIF), which inhibits female devo. Leydig cells-->testosterone-> sustain mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts (epididymis, vas def).
Structures arising from the: (1) Mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts? (2) Paramesonephric (Muellerian) ducts?
(1) Epididymis, ejaculatory duct, vas deferns, seminal vesicles (SEED) + trigone (2) Fallopian tubes, uterus, rostral 1/3 of vagina, trigone.
M/F genital homologues (F/default given, you name M structure): (1) glans clitoris (2) vestibular bulbs (3) Glands of Bartholin.
(1) Glans penis (2) corpus spongiosum (3) Cowper glands
M/F genital homologues (F/default given, you name M structure): (1) urethral & paraurethral glands (of Skene) (2) labia minora (3) labia majora.
(1) Prostate (think: prostate is paraurethral in M) (2) penile urethra (and ventral shaft) (3) scrotum.